Navle Power Pages

Front 1

Place the following allergic skin conditions in order of frequency in dogs and cats

a) atopic dermatitis

b) food allergy dermatitis

c) Flea allergy dermatitis

Back 1

c) Flea allergy dermatitis

a) atopic dermatitis

b) food allergy

Front 2

Match the dermatitis to the signalment:

atopic dermatitis, food allergy dermatitis, Flea allergy dermatitis

a) no age predilection, usually over 6 mo

b) 1.5 3 yr most commonly

c) any age often < 2 yr

Back 2

a) no age predilection, usually over 6 mo= Flea allergy

b) 1.5 3 yr most commonly=Atopy

c) any age often < 2 yr= Food allergy

Front 3

Match the dermatitis to the Seasonality/onset:

atopic dermatitis, food allergy dermatitis, Flea allergy dermatitis

a) gradual onset, often starts in summer and as it worsens, signs in spring, fall

b) gradual onset, may be rapid, no seasonality

c) rapid onset, warm weather

Back 3

a) gradual onset, often starts in summer and as it worsens, signs in spring, fall= atopy

b) gradual onset, may be rapid, no seasonality= food allergy

c) rapid onset, warm weather= flea allergy

Front 4

Describe the distribution of lesions for flea allergy dermatitis in dogs

Back 4

caudal half of he body around dorsal lumbosacral region

tailbase

perineum

thighs

umbilicus

Front 5

Describe the distribution of lesions for atopy in dogs

Back 5

face

paws

distal extremities

ears

ventrum

Front 6

Describe the distribution of lesions for food allergy in dogs

Back 6

face paws

extremities

ears

ventrum

Front 7

Describe the distribution of lesions for flea allergy dermatitis in cats

Back 7

dorsum

perineum

medial and caudal thighs

Front 8

Describe the distribution of lesions for atopy in cats

Back 8

head

neck

paws

distal extremities

ears venture

Front 9

Describe the distribution of lesions for food allergy in cats

Back 9

often head and neck

may be more generalized

Front 10

Which of the dermatitis' should be ruled out first?

Back 10

1) flea allergy 6-8 wk strick flea control

2) ID/tx bacteria/yeast secondary pyoderma

3) R/O food allergy with 8-12 wk elimination diet

4) Atopy= dx of exclusion, evaluate with intradermal testing/ allergen specific IgE serology

Front 11

Which of the following are commonly seen with chronic renal insufficiency in cats?

a) dehydration

b) metabolic acidosis

c) hyperkalemia

d) uremia

e) Anorexia

f) Ca/P imbalance

g) polycythemia

h) hypotension

Back 11

a) dehydration

b) metabolic acidosis

c) HYPOkalemia

d) uremia

e) Anorexia

f) Ca/P imbalance

g) ANEMIA

h) HYPERtension

Front 12

T/F: increased P is often seen in cats with CRI

Back 12

true--> excessive PTH secretion, renal osteodystrophy, extraskeletal mineralization, progressive renal dysfunction

Front 13

What are 4 components to a dietary management for CRI cats

Back 13

1) low protein (decrease uremia)

2) high moisture content

3) palatable/sufficient caloric intake

4) decreased phosphorus

Front 14

Which of the following additional therapies may be used to manage CRI cats?

1) oral K supplement

2) ACE inhibitors

3) H2 blockers

4) Calicitriol

5) EPO

Back 14

all of em

Front 15

Diabetes mellitius is characterized by PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss and ___ in dogs and ___ in cats

Back 15

Diabetes mellitius is characterized by PU/PD, polyphagia, weight loss and CATARACTS in dogs and PLANTIGRADE STANCE in cats

Front 16

What 2 things are important for dx of DM?

Back 16

hyperglycemia

Glucosuria

(may seem metabolic acidosis)

Front 17

What type of diet can be used to help manage DM patients?

Back 17

Consistent diet (high fiber!)

