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300 Cards in this Set

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ACA

American Correctional Association

Military ' s own correctional system

This book was written by Sir Travers Twiss.

The black book of admiralty

The black book contained the laws of Oleron. Give examples of some punishments established from the Laws of Oleron.

forfeiture of all pay and allowances, flogging, branding, keelhauling, confinement, solitary confinement with bread and water, death penalty



What made the incident with the midshipman important and who were hanged?

It was midshipman Phillip Spencer along with 2 other sailors, they were hanged on a training ship for naval officers (USS Somers) without a formal trial. The charge was for planning a mutiny. Captain MacKenzie was involved by hanging them, but was later declared innocent.

1864 during the Civil war, Elmira and Anderson prisons were shut down after a year due to?

Abuse, neglect, disease, starvation and exposure.

In 1870, Major Barry attended the first?

Attended the first conference of the American prison association.

FT. Leavenworth was also known as:

A) the rock


B) the castle


C) the fortress


D) the hole



Please click on small arrow on the corner of this card for the answer

Answer is Castle

In 1898, during the Spanish American war, a facility to house prisoners of war was begun at:

A) Alcatraz


B) Ft. Leavenworth


C) Portsmouth


D) Ft. Riley

Answer: Portsmouth

In the year nineteen o eight, Which institution was primarily operating under the redline procedures?

Portsmouth naval prison

Procedures Included a prisoner having to request permission to speak and then to ask for permission before he crossed a red line painted on the floor that separated the guards from the prisoners. Prisoners not adhering to these procedures were often met with harsh actions and physical repurcussions. Red line procedures made it crystal clear who was in charge; the prevailing attitude at this time was that creating a difficult and severe atmosphere would ensure that prisoners would never come back.

Who was the father of naval corrections?

A) LT. CMDR Thomas Osborne


B) Colonel Kelton


C) Major Thomas Barr


D) Major Wirz

Answer: LT. CMDR Thomas Osborne

Who was the only confederate officer tired and convicted of war crimes during civil war?

Major Wirz

In 1945 who was the last deserter to be executed?


PVT. Eddie D. Slovic. He became the last deserter to be executed.

During 1945, what 2 new "retraining" commands were established?

San diego 32nd Brig and Naval Brig Norfolk

The mission to bring sailors back to duty

True or false:


In 1950, DOD instruction mandated corrective rather than punitive treatment of inmates

True

"Fieri Potest" means?


It can be done

In 1961 the last execution was conducted at the USDB. Who was executed?


PFC John A. Bennett. He was convicted of the rape and attempted murder of an 11-year old Austrian girl.

Which facility practiced "shock incarceration" program

A) FT. Gordon


B) FT. McClellan


C) FT. Riley


D) Leavenworth

Answer: FT. Riley

The significant event that led to the implementation of SECNAVINST 1640.9, department of the Navy correction ' s manual was. ...


Disturbance at Camp Pendleton in 1969

The first military correctional facility to be accredited by the American Correctional Association was?

USDB FT. Leavenworth

Red line concept abolished in what year?

1969

In 1983, corrections school at FT. McClellan moved to where? Thus, Creating the Marine Corps school of corrections.

Moved to Lackland AFB, Texas

Which brig took on the mission of confining female prisoners in 1989?


The Miramar brig

SECNAVINST 1640.9 was revised to the Charlie version in January on what year?

2006

Name the types of shore confinement facilities.

Pre-trial confinement facility, Level 1, level 2, level 3

This type of shore confinement facility is authorized for pre & post-trial confinement of members serving adjusted sentences not to exceed 6 months or CMC approval up to 1 year. Which type/or level is it?

Level 1

This type of shore confinement facility is authorized for pre & post -trial confinement of members serving adjusted sentences of greater than 5 years and death sentences.

Level 3

This type of shore confinement facility is authorized for pre-trial confinement. May be used as a matter of necessity for post-trial confinement for up to 30 days.

Pre-trial confinement facility (PFC)

This type of shore confinement facility is authorized for pre & post-trial confinement of members serving adjusted sentences not to exceed 5 years.

Level 2

This type of confinement facility is authorized for confinement of personnel attached to, or embarked in, a ship, and may be used for periods of post-trial confinement of up to 30 days.

Ship's brig

Describe the Philosophy of corrections

Punishment alone is seldom corrective

Purpose of confinement

For Punishment, prisoners are sentenced to confinement as punishment, for rehabilitation, as a deterrent to the other individuals, removes them from society

What is Direct supervision?

Staff is stationed inside the living quarters with the prisoners not separated by any barrier.

Unit team management approach

Designed to improve accountability, security, communication, control and relationships by dividing a large institution population of offenders into smaller, more manageable groups supervised by teams of trained staff located in close proximity and familiar with assigned caseload.

What group is responsible for establishing the prisoners program throughout confinement. The board is concerned with custody, work assignment, special training, and determine restoration to duty or prisoners may be assign to programs to prepare them for civilian life.

Classification and assignment Board

What board evaluates and recommend prisoners for restoration, parole and/or clemency, separation, or any other action deemed necessary.

Disposition board

A counselor shall be assigned no more than how many prisoners?


40

What work assignments are prohibited?

Duties that place one prisoner in authority over another prisoner, jobs that are for the exclusive benefit of a private individual or organization to include individual staff members, assignments that require prisoners to have access to drugs, narcotics, intoxicants, uncrated explosives, weapons, money, security equipment, classified material, keys or personal records or files, work that is inherently hazardous to the prisoners, except in emergencies.

