Navedtra 14113

Front 1

Which of the following
responsibilities are the primary
duties of a GSE?
1. Operation and maintenance of
main propulsion and
propulsion support equipment
2. Operation and maintenance of
propulsion control equipment
and electronics
3. Operation and maintenance of
electrical power generating
and distribution systems
4. Operation and maintenance of
auxiliary support equipment

Back 1

3. Operation and maintenance of
electrical power generating
and distribution systems

Front 2

Which of the following
responsibilities are the primary
duties of a GSM?
1. Operation and maintenance of
propulsion control equipment
2. Operation and maintenance of
main propulsion and
propulsion support equipment
3. Operation and maintenance of
power generating equipment
4. Operation and maintenance of
propulsion control
electronics

Back 2

2. Operation and maintenance of
main propulsion and
propulsion support equipment

Front 3

To find the occupational
standards (OCCSTDs) for a given
rating, you should refer to which
of the following publications?
1. NAVPERS 18Ø683
2. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ27-C
3. NAVMATINST 413Ø.5
4. OPNAVINST 312Ø.32B

Back 3

1. NAVPERS 18Ø683

Front 4

For information on the courses
that are mandatory requirements
for advancement as a GS, you
should refer to which of the
following NAVEDTRA publications?
1. NAVEDTRA 51Ø65
2. NAVEDTRA 61Ø65
3. NAVEDTRA 71Ø65
4. NAVEDTRA 81Ø65

Back 4

3. NAVEDTRA 71Ø65

Front 5

As a rated GS, which of the
following schools is available to
help you improve your leadership
skills?
1. Class A school
2. Class C school
3. CNET school
4. LMET school

Back 5

4. LMET school

Front 6

Leadership ability can be
improved through observation and
practical application.
1. True
2. False

Back 6

1. True

Front 7

To find out if a TRAMAN is the
latest edition, you should look
in the current edition of which
of the following NAVEDTRA
publications?
1. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ27
2. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ61
3. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ94
4. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ97

Back 7

2. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ61

Front 8

When studying this course, if you
come across a word that is
unfamiliar to you, where is the
first place you should look to
find the meaning?
1. In a dictionary
2. In an encyclopedia
3. In the index of this textbook
4. In the glossary of this
textbook

Back 8

4. In the glossary of this
textbook

Front 9

Aboard ship, who is responsible
for maintaining the TRAMANs?
1. The leading petty officer
(LPO)
2. The leading chief petty
officer (LCPO)
3. The main propulsion assistant
(NIPA)
4. The educational services
officer (ESO)

Back 9

4. The educational services
officer (ESO)

Front 10

Administration is the machinery
by which an organization plans
and accomplishes its assigned
responsibilities.
1. True
2. False

Back 10

1. True

Front 11

If you study canceled or obsolete
publications, which of the
following situations may occur?
1. It will hinder your
advancement
2. It will be a waste of time
3. It will be dangerously
misleading
4. Each of the above

Back 11

4. Each of the above

Front 12

How are NSTMs kept up-to-date?
1. By quarterly changes
2. By semiannual changes
3. By annual changes
4. By biannual changes

Back 12

1. By quarterly changes

Front 13

Aboard ship, where are onboard
drawings and blueprints listed?
1. In the data bank
2. In the blueprint file
3. In the ship's drawing index
4. In the equipment drawing list

Back 13

3. In the ship's drawing index

Front 14

What is the primary objective of
the 3-M Systems?
1. To reduce complex maintenance
2. To detect and prevent
impending failures
3. To schedule maintenance
requirements
4. To ensure maximum operational
readiness

Back 14

4. To ensure maximum operational
readiness

Front 15

Of the following statements,
which one is to be considered a
benefit of the PMS system?
1. The program is self-starting
2. There is no training
requirement
3. Major corrective maintenance
is reduced
4. Continuous monitoring is not
required

Back 15

3. Major corrective maintenance
is reduced

Front 16

What is the ship's CSMP?
1. A numerical list of work
requests for all work centers
2. A numerical list of
outstanding deficiencies for
all work centers
3. A numerical list of completed
actions for each division
4. A numerical list of routine
maintenance

Back 16

2. A numerical list of
outstanding deficiencies for
all work centers

Front 17

A deferred action must be
prepared if a piece of equipment
CANNOT be repaired within what
minimum time frame?
1. 15 days
2. 3Ø days
3. 45 days
4. 6Ø days

Back 17

2. 3Ø days

Front 18

Information on matters pertaining
to the organization, management,
operation, and readiness of the
engineering department are found
in all EXCEPT which of the
following documents?
1. COMNAVSURFLANTINST 354Ø.18
2. COMNAVSURFPACINST 354Ø.14
3. Ship's Organization and
Regulations Manual (SORM)
4. Engineering Department
Organization and Regulations
Manual (EDORM)

Back 18

3. Ship's Organization and
Regulations Manual (SORM)

Front 19

Which of the following commanding
officer's standing orders
pertains specifically to the
engineering department?
1. The Restricted Maneuvering
Doctrine
2. The Fire Doctrine
3. The Casualty Control Doctrine
4. The Damage Control Doctrine

Back 19

1. The Restricted Maneuvering
Doctrine

Front 20

What shipboard document contains
all of the basic information
required for reporting, fighting,
and extinguishing a shipboard
fire?
1. The ship's Fire Doctrine
2. The Damage Control Doctrine
3. The Fire Party Manual
4. The Casualty Control Doctrine

Back 20

1. The ship's Fire Doctrine

Front 21

The engineer officer's night
orders may contain all EXCEPT
which of the following items?
1. Expected changes to plant
status
2. Expected major changes in
ship's speed
3. Special weather conditions
4. Special instructions for
watch standers

Back 21

3. Special weather conditions

Front 22

Which, if any, of the following
logs is a legal record?
1. The Engineer's Bell Book
2. The Electric Plant Log
3. The Automatic Data Log
4. None of the above

Back 22

1. The Engineer's Bell Book

Front 23

Which of the following entries is
required to be made in the
Engineering Log REMARKS section?
1. Equipment in operation
2. Equipment casualties
3. Personnel casualties
4. Each of the above

Back 23

4. Each of the above

Front 24

Which, if any, of the following
writing implements may be used to
prepare the Engineering Log?
1. A red ink pen
2. A black ink pen
3. A red pencil
4. None of the above

Back 24

2. A black ink pen

Front 25

What is the proper procedure for
making a correction in the
Engineering Log?
1. Draw a single line through
the incorrect entry and
initial the margin of the
page
2. Draw enough lines through the
incorrect entry to make it
illegible
3. Erase the incorrect entry
4. Rewrite the entire page

Back 25

1. Draw a single line through
the incorrect entry and
initial the margin of the
page

Front 26

How long must completed
Engineering Logs be retained on
board ship?
1. 1 yr
2. 2 yr
3. 3 yr
4. 4 yr

Back 26

3. 3 yr

Front 27

When it is used, who maintains
the Engineer's Bell Book?
1. The engineering officer of
the watch (EOOW)
2. The helmsman
3. The station in control of the
throttles
4. The propulsion and auxiliary
control console (PACC)/
propulsion control console
(PCC) operator

Back 27

3. The station in control of the
throttles

Front 28

When a major speed change order
is received, what entry is made
in column two of the bell sheet?
1. The time the order was
received
2. The rpm ordered
3. The pitch ordered
4. The order received

Back 28

4. The order received

Front 29

Even if the automatic bell logger
is operating properly, the
Engineer's Bell Book must be
maintained on which of the
following class ships?
1. The CG-47 class ship
2. The DD-963 class ship
3. The DDG-993 class ship
4. The FFG-7 class ship

Back 29

4. The FFG-7 class ship

Front 30

When standing watch, you notice
an out-of-limit parameter on a
piece of operating equipment.
What actions should you take?
1. Circle the log entry in red,
note the corrective action
taken in the center column,
and notify the EOOW
2. Record the reading on the
operating log, circle it in
red, and inform your relief
3. Circle the log entry in red
and note the corrective
action taken in the remarks
column
4. Record the reading on the
operating log, circle it in
red, and note the corrective
action taken in the remarks
section of the log

Back 30

3. Circle the log entry in red
and note the corrective
action taken in the remarks
column

Front 31

When, if ever, may you operate a
piece of equipment by overriding
automatic shutdown or warning
devices?
1. When authorized by the LCPO
2. When authorized by the MPA
3. When authorized by the chief
engineer
4. Never

Back 31

4. Never

Front 32

Who has responsibility for
recognizing and correcting unsafe
conditions?
1. The equipment operator only
2. The electrical safety officer
only
3. The engineer officer only
4. All hands

Back 32

4. All hands

Front 33

All EXCEPT which of the following
publications contain a reference
of detailed safety precautions?
1. NSTM 3ØØ
2. OPNAVINST 31ØØ.19
3. NSTM 4ØØ
4. OPNAVINST 51ØØ.19

Back 33

2. OPNAVINST 31ØØ.19

Front 34

To warn personnel of possible
hazards, which of the following
colors are used for safety
posters?
1. Red and Green
2. Red and yellow
3. Yellow and blue
4. Yellow and green

Back 34

2. Red and yellow

Front 35

Death from low-voltage circuits
is most likely to occur under
which of the following
circumstances?
1. When body resistance is
raised by moisture
2. When body resistance is
lowered by moisture
3. Only if the voltage is dc
4. Only if the voltage is above
9Ø V ac

Back 35

2. When body resistance is
lowered by moisture

Front 36

When working on electrical
circuits, you must treat all of
them as hazardous.
1. True
2. False

Back 36

1. True

Front 37

While you are using a ball peen
hammer, the handle splits. Which
of the following is the correct
action you should take?
1. Use it cautiously
2. Tape the handle together
3. Replace the handle
4. Wire the handle together

Back 37

3. Replace the handle

Front 38

All EXCEPT which of the following
actions are safe practices for
use of a portable electric tool?
1. Lay out the cord so no one
will trip over it
2. Connect the tool cord into an
extension cord before
connecting the extension cord
to a receptacle
3. Use a 3-conductor extension
cord
4. Remove the third prong when a
3-hole receptable is
unavailable

Back 38

4. Remove the third prong when a
3-hole receptable is
unavailable

Front 39

If a victim is in contact with
portable electrical equipment and
power isolation is not
immediately feasible, which of
the following actions should you
take?
1. Grasp the insulated cord of
the equipment and use it to
draw the component away from
contact with the victim
2. Grab the victim firmly by the
shoulders and pull him free
of the equipment
3. Use a conductive item to
knock the equipment away from
the victim
4. Use a nonconductive item to
knock the victim away from
the equipmen

Back 39

4. Use a nonconductive item to
knock the victim away from
the equipment ?

Front 40

If a victim of electrical shock
is in contact with a switchboard
(SWBD), which of the following
actions should you take to free
the victim?
1. Notify the hospital corpsman
to free the victim
2. Use a nonconductive material
to free the victim
3. Notify an electrician's mate
to secure the power
4. Use anything that is handy to
free the victim

Back 40

2. Use a nonconductive material
to free the victim

Front 41

What is the purpose of the
tag-out program?
1. To prevent improper operation
of a system or equipment when
it is in an abnormal
condition
2. To tag various system
components for identification
purposes
3. To provide operating
instructions for a system
that has been jury rigged
4. To serve as a substitute for
other safety measures, such
as locking devices

Back 41

1. To prevent improper operation
of a system or equipment when
it is in an abnormal
condition

Front 42

The use of DANGER or CAUTION tags
is a substitute for which, if
any, of the following safety
measures?
1. Racking out circuit breakers
2. Locking valves
3. Pulling fuses
4. None of the above

Back 42

4. None of the above

Front 43

Who is responsible to the
commanding officer for ensuring
all personnel in the engineering
department comply with the
tag-out program?
1. The main propulsion assistant
2. The engineer officer
3. The command master chief
4. The electrical officer

Back 43

2. The engineer officer

Front 44

For routine maintenance in port,
which of the following personnel
will generally be the authorizing
officer for tagging out an item
in an engine room?
1. The EOOW
2. The officer of the deck (OOD)
3. The engineering duty officer
(EDO)
4. The commanding officer (CO)

Back 44

3. The engineering duty officer
(EDO)

Front 45

When a tag-out requires placing a
piece of engineering equipment
out of commission, who grants
permission?
1. The EDO and EOOW
2. The engineer officer and CO
3. The LCPO and MPA
4. The MPA and EOOW

Back 45

2. The engineer officer and CO

Front 46

Who will normally fill out and
sign the tag-out record sheet?
1. The petty officer in charge
of the work
2. The work center supervisor
3. The leading chief petty
officer
4. The division leading petty
officer

Back 46

1. The petty officer in charge
of the work

Front 47

When must the person conducting
the tag-out sign the tags?
1. After they are filled out
2. After they are approved by
the authorizing officer
3. After they are attached
4. After they are signed by a
second person

Back 47

3. After they are attached

Front 48

When is a CAUTION tag used?
1. When equipment
instrumentation is out of
calibration
2. When normal operation may
cause harm to the equipment
3. When operation of a system
may be hazardous to personnel
4. When special instructions or
unusual caution must be
exercised

Back 48

4. When special instructions or
unusual caution must be
exercised

Front 49

A DANGER tag is used any time
personnel or equipment can be
endangered while performing
evolutions using normal operating
procedures.
1. True
2. False

Back 49

1. True

Front 50

Which of the following statements
is correct concerning a piece of
equipment tagged with a DANGER
tag?
1. You may operate the equipment
with the permission of the
chief engineer
2. You may not approach within a
certain distance of the
equipment
3. You may not operate the
equipment under any
circumstances as long as it
is DANGER tagged
4. You may not secure the
equipment as long as it is
DANGER tagged

Back 50

3. You may not operate the
equipment under any
circumstances as long as it
is DANGER tagged

Front 51

What type of tag/label should you
normally use to tag out a
pressure gauge that is NOT
working?
1. A CAUTION tag
2. An OUT-OF-CALIBRATION label
3. A DANGER tag
4. An OUT-OF-COMMISSION label

Back 51

2. An OUT-OF-CALIBRATION label

Front 52

All EXCEPT which of the following
audits of the tag-out log are
conducted during normal operating
conditions?
1. Prior to getting underway
2. Every 2 weeks
3. Every 3 weeks
4. When ordered by competent
authority

Back 52

3. Every 3 weeks

Front 53

How often is an audit done on the
tag-out log while the ship is in
the yards?
1. Twice a week
2. Weekly
3. Every 2 weeks
4. Monthly

Back 53

2. Weekly

Front 54

If working for extended periods
of time in high ambient
temperatures, to what instruction
must you conform?
1. BUMEDINST 5200.7
2. BUPERSINST 6200.5
3. BUMEDINST 6200.7
4. BUPERSINST 5200.5

Back 54

NAVMED p-5052-5

Front 55

You must wear approved hearing
protection when working in an
environment where the noise is at
or above what specified level?
1. 54 dB
2. 64 dB
3. 74 dB
4. 84 dB

Back 55

4. 84 dB

Front 56

Double hearing protection must be
worn in an area where the noise
is at or above what specified
level?
1. 74 dB
2. 84 dB
3. 94 dB
4. 1Ø4 dB

Back 56

4. 1Ø4 dB

Front 57

Petroleum-based oils are NOT
suitable for use in gas turbine
engines (GTEs) for which of the
following reasons?
1. They are less viscous than
synthetic-based oils
2. They will not withstand the
high temperatures generated
3. They are not compatable with
the metals used
4. They break down the seals
used on high-speed components