(high protein, low carb for cats may be beneficial)

Front 18

What type of insulin is used for DKA patients initially?

Back 18

regular insulin is the fast acting insulin of choice

Front 19

You are presented with a cat that has labored breathing, wheezing and coughing. What disease is most likely? What radiographic finding would be suggestive of this?

Back 19

Feline asthma

bronchial lung pattern

Front 20

What are 2 characteristics of a bronchial pattern?

Back 20

train tracks

doughnuts

Front 21

What is the general treatment for feline asthma?

Back 21

Bronchodilators (albuterol)

Inhaled steroids (fluticasone proprionate)

Oral steroids for cats with consistent clinical signs

Front 22

FIP involves a mutation of what?

Back 22

feline enteric coronavirus

Front 23

FIP is typically a disease of young or old cats?

Back 23

younger (6mo-2 years)

Front 24

What are the two forms of FIP and what lesions would you see?

Back 24

1) wet (effusive) = widespread vasculitis, protein and fibrin rich fluid into pleural/peritoneal cavities

2) Dry= granulomatous run, hard to dx

Front 25

What is the key diagnostic to diagnosing wet FIP

Back 25

fluid analysis (dark yellow, sticky, viscous fluid that is high protein (globulins), A:G < 0.4

Front 26

What is the gold standard for dx of dry FIP? what is a key finding on bloodwork?

Back 26

Gold standard= histopath (perivascular pyogranulomatous inflammation)

Hyperglobulinemia on blood work

Front 27

T/F: FIP is a treatable dz

Back 27

false

Front 28

A outdoor cat presents with a lymphadenopathy, fever and emaciation. Bloodwork reveals a neutopenia what are 2 ddx?

Back 28

FELV

FIV

Front 29

How is FELV transmitted?

Back 29

Saliva

close contact, mutual grooming

Front 30

How is FIV transmitted?

Back 30

Bite wounds

Front 31

FELV ELISA is a ____ test while FIV ELISA is ____ test

Back 31

FELV ELISA is a ANTIGEN test while FIV ELISA is ANTIBODY test

Front 32

T/F: maternal antibodies/vaccination status will alter FELV tests

Back 32

false

Front 33

If a cat tests positive for FELV what should you do?

Back 33

retest in 1-3 mo, 978% will clear the infection develop antibodies and become antigen negative

Front 34

Other than ELISA how can you test for FIV?

Back 34

western blot (antibody)

Front 35

T/F: all kitten should be tested before 6 mo of age

Back 35

false: may have maternal antibody interference

Front 36

T/F: FELV and FIV are core vaccines

Back 36

false

Front 37

T/F: FELV vaccines should be given to cats already positive

Back 37

false: remain + despite vaccine, remain infectious despite vaccine, have same risk of developing cx

Front 38

T/F: FIV vaccine will result in positive test on commercially available tests

Back 38

true (vaccine in 80% effective)

Front 39

What are the core vaccines for cats?

Back 39

Feline viral rhinotrachetitis

calicivirus

panleukopenia

rabies

Front 40

What does the lifecycle/tranmissio of dirofilaria depend on?

Back 40

mosquitos

Front 41

T/F: heartworm antigen test is effective in dogs and cats

Back 41

false: effective in dogs and some cats

Front 42

What is the drug of choice for heart worm tx in dogs?

Back 42

melarsomine

Front 43

What is a monthly preventative that can be used for heartworm?

Back 43

ivermectin

Front 44

T/F: exercise intolerance, cough, dyspnea, ascites are common clinical signs in dogs/cats

Back 44

false: dogs

Cats (salivation, tachycardia, shock, heart worm associated respiratory disease= coughing, wheezing,

Front 45

What is the test of choice for heartworm in dogs? what does it test for?

