N330 Vocab For Exam 1

Front 1

The mov't of water up a conc. gradient from lower to higher solute load

Back 1

osmosis

Front 2

The mechanical force of water pushing against the cellular membranes

Back 2

hydrostatic pressure

Front 3

abnormal changes in size, shape & organization of mature cells (often reversible)

Back 3

dysplasia

Front 4

hypoxia or chemical injury resulting in protein denaturation in kidneys, ht, adrenal glands

Back 4

coagulative necrosis

Front 5

injury to neurons & glial cells; dead enzymes digested by hydrolytic enzymes

Back 5

liquefactive necrosis

Front 6

Dead cells not completely digested; cauess lesions that can still contain active TV

Back 6

caseous necrosis

Front 7

breast, pancreas, abdomen; fatty acisds release a lipase that dissoves

Back 7

fat necrosis

Front 8

hypoxic injury usually from blocked circulation in ower leg. bacterial invasion follows. dark, wet & gas

Back 8

gangrenous necrosis

Front 9

Intracellular fluids make up how much of body water?

Back 9

60%

Front 10

excess K+ in ECF causes ________, whereas low ECF K+ means _______. Essentially, K+ affects the _______.

Back 10

excitability & depolarization (high K+) & hyperpolarization & nonresponsiveness (low K+); it affects resting potential

Front 11

What's the most abundant ECF ion? What's it affect?

Back 11

Na+ , affects water distribution & ECF)

Front 12

A protein hormone released by the thyroid to regulate plasma Ca levles

Back 12

calcitonin

Front 13

What happens to K & Ca in acidosis?

Back 13

K & Ca leave cell

Front 14

What happens to K & Ca in alkalosis?

Back 14

K & Ca enter cell

Front 15

The differnece b/n calculated serum cations & anions

Back 15

anion gap

Front 16

what's the formula for the anion gap?

Back 16

(Na + K) -(Cl + Co2). Normally 9-16 mEq/L

Front 17

This normalizes Na concentration

Back 17

ADH

Front 18

How ADH workd

Back 18

osmorectpros in hypothalamus sense high plasma conc. of Na, ADH is released, widens kidney tubule pores and water is reabsorbed, thus lowering sodium concentrations

Front 19

This causes active reabsorption of Na in the distal convuluted & Collecting tubes, water follows if pores are open due to ADH

Back 19

aldosterone

Front 20

What stimulates Aldosterone?

Back 20

renin-angiotensi, elevated K levels, and diminished Na levels.

Front 21

Individual has 47 chromosomes w/ 3 copies at 13. May be the lowest trisomy one can live with. polydactyl common

Back 21

trisomy 13 aka Patau syndrom

Front 22

47 chromosomes w/ 3 copies @ 18

Back 22

Trisomy 18/ Edward syndrome

Front 23

47 chromosomes w/ 3 copies @ 21; most common chromosomal disorder

Back 23

Trisomy 21/ down syndrom

Front 24

47XXY

Back 24

Kleinfelter's Syndrome

Front 25

45X

Back 25

Turner Syndrome

Front 26

Severity of the expression of a phenotype; variable expressivity is when sesverity of a disease differs in people w/ same genotype

Back 26

expressivity

Front 27

the probability a gene will have any phenotyic expression; can be reduced anytime its less than 100$ of the time (i.e. 75% means 75% of those w/ genotype will show a particular phenotype too)

Back 27

penetrance

Front 28

1 copy of allele is needed for expression of the phenotype; each pregnancy has a 50% chance of getting trait. Affects males & females equally

Back 28

Autosomal dominant

Front 29

Autosomal dominant disease w/ large number of triplet CAG repeats on chromosome 4. protein aggregates in the brain

Back 29

Huntington's Disease

Front 30

Autosomeal dominant disease NF 1 gene on chromosome 17, which codes for a suppressor protein

Back 30

neurofibromatosis

Front 31

autosomal dominant disease; connective tissue disorder. Tall, thin, long fingers, cardiovasc lesions (aortic dissection, ht valve dysfunction). mutation on chrom 15, caues deficienty of fibroblasts

Back 31

marfan syndrome

Front 32

to pass on, both parentshave to either be carriers or recessive. males & fem's affected equally

Back 32

autosomal recessive

Front 33

autosomal recessive disease; implicated gen on chromosome 7. manifests w/ respiratory, GI & reprod.

