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113 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following terms is
interchangeable with fundamentals of
leadership?
1. Total quality leadership
2. Motivational theory
3. Basic principles of leadership
4. Principles of supervision
(3) The term fundamentals of leadership
refers to the art of influencing people to work
toward a specific goal.
When you realize you have made a wrong
decision, admit your mistake, accept the
responsibility, and
1. criticize others for the mistake
2. don’t let subordinates know of your
mistake
3. take steps to avoid repeating the error
4. do nothing else
(3) A successful leader will neither criticize
others for his or her mistake nor hide this
mistake from subordinates. Taking steps to
avoid repeating the error is the appropriate
action when an error has been committed
An effective leader should recognize that
people as individuals have different values
and beliefs.
1. True
2. False
(1) Since an individual’s values and beliefs
are influenced by childhood experiences,
ethnic background, and religious heritage, an
effective leader should take these differences
into account in his or her leadership.
Q4. Which of the following traits is/are common
to all successful leaders?
1. Initiative
2. Dedication
3. Accountability
4. All of the above
(3) Initiative, dedication and accountability
are traits that are common to all successful
leaders.
What level of human behavior is the most
important?
1. Esteem
2. Safety-security
3. Survival
4. Self-actualization
(3) Survival consists of the basics we need to
sustain life, thus it is the most important level
of human behavior.
When dealing with people, you can NOT
change which of the following human traits?
1. Wants
2. Thought processes
3. Skills
4. Emotional mak
(4) Every person has different wants and
desires; therefore, he or she has a different
emotional makeup that cannot be changed
Not understanding the technical language of
your rate results in which of the following
problems?
1. Poor communication
2. Failure to advance in rate
3. Misinterpretation of official publications
4. All of the above
(4) Without a proper understanding of the
technical language of your rate, you will be
unable to communicate effectively, and will
misinterpret official publications. These
problems will affect your advancemen
When reporting status to a superior there are
four “B’s” to remember: Be on time, Be
accurate, Be brief, and Be
1. gone
2. courteous
3. formal
4. forceful
(1) When reporting status, do not stretch the
truth nor take up more of your superior’s time
than is absolutely necessary
Which of the following is not an acceptable
sign of appreciation for a job well done?
1. A simple pat on the back
2. Promising an award
3. Positive counseling sheet
4. Meritorious captain’s mast
(2) You should never promise an award
because awards come through the chain of
command.
What type of feedback is given when job
performance standards are not being met?
1. Positive
2. Constructive
3. Evaluative
4. Disciplinary
(2) Constructive feedback is used help the
individual improve his or her performance
Which of the following is not a type of
advising and counseling session?
1. Personal
2. Career
3. Performance
4. Improvement
(4) The four types of advising and counseling
sessions are personal, career, performance,
and disciplinary
Why should improvements under the
continuous improvement program be
standardized?
1. To make the improvement available
to everyone
2. To recognize the individual that came
up with the improvement
3. To reduce expenditures for similar tasks
4. To maintain the improvements within
the command
(1) Improvements under the continuous
improvement program should be standardized
to make the improvements available to
everyone. Standardization results in ease of
use and will meet all applicable standard
What is one of the most important challenges
we face as petty officers when dealing with
subordinates
1. Training
2. Scheduling
3. Production
4. Administration
(1) Top performance from our Navy
personnel can be expected only when their
knowledge and skills are up to the
requirements for their billets
Which of the following is not a responsibility
of the training petty officer?
1. Develop monthly training schedules
2. Oversee preparation of training materials
3. Maintain training records
4. Assign personnel to fleet and service
schools
(4) Assignment to fleet and service schools is
not the responsibility of the training petty
officer. This decision is made by the Sailor’s
chain of command.
During a class discussion, what questioning
technique should be used?
1. Yes or no
2. Thought provoking
3. Closed ended
4. Intimidating
(2) By using thought-provoking questions in a
classroom discussion, all participants are
encouraged to voice their opinions and
thoughts about the material.
After instruction, when the trainee is required REVIEW QUESTION
physically to repeat the steps in a procedure,
what method of teaching should have been
used by the instructor?