A new inmate during the reception phase will be given this form to fill out but not coerced, the form is all background information about the prisoner. What form is it?

DD 2710

The phase that includes admin processing, orientation and initial screening is called?

The Reception phase

During reception, pre-trial prisoners shall be given their article rights prior to any attempt to identify what caused the pre-trial prisoners to allegedly offend. What article number is this?

Article 31 (b)

There are 2 types of counseling, what are they?

Group and individual

Individual counseling should occur how often?

Weekly, for an average of 20-60 minutes for level 1, and bi-weekly for level 2 & 3, depending on thier needs.

What are the types of group counseling?

Formal and informal therapy groups

If prisoners want to work inside and outside of the facility, the brig will provide what?

A) mentors


B) career counselors


C) a board and interview


D) escort



Please click on small tiny blue arrow on the corner of this card for the answer.

The answer is D) escort



Unit escorts may be utilized but must be trained by qualified staff members of the brig.

True or false: Male and female may be assigned simultaneously in the same program/work areas.

False

If a prisoner is returning to duty, they will attend classes in what program?

Mandatory restoration program

What is the form number for request chits?

DD FORM 510

True or false: the goal of providing incentives is to build self discipline and improve functioning of the facility.

TRUE

Prisoners should be allowed physical and non physical recreational activities. Which is not allowed?

A) movies


B) wrestling


C) library usage


D) TV/radio

Answer: B) wrestling

True or false: it is highly recommended by the facility and rewarded if the prisoner practices a religion.

False

Requests for special religious practices or privileges will be presented on what form?

DD FORM 510

This type of training program requires special authorization for a prisoner to be employed for pay.

A) special release training program


B) good conduct program


C) Work release program


D) career preparedness program

C) Work release program

This program helps any victim who has suffered direct physical, emotional, or monetary harm because of the commission of a crime against him/or her that is in violation of the UCMJ. What program is this?

Victim and witness assistance program (VWAP)

VWAP representative is appointed in writing by whom?

By the commanding officer

Page 29 of text

Sex offenders are required to fill out what form?

DD form 2791

UCMJ is Federal law enacted by whom?

A) Secretary of the Navy


B) By Congress


C) The president


D) Secretary of Defense

B) by Congress



Enacted by Congress, authorizes the commander in chief to implement the provisions of the UCMJ

Which articles are definition articles and are not chargeable?

Article 77 and 79

Articles 77 through 134 are what type of articles?

Punitive articles

Personnel subject to the UCMJ are:

Active duty, midshipman, retirees, reservists, P.O.W's, any person entitled to money or benefits from the U.S armed forces and other personnel assigned to or serving in the armed forces.

A non judicial punishment (NJP) doesn't include what type of conviction?

A courts martial conviction. NJP is used to address minor offenses and administrative proceeding, not judicial.

Types of punishment administered under NJP are:

(Attached to a vessel) Confinement on bread and water, forfeiture of pay, reduction, extra duty, and restriction.

A person subject to the UCMJ, who had been legally ordered into confinement, who is accused of violating the UCMJ, and is awaiting trial or rehearing is what type of prisoner?

Pre-trial prisoner

A person tried by courts-martial and ordered into confinement whether or not the sentence has been ordered into execution is what type of prisoner?

Post-trial prisoner, there are 2 types. Adjudged and sentenced

This type of prisoner has been told that they are guilty, but haven't been told what the punishment is.

Adjudged post trial prisoner

This type of prisoner whose sentence had been approved by the convening authority is what type of Prisoner?

Post trial sentenced prisoner

True or false: pre-trial prisoners are not confined as punishment.

True

A pre-trial prisoner must be notified of his/or her charges within how many hours? And who must be notified?

Must be notified within 24 hours, pre-trial prisoner's commanding officer must be notified within 24 hours.

If continued pre-trial confinement is approved, the commander shall prepare a written memorandum that states the reasons for the conclusion that the requirements for confinement. This is also a?

72-hour memorandum

Page 45 of book

This type of Courts-Martial, does confinement for 12 months. Hard labor without confinement for 3 months. Forfeiture of 2/3 pay per month for 6 months. Bad conduct discharge (enlisted only, if counsel appointed and if military judge detailed)

Special Courts-Martial

This type of courts martial is used for minor offenses. The only Courts-Martial that can be refused. Tries only enlisted personnel. Composed of one commissioned officer, usually O-3 or above.

Summary Courts-martial

This type of Courts-Martial, has E-5 and above, reduction one pay grade, 60 days restriction, forfeiture of 2/3 pay per month for one month. E-4 and below, reduction to E-1 authorized, 30 days confinement, forfeiture of 2/3 pay per month for one month.

Summary Courts-Martial

This type of Courts-Martial is used to try both Officers and Enlisted for non capital and in some cases, capital offenses.

Special Courts-Martial

This type of Courts-Martial is not less than 3 members. If there is no judge, the senior member serves as president. A military judge and not less than 3 members.

Special Courts-Martial

This type of Courts-Martial tries both capital and non-capital offenses.

General Courts-Martial

Which type of Courts-Martial has a military judge and not less than 5 members for capital offenses. If defendant is enlisted, court consists of not less than 5 members of which 1/3 can be enlisted members. A military judge alone, if requested and if non-capital offense.