Back 33

cystic fibrosis

Front 34

autosomal recessive disease; due to single mutation . 1/12 african americans have it

Back 34

SCd

Front 35

2 copies of diesead allele needed on x chromosome for individual w/ 2 X's to be affected; males only need one copy. females are carriers.

Back 35

x-linked recessive

Front 36

x-linked recessive disease w/ progressive muscle wasting . located on p32 of larege gene that codes for dystrophin

Back 36

duchenne muscular dystrophy

Front 37

x-linked recessive bleeding disease

Back 37

hemophila A

Front 38

absence of maternal contribution of a region on chrom 15 that causes delayed motor milestones, unusual mov'ts, laughing, epilepsy

Back 38

angelman syndrome

Front 39

absence of paternal contribution to region on chromosome 15. feeding difficulties, then excessive eating, morbidly obese, mental retardation

Back 39

prader willi syndrome

Front 40

autosomal recessive disorder; can't metabolize phenylalanine

Back 40

PKU

Front 41

rare deletion of short arm of chromosome 5; abnormal larynx development, resp. prob's , normal life expectancy

Back 41

cri du chat

Front 42

the cells are found in marrow & can be pluripoten, myeloid, or lymphoid

Back 42

progenitor cells

Front 43

the colony forming units before the actual full differentiation

Back 43

precursor cells

Front 44

hormone released by kidney, stimulates globin synthesis, response to hypoxia. joins w/ IL-3 & GM-CSF to inc production of erythrocyte progenitor cells

Back 44

erythropoietin

Front 45

have granules in cytoplasm; polymorphonuclear (cell types too)

Back 45

granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils & basophils)

Front 46

no granules in cyto.

Back 46

agranulocytes (monocytes & lymphocytes)

Front 47

majority of wbc's; multilobed nucleus. also called segs in more mature cells. first line of defense against infection. lifespan 8 hours

Back 47

neutrophil

Front 48

total WBC x (%bands + %segs)

Back 48

absolute neutrophil count (normal is 2000)

Front 49

bilobed nucleus, mainly tissue cells, present in GI, bronchial & lower GU tracts. respond to IgE & IgA

Back 49

eosinophils

Front 50

have a blueberry muffin appearance; least common in peripheral blood. response to inflam states like histamine release w/ Type I hypersensistity

Back 50

basophils

Front 51

respond to bacterial & viral infectoins as well as chronic inflma diseases by performing phagocytosis. mature in tissue

Back 51

monocytes in circulation; macrophages (mature) in tissue

Front 52

cells of the adaptive immune response; recognize self

Back 52

lymphocytes

Front 53

increased wduring viral infection, more infrequently in bacterial infections, alleric condictions. an increase in lymphocytes

Back 53

lymphocytosis

Front 54

which has a nucleus, proerythrocyte, or a reticulocyte?

Back 54

proerythrocyte

Front 55

increased RBCs, found in newborns, CHD, chronic hypoxia, high altitueds, smoking

Back 55

polycythemia (eg. polycythemia vera)

Front 56

what vitamins are critical for RBC production:

Back 56

iron, folate, B12

Front 57

The % of RBC to the whole blood. Ratio of cells to fluid

Back 57

hematocrit

Front 58

when this is absent, oxidative stressors can damage Hgb & the plasma membranes of RBCs; eventually exposure to oxidating substances resutls in precipitation of insoluble Hgb inclusions called Heinz bodies, ultimately causing hemolysis in splee

Back 58

G6PD deficiency

Front 59

formed by damage; Hgb usually by oxidation; since denaturation is irreversible, over time you can have Heinz anemia; alpha thalassemia & G6PD deficiency can both result in these

Back 59

heinz bodies

Front 60

cellular frags of megakaryocytes

Back 60

platelets aka thrombocytes

Front 61

myeloproliferative disease, acute blood loss, & polycythemia vera

Back 61

thrombocytosis

Front 62

high RBC mass (Hct > 50%). 2 types

Back 62

polycythemia. primary (vera) is proliferative disease of the bone marrow. Secondary is an increase in erythropoietin in response to hypozia (altitude, smoking, ht/lung disease)

Front 63

abnormally deep or rapid breathing

Back 63

hyperpnea

Front 64

shortness of breath, resp clinical sign of anemia

Back 64

dyspnea

Front 65

disease of arterial bv's, chronic inflam response in walls of arteries, caused by formation of mult plaques; can cause stenosis or aneurysm. plaques can rupture leading to thrombus leasing to ischemia