1. Telling
2. Lecturing
3. Demonstrating
4. Discussing
(3) Procedures that will be physically
repeated by a trainee require a physical
demonstration in order for them to observe
and later perform the procedure.
Training aids should be in plain view when
classroom instruction begins.
1. True
2. False
(2) Exposed training aids may distract the
group’s attention from other steps in the
lesson.
After what inactive period of time must
members of the CTT repeat formal training?
1. 12 months
2. 18 months
3. 24 months
4. 30 months
(3) Members who are inactive in the CTT
process for a period of 24 months must repeat
formal training
The purpose of EMI is to correct a training
deficiency and deprive normal liberty.
1. True
2. False
(2) The purpose of EMI is to correct a training
deficiency; however, depriving someone of
normal liberty is not a purpose of EMI.
EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted on
the Sabbath.
1. True
2. False
(1) As per the Uniform Code of Military
Justice, EMI will not be assigned nor
conducted on the member’s Sabbath.
Your responsibilities as a petty officer end
when you are on liberty.
1. True
2. False
(2) Your responsibility as a petty officer never
ends. It is a 24-hour-per-day duty that can be
very trying at times.
When placing a person on report, you may
orally notify the COC.
1. True
2. False
(1) Placing a person on report means letting
the proper authority know of the apparent
misconduct. Your notification can be oral or
in the form of a written report.
Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution
is cited for which of the following areas?
1. Preservation of the accused’s rights
2. Right to see the results of inquiry
3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser
4. Communication with the accuser
(1) You should not question any suspect but
should leave that task to personnel with proper
training. However, if the situation does occur,
make sure you properly advise that person of
his or her rights under article 31 of the UCMJ
What is the first step a petty officer must do
when considering a complaint of wrong?
1. Tell the commanding officer
2. Seek advice from someone in authority
3. Put in a request chit
4. Start a preliminary investigation
(2) A complaint of wrong is a very serious
charge and should not be made lightly. The
first step is to seek advice from someone in
authority.
Who decides which type of court-martial to
award?
1. Accuser
2. Accused
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
(4) The captain decides the type of court
martial to award based on the nature, time,
and place of the offense based on article 16
of the UCMJ
Being late for a routine muster is an offense
that must be reported.
1. True
2. False
(2) This type of behavior usually is not
serious enough for placing a person on report.
However, it does require some form of action
by you such as counseling.
Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea
coat of both male and female Sailors measure
3 1/4 inches wide.
1. True
2. False
(1) Although male and female rating badges
are different sizes on other uniforms, the
rating badge on the pea coat is the same size.
While in uniform women may wear both a
necklace and a choker.
1. True
2. False
(2) While in uniform, women may use one
necklace or choker, but it must not be visible.
The purpose of quality of life programs is to
promote effective use of human resources.
1. True
2. False
(1) The various programs within this system
have been designed to allow individuals a
chance to develop their capabilities to the
maximum
The Personal Excellence Program focuses
externally on our nation’s schools through
what grade?
1. 12th
2. 8th
3. 6th
4. 4th
(1) The program focuses internally on Navy
personnel and, where feasible, externally on
our nation’s school age population, pre-school
through twelfth grade
The long-term goal of the Personal
Excellence Partnership Program includes an
effort to promote
1. Navy values
2. self-worth
3. responsible citizenship
4. both 2 and 3 above
(4) The long-term goal of this program is to
promote a sense of self-worth and to reinforce
in young people the knowledge, traits,
attitudes, and skills essential for responsible
citizenship and effective participation in the
American work force
FSCs are on all bases with which of the
following minimum number of active-duty
personnel?
1. 100
2. 500
3. 1,000
4. 1,500
(2) All bases with 500 or more active duty
members have installation Family Service
Centers. They are located throughout the
United States and at many overseas locations
FSCs offer programs for married sailors
ONLY.
1. True
2. False
(2) The program’s mission is to increase
readiness and retention of service members
by providing information, resources, and
services that support and enrich the lives
of Navy families as well as single sailors
Single parents in MFH may receive authority
for live-in housekeepers.