General Courts-Martial

What type of Courts-Martial gives punitive discharges to include: dismissal (officers); dishonorable discharge ( enlisted to W-1); and bad conduct discharge (enlisted only). Confinement to include hard labor from 6 months to life. Forfeiture of all pay and allowances. Death penalty.

General Courts-Martial

What type of court reviews cases when the judge advocate general has forwarded them or when reviewed under Article 67 A, the Writ of Certiorari.

The Supreme court

The Court of Criminal Appeals (CCA), is composed of what type of judges?

Composed of Appellate military judges

This type of court may weigh evidence, judge the credibility of witnesses, and determine questions if fact, while recognizing that a Courts-Martial saw and heard the case.

Appellate court

True or false: Department of Defense policy is to confine civilian personnel who are not subject to the UCMJ.

False,


The policy is not to confine

The use of Naval Brigs by civilian jurisdiction, the DOD policy is not to confine civilian personnel who are not subject to the UCMJ. Who are the only ones that may grant any exceptions to this policy?

The Secretary of Defense or a designee are the only ones that may grant any exceptions to this policy.

Where are the prisoner rights found in?

Found in the Constitution or the Bill of Rights

True or false: Neither the Constitution or the Bill of Rights provide specific rights for prisoners. However, nor do they exclude prisoners from some rights.

True

Page 47

The Navy correctional facilities have established what in order to ensure compliance with the court's interpretation.

A) a memorandum during orientation


B) thier own list of Bill of Rights


C) operating procedures


D) Post orders

C) Operating procedures

Prisoners don't have the rights to which amendment?

A) First


B) Fourth


C) Sixth


D) Fifth and Sixth


The answer is B) Fourth amendment

The freedom of religion is under what amendment?


A) 14th


B) 6th


C) 4th


D) 1st

Answer is D) 1st ammendment

This amendment states: "The right of the people to be secured in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures shall not be violated..."

The Fourth amendment

This amendment states: "...No person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law. .."

The 5th Amendment

What amendment allows prisoner's to have a written notice, time to prepare for a hearing, the right to legal assistance and the right to attend.

The 5th Amendment

This amendment states: "...the accused be informed of the nature of the accusations; ... to have the assistance of council for his defense."

The 6th amendment

This amendment states: "...nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

The 14th amendment

This amendment states: "Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted"

The 8th amendment

A pre-trial prisoner is someone who:

A) has been adjudged by a Courts-Martial


B) has been awarded bread and water


C) is awaiting trial by courts-martial


D) is serving a sentence to confinement

The answer is C) is awaiting trial by courts-martial

The following criteria apply for pre-trial confinement EXCEPT:

A) less severe forms of restraints are not suitable


B) to ensure presence at a trial


C) prevent further serious criminal misconduct


D) seriousness of the offense(s) only

The answer: D) Seriousness of the offense(s) only.

All of the following are types of Courts-Martial EXCEPT:

A) Summary


B) Subject


C) Special


D) General


The answer is B) Subject

True or false: Transient personnel shall not be assigned to duty at a confinement facility unless otherwise authorized.

True

Who has the overall responsibility for operation of the confinement?

Commanding officer,


Navy: the term "CO" refers to the CO of that activity.


Marine: the term "CO" refers to the officer who is appointed in writing by the installation commander where the confinement facility is located, CO of the brig.

This person is assigned the responsibility for the day-to-day operation of the confinement facility. Will not stand duty. Appointed in writing by the CO of the base or post. They are responsible for humane care, custody, discipline, safety, welfare, and treatment of prisoners, and staff in the facility.

A) The Brig officer


B) The Brig's Case Manager/counselor


C) The operations officer


D) The Program Evaluator

The answer is A) the Brig Officer

This type of specialist can consist of: DAPA, employees of the family service center, admin clerks, mess cooks, treatment specialists, and medical personnel.

Staff specialist

Responsible for the rehabilitation, retraining, and restoration of prisoners. If there are none assigned to the facility, the assistant Brig Officer may fill the billet. Who is this?

Program's Officer (Marine Corps)/Prisoner Management Department (Navy)

This person is assigned no more than 40 prisoners. This person assists in thier program development, performance, and evaluation.

Correctional Counselor

Responsible for scheduling staff and escort training. Maintains staff records.

Training Supervisor/Officer

This person plans & coordinates work projects and working parties. Monitors prisoner work assignments.

A) Training Supervisor/Officer


B) Program Evaluator


C) Control Center Supervisor


D) Work Supervisor

The answer is D) Work Supervisor

These representatives shall be appointed in writing by the CO/OIC. Duties include acting as a liason with crime victims and witnesses and notifying crime victims & witnesses of prisoner release-related activities.

The Victim/Witness Coordinator

This representative is responsible for security, control, accountability, and emergency planning and response procedures (fires, riots, disaster, disorder), control of prisoner movement and supervision of group activities.

The Operations Officer

This person carries out the Plan of the Day to ensure the health, welfare, and safety of staff and prisoners.

The Command Duty Officer/ Duty Brig Supervisor CDO/(DBS)

True or false: The Control Center Supervisor operates the "Hub of the facility"

True

Who transports prisoners to and from locations outside facility?