Back 45

antigen test from adult female worms

Front 46

T/F: a positive antibody heartworm test in cats indicates infection

Back 46

false: indicates exposure but not necessarily infection

Front 47

What do you see on an echocardiogram in cats with heartworms?

Back 47

double lined echo density

Front 48

What protocol for melarsomine treatment in dogs in currently recommended regardless of heartworm disease stage?

Back 48

split protocol for adulticide therapy ( single injection followed in 4-6 wks by 2 injection 24 hours apart)

Front 49

What does HW treatment put dogs at risk for? how can you lessen the risk?

Back 49

at risk for thromboembolic disease

Confinement!

split protocol

Front 50

What bateria is thought to be associated with HW ? What is the treatment?

Back 50

wohlbachia

doxycycline, azithromycin, rifampin

Front 51

How do you tx hw in cats?

Back 51

corticosteroids

bronchodilators

(they do not tolerate melarsomine)

Front 52

What causes increased Ca and P mobilization from bone and promotes P excretion and Ca retention by the kidneys

Back 52

PTH

Front 53

what increases Ca absorption from the intestines and results in increased P as well

Back 53

calcitriol

Front 54

What reduces Ca levels by inhibition of osteoclastic bone resorption

Back 54

calcitonin

Front 55

DDx for Hypercalcemia (GOSH DARN IT)

Back 55

G- granulomatous disease, going young dogs

O- osteolytic disease (osteomyelitis, neoplasia)

S- spurious (lipemic or post prandial samles, lab error, hemolysis)

H- hyperparathyroidism (primary)

D- Drugs (thiazides, Ca containing P binders)
A- Addison's dz

R- renal failure

N- Nutritional (Hypervit D or A, excess Ca)

I- idiopathic (mainly cats)

T- tumors ( lymphoma, apocrine gland anal sac adenocarcinoma) bone osteolysis (multiple myeloma)

Front 56

T/F: furosemide promotes calciuresis

Back 56

true only give to hydrated patients

Front 57

What class of drugs promote calciuresis, decrease bone resorption, and intestinal absorption of Ca?

Back 57

glucocorticoids (pred, dexamethasone)

Front 58

What class of drugs inhibit osteoclast activity?

Back 58

bisphosphonates

Front 59

What is the fluid treatment of choice for hypercalcemia?

Back 59

0.9% NaCl

Front 60

What can be used as an emergency treatment for hypercalcemia?

Back 60

sodium bicarb (decreases ionized ca which is responsible for the clinical signs)

Front 61

A cat presents for weightless with polyphagia. The owner reports she has been more active lately. What are you thinking?

Back 61

hyperthyroidism

Front 62

what is the preferred screening test for hyperthyroidism?

Back 62

serum total t4

Front 63

What is the main side effect of methimazole?

Back 63

facial excoriations

(thrombocytopenia, anemia, agranulocytosis, hepatopathy)

Front 64

Which of the following are potential complications of thyroidectomy?

a) hypocalcemia

b) hypothyroidism

c) horner's syndrome

d) laryngeal paralysis

Back 64

all of em

Front 65

What is the behavior of injection site sarcoma?

Back 65

locally invasive (1/10000 vaccine injection)

Front 66

What specifically has been implicated in injection site sarcomas? Which vaccines?

Back 66

adjuvant, rabies and FeLV

Front 67

Injection site sarcomas have more _____, ____ with lymphocytes and macrophage, and more ____ ____ compared to naturally occurring sarcomas

Back 67

Injection site sarcomas have more NECROSIS, INFLAMMATION with lymphocytes and macrophage, and more MITOTIC FIGURES compared to naturally occurring sarcomas

Front 68

A biopsy of a vaccination lump is indicated when?

Back 68

1,2,3 rule

continues to grow 1 MONTH past vaccination

larger than 2 CM

still present after 3 MONTHS

Front 69

What is the most sensitive test for pancreatitis?

Back 69

PLI (pancreatic specific lipase)

Front 70

What is the diet of choice for chronic pancreatitis in dogs?