1. True
2. False
(1) Upon application to the appropriate
housing office, single parents may receive
authority for live-in housekeepers
Sexual harassment is NOT allowed in which
of the following situations?
1. On or off duty
2. On base/ship
3. Off base/ship
4. All of the above
(4) Sexual harassment is a type of sex
discrimination. Like all discrimination, it
is prohibited. It violates the standards of
honesty, integrity, and impartiality required
of all DON personnel
Although the common application of
fraternization applies to the officer-enlisted
relationship, fraternization also includes
improper relationships between officer
members and between enlisted personnel.
1. True
2. False
(1) Fraternization includes improper
relationships between senior and junior
officer members and between senior and
junior enlisted personnel
Which of the following responsibilities does a
petty officer have in the prevention of alcohol
and drug abuse?
1. Inform seniors of problems regarding
alcohol and drug use
2. Apply common sense
3. Educate personnel on the pitfalls of drugs
and alcohol
4. All of the above
(4) As a petty officer you have a
responsibility not only to yourself but also
to your shipmates and the Navy to help in
the war against alcohol and drug abuse
Which location offers intense and
comprehensive drug and alcohol rehabilitation
for active duty members?
1. Sick bay
2. ATF
3. ARC
4. All of the above
(3) The Navy’s ARCs provide a program of
intensive and comprehensive rehabilitation.
ARCs are for active duty Navy and Marine
Corps personnel who are suffering from
alcoholism.
To maintain physical readiness, a person
should exercise at least three times a week for
(a) at least how many minutes total duration
and (b) how many minutes of continuous
aerobic activity?
1. (a) 60 (b) 40
2. (a) 50 (b) 30
3. (a) 40 (b) 20
4. (a) 30 (b) 25
(3) All personnel are responsible for
maintaining an acceptable state of physical
readiness at all times. Physical conditioning
program should occur at least three times per
week. The conditioning activities should be
at least 40 minutes in duration of which at
least 20 minutes should be continuous aerobic
activity.
The Navy’s goal is for what percentage of
participation in stress management awareness
programs?
1. 75%
2. 85%
3. 95%
4. 100%
(4) Stress is a real part of Navy life and
learning to cope effectively is essential. The
goal is for 100 percent participation in stress
management awareness programs.
What article of the Constitution provides that
the executive power shall be vested in a
President of the United States?
(2) Article II, section 1, of the Constitution
provides that executive power shall be vested
in a President of the United States.
Which of the following is the most senior
officer in the armed forces?
1. Commandant of the Marine Corps
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
4. Secretary of Defense
(3) The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff,
while so serving, holds the grade of general or
admiral and outranks all other officers of the
armed forces.
Who serves as the spokesman for the
commanders of the unified combatant
commands?
1. Commander of the U.S. Joint Forces
Command
2. Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
3. Secretary of the Army
4. Secretary of the Air Force
(2) Subject to the authority, direction, and
control of the SECDEF, the Chairman of the
Joint Chiefs of Staff serves as the spokesman
for the commanders of the unified combatant
commands especially on the operational
requirements of their commands.
What office monitors and evaluates
congressional proceedings and actions that
affect the Department of the Navy?
1. Office of Information
2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy
3. Office of Program Appraisal
4. Office of Legislative Affairs
(4) The naval officer who heads the Office of
Legislative Affairs also monitors and
evaluates congressional proceedings and
actions affecting the DoN.
The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is
assigned to what immediate office?
1. Chief of Naval Personnel
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
(2) The MCPON’s assignment is to the
immediate office of the CNO. The MCPON
serves as the senior enlisted representative of
the Navy and acts as the primary enlisted
adviser to the CNO.
The U. S. Naval Forces Central Command’s
area of responsibility includes which of the
following areas?
1. Mediterranean
2. Middle East
3. Continental United States
4. South America
(2) As of June 1998, the U.S. Naval Forces
Central Command’s area of responsibility
consists of the Arabian Gulf and most of the
Middle East
The Pacific Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Arctic Ocean
3. U. S. west coast
4. Both 2 and 3 above
(4) The U.S. Navy’s Pacific Fleet covers more
than 50% of the Earth’s surface,
encompassing just over 1 million square
miles. Pacific Fleet ships are at sea in the
Pacific, Indian, and Arctic oceans from the
west cost of the United States to the Arabian
Gulf.