Back 65

atherosclerosis

Front 66

ebv penetrates thru nose/mouth/salivary glands. selectively infects b cells, w/ ebv receptors. cd8 t's & NK cells try to control prolif

Back 66

mononucleosis

Front 67

This nerve recognizes odors

Back 67

olfactory

Front 68

this cranial nerve does visual acuity, visual fields, & fundi exam

Back 68

optic

Front 69

the first cranial nerve does visual motor stuff & acuity & these other ones constrict & accomodate to light & exraocular movements

Back 69

oculomotor, trochlear & abducens

Front 70

this nerve does superficial pain & touch sensation & tone & strength of jaw muscles

Back 70

trigeminal

Front 71

this nerve tstes of sweet & salty

Back 71

facial

Front 72

this nerve does the whisper test, rinne & weber tests

Back 72

acoustic

Front 73

this nerve tastes sour & bitter & does swallowing

Back 73

glossopharyngeal

Front 74

this nerve does vocal tone & uvula symmetry

Back 74

vagus

Front 75

this nerve does the trapezius & sternocleidomastoid muscle strength

Back 75

the spinal accessory nerve

Front 76

this nerve does tongue movement

Back 76

hypoglossal

Front 77

Injury or defect @ hich level of the spine is consistent w/ a complaint of loss of sensation of mid portion of dorsum of foot?

Back 77

L5

Front 78

injury or defect @ which level of spine is consistent w/ complaint of loss of sensation of middorsum of arm, elbow & 2nd & 3rd fingers?

Back 78

C7

Front 79

if pt. has complaint of numbness on palmer surface of 2nd & 3rd fingers?

Back 79

median nerve

Front 80

which peripheral nerve is most likely to be affected if pt. had a complaint of numbness of dorsal surface on 4th & 5th fingers?

Back 80

ulnar nerve

Front 81

Which cranial nerves have motor function?

Back 81

oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory, hypoglossal

Front 82

which spinal cords have sensory function?

Back 82

olfactory, optic, trigeminal, facial, acoustic, glossopharyngeal, vagus

Front 83

which cranial nerves have parasympathetic function?

Back 83

oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus

Front 84

what are the balance tests?

Back 84

sitting, arising, immediate standing, standing, nudged

Front 85

what are the gait tests?

Back 85

initiation, step length & height, step symmetry, step continuity, path

Front 86

what are major warning signs of brain attack?

Back 86

sudden: weakness, numbness, paralysis of face, arms or legs; trouble seeing, confusion, diff. speaking, understanding speech, severe headache, trouble walking

Front 87

How many of each type of vertebrae are there?

Back 87

7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral

Front 88

4 tests for carpal tunnel?

Back 88

flick (if that causes pain), tinnel (strike @ median nerve to cause tingling), thumb abduction (should be able to resist), phalen (numbness is bad when hands pressed together)

Front 89

rotator cuff muscles?

Back 89

Supraspinitis, infraspinitis, teres minor, subscapularis

Front 90

This test for excess fluid involves applying downward pressure above the patella & then pushing it against the femor

Back 90

ballottment

Front 91

this test for excess fluid milks the medial aspect of knee upward, then laterally tapping patella

Back 91

bulge sign

Front 92

this test for a torn medial or lateral meniscus involves flexing the knee, rotating foot & knee in & out & listening for clicks

Back 92

McMurray

Front 93

this stest for instability of ant & posterior cruciate ligaments involves pushing tibia fwd & back (<5mm)

Back 93

drawer

Front 94

this test for ACL integrity pulls the tibia anteriorly (<5mm)

Back 94

lachman

Front 95

this test for instability of L & MCL applys varus force to anke & inward rotation

Back 95

varus stress

Front 96

bowleggedness?

Back 96

valgum

Front 97

The straight leg raising test is used to check for what specific lower spine problem?

Back 97

nerve root irritation or lumbar disk herniation @ L4, L5 & S1

Front 98

The Ottowa Ankle Rules help w/ the clinician's decision process for what test? What are the stats on it?

Back 98

Ankle x-ray. 99-100% sensitivity & 50% specificity for detecting fracture.

Front 99

What are 8 risk factors for cervical cancer?