Back 57

2. They will not withstand the
high temperatures generated

Front 58

The Navy uses which of the
following oils for its GTEs?
1. MIL-L-23699
2. MIL-L-78Ø8
3. MIL-L-925Ø
4. MIL-L-9Ø46

Back 58

1. MIL-L-23699

Front 59

Prolonged contact with
synthetic-based oils must be
avoided for all EXCEPT which of
the following reasons?
1. Skin irritations may occur
2. Vapors can cause respiratory
irritations
3. Its viscosity may cause
abrasions
4. Skin fungus growth may occur

Back 59

3. Its viscosity may cause
abrasions

Front 60

The correct lube oil test
procedures are listed in which of
the following publications?
1. NSTM 262
2. NSTM 292
3. NSTM 3ØØ
4. NSTM 31Ø

Back 60

1. NSTM 262

Front 61

Which of the following
publications contains information
on the proper operation of
pollution control equipment and
shipboard procedures?
1. OPNAVINST 524Ø.3
2. OPNAVINST 564Ø.3
3. OPNAVINST 6240.3
4. OPNAVINST 664Ø.3

Back 61

1. OPNAVINST 509Ø.1

Front 62

The assistance of shore-based
personnel is always required for
the containment of, and often in
the collection of, an entire oil
spill.
1. True
2. False

Back 62

2. False

Front 63

When testing for BS&W, the
reading you obtain should NOT
exceed what maximum amount?
1. Ø.Ø1 percent
2. Ø.1Ø percent
3. 1.Ø1 percent
4. 1.1Ø percent

Back 63

2. Ø.1Ø percent

Front 64

After a noncompensated fuel
storage tank has been filled with
fuel, what minimum time period is
required before it must be tested
for water contamination?
1. 4 hr
2. 12 hr
3. 24 hr
4. 36 hr

Back 64

3. 24 hr

Front 65

During service tank
replenishment, the sample fails
to meet the clear and bright
criteria. This condition could
indicate a need for all EXCEPT
which of the following actions?
1. Drawing another sample
2. Conducting a tank inspection
3. Cleaning the purifier
4. Shifting strainers

Back 65

4. Shifting strainers

Front 66

What is the minimum amount of
time that a service tank must be
placed on recirculation after it
has been refilled?
1. 1 hr
2. 2 hr
3. 3 hr
4. 4 hr

Back 66

3. 3 hr

Front 67

When you are testing fuel from
the filter/separator discharge,
the readings obtained must be
less than (a) ppm free water,
2Ø, 4Ø
and (b) mg/l sediment.
1.32, 2.64
1. (a) 4Ø (b) 2.64
2. (a) 4Ø (b) 1.32
3. (a) 2Ø (b) 2.64
4. (a) 2Ø (b) 1.32

Back 67

1. (a) 4Ø (b) 2.64

Front 68

When you take a visual sample of
JP-5 during replenishment
operations and the sample is
cloudy, what, if anything, is
indicated if the cloud disappears
at the top of the sample?
1. Air is present
2. Water is present
3. Sediment is present
4. Nothing

Back 68

2. Water is present

Front 69

Provided operating conditions
permit, how often should JP-5
samples be sent off the ship for
testing?
1. Semimonthly
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Semiannually

Back 69

2. Monthly

Front 70

JP-5 samples sent for off-ship
testing must be contained in
clean, noncorrosive polyethlene
containers.
1. True
2. False

Back 70

2. False

Front 71

To become certified to test
boiler water and feedwater, you
must meet all EXCEPT which of the
following conditions?
1. Be recommended by your
engineer officer
2. Be certified by your ship's
commanding officer
3. Attend the boiler water and
feedwater testing and
treatment school
4. Pass the boiler water and
feedwater Course

Back 71

1. Be recommended by your
engineer officer

Front 72

The overall shipboard water cycle
on gas turbine ships is what type
of system?
1. Open
2. Settled
3. Modified
4. Closed

Back 72

4. Closed

Front 73

What term is used to describe
steam that has been returned to
its liquid state after it has
done its work?
1. Feedwater
2. Distillate
3. Boiler water
4. Condensate

Back 73

3. Boiler water

Front 74

Excessive alkalinity can cause
what type of casualty to the
boiler tubes?
1. Caustic corrosion
2. Scale formation
3. Acidic corrosion
4. Sludge formation

Back 74

1. Caustic corrosion

Front 75

Localized corrosion and pitting
of the boiler tube metal is
generally caused by which of the
following contaminants?
1. Dissolved oxygen
2. Alkalinity
3. Chloride
4. Scale

Back 75

3. Chloride

Front 76

When boilers are treated, what
effect does trisodium phosphate
(TSP) have on the boiler water?
1. Reduces hardness
2. Raises phosphate without
effecting alkalinity
3. Raises alkalinity only
4. Raises alkalinity and
phosphate

Back 76

4. Raises alkalinity and
phosphate

Front 77

After a WHB is chemically
treated, the water must be tested
for alkalinity, phosphate, and
chloride within what specified
period of time?
1. 3Ø to 6Ø min
2. 6Ø to 9Ø min
3. 4 to 6 hr
4. 24 hr

Back 77

1. 3Ø to 6Ø min

Front 78

When mixing TSP and disodium
phosphate (DSP), you should add
these components to hot water so
the chemicals will dissolve
properly.
1. True
2. False

Back 78

2. False

Front 79

management of the physical
Specific instructions on the
security program can be found in
which of the following
publications?
1. The damage control manual
2. The fire party manual
3. The SORM
4. The EDORM

Back 79

4. The EDORM

Front 80

Which of the following factors are essential in the design of a physical security program?
1. Common sense and
accountability
2. Common sense and training
3. Timing and accountability
4. Timing and training

Back 80

1. Common sense and
accountability

Front 81

The keys for the main reduction gear (MRG) high-security locks
are maintained by which of the
following personnel?
1. The LPO
2. The LCPO
3. The chief engineer
4. The work center supervisor

Back 81

3. The chief engineer

Front 82

Which of the following
publications contains detailed
information concerning pollution
abatement?
1. OPNAVINST 2Ø6Ø.1
2. OPNAVINST 3Ø6Ø.1
3. OPNAVINST 4Ø9Ø.1
4. OPNAVINST 5Ø9Ø.1

Back 82

4. OPNAVINST 5Ø9Ø.1

Front 83

The 3-M Systems includes
maintenance procedures for all
valves on a ship.
1. True
2. False

Back 83

2. False

Front 84

Which of the following programs
places the responsibility for
learning on the individual and
encourages self-achievement?
1. The MDS Program
2. The MRC Program
3. The PMS Program
4. The PQS Program

Back 84

4. The PQS Program

Front 85

What section of the PQS, when
completed, contains the necessary
requirements for standing a
particular watch?
1. 1ØØ series
2. 2ØØ series
3. 3ØØ series
4. 4ØØ series

Back 85

3. 3ØØ series

Front 86

The EOSS is used to eliminate
which of the following types of
problems?
1. Administrative
2. Organizational
3. Operational
4. Maintenance

Back 86

3. Operational

Front 87

An operator needing to know how
to use the EOSS should consult
what document?
1. The SORM
2. The EDORM
3. The EOSS User's Guide
4. The Ship Information Book
(SIB)

Back 87

3. The EOSS User's Guide

Front 88

What is the final step in the
development of an EOSS for a new
ship?
1. Validation
2. Lamination
3. Pen and ink corrections
4. Signed transfer to custody

Back 88

1. Validation

Front 89

The schedule for preparing a ship
to get underway is found in what
portion of the EOSS?
1. The engineering operational
procedures (EOP)
2. The engineering operational
casualty control (EOCC)
3. The User's Guide
4. The Index

Back 89

1. The engineering operational
procedures (EOP)

Front 90

The EOOW uses what stage of the
EOP to supervise engineering
plant operations?
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Back 90

1. I

Front 91

Which of the following EOSS
charts/diagrams is a graphic
presentation of the machinery
found in each main machinery
apace?
1. The plant procedure chart
2. The system alignment diagram
3. The plant status diagram
4. The training diargram

Back 91

3. The plant status diagram

Front 92

A stage II EOP is used by all
EXCEPT which of the following
operators?
1. An engine-room supervisor
2. A fireroom operator
3. An electric plant operator
4. An EOOW

Back 92

2 or 4

Front 93

The procedure to start and atop
a purifier can be found in what
stage of the EOP?
1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Back 93

3. III

Front 94

What area of the EOSS provides
information on how to prevent
casualties?
1. The EOP
2. The EOCC
3. Section II
4. Section III

Back 94

2. The EOCC

Front 95

Primary casualty control training
concentrates on the control of
whet type of casualty?
1. Battle inflicted
2. Multiple source
3. Single source
4. Personnel

Back 95

3. Single source

Front 96

The EOSS serves all EXCEPT which
of the following purposes?
1. To schedule plant operations
2. To control plant operations
3. To train unskilled operators
4. To eliminate unskilled
operators

Back 96

. To eliminate unskilled
operators

Front 97

Wire twister pliers are designed
to accomplish all EXCEPT which of
the following functions of safety
wiring?
1. Cut
2. Hold
3. Twist
4. Hammer

Back 97

4. Hammer

Front 98

You may unlock wire twister
pliers by performing which of the
following actions?
1. Pulling the knob
2. Pushing the spiral rod
3. Squeezing the handle
4. Using your thumb to bring the
locking sleeve into place

Back 98

3. Squeezing the handle

Front 99

The top bolt begins to loosen due
to vibration. Which of the
following statements describes
the effect of the safety wiring?
1. It will attempt to loosen the
bottom bolt
2. It will have no affect on the
bottom bolt
3. It will attempt to tighten
the middle bolt
4. It will have no affect on the
middle bolt

Back 99

3. It will attempt to tighten
the middle bolt

Front 100

To gain access to a nut or bolt
in an area that is hard to reach,
you should use what type of
wrench?
1. Open end
2. Boxend
3. Crowfoot
4. Adjustable

Back 100

3. Crowfoot

Front 101

With the exception of having a
slot cut in the wrench head, a
flare nut wrench is similar to
what other wrench?
1. Open end
2. Slugging
3. Dogging
4. Box

Back 101

4. Box

Front 102

Flare nut wrenches used on gas
turbine equipment usually have
how many points?
1. 8
2. 1Ø
3. 12
4. 16

Back 102

3. 12

Front 103

Cadmium-plated tools should NOT
be used on GTEs because cadmium
particles can become imbedded in
and cause brittleness to what
type of metal?
1. Titanium
2. Nickel
3. Chrome
4. Silver

Back 103

1. Titanium

Front 104

Wrenches that are recommended for
use on GTEs should be plated with
which of the following elements?
1. Nickel
2. Bronze
3. Silver
4. Carbon

Back 104

1. Nickel

Front 105

Which of the following statements
describes the proper use of taps
and dies?
1. Taps are used to cut external
threads, and dies are used to
cut internal threads
2. Taps are used to cut internal
threads, and dies are used to
cut external threads
3. Both taps and dies are used
to cut internal threads
4. Both taps and dies are used
to cut external threads

Back 105

2. Taps are used to cut internal
threads, and dies are used to
cut external threads

Front 106

To tap a blind hole, you should
use the hand taps in what
sequence?
1. Taper, bottoming, and plug
2. Bottoming, taper, and plug
3. Taper, plug, and bottoming
4. Plug, bottoming, and taper

Back 106

3. Taper, plug, and bottoming

Front 107

Inspection mirrors are commonly
used for which of the following
purposes?
1. Installation and adjustment
2. Installation and maintenance
3. Inspections and maintenance
4. Inspections and adjustment

Back 107

3. Inspections and maintenance

Front 108

Which of the following is one of
the three most commonly used
torque wrenches?
1. Micrometer beam
2. Deflecting beam
3. Micrometer indicating
4. Deflecting indicating

Back 108

2. Deflecting beam

Front 109

When the specific torque value is
reached, which of the following
torque wrenches automatically
issues an audible click?
1. Deflecting beam
2. Micrometer beam
3. Deflecting setting
4. Micrometer setting

Back 109

4. Micrometer setting

Front 110

The specific tolerances for
tightening nuts, bolts, and
fasteners are found in which of the following publications?
A Navy TRAMAN
2. A manufacturer's technical
manual
3. OPNAVINST 479Ø.1
4. OPNAVINST 51ØØ.19

Back 110

2. A manufacturer's technical
manual

Front 111

When using an adapter, such as a
crowfoot with a torque wrench,
you must calculate the correct
crowfoot torque.
1. True
2. False

Back 111

2. False

Front 112

Calculate the torque that will be
indicated on the wrench given the
following information:
T = 25Ø lb-in. L = 6 in.
E = 3 in.
1. 122.1 lb-in.
2. 166.6 lb-in.
3. 211.2 lb-in.
4. 255.7 lb-in.

Back 112

2. 166.6 lb-in.
I=(TL)/(L+-E)

Front 113

When using a torque wrench, you
should follow all EXCEPT which of
the following procedures?
1. Do not use the wrench beyond
rated capacity
2. Do not use the wrench to
break bolts loose
3. Do not apply torque to an
already tightened fastener
4. Do not reset the wrench to
the lowest setting before
storage

Back 113

4. Do not reset the wrench to the lowest setting before
storage

Front 114

Which of the following types of
inside calipers should you use to
measure a chamfered cavity?
1. Spring
2. Firm joint
3. Transfer
4. Adjustable

Back 114

1. Spring

Front 115

How should you read an inside
diameter measurement with a
pocket slide caliper?
1. Read the measurement and add
Ø.Ø25 inch to the reading
2. Read the measurement and
subtract Ø.Ø25 inch from the
reading
3. Read the measurement at the
'in' mark
4. Read the measurement at the
'out' mark

Back 115

3. Read the measurement at the
'in' mark

Front 116

Which of the following phrases
describes the range of a
micrometer?
1. The length of its frame
2. The length of the largest
work it will measure
3. The distance the spindle
advances with each revolution
of the thimble
4. The distance which the
spindle can travel

Back 116

2. The length of the largest
work it will measure

Front 117

The size of a micrometer is
determined by what factor?
1. The size of the largest work
it measures
2. The size of the smallest work
it measures
3. The circumference of the work
it measures
4. The radius of the work it
measures

Back 117

1. The size of the largest work
it measures

Front 118

For work requiring exceptionally
precise measurements, you should
use what type of caliper?
1. A vernier micrometer caliper
2. A transfer caliper
3. A spring caliper
4. A slide caliper

Back 118

1. A vernier micrometer caliper

Front 119

You can compare any gauge for
accuracy with a known calibrated
gauge using which of the
following test equipment?
1. A live weight tester
2. A dead weight tester
3. A gauge width comparator
4. A gauge length comparator

Back 119

2. A dead weight tester

Front 120

To ensure proper operation of the
module ultraviolet (UV) flame
detectors, which of the following
test instruments should you use?
1. A stroboscope
2. A UV test unit
3. A digital voltmeter
4. A Simpson 25Ø multimeter

Back 120

2. A UV test unit

Front 121

To ensure proper operation of the
module heat detectors, which of
the following devices should you
use?
1. A Simpson 25Ø multimeter
2. A soldering gun
3. A stroboscope
4. A heat gun