What command plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel to meet manpower requirements?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. CNET
3. DIRSSP
4. COMNAVDOCCOM
(1) CHNAVPERS plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel, including that of the Naval Reserve
to meet manpower requirements determined
by the Chief of Naval Operations.
What command acquires and disposes of real
estate for the Navy and manages Navy family
housing?
1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
(3) COMNAVFACENGCOM acquires and
disposes of real estate for the Navy and
manages Navy family housing.
What command is responsible for shore-based
education and training of Navy, certain
Marine Corps, and other personnel?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. BUMED
3. DIRSSP
4. CNET
(4) CNET is responsible for assigned
shore-based education and training of Navy,
certain Marine Corps, and other personnel.
Education and training efforts support the
naval shore establishment, Naval Reserve
program, and interservice training programs
What command enhances the war-fighting
capability of the Navy and Marines by arming
our Sailors, Marines, and civilians with the
knowledge they need to save lives and
preserve resources?
1. COMNAVSAFECEN
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
4. ONI
(1) COMNAVSAFECEN arms our Sailors,
Marines, and civilians with the knowledge
they need to save lives and preserve
resources. This mission is accomplished by
investigating and advocating new methods,
technology, and initiatives to improve the
safety process
The objective of any safety program is to
improve operational readiness.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The objective of any safety program
is to improve operational readiness by
reducing personnel deaths and injuries and by
decreasing material loss and damage.
Who is responsible for mishap prevention
training and maintaining appropriate records?
1. Executive officer
2. Command master chief
3. Division safety petty officer
4. All hands
(3) The division safety petty officer is
responsible for conducting assigned division
mishap prevention training and maintaining
appropriate records.
What is the purpose of the command safety
council?
1. Mandate safety policy
2. Enforce safety policy
3. Develop recommendations on safety
policy
4. Conduct safety training
(3) On the command level, the safety council
convenes monthly to develop
recommendations for policy on safety matters
and to analyze progress of the overall safety
program.
Which of the following items promotes safety
awareness?
1. Posters
2. Caution signs
3. Inspections
4. All of the above
(4) You can promote safety through the use of
posters, periodic safety patrols or inspections,
and through the use of warning and caution
signs.
The number of tag-out logs required depends
on the size of the ship.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The number of tag-out logs required
depends on the ship size. For instance, larger
ships may require a separate log for each
department while a minesweeper may only
require one tag-out log for the whole ship
After the tags are cleared and the record sheet
is filled out, where should you place the
sheet?
1. At the front of the tag-out log
2. At the back of the tag-out log in the
cleared section
3. In the index/audit record
4. In the documentation file
(2) After the tags have been cleared and the
record sheet is properly filled out for the
removal of the tags, place the sheet in the
back of the tag-out log in the cleared section
for destruction at a later time.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
passed a regulation that requires all
civilian and military employees of the federal
government to comply with what regulation?
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
2. HazardMaterial and Refuse Management
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
(3) The Hazard Communication Standard was
passed to ensure the safety of every civilian
and military employee of the federal
government.
When personnel are working with hazardous
material, supervisors are NOT responsible for
ensuring that approved personal protective
clothing and equipment are maintained.
1. True
2. False
(2) False. As a supervisor you are responsible
for the welfare and safety of your personnel.
When handling HAZMAT, protective clothing
and equipment must be used and maintained.
When working with solvents, which of the
following actions should you take?
1. Make sure the space in which you are
working does not have adequate
ventilation
2. Remove protective clothing if it gets too
hot
3. Leave spilled solvents on the deck
4. Check the labels on all containers of liquid
(4) Check the labels on all containers. In
dealing with the hazards involved in solvents,
you should always follow all safety
precautions that pertain to hazardous material.
Most cleaning compounds do NOT contain
toxic substances.
1. True
2. False
(2) False. Most solvents are toxic, and with a
few exceptions, are flammable.