Back 70

low fat, highly digestable

Front 71

What are 3 breeds predisposed to EPI?

Back 71

GSD
colies

english setters

Front 72

What is the most common cause of EPI in the dog? cat?

Back 72

dog= pancreatic acinar atrophy

cat= chronic pancreatitis

Front 73

EPI is associate with small or large bowel diarrhea?

Back 73

small bowel (voluminous, yellowish gray feces, polyphagia, pica, weight loss, derm issues)

Front 74

Test for EPI?

Back 74

TLI (trypsin like immunoreactivity) will be low

Front 75

What is the cornerstone treatment for EPI?

Back 75

pancreatic enzyme supplementation

(also cobalamin, vit K, vit E, high digestible, low fiber diet)

Front 76

polydipsia is defined at > ____ ml/kg/day

Back 76

polydipsia is defined at > 100 ml/kg/day

Front 77

PU/PD ddx?

Back 77

Diabetes mellitus
Chronic renal insufficiency
Hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s)
Neoplasia (especially lymphoma, anal sac adenocarcinoma, multiple myeloma, and pheochromocytoma)
Hypercalcemia
Diabetes insipidus (Central or nephrogenic)
Liver Failure
Hyperthyroidism (mainly cats)
Endotoxemia (most commonly pyometra, prostatic abscesses)
Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison's)
Iatrogenic (administration of steroids, diuretics, levothyroxine, high salt diet)
Pyelonephritis

Front 78

What is the toxic principle of anticoagulant rodenticides?

Back 78

inhibit vitamin K1 epoxide reductase

Front 79

What are the vitamin K dependent factors

Back 79

2, 7, 9, 10

Front 80

Prolonged PT time occurs 1st because why?

Back 80

depletion of factor 7 (shortest half life)

Front 81

Cholecalciferol rodenticide result in increased ___

Back 81

Calcium (converted to vitamine D after ingestion)

Front 82

What electrolytes abnormalities are common with cholecalciferol toxicity?

Back 82

severe hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

Front 83

What is the primary clinical sign with cholecalciferol toxicity?

Back 83

acute renal failure

Front 84

What is the predominant electrolyte abnormality seen with urinary obstruction?

Back 84

hyperkalemia

Front 85

What are the classic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia?

Back 85

bradycardia

tall tented t waves

widened QRS

decreased to absent p wave

Front 86

How do you tx hyperkalemia?

Back 86

IV fluids

IV calcium gluconate (does not lower K just establish normal depolarization)

IV dextrose/insulin

sodium bicarb

Front 87

What are the two most common urinary stones in dogs and cats?

Back 87

struvite

calcium oxalate

Front 88

___ diet for cystine and irate stone, ___ diet for struvite

Back 88

ALKALNIZING diet for cystine and irate stone, ACIDIFYING diet for struvite

Front 89

What stones are radiolucent?

Back 89

urate

cystine

Front 90

reduced ___ diet for management of cystine, irate, canine struvite and to a lesser degree, calcium oxalate stones

Back 90

low protein

Front 91

In general do you want a high moisture content food or low moisture content food form management of urinary stones

Back 91

high moisture

Front 92

What usually induces struvite stone in dogs? What are 3 components to these crystals that we can try to decrease in the diet?

Back 92

induced by UTI

1) magnesium

2) ammonium

3) phsophate

Front 93

What urinary stone are the most difficult and unlikey to resolve?

Back 93

Ca oxalate

Front 94

What can be used to nine cystine to form a soluble compound?

Back 94

2-MPG (thiola)

Front 95

What breed is predisposed to urate crystals?

Back 95

dalmations

Front 96

What are 2 keys to dietary management of urate crystals?

Back 96

urine alkalinzer (K citrate, sodium bicarb)

allopurinol (decreases uric acid)

Front 97

T/F: cats typically get sterile struvite

Back 97

true