Back 121

4. A heat gun

Front 122

When you are using a stroboscope,
if the flash speed is faster than
the rpm of the object being
tested, what effect will this
appear to have on the object?
1. It will appear to rotate
forward
2. It will appear to rotate
backward
3. It will appear to rotate
slow
4. It will appear to stop
rotation

Back 122

2. It will appear to rotate
backward

Front 123

Which of the following
instruments is designed to help
you when performing an internal
inspection of the GTE?
1. A telescope
2. A borescope
3. A stroboscope
4. An oscilloscope

Back 123

2. A borescope

Front 124

Vibration characteristics are
measured under which of the
following operative conditions?
1. Abnormal
2. Normal
3. Low torque
4. High torque

Back 124

2. Normal

Front 125

All EXCEPT which of the following
statements describe a function
of an effective vibration
analysis program?
1. To check machinery condition
2. To troubleshoot suspected
problems
3. To verify that proper repairs
have been accomplished
4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Back 125

4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Front 126

A reading taken with a vibration
meter will indicate which of the
following conditions?
1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally
2. The unit being tested has a
bad rotor
3. The unit being tested has bad
bearings
4. The unit being tested has a
bad stator

Back 126

1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally

Front 127

Which of the following gases are
used as the pressure medium in
the pressure transducer
calibration kit?
1. Argon
2. Nitrogen
3. Freon
4. Hydrogen

Back 127

2. Nitrogen

Front 128

To ensure proper operation of the
module heat detectors, which of
the following devices should you
use?
1. A Simpson 25Ø multimeter
2. A soldering gun
3. A stroboscope
4. A heat gun

Back 128

4. A heat gun

Front 129

To ensure proper operation of the
module heat detectors, which of
the following devices should you
use?
1. A Simpson 25Ø multimeter
2. A soldering gun
3. A stroboscope
4. A heat gun

Back 129

4. A heat gun

Front 130

The centrifuge is used when you
are performing all EXCEPT which
of the following functions?
1. Testing for BS&W
3. Separating liquids by
viscosity
3. Separating solids from
liquids
4. Transfering oily waste water

Back 130

4. Transfering oily waste water

Front 131

When you are using a stroboscope,
if the flash speed is faster than
the rpm of the object being
tested, what effect will this
appear to have on the object?
1. It will appear to rotate
forward
2. It will appear to rotate
backward
3. It will appear to rotate
slow
4. It will appear to stop
rotation

Back 131

2. It will appear to rotate
backward

Front 132

When you are testing a petroleum
product for flash point, a much
higher or lower than expected
reading is a reliable indication
that the fuel has been
contaminated.
1. True
2. False

Back 132

1. True

Front 133

When you are using a stroboscope,
if the flash speed is faster than
the rpm of the object being
tested, what effect will this
appear to have on the object?
1. It will appear to rotate
forward
2. It will appear to rotate
backward
3. It will appear to rotate
slow
4. It will appear to stop
rotation

Back 133

2. It will appear to rotate
backward

Front 134

Which of the following
instruments is designed to help
you when performing an internal
inspection of the GTE?
1. A telescope
2. A borescope
3. A stroboscope
4. An oscilloscope

Back 134

2. A borescope

Front 135

What is the minimum flash point
for all fuels used aboard Navy
ships?
1. 12Ø°F
2. 13Ø°F
3. 14Ø°F
4. 15Ø°F

Back 135

3. 14Ø°F

Front 136

Which of the following
instruments is designed to help
you when performing an internal
inspection of the GTE?
1. A telescope
2. A borescope
3. A stroboscope
4. An oscilloscope

Back 136

2. A borescope

Front 137

Vibration characteristics are
measured under which of the
following operative conditions?
1. Abnormal
2. Normal
3. Low torque
4. High torque

Back 137

2. Normal

Front 138

Vibration characteristics are
measured under which of the
following operative conditions?
1. Abnormal
2. Normal
3. Low torque
4. High torque

Back 138

2. Normal

Front 139

All EXCEPT which of the following
statements describe a function
of an effective vibration
analysis program?
1. To check machinery condition
2. To troubleshoot suspected
problems
3. To verify that proper repairs
have been accomplished
4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Back 139

4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Front 140

A reading taken with a vibration
meter will indicate which of the
following conditions?
1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally
2. The unit being tested has a
bad rotor
3. The unit being tested has bad
bearings
4. The unit being tested has a
bad stator

Back 140

1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally

Front 141

All EXCEPT which of the following
statements describe a function
of an effective vibration
analysis program?
1. To check machinery condition
2. To troubleshoot suspected
problems
3. To verify that proper repairs
have been accomplished
4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Back 141

4. To verify equipment
misalignment

Front 142

Which of the following gases are
used as the pressure medium in
the pressure transducer
calibration kit?
1. Argon
2. Nitrogen
3. Freon
4. Hydrogen

Back 142

2. Nitrogen

Front 143

A reading taken with a vibration
meter will indicate which of the
following conditions?
1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally
2. The unit being tested has a
bad rotor
3. The unit being tested has bad
bearings
4. The unit being tested has a
bad stator

Back 143

1. The unit being tested is
operating abnormally

Front 144

Which of the following gases are
used as the pressure medium in
the pressure transducer
calibration kit?
1. Argon
2. Nitrogen
3. Freon
4. Hydrogen

Back 144

2. Nitrogen

Front 145

The centrifuge is used when you
are performing all EXCEPT which
of the following functions?
1. Testing for BS&W
3. Separating liquids by
viscosity
3. Separating solids from
liquids
4. Transfering oily waste water

Back 145

4. Transfering oily waste water

Front 146

When you are testing a petroleum
product for flash point, a much
higher or lower than expected
reading is a reliable indication
that the fuel has been
contaminated.
1. True
2. False

Back 146

1. True

Front 147

The centrifuge is used when you
are performing all EXCEPT which
of the following functions?
1. Testing for BS&W
3. Separating liquids by
viscosity
3. Separating solids from
liquids
4. Transfering oily waste water

Back 147

4. Transfering oily waste water

Front 148

What is the minimum flash point
for all fuels used aboard Navy
ships?
1. 12Ø°F
2. 13Ø°F
3. 14Ø°F
4. 15Ø°F

Back 148

3. 14Ø°F

Front 149

When you are testing a petroleum
product for flash point, a much
higher or lower than expected
reading is a reliable indication
that the fuel has been
contaminated.
1. True
2. False

Back 149

1. True

Front 150

What is the minimum flash point
for all fuels used aboard Navy
ships?
1. 12Ø°F
2. 13Ø°F
3. 14Ø°F
4. 15Ø°F

Back 150

3. 14Ø°F

Front 151

When Navy fuels are tested, the
A.E.L. Mk II is used to determine
the quantity of which of the
following contaminants?
1. Solids
2. Free water
3. Paraffin
4. Hydrocarbons

Back 151

2. Free water

Front 152

How many A.E.L. Mk III
contaminated fuel detectors are
required on board gas turbine
ships?
1. Three for each fuel to be
tested
2. Two for each fuel to be
tested
3. One for each fuel to be
tested

Back 152

3. One for each fuel to be
tested

Front 153

What Is the resistance range of a
1 kilohm decade resistance box?
1. Ø.Ø1 to 999.99 ohms
2. 1.ØØ to 999.999 ohms
3. Ø.Ø1 to 999.999 ohms
4. 1.ØØ to 999.99 ohm

Back 153

1. Ø.Ø1 to 999.99 ohms

Front 154

What does each rotary switch on
the decade resistance box
control?
1. A set of fixed resistors
2. A set of fixed capacitors
3. Its own variable capacitor
4. Its own variable resistor

Back 154

4. Its own variable resistor

Front 155

When performing maintenance, what
is the voltage range of the power
supply you would normally use?
1. Ø to 1ØØ V dc
2. Ø to 5Ø V dc
3. Ø to 24 V de
4. Ø to 1Ø V dc

Back 155

2. Ø to 5Ø V dc

Front 156

When compared to an electronic
digital voltmeter, the main
disadvantage of the Simpson 25Ø
multimeter is that it
1. has a greater margin of error
2. has a less margin of error
3. tends to 'load' the circuit
being tested
4. tends to 'unload' the circuit
being tested

Back 156

3. tends to 'load' the circuit
being tested

Front 157

Which, if any, of the following meters should you use to test for
conductor insulation breakdown?
1. An ohmmeter
2. A megohmmeter
3. A multimeter
4. None of the above

Back 157

2. A megohmmeter

Front 158

When checking the output of a signal generator, which of the following instruments should you
use to verify its accuracy?
1. A sine wave indicator
2. A frequency counter
3. A multimeter
4. A megohmmeter

Back 158

2. A frequency counter

Front 159

What are the most common active
ingredients of battery
electrolyte?
1. Calcium hypochlorite and
potassium cyanide
2. Calcium hypochlorite and
potassium hydroxide
3. Sulfuric acid and potassium
cyanide
4. Sulfuric acid and potassium
hydroxide

Back 159

4. Sulfuric acid and potassium
hydroxide

Front 160

What is meant by the term
'specific gravity' when you are
referring to the battery
electrolyte?
1. The ratio of the weight of
the electrons to the weight
of the same volume of pure
water
2. The ratio of the weight of
the electrolyte to the weight
of the same volume of pure
water
3. The ratio of the weight of
the calcium hypochlorite to
the weight of the same volume
of pure water
4. The ratio of the weight of
the battery to the weight of
the same volume of pure water

Back 160

2. The ratio of the weight of
the electrolyte to the weight
of the same volume of pure
water

Front 161

Which of the following
instruments is used to measure a
battery's specific gravity?
1. A micrometer
2. A multimeter
3. A hydrometer
4. An ohmmeter

Back 161

3. A hydrometer

Front 162

For vertical hoisting operations,
what are two of the most common
chain hoists used?
1. Spur chain and differential
gear
2. Spur chain and differential
chain
3. Spur gear and differential
gear
4. Spur gear and differential
chain

Back 162

4. Spur gear and differential
chain

Front 163

When frequent use of a
hoist/lifting device is required,
what equipment is recommended?
1. A spur gear hoist
2. A chain hoist
3. A come-a-long
4. A port-a-power

Back 163

1. A spur gear hoist

Front 164

What is the efficiency rating of
a spur gear hoist?
1. 8Ø%
2. 85%
3. 9Ø%
4. 95%

Back 164

2. 85%

Front 165

What is usually the weakest part
of a chain hoist?
1. The lifting chain
2. The pulley chain
3. The lower hook
4. The upper hook

Back 165

3. The lower hook

Front 166

A hand-operated ratchet lever
hoist is commonly known as a
1. come-a-board
2. come-a-round
3. come-a-long
4. come-a-bout

Back 166

3. come-a-long

Front 167

The hand-operated ratchet lever
hoist should be used for
alignment of parts because it
allows for minimal movements.
1. True
2. False

Back 167

2. False

Front 168

The push-pull hydraulic jack
(port-a-power) attachments are
used for all EXCEPT which of the
following types of operation?
1. Lifting
2. Spreading
3. Clamping
4. Aligning

Back 168

4. Aligning

Front 169

How do you automatically retract
the ram of a push-pull hydraulic
jack?
1. By pumping in the opposite
direction
2. By turning a single control
valve
3. By removing the flexible hose
4. By pushing the ram down by
hand

Back 169

2. By turning a single control
valve

Front 170

When using a crane to remove an
LM25ØØ GTE, what special
components must you install in
the inlet plenum?
1. Special rails
2. Special pad eyes
3. Chain hoists
4. Chain falls

Back 170

1. Special rails

Front 171

To help you understand the
electrical theory and mechanical
theory presented in chapter 4 of
your textbook, you should study
which of the following additional
training manuals?
1. NAVEDTRA 1Ø624 only
2. NEETS, modules 1 through 5
and NAVEDTRA 1Ø624
3. NEETS, modules 10 through 12
and NAVEDTRA 1Ø624
4. NAVEDTRA 1ØØ85 and NAVEDTRA
1Ø624

Back 171

2. NEETS, modules 1 through 5
and NAVEDTRA 1Ø624

Front 172

Which of the following Is a law
of electrical theory?
1. Charles's law
2. Kirchhoff's law
3. Boyle's law
4. Pascal's law

Back 172

2. Kirchhoff's law

Front 173

Ohm's law states that the current
in an ac or dc circuit is
(a)
inversely, directly
proportional to the applied
voltage and (b)
inversely, directly
proportional to the circuit
resistance.
1. (a) inversely (b) inversely
2. (a) inversely (b) directly
3. (a) directly (b) inversely
4. (a) directly (b) directly

Back 173

3. (a) directly (b) inversely

Front 174

Whose law states that the voltage
drop in a circuit is always equal
to the applied voltage?
1. Kirchhoff's
2. Coulomb's
3. Boyle's
4. Ohm's

Back 174

1. Kirchhoff's

Front 175

The area immediately surrounding
a magnet is referred to by what
term?
1. Magnetic pole
2. Magnetic field
3. Magnetic force area
4. Magnetic lines of force

Back 175

Magnetic field

Front 176

Which of the following statements
properly describes magnetic lines
of force?
1. Magnetic lines of force pass
through crystal material only
2. Magnetic lines of force pass
through ferrous material only
3. Magnetic lines of force pass
through nonferrous material
only
4. Magnetic lines of force pass
through all material

Back 176

4. Magnetic lines of force pass
through all material

Front 177

The quality of a material that
allows it to be magnetized is
known by what term?
1. Conductivity
2. Resistivity
3. Reliability
4. Permeability

Back 177

4. Permeability

Front 178

A generator is a machine that
converts mechanical energy to
electrical energy using which of
the following principles?
1. Magnetic deduction
2. Magnetic induction
3. Magnetic conduction
4. Magnetic convection

Back 178

2. Magnetic induction

Front 179

The amount of voltage produced by
a generator depends on all EXCEPT
which of the following
conditions?
1. The strength of the magnetic
field
2. The angle at which the
magnetic field is inclined
3. The length of the conductor
within the magnetic field
4. The speed at which the
conductor is moved

Back 179

2. The angle at which the
magnetic field is inclined

Front 180

All EXCEPT which of the following
sources can be used to produce
electromotive force (emf)?
1. Heat
2. Light
3. Noise
4. Pressure

Back 180

3. Noise

Front 181

What conditions must exist to
produce voltage by magnetism?
1. A conductor, a magnetic
field, and relative motion
2. A conductor, relative motion,
and correct polarity
3. A magnetic field, a
conductor, and correct
polarity
4. A magnetic field, relative
motion, and correct polarity

Back 181

. A conductor, a magnetic
field, and relative motion

Front 182

Static electricity is produced by
which of the following methods?
1. Chemical action
2. Friction
3. Pressure
4. Light

Back 182

2. Friction

Front 183

Piezoelectricity is produced by
what method?
1. Chemical action
2. Friction
3. Pressure
4. Light

Back 183

3. Pressure

Front 184

Which of the following is an
effect produced by heating one
end of a copper bar?
1. The electrons tend to move
toward the hot end away from
the cooler end
2. The neutrons tend to move
toward the hot end away from
the cooler end
3. The electrons tend to move
away from the hot end toward
the cooler end
4. The neutrons tend to move
away from the hot end toward
the cooler end

Back 184

3. The electrons tend to move
away from the hot end toward
the cooler end

Front 185

What photosensitive materials are
most commonly used to produce a
photoelectric voltage?
1. Iron oxide or copper oxide
2. Iron oxide or aluminum oxide
3. Silver oxide or copper oxide
4. Silver oxide or aluminum
oxide

Back 185

3. Silver oxide or copper oxide

Front 186

What method does a battery use to
produce electricity?
1. Chemical action
2. Friction
3. Pressure
4. Light

Back 186

1. Chemical action

Front 187

IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-20 THROUQH
3-33, SELECT THE SCIENTIST FROM FIQURE
3A WHO DESCRIBED THE PHYSICAL BEHAVIOR
USED AS THE QUESTION.
3-29. If the pressure is constant, the
volume of an enclosed dry gas
varies directly with the absolute
temperature.