Escorts

Who is responsible for processing prisoner's for confinement and release by taking care of all relevant records. Accountability and storage of prisoner's personal property, clothing issue and supplies (health and comfort)

A) Administrative Clerk


B) Corrections Technical Director


C) Receiving and Release Supervisor


D) Program Evaluator

The answer is : D) Receiving and Release Supervisor

Prisoner records will be locked where?

They will be locked in the Administration office. Prisoner files are private-the Privacy Act and Freedom of Information Act Program applies to records.

True or false: Prisoners may request copies of thier records, but must submit thier request through the base Administrative Clerk.

False : they must submit thier request through the base FOIA Officer. (Freedom of Information Act)

Page 64

This is an automated system utilized by Naval confinement facilities. This automated system collects information and tracks prisoners from initial entry into the brig system through court actions, sentencing, custody classification, rehab program's, jobs, education and so on. What is this system called?

cormis, Corrections Management Information System

True or false: the purpose for maintaining records & reports is to provide accurate, current, & readily available info on individual prisoners & the corrections operation.

True

True or false: Discretion is defined as the ability to choose the appropriate action from 2 or more options within certain legal bounds.

True

To compel through pressure or necessity; to move against resistance. Is known as what?

A) show of force


B) minimum force


C) force


D) use of force

The answer is C) force

The least amount of force used to control a situation.

A) show of force.


B) minimum force.


C) force.


D) use of force.

The answer is B) minimum force

An increased visibility of additional security personnel present to demonstrate a resolve to use force if necessary.

A) show of force.


B) minimum force.


C) force.


D) use of force.

The answer is A) show of force

To prevent certain actions by applying force to physically intervene to stop a particular course of action is?

A) show of force.


B) minimum force.


C) force.


D) use of force.

The answer is D) use of force

True or false: Deadly force is when a person uses with the purpose of causing or which he/she knows would create a substantial risk of causing death or serious harm.

True

The use of deadly force: all apply except the following:

A) ensure sufficient show of force


B) force will not be used as punishment


C) used as a last resort


D) If absolutely necessary, use 1-on-1 confrontation

The answer is D.



AVOID a 1-on-1 confrontation at all times

Who will insure that all elements of intent, capability, and opportunity are in place prior to application of deadly force?

The C O

Threat or will of a person to cause injury to another is what?

A) intent


B) force


C) capability


D) opportunity

The answer is A) intent

A means to carry out the threat; example: a weapon of some sort.

A) intent


B) force


C) capability


D) opportunity

The answer is C) Capability

Space in which a subject is in to complete the threat. Subjects with knives cannot injure individuals 50 yards away; however; if they had pistols, the situation changes.

A) intent


B) force


C) capability


D) opportunity

The answer is D) opportunity

True or false: Extreme situations where use of deadly force may be directed is to protect citizens, staff personnel or hostages, when a reasonable belief exists that they are in imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm.

True

True or false: The use of batons is the second thing that can be used if an order was made and prisoner refuses to comply.

False



The second thing after an order is made is SHOW of force (condition/code).

True or false: When force is necessary, the last thing to use is fire by selected marksman or full firepower.

True



See page 148 of text book for the order of sequences when applying the use of force.

Who may authorize the 1st five uses of force priority sequences?


Brig Officer or below may authorize the first 5 uses of force priority sequences.

Who may authorize the final 3 uses of force priority sequences?


A) Operations Officer


B) Brig officer


C) CO


D) CDO/OIC

The answer is C) the designated CO of that command

True or false: Any staff member may order the use of physical force (organized).

False



The Brig Officer, CDO or authorized representative may use physical force.

Who may order the use of force (individual)?

A) Any staff member


B) Staff member in self defense, CDO/DBS


C) Brig officer or authorized representative


D) CO

The answer is B) Staff member in self defense, CDO/DBS

Who may order the show of force (condition/code)?

Any staff member

True or false: Medical has 24 hours to examine the prisoner after force had used.

False



The Prisoners need to be examined as SOON AS POSSIBLE.

What are the 3 things that must be present to carry out deadly force?

The 3 things are intent, capability and opportunity

Who is allowed to extract a prisoner from his cell?

The CDO is an authorized representative when the CO is not present.

The levels of loyalty involve all of the following EXCEPT. ..

A) Loyalty to fellow officers.


B) Loyalty to the public.


C) Loyalty to the agency.


D) Loyalty to yourself.

The answer is D) Loyalty to yourself

True or false: The terms legal and ethical are the same.

False

True or false: Ethics is acting in Good faith, doing your job fairly and honestly, and following the rules and regulations for pre-trial prisoners only.

False

Which amendment pertains to cruel and unusual punishment, which falls into 3 categories in a correctional setting: unnecessary force; medical treatment, and conditions of confinement.

The 8th Amendment

True or false: the Code of ethics is especially important to corrections because it contributes to the field as a profession and ensures that business is conducted in a lawful manner.

True

The deduction from the adjusted maximum release date (AMXRD) for faithful observance of the rules and regulations is referred to as:

A) Inoperative Time.


B) Good Conduct Time.


C) Judicial Credit.


D) Earned time.

The answer is B) Good conduct time

True or false: Individual files are maintained on all prisoners in a confinement facility.

True

A log that records permanent daily records of brig operations and maintained by the Control Center Supervisor is the:

A) medical log


B) disciplinary Log


C) brig log


D) privileged correspondence log


E) Administrative log

The answer is C) brig log

True or false: The Operations Officer is responsible for rehab, retraining, and restoration of the prisoners.