Absorbents used in cleaning, applying, or
packing hazardous materials will be treated
and disposed of using the same precautions
followed for the material they absorbed.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. Absorbents used in cleaning,
applying, or packing HAZMATS should be
treated using the same precautions followed
for the hazardous material they absorbed.
MOPP procedures used to establish levels of
readiness for a chemical agent attack are
flexible.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. MOPP procedures allow the CO to
adapt the requirements for protective clothing
and equipment to the degree of the threat and
working conditions at any given time.
The command decision to implement each
level of MOPP must be the result of a risk
assessment.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. Risk is the assessed difference
between the threat level and the activation of
appropriate levels of shipboard
countermeasures.
The risk of a CBR threat can be categorized
into how many levels of probability?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
(4) There are four MOPP levels of
probability.
The term MOPP stands for Mission
Organization Protective Plan.
1. True
2. False
(2) False. MOPP stands for Mission Oriented
Protective Posture.
Readiness condition III (wartime steaming) is
set during what MOPP level?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
(1) A collective activity during MOPP level 1
is to set readiness condition III.
Each decontamination station is divided into
how many parts?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
(2) Each decontamination station is divided
into two parts: (1) a contaminated or unclean
section and (2) a clean section.
The closure log is maintained at all times.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. The closure log is maintained at all
times, whether the ship is in port or under
way.
DCPOs are responsible for maintaining
damage control fittings and equipment.
1. True
2. False
(1) True. DCPOs are charged with ensuring
that the material condition of spaces assigned
to them is maintained according to the
command’s damage control, fire fighting, and
defense procedures.
How many digits in the NSN designate the
FSC?
1. 2
2. 4
3. 9
4. 13
(2) The first 4 digits of the NSN make up the
FSC. In 5330 00 010 4960 the first 2 digits of
the FSC are called the FSC group, and the last
2 digits are called the class.
What is the most common number used to
identify material?
1. Navy item control number
2. Local item control number
3. National stock number
4. NATO stock number
(3) All material purchased and maintained by
the federal government is maintained by
national stock number
Is the cognizance symbol a part of the
national stock number?
1. Yes
2. No
(No) Although NOT part of the stock number,
the cognizance symbol may be prefixed to the
stock number in some supply publications.
However, the cog symbol is not prefixed to
the stock number on supply documents,
forms, and records.
Which of the following items would require a
SMIC?
1. Office supplies
2. Firefighting equipment parts
3. Parts designed for nuclear plants
4. Aircraft engine parts
(3) Items specially designed, manufactured,
and tested for use in nuclear reactor plants,
which require special handling, machining,
and so forth before being installed and used
require a SMIC.
The COSAL is both a technical and supply
document.
1. True
2. False
(1) Its technical nomenclature operating
characteristics, technical manuals, and so
forth are described. It is a supply document
in that the COSAL provides a complete list of
parts required to operate and maintain the
equipment.
Cryptographic, or cryptologic items are listed
in the ML-N.
1. True
2. False
(2) The ML-N omits cryptographic and
cryptologic items which are listed in security
classified catalogs produced by the respective
DoD agencies.
MILSTRIP is used for which of the following
transactions?
1. Requisitioning material
2. Issuing material
3. Cancellation of material requests
4. All of the above
(4) As the name implies, MILSTRIP is used
for all transactions from requisitioning of
material to issuing the material
Which of the following forms is/are used to
order material?
1. DD Form 1348
2. DD Form 1348-6
3. DD Form 1149
4. All of the above
(4) All of the listed documents are MILSTRIP
requisitioning documents used to order
material.
If the NSN is not available for a repair part,
what form should you use to requisition the
part?
1. NAVSUP Form 1250-1
2. DD Form 1348
3. DD Form 1348-6
4. DD Form 1149
(3) The bottom section of the DD Form
1348-6 permits the inclusion of all available
technical or descriptive data. This data will
assist the supply source in the identification
and procurement of the requisitioned item.
The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators.
1. True
2. False
(2) The priority designator is determined by
using the table of priority designators.
What is the lowest two-digit priority
designator?