Back 187

CHARLE'S LAW

Front 188

IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 3-20 THROUQH
3-33, SELECT THE SCIENTIST FROM FIQURE
3A WHO DESCRIBED THE PHYSICAL BEHAVIOR
USED AS THE QUESTION.
The volume of an enclosed gas
varies inversely with the applied
pressure, provided the
temperature remains constant.

Back 188

BOYLE'S LAW

Front 189

A body at rest tends to stay at
rest, while a body in motion
tends to stay in motion.

Back 189

NEWTON'S 1ST LAW

Front 190

Pressure exerted at any point
upon an enclosed liquid is
transmitted undiminished in all
directions.

Back 190

PASCAL'S LAW

Front 191

The velocity of an incompressible
liquid flowing through a
constriction in a tube increases
and the pressure decreases.

Back 191

BERNOULLI'S PRINCIPLE

Front 192

NEWTON'S 1ST LAW

Back 192

Motion

Front 193

NEWTON'S 2ND LAW

Back 193

Acceleration

Front 194

NEWTON'S 3RD LAW

Back 194

Reaction

Front 195

Which of the following statements
best describes energy?
1. Energy is the capacity for
producing an effect
2. Energy is the capacity for
doing work
3. Energy is work being done
4. Energy is power

Back 195

1. Energy is the capacity for
producing an effect

Front 196

Which of the following forms of
energy is usually associated with
relatively large bodies or
objects?
1. Chemical energy
2. Mechanical energy
3. Thermal energy
4. Electrical energy

Back 196

2. Mechanical energy

Front 197

Which of the following forms of
energy arises from the forces
which bind atoms together in a
molecule?
1. Chemical energy
2. Mechanical energy
3. Thermal energy
4. Electrical energy

Back 197

1. Chemical energy

Front 198

What kind of energy is
demonstrated when combustion
occurs?
1. Chemical energy
2. Mechanical energy
3. Thermal energy
4. Electrical energy

Back 198

Chemical energy

Front 199

What are the two forms of stored
energy?
1. Kinetic and heat
2. Heat and chemical
3. Chemical and potential
4. Potential and kinetic

Back 199

Potential and kinetic

Front 200

What kind of energy is called
energy of motion?
1. Electrical energy
2. Potential energy
3. Thermal energy
4. Kinetic energy

Back 200

4. Kinetic energy

Front 201

What unit of measurement is used
to measure mechanical potential
energy?
1. British thermal units
2.Horsepower
3.Foot-pounds
4. Calories

Back 201

3.Foot-pounds

Front 202

What is the potential energy of
an object that weighs 1Ø pounds
and is held 1Ø feet off the
earth?
1. 1Ø ft-lb
2. 2Ø ft-lb
3. 1ØØ ft-lb
4. 1ØØØ ft-lb

Back 202

3. 1ØØ ft-lb

Front 203

Mechanical energy in transition
is referred to by which of the
following terms?
1. Horsepower
2. Velocity
3. Work
4. Heat

Back 203

3. Work

Front 204

Which of the following phrases
describes power?
1. The rate of doing work
2. The amount of work done
3. The distance through which an
object is moved
4. The amount of force needed to
overcome friction

Back 204

The rate of doing work

Front 205

A machine that is capable of
doing 165Ø foot-pounds of work
per second is considered to have
how many horsepower?
1. 1 hp
2. 2 hp
3. 3 hp
4. 4 hp

Back 205

3. 3 hp
1HP= 550FTLBS/SEC

Front 206

Which of the following forms of
energy are associated with the
movement of molecules?
1. Kinetic energy
2. Potential energy
3. Mechanical energy
4. Thermal energy

Back 206

Thermal energy

Front 207

Which of the following terms
refers to thermal energy in
transition?
1. Heat
2. Power
3. Horsepower
4. Foot-pound

Back 207

1. Heat

Front 208

The temperature of any substance
is directly proportional to the
activity of the molecules
contained in that substance.
1. True
2. False

Back 208

1. True

Front 209

Thermal energy is the only form
of energy that can be added to or
removed from a substance. How is
thermal energy that is added to a
substance stored?
1. In the form of mechanical
energy
2. In the form of internal
energy
3. In the form of heat
4. In the form of potential
kinetic energy

Back 209

2. In the form of internal
energy

Front 210

Which of the following statements
expresses the principle of
conservation of energy?
1. The total quantity of energy
in the universe is always
increasing
2. The total quantity of energy
in the universe is always the
same
3. Energy can be created or
destroyed
4. Energy may not be transformed

Back 210

The total quantity of energy
in the universe is always the
same

Front 211

If the pressure of a gas is held
constant and the temperature is
increased, which of the following
statements expresses the
volumetric reaction?
1. The volume will increase
proportional to the
temperature
2. The volume will decrease
proportional to the
temperature
3. The volume will remain the same

Back 211

1. The volume will increase
proportional to the
temperature

Front 212

What are the six basic types of
simple machines?
1. The lever, the block, the
inclined plane, the engine,
the wheel and axle, and the
gear
2. The lever, the block, the
wheel and axle, the screw,
the gear, and the eccentric
3. The lever, the block, the
wheel and axle, the inclined
plane, the screw, and the
gear
4. The lever, the inclined
plane, the gear, the screw,
the fulcrum, and the
eccentric

Back 212

3. The lever, the block, the
wheel and axle, the inclined
plane, the screw, and the
gear

Front 213

What basic principle is
recognized by physicists as
governing each simple machine?
1. The principle of the wedge or
the screw
2. The principle of the wheel
and axle or the gear
3. The principle of the lever or
the inclined plane
4. The principle of the block
and tackle or the wheel and
axle

Back 213

3. The principle of the lever or the inclined plane

Front 214

The three fundamentally important
points in any lever are the
fulcrum, where the force is
applied, and what other point?
1. Where the lever will balance
2. Where the resistance is
applied
3. Where the resistance arm
equals the effort arm
4. Where the mechanical
advantage begins to increase

Back 214

. Where the resistance is
applied

Front 215

Which views show classes of
levers you can use to lift a
large weight by exerting the
least effort?

Back 215

1ST AND SECOND CLASS LEVERS

Front 216

A third-class lever should be
used when which of the following
results is desired?
1. An increase in speed
2. A transformation of energy
3. A decrease in applied effort
4. A decrease in speed and an
increase in applied work

Back 216

An increase in speed

Front 217

What is the boiling point of pure
water at atmospheric pressure
expressed on the (a) Celcius
scale and (b) Fahrenheit scale?
1. (a) 8Ø°C (b) 2ØØ°F
2. (a) 1ØØ°C (b) 212°F
3. (a) 2ØØ°C (b) 8Ø°F
4. (a) 212°C (b) 1ØØ°F

Back 217

2. (a) 1ØØ°C (b) 212°F

Front 218

What is a reading of 85°C
converted to degrees Fahrenheit?
1. 45°F
2. 1ØØ°F
3. 155°F
4. 185°F

Back 218

4. 185°F
(9/5C)+32

Front 219

Formula to convert Farenheight to celsius?

Back 219

C=5/9(F-32)

Front 220

Which of the following
temperature scales is most widely
used in scientific work?
1. Fahrenheit
2. Celsius
3. Kelvin
4. Rankine

Back 220

3. Kelvin

Front 221

In 1954, what value was
established for the triple point
of water on the new international
absolute scale?
1. Ø.Ø1°F
2. Ø.Ø1°R
3. 273.16 K
4. -273.16°C

Back 221

273.16 K

Front 222

Which of the following phrases
defines pressure?
1. Mass per unit area
2. Energy times velocity
3. Force per unit area
4. Mass times velocity

Back 222

3. Force per unit area

Front 223

When a U-tube is used to measure
pressure with a liquid of known
density, the resulting pressure
is expressed in all EXCEPT which
of the following units?
1. Inches of water
2. Inches of mercury
3. Length of liquid column
4. Length of solid column

Back 223

Length of solid column

Front 224

A reading of 35 psig on a
standard pressure gauge converted
to pounds per square inch
absolute (psia) is calculated in
what manner?
1. Gauge pressure minus 14.7
2. Gauge pressure plus 14.7
3. Gauge pressure times 14.7
4. Gauge pressure divided by
14.7

Back 224

2. Gauge pressure plus 14.7

Front 225

You are reading a pressure gauge
that is calibrated in psia. What
is a reading of 156 psia
converted to gauge pressure?
1. 115.7 psig
2. 117.3 psig
3. 121.7 psig
4. 141.3 psig

Back 225

4. 141.3 psig
(156-14.7)

Front 226

You obtain a reading of 18 inches
of mercury (18 in.Hg) on a vacuum
gauge. What is the reading
expressed in in.Hg absolute?
1. 10.73 in.Hg absolute
2. 11.92 in.Hg absolute
3. 12.85 in.Hg absolute
4. 13.78 in.Hg absolute

Back 226

2. 11.92 in.Hg absolute

Front 227

Which of the following principles explains the operation of the expansion thermometer?
1. the pressure of gas at constant volume is directly proportional to temp.
2. the expansion of the operating medium has a known relationship to temperature changes
3. the operating medium can exist as a solid or a liquid at a specific temperature if the pressure is constant
4. a definite relationship exsts between the temperature of a liquid and the pressure of its vapor.

Back 227

2. the expansion of the operating medium has a known relationship to temperature changes

Front 228

the type of liquid that is used in a liquid-in-glass thermometer is determined by what factor?

Back 228

the tempereature range in which the thermometer will be used

Front 229

what is the principle operation of a bimetallic thermometer?

Back 229

different metals have a different coefficient of linear expansion

Front 230

which type of thermometer may be easily adapted for use as a recording thermometer?

Back 230

bimetallic

Front 231

The Bourdon tube operates on
which of the following
principles?
1. An increase in pressure will
cause a curved elastic tube
to straighten
2. A decrease in pressure will
cause a straight elastic tube
to contract
3. An increase in volume will
cause a straight elastic tube
to expand
4. A decrease in volume will
cause a coiled elastic tube
to collapse

Back 231

1. An increase in pressure will
cause a curved elastic tube
to straighten

Front 232

On gas turbine ships,
thermocouple temperature
detectors are used with what
other components to provide
indications and alarms to the
various engineering consoles?
1. Signal conditioners
2. Signal multipliers
3. Signal processors
4. Signal reversers

Back 232

Signal conditioners

Front 233

A resistance temperature detector
(RTD) with a nickel element is
used for what temperature range?
1. 4ØØ° to 6ØØ°F
2. 6ØØ° to 8ØØ°F
3. 8ØØ° to 1ØØØ°F
4. 1ØØØ° to 12ØØ°F

Back 233

1. 4ØØ° to 6ØØ°F

Front 234

The RTD elements designed for
6ØØ°F or greater service are made
of what type of metal?
1. Copper
2. Nickel
3. Platinum
4. Silver

Back 234

3. Platinum

Front 235

As temperature increases around
an RTD, what will happen to the
corresponding resistance of the
RTD?
1. It remains the same
2. It increases by a
proportional value
3. It decreases by a
proportional value
4. It fluctuates erratically

Back 235

2. It increases by a
proportional value

Front 236

When you are troubleshooting an
RTD circuit, what is indicated by
a very low or zero meter reading?
1. A short in the circuit
2. An open in the circuit
3. Abnormal reading, but not an
immediate problem condition
4. Normal reading, circuit
malfunction not indicated

Back 236

A short in the circuit

Front 237

If the RTD for a Ø° to 3ØØ°F
meter were to become open
circuited, you would expect to
receive which of the following
indications?
1. Ø°F
2. 1ØØ°F
3. 2ØØ°F
4. 3ØØ°F

Back 237

4. 3ØØ°F

Front 238

At the shipboard level, what
corrective maintenance should you
perform on a defective RTD?
1. Remove the RTD and repair it
in the shop
2. Remove the RTD and replace it
with a new one
3. Repair the RTD in place
4. Add a resistor in series with
the RTD to correct the fault

Back 238

2. Remove the RTD and replace it
with a new one

Front 239

Both the resistance temperature
element (RTE) and the RTD operate
on the same principle. As the
sensor temperature
(a) the
increases, decreases
resistance of the element
(b)
increases, decreases at a
proportional value.
1. (a) increases (b) decreases
2. (a) increases (b) increases
3. (a) decreases (b) increases

Back 239

2. (a) increases (b) increases

Front 240

Remote mounted signal
conditioners convert the
resistance value of an RTE to
what output range?
1. Ø to 1Ø V dc
2. 4 to 2Ø V dc
3. Ø to 1Ø mA
4. 4 to 2Ø mA

Back 240

4. 4 to 2Ø mA

Front 241

Remote mounted signal
conditioners convert the
resistance value of an RTE to
what output range?
1. Ø to 1Ø V dc
2. 4 to 2Ø V dc
3. Ø to 1Ø mA
4. 4 to 2Ø mA

Back 241

4. 4 to 2Ø mA

Front 242

In a thermocouple, when two
dissimilar metals are fused
together at a junction by heat,
what small electrical value is
produced?
1. Voltage
2. Resistance
3. Inductance
4. Capacitance

Back 242

1. Voltage

Front 243

A single thermocouple fails on an
LM25ØØ engine. How should
maintenance personnel accomplish
repairs?
1. Change 1/3 of the
thermocouple harnesses
2. Change 1/4 of the
thermocouple harnesses
3. Change the single
thermocouple in the affected
harness
4. Change all four thermocouples
in the affected harneas

Back 243

. Change 1/4 of the
thermocouple harnesses

Front 244

Before signals are sent to the
local control panel (LOCOP) from
the Allison 5Ø1-K17
thermocouples, how are they
processed within the harness?
1. They are added
2. They are squared
3. They are averaged
4. They are multiplied

Back 244

3. They are averaged

Front 245

You are troubleshooting the
thermocouples on an Allison
5Ø1-K17 engine. Which of the
following meter readings
indicates that a thermocouple
needs replacement?
1. 11 ohms
2. 9 ohms
3. 7 ohms
4. 5 ohms

Back 245

1. 11 ohms

Front 246

While activating on a change of
temperature, a temperature switch
is actually operated by a change
of what operatlng parameter?
1. Voltage
2. Amperage
3. Pressure
4. Resistance

Back 246

3. Pressure

Front 247

The differential adjustment on a
temperature switch is used to
control what function?
1. The differential temperature
at which the contact's
opening set point and closing
set point will occur
2. The differential pressure at
which the contact's opening
set point and closing set
point will occur
3. The differential resistance
at which the contact's
opening set point and closing
set point will occur
4. The differential voltage at
which the contact's opening
set point and closing set
point will occur

Back 247

. The differential temperature
at which the contact's
opening set point and closing
set point will occur

Front 248

What pressure measuring
instruments are the primary types
used aboard ships?
1. Bourdon-tube and flexible
elements
2. Bourdon-tube and bellows
elements
3. Bellows and flexible elements
4. Bellows and compound elements