False: it's the Programs Officer

True or false: The Brig officer is responsible for the humane care, custody, discipline, safety, welfare and treatment of prisoners and staff in the facility.

True

Section 5 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Working and training evaluation, mail, visitation.

Section 4 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Parole & classification

Section 2 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Prisoner conduct/observation

Section 3 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Request for interview, Privacy Act, finger prints, photograph

Section 6 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Inventory of personal items, health and comfort (whatever had been issued)

Section 1 for the prisoner's file contains what?

Receipt for confinement info

What is the form for the Inmate Disciplinary Report?

DD FORM 2714

What form is for Parole Acknowledgment?

DD FORM 2716

What is the form for the inmates release order?

DD FORM 2718

True or false: Good conduct time is the deduction from the Unadjusted Maximum Release Date for faithful observance of all rules and regulations.

False: from the (AMXRD) Adjusted Maximum Release Date

1) Good conduct time.


2) Earned time.


3) Inoperative time.


Which one is time deducted from a prisoner's release date for participation and graded effort in the areas of work, offense-related programs, education or other support activity specifically authorized by the correctional facility commander?

Earned time

There are two types of methods that will be used to determine the Unadjusted Maximum Release Date, what are they?

1) Day-for-day method. 2) Calendar method

The prisoners Hard Card is in what section of the prisoners file?

Section 2

There are how many sections to a prisoner's file?

6 sections

This form lets the prisoner know that the info on all prisoners that are kept in a file will be handled on a need to know basis and is not available for public dissemination.

DD FORM 2709


Privacy Act Statement

This log is maintained to record each disciplinary report, and marked "For Official Use Only" and submitted to the C.O for review and signature weekly.

Discipline Log

True or false: Privileged Correspondence log includes all incoming and outgoing privileged mail from JAG, Attorney, Congressman, President, etc..

True

At a minimum, verification of visitors identity will be presented and shall include what?

Include the visitor's name, photograph, and date of birth.

The Brig log is a permanent historical daily record of the operation of the brig and is maintained by the Control Center Supervisor. Which is not an regular entry in the Brig's log?

A) Emergency drills.


B) is marked "For Official Use Only".


C) Departure and return of prisoner details.


D) record of official visitors and purpose of visit

The answer is B) is marked "For Official Use Only"

After a prisoner is released, Brig logs will be maintained for how many years from date of the last entry or when total accumulation is at least 1 cubic foot, whichever is later.

Maintained for 2 years, records are sent to the closest Federal Record Center, one in Atlanta, Georgia and the other in Los Angeles, California.

C O'S shall require submission of this report at least once weekly. The primary purpose of this report is to monitor and reduce delays in the disciplinary process.

Prisoner status report

The daily change sheet must be reviewed and sign by who before any changes are initiated?

By the Brig Officer or a designee.

What sheet tracks prisoner changes in quarters, work assignment, custody classification, or other status and to maintain accountability?

Daily change sheet

An incident report is submitted to PERS-00D1/PSL in naval message format within 24 hours of the incident: Which one does not pertain to incident reports?

A) Mass strike or disruptive action


B) Escape/attempted escape


C) Extreme weather conditions


D) Public attention on the brig

The answer is C) Extreme weather conditions

True or false: the purpose for maintaining records & reports is to provide accurate, current, & readily available info on individual prisoners & the corrections operation.

True

This is the 1st step when receiving a prisoner is to determine if confinement is legal. What is the form for a confinement order?

DD FORM 2707.



PG. 81 OF TEXT BOOK

How many sections are there in a confinement order?

11 sections

True or false: the biggest mistakes made on the confinement order are: the wrong SSN, not confirming the prisoner's identity, dates not within 24 hours and offense charges not specific.

True

All Prisoners being ordered to confinement as a result of Courts-Martial must have what?


A) prisoner and regulations books


B) Results of trial, signed by courts-martial officer/counsel


C) Sworn statement (DA form 2823)


D) Initial custody classification (DD FORM 2711)

The answer is B) Results of trial

The Victims/Witness certification form is?

DD FORM 2704

Regardless of charges and regardless of whether victims and/our witnesses have requested notification of the prisoner release, transfer, or status change. The Victims and Witness certification form, is required for who?

For all adjudged prisoners.



Even if there are no victims or witnesses listed on the DD Form 2704

True or false: All Navy Brigs accept service records which will be sent to PSD, but all other larger facilities and USMC facilities do not require them.

False



Although it may not be required by USMC confinement facilities, FT. Leavenworth does require them.

True or false: Safekeeping and protection are not legal reasons for confinement.

True

Health and comfort/clothing items will be found on what form and last for the period of confinement or up to 1 month. What form is this?

DD FORM 504



PG 117 of text

True or false: Prisoners are required to have available 2 complete sets of seasonal service uniforms with insignia, emblems, decorations, and ribbons to which entitled, for all court appearances.

False



Prisoners required to have only one set

Prisoners in a non pay status shall be furnished health and comfort supplies as gratuitous issues. This issue is limited to not less than ?? $$ to a maximum gratuitous issue of as much as ?? $$ per month or as local policy will dictate?

Not less than $20.00 and as much/ no more than $40.00 per month.

What is the form for the prisoner's badge?

NAVPERS 1640/16



page 254 of text

Where will the prisoner wear thier I.D badge?

Over the left breast pocket of their outer garment. Only exception: installation custody prisoners.