1. 01
2. 11
3. 13
4. 15
(4) The priority designator is based on a scale
of 01 to 15 with 01 being the highest and 15
being the lowest priority
Cannibalizing inoperative equipment is an
authorized practice to obtain replacement
parts.
1. True
2. False
(2) Do not cannibalize components you might
use sometime in the future.
What is the minimum number of paragraphs
for a unit of information in naval
correspondence?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
(1) No rule exists about the number of
paragraphs one unit of information should
contain. No matter how many paragraphs you
write, be sure to follow the rules for
organization and continuity
The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position is not required to personally sign
which of the following documents?
1. Those which establish policy
2. Those which change policy
3. Ship’s deck log
4. Special liberty chit
(4) The CO, OIC, or person acting in either
position must sign the following documents:
those which establish policy, those which
center on changes to the command’s mission,
and those required by law for regulation such
as the ship’s deck log.
When is the POOW the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD?
1. At sea
2. In port
3. On watch on the bridge
4. On watch in battle conditions
(2) The POOW is the primary enlisted
assistant to the OOD when the ship is in port.
The POOW assists the OOD in carrying out
the ship’s daily routine and ensuring the
security and safety of the ship
At times deck logs may be used in which
of the following legal actions?
1. Naval courts
2. Admiralty proceedings
3. Civilian courts
4. All of the above
(4) A ship’s deck log has both historical
importance and legal standing. It may be
used at times in naval, admiralty, and civil
courts. In an incident involving the ship, the
log may be the only available evidence upon
which to base a legal decision.
The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the
1. OOD
2. JOOD
3. POOW
4. CDO
(1) The overall responsibility for the deck log
belongs to the OOD. OODs must sign the
deck log at the end of the watch to show relief
of the watch and validity of entries.
In the case of a bomb threat what is the key
to disarming the situation and avoiding
catastrophe?
1. Information
2. Knowledge
3. Security force
4. MAA force
(1) In the case of a bomb threat, information
is the key to disarming and avoiding
catastrophe. Information such as who, what,
when, and most certainly, where, should be
obtained.
When the pistol has a lanyard attached, what
must be done during exchange of the pistol to
the next watch stander?
1. Keep the lanyard around your neck until
your relief has positive control of the pistol
2. Keep the lanyard at your side so it won’t
get in the way
3. Keep the lanyard in your hand that doesn’t
hold the pistol
4. Detach the lanyard from the weapon
during the exchange
(1) If the pistol has a lanyard attached to it,
keep the lanyard around your neck until your
relief has positive control of the pistol. Then
remove the lanyard from around your neck
and place it around the neck of your relief.
This effort prevents the pistol from being
dropped and damaged.
Which of the following activities is NOT
considered a special evolution?
1. Weapons handling
2. Refueling
3. Diving operations
4. Mess operations
(4) Special evolutions involve many out of
the routine events that occur aboard ship.
Side boys are NOT paraded during which
of the following times?
1. Between sunset and 0800
2. Meal hours
3. General drills
4. All of the above
(4) Side boys are not paraded on Sunday or
on other days between sunset and 0800 or
during meal hours of the crew, general drills
and evolutions, and periods of regular
overhaul, except in honor of civil officials and
foreign officers
The heavy weather bill will be placed in
effect if the forecast indicates a hurricane
approaching.
1. True
2. False
(1) In any periods of actual or forecasted high
winds and seas, hurricanes, or tidal waves, the
heavy weather bill will be in effect
When handling a thermometer, touching the
lower part of the glass containing the liquid
will not affect the temperature reading.
1. True
2. False
(2) The heat from your body can affect the
height of the liquid column and give an
erroneous temperature reading.
Winds at 39 to 54 miles per hour indicate
what warning condition?
1. Small craft
2. Gale
3. Storm
4. Hurricane
(2) Winds measured at 39 to 54 miles per
hour constitute a gale warning
As the Petty Officer of the Watch you are
NOT responsible for personnel throwing trash
over the side into the water in your presence.
1. True
2. False
(2) As the POOW, you are responsible for
reporting any kind of pollution.
How many minutes before sunset should the
ship’s anchor lights be tested?