Back 248

2. Bourdon-tube and bellows
elements

Front 249

What type of mechanical pressure
gauge is most likely found on the
final discharge of an HP air
compressor?
1. Bourdon-tube
2. Diaphragm
3. Compound
4. Bellows

Back 249

Bourdon-tube

Front 250

What is the purpose of a duplex
gauge?
1. To measure both pressure and
vacuum
2. To measure differential
pressure
3. To give simultaneous readings
in psig and psia
4. To give simultaneous readings
from two different locations

Back 250

4. To give simultaneous readings
from two different locations

Front 251

What type of gauge is designed to
measure both pressure and vacuum?
1. Duplex
2. Simplex
3. Complex
4. Compound

Back 251

4. Compound

Front 252

Bellows-element gauges are used
for what primary application
aboard ship?
1. To measure high pressures
2. To measure high pressure
differentials
3. To measure low pressures
4. To measure low voltage
differentials

Back 252

3. To measure low pressures

Front 253

What is the purpose of a pressure
transducer?
1. To receive energy in the form
of pressure and give a
continuous local readout
2. To receive energy in the form
of pressure and retransmit it
as an electrical signal
3. To receive energy in the form
of an electrical signal and
condition it for use at the
engineering consoles
4. To receive energy in the form
of an electrical signal and
give a continuous local
readout

Back 253

2. To receive energy in the form
of pressure and retransmit it
as an electrical signal

Front 254

The output of a pressure
transducer is always 4 to 2Ø mA
dc, proportional to the input,
regardless of the pressure range
of the unit.
1. True
2. False

Back 254

1. True

Front 255

A pressure switch may provide all
EXCEPT which of the following
actions?
1. Indicate a position
2. Indicate an alarm
3. Start a motor
4. Stop a motor

Back 255

1. Indicate a position

Front 256

What construction feature of a
pressure switch prevents
excessive arcing when the
contacts open or close?
1. Spring tension
2. An eccentric cam
3. A permanent magnet
4. A dashpot

Back 256

A permanent magnet

Front 257

On gas turbine ships, what type
of sensor is used to determine
the specific level in a tank at
any given time?
1. Tank level
2. Float level
3. Liquid level
4. Contact level

Back 257

Tank level

Front 258

A typical TLI transmitter section
contains which of the following
networks?
1. Voltage multiplier resistor
2. Voltage multiplier inductor
3. Voltage divider resistor
4. Voltage divider inductor

Back 258

3. Voltage divider resistor

Front 259

In a seawater compensated fuel
tank, the float of the tank level
transmitter is designed to stay
at what location?
1. At the top of the fuel
2. At the seawater/fuel oil
interface
3. At the bottom of the seawater
4. Between the seawater/fuel oil
interface and the top of the
tank

Back 259

At the seawater/fuel oil
interface

Front 260

All EXCEPT which of the following
types of float level switches are
used on gas turbine ships?
1. Lever-operated
2. Magnet-equipped
3. Multiple magnet-equipped
4. Multiple lever-operated

Back 260

4. Multiple lever-operated

Front 261

Although meters on control
consoles may display units of
pressure or temperature, they are
actually what type of meter?
1. Ohmmeter
2. Ammeter
3. Voltmeter
4. Wattmeter

Back 261

3. Voltmeter

Front 262

Voltmeters installed in
switchboards (SWBD) and control
consoles all have what type of
resistance value?
1. Adjustable
2. Variable
3. Fixed
4. Infinite

Back 262

Fixed

Front 263

To allow an ammeter to handle
high SWBD current, what component
is installed with it?
1. A current transformer
2. A potential transformer
3. A step-down transformer
4. A step-up transformer

Back 263

A current transformer

Front 264

Installed frequency meters found
on gas turbine ships are NOT
capable of displaying which of
the following frequencies?
1. 52 Hz
2. 57 Hz
3. 6Ø Hz
4. 62 Hz

Back 264

1. 52 Hz
55-65 hz

Front 265

Normally, the first meter
indication of a failing generator
that is being operated in
parallel with a good generator is
a loss of which of the following
outputs?
1. Voltage
2. Amperage
3. Frequency
4. Kilowatt load

Back 265

Kilowatt load

Front 266

You are observing a synchroscope,
and the output frequency of the
oncoming generator and the
on-line generator are the same.
What indication will you receive
from the moving element
(pointer)?
1. It will hold a fixed position
2. It will rotate slow in the
fast direction
3. It will rotate fast in the
slow direction
4. It will oscillate erratically
back and forth between the
fact and slow direction

Back 266

It will hold a fixed position

Front 267

The purpose of the three neon
lamps located on the face of the
phase-sequence indicators is to
indicate what condition?
1. Three cables are connected to
the bus
2. The phase-sequence is correct
3. All three phases are
energized
4. One of the three fuses has
blown

Back 267

3. All three phases are
energized

Front 268

In the inlet of a GTE, which of the following statements
describes the detrimental
effect(s) of ice formation?
1. It can restrict airflow to
the gas turbine with a
resultant loss of power
2. In large quantities, ice may
break off, causing foreign
object damage (FOD)
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The ice may cool the inlet
air to the point where it is
too cold to support
combustion

Back 268

1. It can restrict airflow to
the gas turbine with a
resultant loss of power
2. In large quantities, ice may
break off, causing foreign
object damage (FOD)
3. Both 1 and 2 above

Front 269

In the ice detector sensor, what
is the approximate resistance of
the thermistor at 41°F?
1. 2.4Ø kilohms
2. 4.35 kilohms
3. 24.ØØ kilohms
4. 435.ØØ kilohms

Back 269

2.4Ø kilohms

Front 270

What are the two types of speed
pickups used on gas turbine
plants?
1. Tachometer and magnetic
2. Tachometer and inductive
3. Magnetic and inductive
4. Magnetic and photocell

Back 270

1. Tachometer and magnetic

Front 271

What type of speed sensor outputs
a square wave ac voltage?
1. Tachometer
2. Magnetic
3. Inductive
4. Photocell

Back 271

2. Magnetic

Front 272

To function properly, what type
of speed sensor must be set to
the proper depth?
1. Tachometer
2. Photocell
3. Inductive
4. Magnetic

Back 272

Magnetic

Front 273

High vibration indications on a
GTE can be caused by all EXCEPT
which of the following
conditions?
1. Failed bearings
2. Damaged blading
3. Dirty compressor
4. High engine temperatures

Back 273

High engine temperatures

Front 274

Filters are used with vibration
pickups for which of the
following reasons?
1. To dampen the cause of
vibration
2. To narrow down the cause of
vibration
3. To amplify the vibration
signal
4. To nullify the vibration
signal

Back 274

2. To narrow down the cause of
vibration

Front 275

The ultraviolet (UV) sensor in
the LM25ØØ enclosure has
electrodes that operate on what
specific type of current?
1. 4ØØ Hz ac
2. 6Ø Hz ac
3. Full wave dc
4. Pulsating dc

Back 275

4. Pulsating dc

Front 276

Valves used in high-pressure
systems and suitable for
temperatures above 550°F are made
of what metal?
1. Brass
2. Steel
3. Copper
4. Cast iron

Back 276

2. Steel

Front 277

Valves used in systems carrying
salt water are usually made of
which of the following metals?
1. Steel
2. Brass
3. Bronze
4. Copper

Back 277

Brass

Front 278

You must perform which of the
following actions to ensure the
identity of a globe valve?
1. An external inspection
2. An internal inspection
3. A reverse pressure test
4. A static pressure test

Back 278

. An internal inspection

Front 279

Gate valves are used when all
EXCEPT which of the following
conditions are required?
1. Straight line flow
2. Minimum restriction
3. Throttling
4. Positive stop action

Back 279

3. Throttling

Front 280

On a nonrising stem gate valve,
which of the following devices
indicates the open or closed
position?
1. A pointer threaded on the
stem
2. A flag on the valve handwheel
3. A color-coded indicator on
the valve body
4. A bull's eye in the valve
body

Back 280

1. A pointer threaded on the
stem

Front 281

What is the proper method to
fully open/close a butterfly
valve?
1. Turn the handwheel 9Ø°
2. Turn the handwheel 135°
3. Turn the lever 9Ø°
4. Turn the lever 18Ø°

Back 281

Turn the handwheel 9Ø°

Front 282

Which of the following statements
describes a ball valve?
1. A stop valve with a ballshaped
body
2. A check valve with a springloaded
ball inside
3. A check valve manufactured by
the Ball valve company
4. A stop valve that uses a ball
to start and stop the flow of
fluid

Back 282

4. A stop valve that uses a ball
to start and stop the flow of
fluid

Front 283

A check valve is used for which
of the following purposes?
1. To check the interior of the
piping
2. To dampen water hammer
3. To permit flow in one
direction only
4. To permit the controlled
reversing of flow

Back 283

3. To permit flow in one
direction only

Front 284

A stop-check valve looks and
works much like a lift-check
valve, EXCEPT for what feature?
1. Prevention of the reverse
flow of fluids at all times
2. The valve stem holds the disk
firmly against the seat when
screwed all the way down
3. Prevention of reverse flow
only when held closed by the
valve stem
4. The maximum lift is
controlled by the valve stem

Back 284

2. The valve stem holds the disk
firmly against the seat when
screwed all the way down

Front 285

The bleed air surge relief valve
differs from a normal relief
valve in that the bleed air valve
1. opens completely at a
specified lift pressure and
remains open until a preset
pressure is attained
2. closes completely at a
specified lift pressure and
slowly opens as system
pressure drops
3. opens completely at a
specified lift pressure and
then immediately closes
4. closes completely at a
specified lift pressure and
remains closed

Back 285

1. opens completely at a
specified lift pressure and
remains open until a preset
pressure is attained

Front 286

Which of the following devices is
a basic type of pressure reducing
valve?
1. Spring-loaded
2. Hydraulic-loaded
3. Hydraulic-diaphragm
4. Floating-disk

Back 286

Spring-loaded

Front 287

Which of the following methods of
operation is NOT normally used on
a remote-operated valve?
1. Mechanical
2. Electrical
3. Hydraulic
4. Chemical

Back 287

4. Chemical

Front 288

Diaphragm control valves with
air-operated control pilots may
be used for all EXCEPT which of
the following purposes?
1. To reduce pressure
2. To regulate pressure
3. To augment pressure
4. To deregulate pressure

Back 288

4. To deregulate pressure

Front 289

Along with the purpose of
installation, all EXCEPT which of
the following factors determine
how the air-operated control
pilot and the diaphragm control
valve are installed in relation
to each other?
1. If the air-operated control
pilot is direct acting or
reverse acting
2. If the air-operated control
pilot is upward seating or
downward seating
3. If the superstructure of the
diaphragm control valve is
direct acting or reverse
acting
4. If the diaphragm control
valve is upward seating or
downward seating

Back 289

2. If the air-operated control
pilot is upward seating or
downward seating

Front 290

A partial loss of pressure occurs
in a system with two or more
circuits. Which of the following
valves would ensure positive flow
to a particular circuit?
1. Regulating
2. Reducing
3. Priority
4. Stop check

Back 290

3. Priority

Front 291

When possible, valves should be
installed with the valve stems in
what position?
1. Pointing upward
2. Pointing downward
3. Facing right
4. Facing left

Back 291

Pointing upward

Front 292

Before installing a globe valve
in a system, you should refer to
the blueprints for the system to
determine what factor?
1. The weight of the valve
2. The make and model of the
valve
3. Whether the valve is to be
installed with pressure
applied above the disk or
below the disk
4. Whether the valve is to be
installed with the stem
pointing up or with the stem
pointing down

Back 292

3. Whether the valve is to be
installed with pressure
applied above the disk or
below the disk

Front 293

A thorough visual inspection
indicated that a valve disk and
seat are in good condition.
Which of the following procedures
should you perform to verify
their condition?
1. Grind-in the disk and seat
2. Spot-in the disk and seat
3. Reface the disk and seat
4. Lap the disk and seat

Back 293

2. Spot-in the disk and seat

Front 294

When spotting-in a valve seat,
coat the valve disk with Prussian
blue, insert it, rotate it
one-quarter turn, and then remove
the valve disk. After performing
this procedure, what should you
look for to determine the points
where the valve disk makes
contact with the seat?
1. Blue areas on the disk
2. Blue areas on the seat
3. Shiny areas on the disk
4. Shiny areas on the seat

Back 294

Blue areas on the disk

Front 295

You should remove very small
irregularities from a valve disk
by grinding the disk against what
object?
1. A lapping tool
2. A reseating tool
3. A chisel
4. The valve seat

Back 295

The valve seat

Front 296

To broaden seat contacts, what
process should follow machining
of valve seats or disks?
1. Grinding-in
2. Spotting-in
3. Refacing
4. Lapping

Back 296

Grinding-in

Front 297

When you CANNOT remove small
irregularities in the valve seat
by grinding-in, which of the
following methods of repairing a
valve seat should you use?1. Spotting-in
2. Filing
3. Machining
4. Lapping

Back 297

Machining

Front 298

Which of the following actions
should follow a valve lapping
job?
1. Grind-in the disk to the seat
2. Spot-in the disk to the seat
3. Spot-in and reface the disk
to the seat
4. Spot-in and grind-in the disk
to the seat

Back 298

4. Spot-in and grind-in the disk
to the seat

Front 299

When resurfacing a valve with a
steel (hard-surfaced) seat, you
should use what device?
1. A reseating tool
2. A lapping tool
3. A valve grinder
4. A lathe

Back 299

A lathe

Front 300

Why are steam traps installed in
steam lines?
1. To stop steam from passing
through the line when it is
not wanted
2. To drain condensate from
steam lines without the loss
of steam
3. To reduce high-pressure steam
to low-pressure steam
4. To purge steam from hot water
lines when the pumps become
vapor bound

Back 300

2. To drain condensate from
steam lines without the loss
of steam

Front 301

Why are steam traps installed in
steam lines?
1. To stop steam from passing
through the line when it is
not wanted
2. To drain condensate from
steam lines without the loss
of steam
3. To reduce high-pressure steam
to low-pressure steam
4. To purge steam from hot water
lines when the pumps become
vapor bound

Back 301

2. To drain condensate from
steam lines without the loss
of steam

Front 302

The operation of the ball and the
bucket steam traps are similar,
but their designs are basically
different. What specific
operational feature do they have
in common?
1. The ball or bucket expands to
close the outlet valve
2. The ball or bucket contracts
to close the outlet valve
3 . The ball or bucket rises to
close the outlet valve
4. The ball or bucket descends
to close the outlet valve

Back 302

3 . The ball or bucket rises to close the outlet valve

Front 303

In the operation of a bimetallic
steam trap, what factor tends to
keep the valve open?
1. Line pressure acting on a
check valve
2. Line pressure acting on a
atop valve
3. Condensate flow through an
orifice
4. Condensate flow through a
venturi

Back 303

. Line pressure acting on a
check valve

Front 304

When are orifice-type steam traps
used?
1. When condensate seldom forms
2. When condensate forms at a
fairly steady rate
3. When the systems are used
only intermittently
4. When the systems are used
only in cold weather

Back 304

2. When condensate forms at a
fairly steady rate

Front 305

Why are strainers installed
upstream of steam traps?
1. To aid in condensing the
steam before it enters the
trap
2. To prevent scale and sediment
from flowing downstream and
damaging machinery
3. To collect condensation and
act as an auxiliary trap if
the steam trap fails
4. To keep scale and sediment
from entering the trap

Back 305

4. To keep scale and sediment
from entering the trap

Front 306

Which of the following methods is
NOT recommended for checking the
operation of steam traps?
1. Cut out traps one at a time
2. Listen for a blowing sound
3. Check the pressure in the
drain system
4. Secure the drain system

Back 306

Secure the drain system

Front 307

Filters/strainers are installed
in piping systems for all EXCEPT
which of the following purposes?
1. To provide a location to
inspect the interior of the
pipe
2. To prevent the passage of
scale, dirt, or grit
3. To protect system valves and
machinery from damage
4. To keep the fluids in a
system clean

Back 307

1. To provide a location to
inspect the interior of the
pipe

Front 308

A filter with a nominal rating of
12 microns can trap all EXCEPT
which of the following size
particles?
1. 1Ø microns
2. 2Ø microns
3. 3Ø microns
4. 4Ø microns

Back 308

. 1Ø microns

Front 309

A filter with an absolute rating
of 35 microns would trap all
EXCEPT which of the following
size particles?
1. 6Ø microns
2. 5Ø microns
3. 4Ø microns
4. 3Ø microns

Back 309

4. 3Ø microns

Front 310

A strainer is usually installed
in all EXCEPT which of the
following locations?
1. The outlet of a high-pressure
air flask
2. The inlet of a centrifugal
pump
3. The suction of a screw type
pump
4. The sump of a hydraulic
system

Back 310

4. The sump of a hydraulic
system

Front 311

Traps particles between closely
woven metal screens/disks or in
metal baskets.