The original prisoners badge shall be:

A) maintained in control center


B) maintained in prisoner file


C) maintained by quarters supervisor


D) issued to prisoner and worn in the prescribed manner.

The answer is: D) issued to prisoner and worn in the prescribed manner.

The 1st copy of the prisoners identification badge shall be:

A) maintained in control center


B) maintained in prisoner file


C) maintained by quarters supervisor


D) issued to prisoner and worn in the prescribed manner.

The answer is A) maintained in control center

The 3rd copy of the prisoners badge shall be:

A) maintained in control center


B) maintained in prisoner file


C) maintained by quarters supervisor


D) issued to prisoner and worn in the prescribed manner.

The answer is B) maintained in prisoner file

The 2nd copy of the prisoners badge shall be:

A) maintained in control center


B) maintained in prisoner file


C) maintained by quarters supervisor


D) issued to prisoner and worn in the prescribed manner.

The answer is C) maintained by quarters supervisor

The prisoner's legal status will be indicated on the ID badge with lettering on a color strip, blue for _______? And black for ______?

Blue for sentenced


Black for detained

On the ID badge, the prisoner custody level considered a medium-in is what color?

Orange

On the ID badge, the prisoner custody level considered a medium-out is what color?

Yellow

On the ID badge, the prisoner custody level color is brown, what does that mean.

Installation

True or false: On the ID badge, the prisoner custody level considered a maximum will be red.

True

True or false: the badge photo may allow prisoners to show the prisoner with or without glasses if they have any.

False, always without

A written test will be given in what book during orientation?

Prisoner and regulations book

Inventory and receipt of valuables, clothing, and personal effects. Are on what form?

NAVPERS 1640/17



page 166

Prisoners shall NOT be permitted to retain in their possession the following items except:

A) keys


B) credit cards


C) wedding rings


D) money

The answer is C) weddings rings are permitted

What method do you use on the prisoners body for a frisk search?

Rub and squeeze method

A body cavity search shall be conducted by only who?

Medical personnel

True or false: fingerprints are taken on all pre-trial and post-trial prisoners upon arrival to the brig.

True

True or false:


The first step when receiving a new prisoner or detainee is determining if the confinement is legal.

True

If a prisoner is wearing a badge marked with "minimum", what is the color?

Green

A P T exercise shall be limited to how many minutes?

20-45 minutes

True or false: the goal of corectional programs is to restore as many military prisoners as possible to active duty.

True

Mandatory restoration program will include all EXCEPT:

A) Close order drill


B) Use of Chain of command


C) Bankruptcy


D) Veterans benefits

C) the answer is C) bankruptcy

This person is appointed in writing by the CO or an OIC. They are responsible for maintaining prisoners funds and valuables. Who is this?

Funds and Valuables custodian

True or false: loyalty to what is right and good takes precedent over loyalties to other entities.

True

When transferring pre-trial officers from one confinement facility to another, who may escort him/her?

The senior escort will be an officer of equal or higher grade.

When transferring post-trial officers from one confinement facility to another, who may escort him/her?

Shall be escorted by a qualified enlisted escort of any grade.

Disciplinary segregation is punishment awarded by who?

The CO or Brig officer

Administrative segregation are placed in special quarters for what reasons?

Medical, pending investigations, awaiting to move to a squad bay after orientation, protective custody, suicide, or escape risk

True or false: Administrative segregation is basically both a disciplinary and preventive safety measure.

False:



Administrative segregation is basically a preventative measure, not a disciplinary measure.

True or false: Prisoners who have never been arrested or who have limited arrests histories, may have develop overwhelming feelings of shame, this is a possible risk factor for suicide.

True

What are the two predisposing factors that greatly influence suicide?

Personal (internal)


Situational (external)

This stress factor are forces internal to the prisoner that makes him or her more vulnerable to suicide. Under predisposing factors, What stress factor is this known as?

Personal factors

External forces that influence a prisoner toward suicidal behavior, under predisposing factors, What stress factor is this known as?

Situational factor

Can a criminal justice process cause a trigger to suicide?

Yes

The following are signs of suicide EXCEPT:

A) Loss of appetite


B) crying and neglected appearance


C) not writing letters to loved ones


D) giving away thier possessions.

The answer is C) not really a signal unless it says on the letter that they want or are thinking of killing themselves. Writing less letters to family members is not really an indicator.

Suicide would most likely be committed at what hours and months?

Committed between noon and midnight hours. Usually during the months of March, October and November.

True or false:


Prisoners with a sentence of less than 5 years or more than 30 years are likely to commit suicide.

False


Sentence less than 10 years or more than 20 years, the prisoners are likely to commit suicide

True or false:


Once a person has been committed to confinement, the first few hours and then the next 24 hours are high risk periods.

True

The first thing you must do when you see a hanging victim is:


A) see if they respond.


B) document the incident.


C) lift the victim up.


D) call for assistance.

The answer is D) call for assistance

What is the minimum amount of prisoner counts done and when?

A minimum of 3 prisoner counts made daily (Reveille, end of work day, and taps )

True or false: The frequency of prisoner counts may interfere with the normal workday activity.

False

Results of prisoner counts shall be entered into what log?

Brig log

How many minutes is a warning announced to alert the supervisors to halt prisoner movement before a prisoner count?

5 minute warning

How many staff members will conduct the prisoner count?

A) 1


B) 2


C) 3


D) done by supervisors only, with the exception of holidays and weekends.