1. 60
2. 30
3. 20
4. 15
(2) To ensure the lights are working properly,
all lights must be checked 30 minutes before
sunset.
Which of the following factors will determine
if a PO3 is assigned as a section leader?
1. Size of the command
2. Number of personnel assigned to your
duty section
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Number of the departments in the
command
(3) Depending on the size or class of the ship,
you may not be assigned as a section leader
until you become a second class petty officer.
Aboard larger ships with large sections you
may have to wait until you become a first
class petty officer. Therefore, being assigned
as a section leader depends upon the size of
command and number of personnel in your
section.
Which, if any, of the following
responsibilities belong to the police petty
officer?
1. Apprehending violators
2. Keeping the quarterdeck clear of
unauthorized personnel
3. Serving as court liaison
4. None of the above
(4) The police petty officer’s duties
encompass areas such as cleanliness of
divisional berthing and (4) The police petty officer’s duties
encompass areas such as cleanliness of
divisional berthing and stowage areas, holding
reveille, maintaining silence after taps and
maintaining order.
After apprehending members of the opposite
sex, what should be done as soon as possible?
1. Communicate immediately with
headquarters for instructions
2. Request a member of the same sex
to make apprehension
3. Request a member of the same sex
to interrogate
4. Interrogate apprehended member
yourself
(1) Any time you apprehend a member of the
opposite sex, communicate immediately with
headquarters for instructions.
Which of the following entities make up a
platoon?
1. Two or more squads
2. Platoon headquarters
3. Guide
4. All of the above
(4) A platoon consists of two or more squads,
a platoon headquarters, and a guide.
For quick time, at the command MARCH,
step off smartly with the left foot and
continue the march in steps of what length in
inches?
1. 25
2. 30
3. 35
4. 40
(2) Quick time is cadence at 120 steps (12,
15, or 30 inches in length) per minute.
As you face a formation, the tallest person
should be in which of the following
positions?
1. Middle of the formation
2. On your right
3. On your left
4. End closest
(3) Usually, the tallest person will be on your
left as you face the formation.
An inspection is more informal than quarters.
1. True
2. False
(2) Quarters is a little more informal than an
inspection.
Gale warning.

A.Up to 38 miles per hour
B.39 to 54 miles per hour
C.55 to 73 miles per hour
D.74 miles per hour and above
B.39 to 54 miles per hour
Hurricane warning

A.Up to 38 miles per hour
B.39 to 54 miles per hour
C.55 to 73 miles per hour
D.74 miles per hour and above
D.74 miles per hour and above
Small craft warning

A.Up to 38 miles per hour
B.39 to 54 miles per hour
C.55 to 73 miles per hour
D.74 miles per hour and above
A.Up to 38 miles per hour
Storm warning with tropical winds

A.Up to 38 miles per hour
B.39 to 54 miles per hour
C.55 to 73 miles per hour
D.74 miles per hour and above
C.55 to 73 miles per hour
As POOW, you will be required to make
sure the anchor lights and the aircraft
warning lights are turned on at sunset
and turned off at sunrise when the ship
is in which of the following conditions?
1. Moored
2. Under tug support
3. At sea
4. Piloted through narrow waterways
1. Moored
The anchor lights must be visible on a clear
night for how many nautical miles?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
3. 3
The anchor ball, displayed in the forward
part of the ship, is what color(s)?
1. Red
2. Orange
3. Black
4. Black and white
3. Black
What weather condition(s) does an
anemometer measure?
1. Temperature and pressure
2. Wind speed and direction
3. Atmospheric temperature
4. Speed of ocean currents
3. Atmospheric temperature
When there are five rounds in a magazine,
you can see the brass casing of a bullet in
what opening from the bottom of the
magazine?
1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth
3. Third
When a visitor is ready to leave the ship,
the guard presents arms; all persons on the
quarterdeck salute; and ruffles and flourishes,
followed by music, is sounded. What happens
next?
1. “Two” is sounded
2. Anthem is played
3. Flag or pennant is displayed
4. Visitor is piped over the side
4. Visitor is piped over the side