Back 311

MECHANICAL

Front 312

Traps particles by using
resin-impregnated porous
materials.

Back 312

ABSORBENT

Front 313

Traps particles by using charcoal
or Fuller's earth.

Back 313

ADSORBENT

Front 314

SIMPLEX

Back 314

Total flow must pass through the
filter.

Front 315

Most commonly used in fuel or
hydraulic systems because it has
the capability to be shifted to
an off-line filter.

Back 315

DUPLEX

Front 316

The bypass valve will open if
total flow cannot pass through
the filter without raising system
pressure.

Back 316

FULL-FLOW

Front 317

Flow can pass in either
direction, and a venturi throat
is used to increase velocity and
decrease pressure.

Back 317

PROPORTIONAL FLOW

Front 318

Most commonly used in seawater
systems and is prohibited from
use in fuel systems.

Back 318

IN-LINE

Front 319

Continued operation of a system
with unfiltered fluids will cause
all EXCEPT which of the following
results?
1. Accelerated pump wear
2. System degradation
3. Dull valve disks
4. System clogging

Back 319

Dull valve disks

Front 320

Heat exchangers are classified
according to all EXCEPT which of
the following requirements?
1. The construction features
2. The path of heat flow
3. The relative direction of
fluid flow
4. The fluid being cooled/heated

Back 320

4. The fluid being cooled/heated

Front 321

Return bend

Back 321

U-shaped
tube on
one tube
sheet

Front 322

Helical tube

Back 322

One tube
inside
another

Front 323

Double-tube

Back 323

One tube
inside
another

Front 324

Strut tube

Back 324

Pairs of
flat,
oblong
strips

Front 325

Spiral tube

Back 325

Coils of
tubing

Front 326

Which of the following operating
conditions may require the most
frequent cleaning of a seawater
cooled heat exchanger?
1. Operating for short time
periods in deep fresh water
2. Operating for long time
periods in shallow fresh
water
3. Operating for short time
periods in deep seawater
4. Operating for long time
periods in shallow seawater

Back 326

4. Operating for long time
periods in shallow seawater

Front 327

The Navy makes a distinction
between pipe and tubing based on
the way the size of the product
is identified.
1. True
2. False

Back 327

. True

Front 328

Which of the following dimensions
is NOT important in classifying a
tubular product as either pipe or
tubing?
1. Inside diameter (ID)
2. Outside diameter (OD)
3. External circumference
4. Wall thickness

Back 328

External circumference

Front 329

The Navy designates a product as
tubing when its size is
identified by which of the
following actual measured
dimensions?
1. Inside diameter and wall
thickness
2. Outside diameter and wall
thickness
3. Inside diameter and
circumference
4. Outside diameter and
circumference

Back 329

2. Outside diameter and wall
thickness

Front 330

The principle purpose of flexible
hose is to absorb motion between
which of the following equipment?
1. Fixed mounted machinery and
fixed piping systems
2. Fixed mounted machinery and
fixed foundations
3 . Resiliently mounted machinery
and fixed or resiliently
mounted piping systems
4. Resiliently mounted
foundations and fixed
electric motors

Back 330

. Resiliently mounted machinery
and fixed or resiliently
mounted piping systems

Front 331

The principle purpose of flexible
hose is to absorb motion between
which of the following equipment?
1. Fixed mounted machinery and
fixed piping systems
2. Fixed mounted machinery and
fixed foundations
3 . Resiliently mounted machinery
and fixed or resiliently
mounted piping systems
4. Resiliently mounted
foundations and fixed
electric motors

Back 331

3 . Resiliently mounted machinery
and fixed or resiliently
mounted piping systems

Front 332

What is the maximum inside
diameter of flexible hose that
can be used for a single hose or
a 18Ø° hose configuration?
1. 1 in.
2 . 3 in.
3 . 4 in.
4 . 5 in.

Back 332

1. 1 in.

Front 333

The dash number on a flexible
hose identifies what
specification of the hose?
1. Nominal inside diameter in
8ths of an inch
2. Nominal inside diameter in
16ths of an inch
3. Nominal outside diameter in
8ths of an inch
4. Nominal outside diameter in
16ths of an inch

Back 333

2. Nominal inside diameter in
16ths of an inch

Front 334

When making up a new hose, you
should select hose material that
has NOT exceeded what maximum
shelf life'?
1. 1 yr
2. 2 yr
3. 3 Yr
4. 4 yr

Back 334

4. 4 yr

Front 335

When checking an assembled hose
for twisting, you should use what
reference point?
1. The circumferential chalk
line on the hose next to the
coupling
2. The horizontal chalk line on
the hose next to the coupling
3. The hose lay line
4. The manufacturer's guide mark
on the coupling

Back 335

3. The hose lay line

Front 336

New flexible hose should be
hydrostatically tested with
(a) at
fresh water, salt water
(b) the
twice, three times
maximum pressure shown in the
Naval Ships' Technical Manual
(NSTM), chapter 5Ø5, for each
size and style hose.
1. (a) fresh water (b) three
times
2. (a) fresh water (b) twice
3. (a) salt water (b) three
times
4. (a) salt water (b) twice

Back 336

2. (a) fresh water (b) twice

Front 337

When a newly assembled hose is
air tested for the first time,
the appearance of random air
bubbles over the hose and in the
fitting area may indicate all
EXCEPT which of the following
conditions?
1. A leak in the hose
2. A leak in the fitting
3. Excessive test pressure
4. Normal test results

Back 337

4. Normal test results

Front 338

Which of the following conditions
may be indicated by the
discolored fitting?
1. The wire reinforcement is
rusting
2. The liner is deteriorating
3. Overpressurization of the
hose
4. Distortion of the hose

Back 338

1. The wire reinforcement is
rusting

Front 339

Hoses should be stored in an area
where the maximum temperature
does NOT exceed what level?
1. 75°F
2. 1ØØ°F
3. 125°F
4. 15Ø°F

Back 339

3. 125°F

Front 340

All flexible (rubber) hose
assemblies installed in critical
systems will be replaced at what
time interval?
1. 5 yr ±6 months
2. 7 yr ±6 months
3. 9 yr ±6 months
4. 12 yr ±6 months

Back 340

1. 5 yr ±6 months

Front 341

In pipe joint construction, the
ends of the pipe are sometimes
silver-brazed or welded to tail
pieces of the union for what
purpose?
1. To prevent disassembly of a
gas tight joint
2. To prevent contact of the
carried fluid or gas with the
union threads
3. To provide insulation between
the pipes and the union
4. To increase the strength of
the joint

Back 341

2. To prevent contact of the
carried fluid or gas with the
union threads

Front 342

On piping that is
subjected to high pressure
and heavy expansion
strains

Back 342

VAN STONE

Front 343

On high-pressure
piping systems

Back 343

WELDED

Front 344

For joining nonferrous
piping in
steam lines
subjected to
temperatures
up to 425°F
and pressures
up to 3ØØØ psi

Back 344

SILVER-BRAZED

Front 345

Unions are used in a piping
systems for which of the
following purposes?
1. To join pipes so they can be
taken down for repairs or
alterations
2. To join pipes that must be
installed in a permanent
position
3. To provide a joint that will
expand or contract with
changes in temperature
4. To provide a joint that can
withstand high pressure and
heavy strains

Back 345

1. To join pipes so they can be
taken down for repairs or
alterations

Front 346

Flange safety shields used on
flammable liquid piping systems
are usually made of what
material?
1. Aluminum tape
2. Asbestos fabric
3. Galvanized sheet metal
4. Aluminized glass cloth

Back 346

4. Aluminized glass cloth

Front 347

Pipe hangers and supports are
designed to support the weight of
all EXCEPT which of the following
components?
1. The piping
2. The insulation
3. The system fluid
4. The total system, including
the pumps and motors

Back 347

4. The total system, including
the pumps and motors

Front 348

When stenciling a section of
3 1/2 inch piping, what size
stencil should you use?
1. 1/2 in.
2. 3/4 in.
3. 1 i n .
4. 1 1/2 in.

Back 348

3. 1 i n

Front 349

What parts of the packing
identification symbol number will
help you make the proper
selection with respect to type of
joint and type of packing
material, respectively?
1. First and second digits
2. First and third digits
3. Second and third digits only
4. Second, third, and fourth
digits

Back 349

1. First and second digits

Front 350

Pumps aboard gas turbine ships
are used for all EXCEPT which
of the following functions?
1. To provide fuel oil to the
GTEs
2. To supply seawater for the
coolers in the engineering
spaces
3. To draw condensate out of
the main and auxiliary
condensers
4. To pump out the bilges

Back 350

3. To draw condensate out of
the main and auxiliary
condensers

Front 351

Which of the following pumps is
NOT used aboard gas turbine
ships?
1. Jet
2. Rotary
3. Centrifugal
4. Wankel

Back 351

4. Wankel

Front 352

Centrifugal pumps may be
classified as all EXCEPT which
of the following types?
1. Multistage
2. Single-etage
3. Horizontal or vertical
4. Angular or perpendicular

Back 352

4. Angular or perpendicular

Front 353

Closed impellers, used by the
Navy on most centrifugal pumps,
differ from open impellers in
that closed impellers
1. allow liquid to enter the
eye from one direction only
2. have small impeller eyes
3. have side walls which extend
from the eye to the outer
edge of the vane tips
4. are not vented above the
impeller eye

Back 353

3. have side walls which extend
from the eye to the outer
edge of the vane tips

Front 354

All EXCEPT which of the
following construction features
are necessary in centrifugal
pumps?
1. Balanced impellers
2. Carefully machined impellers
3. A close radial clearance
between the outer hub of the
impeller and the part of the
pump casing in which the hub
rotates
4. A close axial clearance
between the inner hub of the
volute and the impeller

Back 354

4. A close axial clearance
between the inner hub of the
volute and the impeller

Front 355

What feature of a centrifugal
pump reduces the need for
renewing a worn impeller or pump
casing?
1. Close radial clearance
between the impeller hub and
the casing
2. Low rotational speed of the
impeller
3. Removable end plate
4. Replaceable impeller wearing
ring and casing wearing ring

Back 355

4. Replaceable impeller wearing
ring and casing wearing ring

Front 356

Why are removable sleeves put
on a centrifugal pump shaft?
1. To simplify pump
maintenance
2. To reduce the expense of
pump repair
3. To lighten the weight of
the pump
4. To increase the strength of
the shaft

Back 356

2. To reduce the expense of
pump repair

Front 357

Which of the following pumps is
a nonpositive-displacement
pump?
1. Gear
2. Screw
3. Moving vane
4. Centrifugal

Back 357

4. Centrifugal

Front 358

Pressure head is the term
applied to the combined effects
of liquid weight, fluid
friction, and what other
factor?
1. Back-pressure valves
2. Obstruction to flow
3. Relief valves
4. Piping size

Back 358

2. Obstruction to flow

Front 359

When the pressure head on a
centrifugal pump increases,
what effect does this have on
(a) the pump discharge pressure
and (b) the volume?
1. (a) Increases (b) increases
2. (a) Decreases (b) decreases
3. (a) Decreases (b) increases
4. (a) Increases (b) decreases

Back 359

1. (a) Increases (b) increases

Front 360

What factor prevents excessive
pressure buildup in this pump?
1. The impeller slips through
the liquid in the casing
2. A built-in relief valve is
installed on the pump
discharge
3. The impeller is also
blocked
4. Pressure head and discharge
head are not equal

Back 360

1. The impeller slips through
the liquid in the casing

Front 361

What factor prevents excessive
pressure buildup in this pump?
1. The impeller slips through
the liquid in the casing
2. A built-in relief valve is
installed on the pump
discharge
3. The impeller is also
blocked
4. Pressure head and discharge
head are not equal

Back 361

. The impeller slips through
the liquid in the casing

Front 362

Why are recirculating lines
normally installed between the
discharge and suction piping of
centrifugal pumps used for
intermittent service?
1. To help prevent the pump
from overheating
2. To eliminate the need for
relief valves
3. To prevent excessive
pressure buildup
4. To keep the pump primed

Back 362

1. To help prevent the pump
from overheating

Front 363

What device is normally
installed in the discharge
piping of centrifugal pumps to
prevent reverse flow of the
liquid?
1. A check valve
2. A globe valve
3. A gate valve
4. A stop valve

Back 363

1. A check valve

Front 364

Conventional packing is being
replaced by mechanical seals on
most centrifugal pumps because
mechanical seals have which of
the following characteristics?
1. They are less expensive than
packing
2. They are easier to install
than packing
3. They eliminate excessive
stuffing box leakage
4. They never wear out when
installed properly

Back 364

. They eliminate excessive
stuffing box leakage

Front 365

Why is positive liquid pressure
supplied to, and circulated
around, the seal faces?
1. To lubricate the seal
2. To cool the seal
3. To prevent the seal faces
from touching
4. To minimize the deposit of
foreign matter on the seal
parts

Back 365

4. To minimize the deposit of
foreign matter on the seal
parts

Front 366

Which of the following design
features maintains the snug fit
between the rotating and
stationary parts of the seal?
1. Spring pressure
2. Notch and keyway
3. A seal retaining ring
4. A bellows

Back 366

1. Spring pressure

Front 367

The seal glands on fire pumps
and seawater pumps are designed
to accommodate two or more
rings of packing. Which of the
following malfunctions would
require their use?
1. Mechanical seal spring
tension insufficlent
2. Mechanical seal failure
3. Seal O-ring failure
4. Shaft sleeve failure

Back 367

2. Mechanical seal failure

Front 368

Why are water flingers
installed on pump shafts?
1. To keep foreign matter out
of the pump casing
2. To prevent leakage from the
stuffing box from traveling
along the shaft and
entering the motor housing
3. To prevent leakage from the
stuffing box from traveling
along the shaft and
entering the bearing
housing
4. To keep foreign matter out
of the motor housing