The answer is B) 2

Prisoners shall carry what form describing their status and limits of movement?

DD 512

While escorting prisoners on a work detail, how many minutes are they allowed to take a break?

Usually 10 minutes every hour is acceptable

True or false:


Judges and Lawyers are allowed to direct the application or removal of restraints.


False


Only judges within a court house

What are the 3 basic rules for prisoners to follow?

1)Don't escape, attempt to escape, or aid another to escape. 2) Do not have contraband in your possession. 3) Do not engage in disruptive behavior.

Involuntary or voluntary separation, for specific cause, authorized movement of a prisoner to a special quarters by the CO's/OIC ' S, or in thier absence, the CDO/DBS for purpose of control, preserving order, prevention of injury to themselves or others, and for the orderly and safe admin of the confinement facility. This is known as:

Administrative segregation

The direct placement of prisoners in special quarters as a result of disciplinary and adjustment board process, authorized by the CO. Is known as what?

Disciplinary segregation

Minor management actions: job change; berthing change; suspension or vacation of minor punishments; incentive level change; and custody classification change. This is approved by who?

Brig officer

Major management actions: resetting the employment date and suspending or vacating any major punishments. Are approved by who?

The C O

Ambulatory soft restraints and Immobilizing restraints such as "four point" or "five point" restraints, straight jacket or restraining chair. Are what type of restraints?

A) progressive


B) soft


C) therapeutic


D) restrictive

The answer is C) therapeutic

There are 5 basic types of riot baton blocking defensive techniques. What are they?

High block, low block, strong side block, weak side block, and middle block.

This block is very effective in blocking a downward, vertical strike directed at the top of the head and shoulders. It's a 2 step moment. What type of block is this?

High block

This block is effective in blocking an upward vertical strike directed at the groin, lower abdomen, chest, or chin. This is a 2 step block. What defensive movement is this?

Low block

This block is effective in blocking a horizontal strike directed at a strong side of the head, neck, chest or hip area. What defensive block is this?

Strong side block

This block is effective in blocking a front horizontal strike directed at the face, throat, chest, abdomen, or hip. May be from an individual trying to tackle near the waist, shove, or punch at the face.

Middle block

Striking the back and front of the head, neck, and throat, upper chest, sternum, spinal column and groin area are what target color?

A) green


B) yellow


C) orange


D) red

The answer is D) red

True or false: the baton is swung like a baseball bat or raised above the head to strike a subject in a club fashion as permitted by the CO only.

False


Never, it will cause permanent injury.

This technique distracts, disables, and/or alters behavior. These offensive strikes are usually employed as a countermeasure to charging and overpowering frontal attacks is known as?

Short thrusts

How many formations for disturbances?

5: the line, wedge, echelon, diamond and circle.

True or false: the purpose of custody classification is to establish a degree of supervision and restraints needed for control of individual prisoner.

True

All new prisoners except those specifically deemed serious management problems, should be assigned what type of classification during the reception phase?

A) minimum


B) medium in


C) medium out


D) maximum

The answer is b) medium in

True or false: extra duty must be useful constructive work, it must be served everyday except Sunday and holidays executively for 14 days.

True

Ambulatory restraints are also known as what?

A) Hard restraints


B) soft restraints


C) walking restraints


D) therapeutic restraints

C) walking restraints

What step of the suicide crisis intervention model uses posture positioning and body language to establish a non confrontational environment?

Get the prisoner talking

True or false: Prisoners will be sighted at least once every 15 minutes by the staff member assigned to special quarters (unless otherwise ordered)

True

How often does a C&A board review a prisoner for special quarters to make recommendation to the brig officer for regarding release or conviction.

7 days for the first 2 months and 30 days after

True or false: Prisoners in discipline segregation are not allowed personal visits

False

What type of authority projects earning respect in a fair, firm, and impartial treatment of people?

Inner authority

What response to a prisoner describes the ability to see and hear what is really happening and reflect the understanding back to the prisoner?

Responding to content

List the most important objective of corectional supervision

Ensuring the legal and humane treatment of prisoners.

What report factor contains all the basic elements pertaining to the incident is?


Completeness

Who may direct a prisoner release from a confinement.

Any commander of a prisoner

DD form 2704 victim and witness certification is required for what type of prisoner?

Adjudged prisoners

What active listening skills help put together a story?

Picking out key words

Which of the following are minimum entries into the brig log.

Results of counts and emergency drills

The body's non specific response to any demand made upon it, is a definition of?

Stress

This type of stress stem from outside sources of major life events to include the changing of your physical environment, your job, relationships with others, the death of a family member, divorce are what type of stress?

A) external


B) internal


C) short term


D) long term

The answer is a) external

People are less aware of this type of stress, the stressors may include your values and beliefs, faiths, goals, and your self image. What type of stress is this?

A) external


B) internal


C) short term


D) long term

The answer is b) internal

This type of stress is ongoing, the body never has a chance to fully relax, recover, or return to a pre-stress state. The results are often a burnout, what type of stress is this?

A) external


B) internal


C) short term


D) long term

The answer is D) long term

This type of stress perks you up to deal with any kind of emergency. This is called the flight or flight response. This is healthy and necessary type of stress. What type of stress is this?

A) external


B) internal


C) short term


D) long term

C) short term

True or false: physical indicators of stress are losing confidence, having trouble concentrating at work, become angry, irritable and restless.

