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108 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What program ensures that commands do not wait for discriminatory incidents to occur before taking corrective action?
(Command Managed Equal Opportunity)
What Naval units are required to have a CMEO Program?
(All units)
Whose responsibility is it to ensure a positive equal opportunity program exists within the command?
(The CO)
At what level is the CMEO program managed?
(At the command level)
What makes equal opportunity a reality within the command?
(Command-level control)
At what level should EO issues be handled?
(At the lowest level possible)
From what two perspectives can equal opportunity be viewed?
(Administrative and Personnel)
What is the purpose of the Command Assessment Team (CAT)?
(To assess EO within the command)
What is the purpose of the Command Training Team (CTT)?
(To provide instruction on service member’s rights such as EEO and Navy Rights and Responsibility Workshops)
What tool is an efficient way to collect data?
(Surveys)
What tool provides information that is not available in records?
(Interviews)
This tool provides a means of determining what people actually or how they behave and interact?
(Observation)
What are the three methods that commands may use to enforce equal opportunity?
(Warnings; NJP; and Separation)
Punishment for an offense must be imposed within after the offense?
(Two years)
What is the NAVPERS 1626/7 otherwise known as?
(Report and Disposition of Offenses)
What article of the UCMJ explains one’s rights?
(Article 31)
How shall multiple offenses under the UCMJ be documented on the NAVPERS 1626/7?
(By the use of Arabic numerals)
What manual gives advice on pre-mast restraint?
(The JAG Manual)
When may an individual request a court martial in lieu of mast?
(When the accused is not attached to or embarked on a vessel)
What is the role of the PIO in an investigation?
(To gather facts about the case and the background of the accused)
What section of the NAVPERS 1626/6 does the PIO complete?
(E)
When is the XO authorized to administer punishment to an offender?
(Never)
What is the only requirement the accused must meet in requesting a court martial rather than Captain’s Mast?
(It must be made before punishment is imposed)
How many different type of punishment may be awarded at mast?
(9)
What is the least severe form of denying liberty?
(Restriction)
What article of Navy Regulations prohibits persons under arrest in quarters from exercising authority over subordinates?
(Article 1020)
Correctional custody may be awarded to whom?
(Unrated personnel only)
Confinement on bread and water may only be awarded to what service members?
(Non-rated on vessels)
What is the maximum length of time that an individual may be awarded confinement on bread and water?
(Three days)
How many grades may an individual be reduced at a single appearance at mast?
(One)
What is considered the most severe form of NJP?
(Reduction in grade)
Service members may not be awarded extra duty on but may be awarded extra duty on holidays?
(Sundays)
Detention of Pay cannot last longer than______________?
(One year)
How long can commanders defer confinement on bread and water or correctional custody?
(15 days)
How long does and individual have to appeal a decision of NJP?
(5 days)
What is the navy’s most effective detection and deterrent to the use of drugs?
(Urinalysis)
Recruits are tested within how many hours of reporting to boot camp?
(48)
In 1986 approximately how many urine samples were tested throughout the navy?
(2 million)
What is the navy’s policy on drug use?
(Zero tolerance)
Some commonly used drug paraphernalia would be what?
(Cotton balls; bent spoons and syringes)
Heroin is manufactured from what drug?
(Morphine and is 10 times stronger than morphine)
What is the number one abused drug in the United States?
(Alcohol)
Why does alcohol quickly affect the central nervous system?
(Because it is directly absorbed into the blood stream)
What indicator do most states use to determine if someone is intoxicated or not?
(Blood Alcohol Level)
How does alcohol affect the taking of prescription drugs?
(It causes the drug to be metabolized slower causing the drug to last longer in the system)
How does the navy define alcoholism?
(Depending on alcohol psychologically and or physiologically)
What technique does the navy use to treat alcoholism?
(The method that matches the needs of the person to the appropriate therapy)
What stigma is usually attached to alcoholism?
(It is a moral weakness rather than a disease)
What is the maximum amount of time that a person can be assigned to a Level II counseling program?
(4 weeks)
How many alcohol rehabilitation centers does the navy operate?
(4)
Who are the only individuals that need to know of a drug dog inspection?
(The handler and the CO)
Level III is residential therapy that last normally lasts for how many weeks?
(6)
A second Level III stay may be recommended by the Co but shall not last for longer than _______________?