Back 368

3. To prevent leakage from the
stuffing box from traveling
along the shaft and
entering the bearing
housing

Front 369

Wearing ring clearances can be
checked without any disassembly
of the pump.
1. True
2. False

Back 369

2. False

Front 370

Failure to replace pump casing
wearing rings when the allowable
clearance is exceeded may
produce which of the following
results?
1. A decrease of pump capacity
and efficiency
2. An excessive discharge
pressure
3 . A decrease in normal pump
vibrations
4. An excessive shaft
misalignment

Back 370

1. A decrease of pump capacity
and efficiency

Front 371

To check wearing ring clearance,
you should use which of the
following tools?
1. A special measuring jig
2. A dial indicator
3. Inside and outside
micrometers
4. Thickness gauges

Back 371

3. Inside and outside
micrometers

Front 372

When a centrifugal pump does NOT
deliver liquid, the trouble may
be caused by all EXCEPT which of
the following conditions?
1. Insufficient priming
2. Improper system alignment
(closed valves)
3. High inlet pressure
4. Wrong direction of rotation

Back 372

3. High inlet pressure

Front 373

A motor driven centrifugal pump
takes too much power and
overheats. This problem can be
caused by which of the following
conditions?
1. Operation of the pump at
excess capacity and
insufficient discharge
pressure
2. Excessively loose stuffing
box packing
3. Alignment adjusted too close
to tolerance
4. Seal vent line closed

Back 373

1. Operation of the pump at
excess capacity and
insufficient discharge
pressure

Front 374

Which of the following types of
pumps are classified as rotary?
1. Screw, moving vane, and jet
2 . Screw, axial piston, and
eductor
3 . Gear, screw, and eductor
4 . Gear, screw, and moving
vane

Back 374

4 . Gear, screw, and moving
vane

Front 375

The MRG performs which of the
following functions?
1. It transfers low-speed gas
turbine rotation to
high-speed propeller rotation
2. It transfers high-speed gas
turbine rotation to low-speed
propeller rotation
3. It reduces gas turbine speed
for clutch engagement
4. It increases gas turbine
speed for clutch engagement

Back 375

2. It transfers high-speed gas
turbine rotation to low-speed
propeller rotation

Front 376

What is the speed reduction ratio
of the MRG?
1. 18.45 to 1
2. 2Ø.31 to 1
3. 21.49 to 1
4. 25.ØØ to 1

Back 376

3. 21.49 to 1

Front 377

The second-reduction pinions
drive what component(s)?
1. The first-reduction pinion
2. The first-reduction gear
3. The second-reduction gear
4. The high-speed input shafts

Back 377

3. The second-reduction gear

Front 378

What type of MPG arrangement
prevents independent axial and
rotational movement of the
pinions?
1. Locked train
2. Unlocked train
3. Hydraulic suspension
4. Independent suspension

Back 378

1. Locked train

Front 379

What feature of the journal
bearings used for the input
shafts and first-reduction
pinions corrects for
misalignment?
1. Tilt pad
2. Fixed pad
3. Locked train
4. Free floating

Back 379

1. Tilt pad

Front 380

What lubrication principle is
used by the Kingsbury thrust
bearing?
1. Cylindrical-shaped oil film
2. Square-shaped oil film
3. Free sliding oil film
4. Wedge-shaped oil film

Back 380

4. Wedge-shaped oil film

Front 381

The main thrust bearing directly
positions what part(s) of the
MRG?
1. The low-speed gear
2. The high-speed gear
3. The low-speed pinions
4. The high-speed pinions

Back 381

1. The low-speed gear

Front 382

What type of components are
required in the control air
system (COAS) unit for monitoring
of the brake/clutch assembly?
1. Pneumatic and hydraulic
2. Electronic and mechanical
3. Pneumatic and electronic
4. Hydraulic and mechanical

Back 382

3. Pneumatic and electronic

Front 383

Soft initial actuation of the
brake is provided by setting the
air-pressure regulator to what
pressure?
1. 2Ø psig
2. 3Ø psig
3. 5Ø psig
4. 1ØØ psig

Back 383

1. 2Ø psig

Front 384

The SSS clutch is designed to
permit the operation of how many
GTEs?
1. One only
2. Two only
3. One or two
4. Four together

Back 384

3. One or two

Front 385

The primary pawls become
centrifugally disengaged from the
external ratchet ring at
approximately what speed?
1. 3ØØ rpm
2. 5ØØ rpm
3. 75Ø rpm
4. 1ØØØ rpm

Back 385

2. 5ØØ rpm

Front 386

The main function of the SSS
clutch oil dashpot is to cushion
the final movement of what
component?
1. The input assembly
2. The relay assembly
3. The engage/disengage assembly
4. The main sliding assembly

Back 386

4. The main sliding assembly

Front 387

To permit operation of the GTE
without engaging the clutch,
which of the following components
is used?
1. The hydraulic lockout control
2. The pneumatic lockout control
3. The manual lockout control
4. The electronically actuated
lockout control

Back 387

3. The manual lockout control

Front 388

Check valves are located in the
MRG lube oil system for which of
the following reasons?
1. To prevent reverse flow
through a secured pump
2. To prevent loss of oil from
the MRG sump
3. To maintain pressure on the
lube oil system
4. To divert lube oil to the
LOSCA tanks

Back 388

1. To prevent reverse flow
through a secured pump

Front 389

What is the minimum amount of
lube oil that must be maintained
in the MRG sump?
1. 125Ø gal
2. 14ØØ gal
3. 155Ø gal
4. 17ØØ gal

Back 389

2. 14ØØ gal

Front 390

Motor-operated lube oil pump
control logic will change pump
speed to a lower speed under
which of the following
conditions?
1. When the ship's speed
increases only
2. When the ship's speed
increases and pump output
capacity exceeds the unloaded
regulating capacity
3. When the ship's speed
decreases only
4. When the ship's speed
decreases and pump output
capacity exceeds the unloaded
regulating capacity

Back 390

2. When the ship's speed
increases and pump output
capacity exceeds the unloaded
regulating capacity

Front 391

What component provides
information to the pump control
logic to control the motoroperated
lube oil pumps?
1. The pressure gauge
2. The pressure switch
3. The pressure transducer
4. The resistance temperature
detector (RTD)

Back 391

3. The pressure transducer

Front 392

The temperature sensor for the
lube oil cooler pneumatically
operated regulating valve is
located in what section of the
cooler piping?
1. Upstream in the seawater
inlet piping
2. Downstream in the seawater
discharge piping
3. Upstream in the lube oil
inlet piping
4. Downstream in the lube oil
discharge piping

Back 392

2 OR 4

Front 393

The unloading valve is set to
maintain MRG header lube oil
pressure at what minimum
pressure?
1. 12 psig
2. 15 psig
3. 2Ø psig
4. 25 psig

Back 393

2. 15 psig

Front 394

The lube oil coastdown pump on
the FFG class ship will secure
under all EXCEPT which of the
following situations?
1. When air in the high-pressure
flask is completely exhausted
2. When the electric pump
restores system pressure to
a minimum 15 psig
3. When the propulsion shaft
stops rotation
4. When electrical power is
secured to the main pumps

Back 394

4. When electrical power is
secured to the main pumps

Front 395

The purpose of the turning gear
is to rotate the entire gear
train of the MRG for inspection
and maintenance. It can also be
used for which of the following
functions?
1. To assist the auxiliary
propulsion unit if the main
engines fail
2. To lock the main shaft
3. To unlock the main engines in
case of bearing failure
4. To ensure a satisfactory
shaft brake test

Back 395

2. To lock the main shaft

Front 396

The turning gears for the DD and
DDG class ships rotate the
propulsion shaft at how many
turns per hour?
1. Six
2. Five
3. Three
4. Eight

Back 396

1. Six

Front 397

Prior to engaging the turning
gear on a CG class ship, which of
the following permissives must be
met?
1. Clutch engaged
2. >9 psig lube oil pressure
3. GTE running
4. Shaft locked

Back 397

2. >9 psig lube oil pressure

Front 398

The attached lube oil pump may be
disengaged by the operator while
the MPG is in operation.
1. True
2. False

Back 398

2. False

Front 399

The electrostatic vent fog
precipitator removes oil mist
from which of the following
areas?
1. The engine room
2. The bilges
3. The GTE
4. The MRG

Back 399

4. The MRG

Front 400

When the MRG lube oil system is
secured, which of the following
components maintains the air
within the casing at less than 35
percent relative humidity?
1. The rehumidifier
2. The dehumidifier
3. The precipitator
4. The recipitator

Back 400

2. The dehumidifier

Front 401

The signal conditioning enclosure
(S/CE) receives the tachometer
signals at how many pulses per
shaft revolution?
1. 125
2. 22Ø
3. 256
4. 512

Back 401

3. 256

Front 402

At what pressure does the turbine
brake input air pressure low
alarm activate?
1. 4Ø psi
2. 6Ø psi
3. 7Ø psi
4. 125 psi

Back 402

3. 7Ø psi

Front 403

The propeller shaft brake
solenoid valve may be
electrically controlled from all
EXCEPT which of the following
consoles?
1. The PCC
2. The LOP
3. The SCC
4. The DCC

Back 403

4. The DCC

Front 404

When operating in automatic pitch
control, the electrohydraulic
control oil servo valve is
actuated by what type of signal?
1. Hydraulic
2. Pneumatic
3. Mechanical
4. Electrical

Back 404

4. Electrical

Front 405

Rotation of the propeller blades
is caused by axial movement of
what component in the hub body
assembly?
1. The crosshead
2. The sliding block
3. The crankpin ring
4. The servomotor piston

Back 405

1. The crosshead

Front 406

Pitch translation in either the
forward or aft direction
continues until which of the
following actions occurs?
1. The forward ports in the
valve pin are blocked off
2. The valve pin is centered in
the valve liner
3. The return oil ports in the
valve pin align with the
forward ports in the valve
liner
4. The return oil ports In the
valve pin align with the aft
ports in the valve liner

Back 406

2. The valve pin is centered in
the valve liner

Front 407

What type of valve prevents
seawater from entering the
prairie air (PA) system through
the propeller blades when the PA
system is NOT in operation?
1. Butterfly
2. Relief
3. Check
4. stop

Back 407

3. Check

Front 408

The hub purge valve serves to
relieve pressure in the forward
chamber of the servomotor
cylinder when what situation
occurs?
1. The propeller is stroked
beyond its full ahead pitch
limits
2. The propeller is stroked
beyond its full astern pitch
limits
3. During changes of blade
thrust loading
4. During high-pressure oil
surges

Back 408

2. The propeller is stroked
beyond its full astern pitch
limits

Front 409

The transfer of the axial forces
of the piston to the distance
tube and valve rod is provided by
what component?
1. The flanged joint
2. The bearing assembly
3. The threaded connection
4. The friction plate assembly

Back 409

2. The bearing assembly

Front 410

When the emergency pitch
positioner is operated, the
changeover valves must be in what
position?
1. Off
2. Auto
3. Manual

Back 410

1. Off

Front 411

If the electric pump fails to
maintain system pressure, which
of the following valves directs
flow from the hydraulic pump to
the main flow path?
1. Sequence
2. Pump relief
3. Auxiliary relief
4. Pilot-operated unloading

Back 411

4. Pilot-operated unloading

Front 412

The high-pressure oil relief
valve is set to relieve pressure
if it exceeds what set point?
1. 6ØØ psig
2. 1ØØØ psig
3. 15ØØ psig
4. 2ØØØ psig

Back 412

2. 1ØØØ psig

Front 413

Return oil from the hub flows
back to the pump through what
section of the propulsion shaft?
1. Between the PA tube and the
sliding block assembly
2. Between the PA tube and the
valve control body
3. Between the outside surface
of the valve control rod and
the inside surface of the
propeller shaft
4. Between the inside surface of
the valve control rod and the
outside surface of the
propeller shaft

Back 413

3. Between the outside surface
of the valve control rod and
the inside surface of the
propeller shaft

Front 414

What is the function of the head
tank?
1. To provide extra oil for
maintaining the normal sump
level
2. To prevent seawater from
entering the hydraulic system
when it is secured
3. To provide static head
pressure for maintaining
proper control oil pressure
4. To provide dynamic head
pressure for maintaining
proper high-pressure oil
pressure

Back 414

3. To provide static head
pressure for maintaining
proper control oil pressure

Front 415

The direction in which the
control oil servo valve opens and
directs control oil to the oil
distribution (OD) box piston is
determined by which of the
following inputs?
1. The command signal timing
2. The command signal polarity
3. The command feedback timing
4. The command feedback polarity

Back 415

2. The command signal polarity

Front 416

The feedback signal that causes
the control oil servo valve to
close is generated from what
component of the pitch control
system?
1. The follow-up rod
2. The shaped potentiometer
3. The linear potentiometer
4. The electronics enclosure

Back 416

3. The linear potentiometer

Front 417

What factor or device maintains
the pilot valve in the centered
position with zero voltage
applied to the coils?
1. Mechanical interlocks
2. Electrical interlocks
3. External oil pressure
4. Internal oil pressure

Back 417

4. Internal oil pressure

Front 418

The linear potentiometer provides
a signal that is used for-digital
demand display at the electronics
control station (ECS).
1. True
2. False

Back 418

2. False

Front 419

What type of oil is used to
lubricate the line shaft bearings
(LSBs)?
1. 219Ø TEP
2. 23699-C
3. 925Ø
4. 95ØØ

Back 419

1. 219Ø TEP

Front 420

The strut bearings are cooled by
which of the following methods?
1. The ship's seawater service
system
2. The ship's firemain system
3. Seawater immersion
4. Seawater injection

Back 420

3. Seawater immersion

Front 421

On the bulkhead seal assembly,
which of the following components
hold the pressure ring and carbon
sealing rings in place?
1. Compression springs
2. Sealing disc stops
3. Garter springs
4. Sealing discs

Back 421

3. Garter springs

Front 422

What type of ac generator is used
aboard gas turbine ships?
1. Rotating field--rotating
armature
2. Stationary field--stationary
armature
3. Rotating field--stationary
armature
4. Stationary field--rotating
armature

Back 422

3. Rotating field--stationary
armature

Front 423

The design speed of a generator
determines the number of magnetic
poles needed in the rotor and
what other factor?
1. The output amperage
2. The output voltage
3. The output wattage
4. The output frequency

Back 423

4. The output frequency

Front 424

To vary the resistive load
balance of two generators
operating in parallel, what
parameter must be varied?
1. The prime mover speed
2. The generator voltage
3. The permanent magnet
alternator (PMA) excitation
current
4. The kW load balance signal

Back 424

1. The prime mover speed

Front 425

What is the most common type of
large motor found on gas turbine
ships?
1. Single-phase
2. Double-phase
3. 3-phase
4. 4-phase

Back 425

3. 3-phase

Front 426

In a polyphase motor, motor
torque is developed by
interaction of the rotor's
magnetic field and what other
factor?
1. The stator's stationary
magnetic field
2. The stator's revolving
magnetic field
3. The rotor's inductive field
4. The rotor's conductive field

Back 426

2. The stator's revolving
magnetic field

Front 427

When compared with 3-phase
motors, the major disadvantage of
single-phase induction motors is
that they
1. are much smaller
2. are more expensive
3. need more connections at the
motor
4. need a special design stator
to aid starting