False


Those are signs of psychological indicators.

If your pulse and breathing speeds up, vision gets blurry, sweating, shaking, or become dizzy. Is that a physical or psychological stress indicator?

Physical

What level of need consists of basic survival needs, food, water, shelter, warmth, sex and sleep?

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.

The answer is C) physiological needs

What type of need consists of morality, creativity, spontaneity, problem solving, lack of prejudice, and acceptance of facts.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is B) self-actualization

What type of need consists of security of the body, employment, resources, morality, the family, and health.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is E) safety needs

What type of needs consist of having self esteem, confidence, achievement, respect of others, and respect by others?

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is d) esteem needs

What type of needs consist of friendship, family and sexual intimacy?

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is A) social needs

The following describes what level of need: staff /prisoners complaining about development of their personal potential, no recognition, no training or support as professionals.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is b) self actualization

The following describes what level of need: staff/prisoners complaining about low salaries, poorly prepared food lacing in nutrition, bad working conditions or old buildings, lack of air conditioning.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is C) physiological needs

The following describes what level of need: lack of clear guidelines for job performance, which makes it hard to learn thier job, having to bend the rules to accommodate hostile groups of prisoners in order to secure compliance and maintain quiet.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is E ) safety needs

The following describes what level of need: nothing positive in the workplace, being "dumped on" by prisoners and used as targets in game playing.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is A) social needs

The following describes what level of need: lack of input into decision making, lack of professional respect.

A) social needs.


B) self-actualization.


C) physiological needs.


D) esteem needs.


E) safety needs.

The answer is D) esteem needs

True or false: Type C personalities are aggressive and more verbal than people who are type A personalities.

False: the other way around, it's the people with Type A personalities.

Which type of personality competes with self, uses more subtle Humor to make a point and works with relaxed concentration?

A) Type A


B) Type B


C) Type C


D) Type D

The answer is B) Type B

A long term stress otherwise known as "burn out" occurs in how many stages?

5 stages

True or false: exercising and getting adequate rest are good techniques for reducing stress.

True

What burnout stage is characterized by deep pessimism, self-doubt, and obsession problems?

A) crisis


B) hitting the wall


C) chronic symptoms


D) honeymoon


E) fuel shortage

A) crisis

What stage of burnout phase consists of having great enthusiasm for thier job, thier co workers and their organization. All things seem possible.

A) hitting the wall


B) crisis


C) the honeymoon


D) chronic symptoms


E) fuel shortage

The answer is C) the honeymoon

What stage of burnout consists of throwing in the towel, spirit feels broken, and they nearly incapacitated by a deep and profound weariness. Usually perceived as threats.

A) hitting the wall.


B) crisis.


C) the honeymoon.


D) chronic symptoms.


E) fuel shortage

The answer is A) hitting the wall

What stage of burnout consists of some job dissatisfaction, fatigue, sleep disturbance, lacking in concentration and watching the clock waiting for the day to end?

A) hitting the wall.


B) crisis.


C) the honeymoon.


D) chronic symptoms.


E) fuel shortage.

The answer is F) fuel shortage

What stage of burnout consists of constant fatigue even after a full nights sleep, and having small aches and pains.

A) hitting the wall.


B) crisis.


C) the honeymoon.


D) chronic symptoms.


E) fuel shortage.

The answer is D) chronic symptoms

What stage of burnout consists of self doubt and obsession problems, having an escape mentality, workers feel like everyone is making excessive demands on them.

A) hitting the wall.


B) crisis.


C) the honeymoon.


D) chronic symptoms.


E) fuel shortage

The answer is B) crisis

True or false: prisoner stops caring about certain aspects of showering, combing hair, how he/she looks are changes in personal habits.

True

Changes in the general ability to function, appears to be out of touch with what is going on around them, anxiety, dellusions, and restlessness are what type of behavior patterns?

Changes in mood

The most important objective of corectional supervision is:


A) coordinating with other parts of the organization


B) protecting life, health, property and personal safety.


C) treating prisoners legally and humanly


D) reinforcing positive change in prisoners.


The answer is C) treating prisoners legally and humanly.

True or false: feedback refers to information given in response to performance and is a helpful tool to improve performance if delivered effectively.

True

When conditions permit, prisoners shall be permitted to receive visitors for at least how many hours on each visiting day normally weekends and holidays?

At least 2 hours, for those who have traveled to come visit, some exceptions might be made

The exchange of ideas, messages, or information; or, the sending and receiving of messages through channels best describes what?

A) message


B) feedback


C) communication


D) lecturing

The answer is C) communication

What are the three methods of communication?

Verbal, non verbal, symbolic

Who decodes the message and translates the verbal and nonverbal symbols into meaning?

A) sender


B) receiver


C) observer


D) translator

The answer is D) receiver

What type of prisoner don't see themselves as criminals, but as victims of circumstance.

A) predatory


B) weak


C) average


D) psychologically disturbed

C) average

What type of prisoner may suddenly start acting like predatory or weak prisoners, which is out of character?

A) predatory.


B) weak.


C) average.


D) psychologically disturbed.

D) psychologically disturbed

True of false: for predatory prisoners you must define limits, hold the line, stick to policy.

True

Who's job is it to decode the message and translate the verbal and non verbal symbols into meaning?

The receiver

True or false: responding to content is the ability to see and hear what is really happening and reflect that understanding back to the prisoner.

True