(Three weeks)
How long is the navy’s aftercare program?
(180 days)
Navy Drug and Alcohol Counselors must complete an internship lasting for how long?
(One year)
What is the objective of the safety program?
(To enhance readiness by reducing the number of deaths to personnel and damage to equipment)
are unplanned events?
(Mishaps)
What is one of the primary jobs of the Safety Petty Officer?
(To train personnel in one’s division to notice safety violations)
What is the title of the OPNAVINST 5100.23B?
(NAVOSH Program Manual)
What serves as an evaluation of the training provided on a continuing basis by supervisory personnel?
(Monitoring)
What are the three types of safety observations?
(Incidental; deliberate; and Planned)
This is a safety observation that occurs when you notice safety hazards without deliberately taking time to look for them?
(Incidental)
This is a safety observation performed when you pause in whatever you are doing to see if a person does some part of a job safely?
(Deliberate)
This is a safety observation when you deliberately schedule time to watch for safety measures being implemented?
(Planned)
The purpose of a ________________ is to identify possible hazards or potential mishaps and to develop solutions to eliminate; nullify; or prevent them?
(Job Safety Analysis (JSA))
What is the form number for the Workplace Monitoring Plan?
(OPNAV 5400/14)
Where are the recommendations of the Enlisted Safety Committee forwarded to?
(The safety council)
How often should the safety committee meet?
(Monthly)
What are the two principles of mishap prevention?
(To eliminate potential mishap causes and prevent mishaps and to spot and eliminate potential mishap causes)
Who assists the safety officer in keeping the safety program visible to all hands?
(The MAA/Safety Force)
Persons with circulatory diseases shall not operate what type of tools?
(Vibrating tools)
What OPNAV instruction requires supervisors to ensure that their personnel are aware of safety precautions; the work cite is safe; and personnel are outfitted with protective clothing?
(5100.19B)
What type of material is prohibited from use or storage aboard ship?
(Methyl Bromide)
Who must approve the removal of asbestos aboard ship?
(The CO)
Rip-out asbestos teams will be composed of what minimum number of persons?
(3)
Who conducts respirator fit-testing?
(The Gas Free Engineer)
What type of equipment should only be used for breathing air in emergency situations?
(OBA)
What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with organic vapors?
(Black)
What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with radioactive materials?
(Purple)
What is the respirator cartridge color to be used with acid gasses?
(White)
Working in areas which average 84db requires what?
(Personnel be entered into a hearing conservation program)
Who is responsible for identifying eye hazard areas?
(The safety officer)
A heat stress survey should be conducted whenever the dry-bulb reading is above what temperature?
(100 degrees)
Who identifies the number of tag out logs that each type of ship is to maintain?
(The Squadron Commander)
How many sections does a tag-out-log have?
(4)
A tag out log inspection is performed on non-nuclear ships how often?
(Every two weeks)
What does your signature on a tag out log indicate?
(The log is verified and is up-to-date)
What manual(s) give the senior person the authority to be in charge in a survival situation?
(Code of Conduct and Navy Regulations)
All persons placed in a survival situation will experience what emotion?
(Fear)
Enemy observers can spot you in the woods up to how far away?
(100 yards)
What are you directed to do as soon as you are captured by the enemy?
(Begin planning for an escape)
Model POW camps with adequate food and medical attention are ____________?
(The exception)
When are you allowed to inform on a fellow POW?
(Never)
What acronym illustrates the elements of survival?
(SURVIVAL)
What does the “S” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Size up the situation)
What does the “U: in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Undue haste makes waste)
What does the “R” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Remember where you are)
What does the “V” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Vanquish fear and panic)
What does the “I” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Improvise)
What does the second “V” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Value living)
What does the “A” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Act like the natives)
What does the “L” in SURVIVAL stand for?
(Learn basic skills)
Impatience and carelessness will lead to what?
(The taking of unnecessary risks)
What will lead to improving your situation in a survival situation??
(Improvising)
The group with the best chance of survival is the group that _________________?
(Works together)
In a survival situation tasks should be assigned based on what?
(The personal qualifications of each person)
What is the military’s policy on injury to personnel in a survival situation?
(Wounded and injured personnel will not be left behind)
What can greatly reduce the chances of survival of the group in a survival situation?
(The health and strength of your group)