Back 427

4. need a special design stator
to aid starting

Front 428

The starting and main windings of
a split-phase motor are displaced
by how many electrical degrees?
1. 3Ø
2. 6Ø
3. 9Ø
4. 12Ø

Back 428

3. 9Ø

Front 429

In a capacitor motor, how is the
capacitor connected?
1. In series with the run
winding
2. In series with the start
winding
3. In parallel with the run
winding
4. In parallel with the start
winding

Back 429

2. In series with the start
winding

Front 430

Which of the following is a
feature of a universal motor?
1. It may operate on any
frequency
2. It may be made to fit any
equipment
3. It may operate on either dc
or single-phase ac voltages
4. It may output unlimited
horsepower

Back 430

3. It may operate on either dc
or single-phase ac voltages

Front 431

Disconnect links in 6Ø-Hz SWBDs
are used for which of the
following reasons?
1. To disconnect the generator
from the bus
2. To isolate one section of a
SWBD in a casualty
3. To supply casualty power
4. To isolate control circuits

Back 431

2. To isolate one section of a
SWBD in a casualty

Front 432

What is the maximum number of
circuits used in a power panel?
1. 32
2. 16
3. 8
4. 4

Back 432

2. 16

Front 433

What is the function of the
transformer banks used to feed
some types of distribution
panels?
1. To triple the voltage input
to large motor start windings
2. To double the voltage input
to large motor run windings
3. To reduce the input voltage
from 45Ø volts to 115 volts
4. To increase the input voltage
from 15Ø volts to 45Ø volts

Back 433

3. To reduce the input voltage
from 45Ø volts to 115 volts

Front 434

The purposes of a CB are to
provide circuit isolation,
switching operation, and what
other function?
1. Circuit overload
2. Circuit protection
3. Low-voltage protection (LVP)
4. Low-voltage release (LVR

Back 434

2. Circuit protection

Front 435

What type of CBs are used to
connect ship's service generators
to the power distribution system
and bus ties?
1. ACB
2. AQB
3. NCB
4. NQB

Back 435

1. ACB

Front 436

Type AQB circuit breakers are
used for which of the following
purposes?
1.
2.
3.
4.
To connect multiple-load
circuits and control circuits
coming from a load center or
distribution panel
To protect single-load
circuits and feeder circuits
coming from a load center or
distribution panel
To connect multiple-load
circuits and feeder circuits
coming from a SWBD
To protect single-load
circuits and control circuits
coming from a SWBD

Back 436

To protect single-load
circuits and feeder circuits
coming from a load center or
distribution panel

Front 437

What is the primary difference
between an AQB-A250 and an
AQB-LF25Ø circuit breaker?
1. The AQB-LF25Ø is smaller
2. The AQB-LF25Ø has a
current-limiting fuse
3. The AQB-LF25Ø has fewer trip
features
4. The AQB-LF25Ø has a longer
shelf life

Back 437

2. The AQB-LF25Ø has a
current-limiting fuse

Front 438

If you remove the fuse unit from
an energized AQB-LF25Ø circuit
breaker while the CB is closed,
which of the following conditions
will result?
1. The circuit will open, but
the breaker will stay in the
closed position
2. The circuit will open, and
the breaker will trip
3. The fuse will blow
4. The overload relay will trip
the breaker

Back 438

2. The circuit will open, and
the breaker will trip

Front 439

When compared to the AQB-A25Ø
circuit breaker, the main
difference in the NQB-A25Ø
circuit breaker is that it
1. has fuse protected circuits
2. has thermal over loads
3. does not have automatic
tripping devices
4. does not have control
circuits

Back 439

3. does not have automatic
tripping devices

Front 440

An ABT primarily differs from an
MBT in that when an ABT loses
power, it will
1. shift to an alternate source
2. not shift to an alternate
source
3. will remain static
4. will remain dynamic

Back 440

1. shift to an alternate source

Front 441

Transformers transfer electrical
energy from one circuit to
another by which of the following
actions?
1. Hysteresis coupling
2. Electrostatic radiation
3. Electromagnetic induction
4. Resistive-capacitive coupling

Back 441

Electromagnetic induction

Front 442

When transferring electrical
energy, a transformer may
increase or decrease which of the
following factors?
1. Current and voltage only
2. Frequency and current only
3. Voltage and frequency only
4. Frequency, voltage, and
current

Back 442

1. Current and voltage only

Front 443

You can recognize the primary
winding in a step-down
transformer because it will be
the one that has which of the
following characteristics?
1. The highest voltage
2. The lowest voltage
3. Delivers energy to the load
4. Receives energy from the dc
source

Back 443

4. Receives energy from the dc
source

Front 444

How are the contactors of a
magnetic motor controller
operated?
1. By electromechanical devices
2. By electrohydraulic devices
3. By a remote control master
switch
4. By a local control master
switch

Back 444

1. By electromechanical devices

Front 445

What form of protection is a
controller providing when it
disconnects the motor from the
power supply in an under voltage
condition, keeps it disconnected,
and then restarts it
automatically when the voltage
returns to normal?
1. Shunt trip
2. Overload trip
3. LVR
4. LVP

Back 445

3. LVR

Front 446

In a magnetic controller, what
circuit is opened by an overload
relay?
1. The one through the main
contacts
2. The one through the master
switch
3. The one through the control
fuse element
4. The one through the main
operating coil

Back 446

1. The one through the main
contacts

Front 447

Which relay is NOT a thermal
overload relay?

Back 447

DASHPOT

Front 448

A heat-sensitive element that
lengthens when heated to open the
contacts is used in which relay?

Back 448

BIMETAL

Front 449

Short-circuit protection for a
controller and its motor is
provided by which of the
following devices?
1. CBS in the power distribution
system
2. Fuses at the power
distribution panel
3. The controller circuit fuses
4. The overload relays

Back 449

1. CBS in the power distribution
system

Front 450

The uninterruptible power supply
(UPS) system on gas turbine
powered ships is designed as a
battery backup system for short
term operation power for what
equipment?
1. Semivital
2. Lighting
3. Vital
4. Ventilation

Back 450

3. Vital

Front 451

Where is all power switching for
the UPS electronics accomplished?
1. In the power supply cabinets
2. In standard power panels
served by ABTs
3. In the propulsion electronics
4. In the regulated battery
charger

Back 451

3. In the propulsion electronics

Front 452

What type of battery is used in
the UPS system?
1. Nickel cadmium
2. Dry cell
3. Silver oxide
4. Wet cell

Back 452

4. Wet cell

Front 453

Wire-wrap pins are designed to
allow a maximum of how many wires
wrapped on them in separate
wraps?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 3
4. 10

Back 453

3. 3

Front 454

Wire-wrap pins have squared off
corners for which of the
following purposes?
1. The wire will be held to the
pin snugly
2. More wires may be placed on a
pin
3. The corners will penetrate
the oxide coating of the wire
4. More turns may be made around
the pin

Back 454

3. The corners will penetrate
the oxide coating of the wire

Front 455

Wire-wrap wire is made from a
composition of which of the
following materials?
1. Nickel alloy with a copper
coating
2. Copper alloy with a silver
coating
3. Silver alloy with a nickel
coating
4. Silver alloy with a copper
coating

Back 455

4. Silver alloy with a copper
coating

Front 456

What is the correct number of
wraps of insulated wire around a
wrap pin?
1. Ø
2. 1/2
3. 1 to 1 1/2
4. 2 to 3

Back 456

3. 1 to 1 1/2

Front 457

When removing a wire wrap, which
of the following methods should
you use?
1. Pull the wire along its axis
2. Use a wire-wrap removal tool
3. Only remove the wrap you
need, even if it is below
others
4. Cut the wire as close as
possible to the pin

Back 457

2. Use a wire-wrap removal tool

Front 458

Which of the following is NOT an
advantage of wire wraps?
1. No solder spill
2. Simplified techniques for
repair
3. Durable electrical contact
4. Use of solid wire

Back 458

4. Use of solid wire

Front 459

When cleaning a 1ØØ hp motor, you
should use what maximum air
pressure?
1. 3Ø psi
2. 5Ø psi
3. 75 psi
4. 1ØØ psi

Back 459

3. 75 psi

Front 460

Alcohol is a good cleaning
solvent for electrical equipment.
1. True
2. False

Back 460

2. False

Front 461

While checking the end-play
movement of a motor, you discover
it is excessive. What corrective
action should you take?
1. Install bearing shims
2. Install a thinner end bell
gasket
3. Replace the motor bearing
with a new one
4. Replace the motor bearing
with a thrust bearing

Back 461

1. Install bearing shims

Front 462

When pressing a ball bearing into
a housing, you should apply
pressure to which of the
following components?
1. The inner ring only
2. The outer ring only
3. The inner and outer ring
equally
4. The seal surface

Back 462

2. The outer ring only

Front 463

Which of the following is an
example of an antifriction
bearing?
1. Sleeve
2. Journal
3. Thrust
4. Roller

Back 463

4. Roller

Front 464

To determine the extent of wear
in a bearing, you should use
which of the following methods?
1. Measure the air gap
2. Feel for overheating and
vibration
3. Measure the thrust clearance
4. Inspect for signs of wobbling
of the motor shaft

Back 464

2. Feel for overheating and
vibration

Front 465

Brushes used to transmit
excitation current to the rotor
of a generator are normally made
of which of the following
materials?
1. Copper
2. Carbon
3. Nickel-silver
4. Epoxy impregnated graphite

Back 465

2. Carbon

Front 466

When determining the grade of a
brush, you should NOT use which
of the following documents?
1. The applicable machinery
drawing
2. The applicable machinery
technical manual
3. The applicable NAVSEA
instruction
4. The applicable NAVOSH
instruction

Back 466

4. The applicable NAVOSH
instruction

Front 467

Brushes installed with spring
enclosed shunts should be
replaced when the brushes are
worn to what percentage of their
original length?
1. 4Ø%
2. 5Ø%
3. 65%
4. 8Ø%

Back 467

1. 4Ø%

Front 468

To correct the improper tripping
action of a CB, you should
perform which of the following
actions?
1. Replace the trip mechanism
2. Replace the CB
3. Adjust the trip mechanism on
the front of the CB
4. Disassemble the CB and adjust
the trip mechanism

Back 468

. Replace the CB

Front 469

When cleaning a silver CB contact
that is heavily burned or pitted,
you should use which of the
following recommended items?
1. An emery cloth
2. A half-round file and HP air
3. A bastard file and coarse
sandpaper
4. A fine file or fine sandpaper

Back 469

4. A fine file or fine sandpaper

Front 470

Loud humming or chattering of a
CB is often a warning for which
of the following conditions?
1. Shorted trip coils
2. Dirt in the dashpot of a time
delay device
3. Overheating of the contact
tips
4. Dirty arc chutes

Back 470

3. Overheating of the contact
tips

Front 471

A motor does not start when the
start button on a controller is
pushed. However, after pressing
the overload reset button and
start button again, the motor
runs. What further checks, if
any, are required?
1. Check the motor circuit
continuity
2. Check the start circuit
continuity
3. Check the auxiliary contacts
4. None

Back 471

4. None

Front 472

Which of the following conditions
will indicate a faulty auxiliary
contact?
1. The motor will run only if
the start button is held in
the ON position
2. The motor will run only if
the overload reset button is
held in the reset position
3. The motor will not stop when
the atop button is depressed
4. The motor will not stop when
the overload relay trips

Back 472

1. The motor will run only if
the start button is held in
the ON position

Front 473

While attempting to start a
3-phase motor, you depress the
start button. The motor fails to
start and emits a loud hum. What
do these symptoms indicate?
1. Faults in the control circuit
2. Open contacts in the overload
relay
3. Faults in the power circuit
4. Reverse polarity in the
control circuit

Back 473

3. Faults in the power circuit

Front 474

Why should you perform a periodic
inspection of storage batteries?
1. To ensure they are clean for
inspections
2. To maintain maximum
efficiency and long life
3. To guarantee they are not
connected incorrectly
4. To certify their rated
capacity

Back 474

2. To maintain maximum
efficiency and long life

Front 475

Which of the following
ingredients is mixed with
distilled water to make
electrolyte?
1. Hydrochloric acid
2. Sulfuric acid
3. Caustic soda
4. Citric aci

Back 475

2. Sulfuric acid

Front 476

After water is added to a
battery, why must the battery be
charged for at LEAST 1 hour?
1. To obtain an accurate
hydrometer reading
2. To prevent too much
electrolyte from being drawn
into the hydrometer
3. To prevent an increase in
specific gravity
4. To detect a dry cell

Back 476

1. To obtain an accurate
hydrometer reading

Front 477

What is the first step taken if
acid or electrolyte comes into
contact with your skin?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Wash the affected area with
large quantities of fresh
water
Wash the affected area with a
very small amount of fresh
water
Apply a salve of petrolatum,
boric acid, or zinc ointment
to the affected area
Sprinkle baking soda on the
affected area

Back 477

Wash the affected area with a
very small amount of fresh
water

Front 478

When acid spills on your
clothing, which of the following
liquids should be used to
neutralize it?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Small quantities of fresh
water
A solution of baking soda and
water
Clean lubricating oil
Diluted chlorine

Back 478

A solution of baking soda and
water

Front 479

When a battery is shipped "dry,"
the manufacturer's instructions
should be followed for the
initial charge. If the
manufacturer's instructions are
NOT available, where can
substitute charging instructions
be found?
1. Naval Ships' Technical
Manual, Ø962-LP-Ø88-2Ø1Ø,
Uninterruptible Power Supply
2. Electrician's Mate 3&2,
NAVEDTRA 1Ø546
3. Instructions in current U. S.
Navy directives
4. Propulsion Plant Manual,
Volume 2, Electrical Systems

Back 479

3. Instructions in current U. S.
Navy directives

Front 480

What is the purpose of a routine
charge?
1.
2.
3.
4.
To restore the battery to its
charged condition
To take the place of an
initial charge
To correct the temperature of
the electrolyte
To eliminate the need for
electrolyte

Back 480

To restore the battery to its
charged condition

Front 481

A floating charge keeps a battery
bank at full charge by connecting
the battery bank across the
charging source. How do you
determine what the floating
charge should be?
1. Divide the battery voltage by
the number of cells
2. Use a predetermined definite
current rate
3. Adjust the specific gravity
by the electrolyte
temperature
4. Use the voltage of the
battery bank to determine the
rate

Back 481

2. Use a predetermined definite
current rate

Front 482

Why is an emergency charge used
only in an emergency?
1. The commanding officer has to
be present during the
charging process
2. This type of charge is
harmful to a battery
3. The battery must be removed
from the ship to be charged
4. The charging rate is lower
than in a normal charge

Back 482

2. This type of charge is
harmful to a battery

Front 483

What is the best way to determine
the capacity of a battery?
1. Multiply its delivery amperes
by 10
2. Determine the specific
gravity of the battery
3. Figure the time it takes an
equalizing charge to bring
the battery to 1.28Ø specific
gravity
4. Use the test discharge method

Back 483

4. Use the test discharge method

Front 484

Smoking, electrical sparks, or
open flames must be kept away
from the area near the charging
battery for which of the
following reasons?
1. So more oxygen will enter the
battery
2. So the charging time is not
increased
3. So the maintenance person is
not distracted
4. So the explosive mixture,
hydrogen and oxygen, is not
accidentally ignited

Back 484

4. So the explosive mixture,
hydrogen and oxygen, is not
accidentally ignited