Back 99

PAP smear history; HPV; HIV; Sexual history (many partners, sex before 16), smoking; diet; race (higher in blacks, hispanics); oral contraceptives

Front 100

List 9 risk factors for Ovarian cancer

Back 100

Age, reprod history (early menarch, inferti., late 1st child), ferility drugs, FHx (ovarian, breast & colon), personal Hx (breast, endometrial, colon), genetic mutation (BRCA1 or 2), race (50% more freq. in whites), hormone replacement therapy, high fat diet

Front 101

What techniques could you use to assess for ascites?

Back 101

shifting dullness upon percussion, fluid wave, auscultatory percussion, puddle sign

Front 102

what's the proper order of exam techniques?

Back 102

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

Front 103

what sounds to organs sound like when percussed?

Back 103

full bladder (dull), liver (dull), stomach (tympanic), Lg intestine (tympanic), sternum (dull), lungs (resonant)

Front 104

10 risk factors for colorectal cancer:

Back 104

older than 50, FHx (colon cancer, garener syndrome), PMHx (colorectal, polyps, chronic inflam bowell disease), ethnic background (A. Jew), diet (low fiber, high animal fat), obesity, smoking, physical inactivity, alcohol, PMHx (ovarian, breast, endometrial cancer)

Front 105

Where do you commonly assess for bruits?

Back 105

R&L renal arteries, R&L iliac arteries, R&L femoral arteries, aorta

Front 106

Where are kidneys located?

Back 106

T12-L3, R is lower than L

Front 107

What are the 9 quadrant labels of the abdomen?

Back 107

R hypochondriac, epigastric, L hypochondriac, R Lumbar, umbilical, L Lumbar, R inguinal, hypogastic (pubic), L inguinal

Front 108

Name 5 functional or physiologic changes in the GI of old people

Back 108

decreased: intestinal motility, secretion & absorption, circulation to intestines. Mucosa cells are more susceptible to phyical & chemical agents. Increase in gall stones & biletary lipids

Front 109

The straight leg raising test is used to check for what specific lower spine problem?

Back 109

nerve root irritation or lumbar disk herniation @ L4, L5 & S1

Front 110

The Ottowa Ankle Rules help w/ the clinician's decision process for what test? What are the stats on it?

Back 110

Ankle x-ray. 99-100% sensitivity & 50% specificity for detecting fracture.

Front 111

What are 8 risk factors for cervical cancer?

Back 111

PAP smear history; HPV; HIV; Sexual history (many partners, sex before 16), smoking; diet; race (higher in blacks, hispanics); oral contraceptives

Front 112

List 9 risk factors for Ovarian cancer

Back 112

Age, reprod history (early menarch, inferti., late 1st child), ferility drugs, FHx (ovarian, breast & colon), personal Hx (breast, endometrial, colon), genetic mutation (BRCA1 or 2), race (50% more freq. in whites), hormone replacement therapy, high fat diet

Front 113

What techniques could you use to assess for ascites?

Back 113

shifting dullness upon percussion, fluid wave, auscultatory percussion, puddle sign

Front 114

what's the proper order of exam techniques?

Back 114

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate

Front 115

what sounds to organs sound like when percussed?

Back 115

full bladder (dull), liver (dull), stomach (tympanic), Lg intestine (tympanic), sternum (dull), lungs (resonant)

Front 116

10 risk factors for colorectal cancer:

Back 116

older than 50, FHx (colon cancer, garener syndrome), PMHx (colorectal, polyps, chronic inflam bowell disease), ethnic background (A. Jew), diet (low fiber, high animal fat), obesity, smoking, physical inactivity, alcohol, PMHx (ovarian, breast, endometrial cancer)

Front 117

Where do you commonly assess for bruits?

Back 117

R&L renal arteries, R&L iliac arteries, R&L femoral arteries, aorta

Front 118

Where are kidneys located?

Back 118

T12-L3, R is lower than L

Front 119

What are the 9 quadrant labels of the abdomen?

Back 119

R hypochondriac, epigastric, L hypochondriac, R Lumbar, umbilical, L Lumbar, R inguinal, hypogastic (pubic), L inguinal

Front 120

Name 5 functional or physiologic changes in the GI of old people

Back 120

decreased: intestinal motility, secretion & absorption, circulation to intestines. Mucosa cells are more susceptible to phyical & chemical agents. Increase in gall stones & biletary lipids

Front 121

What tests might you do to assess for appendicitis?

Back 121

Markle, McBurney, Rovsing, Iliopsoas, Rebound

Front 122

List 6 risk factors for breast cancer:

Back 122

Age, gender, race, personal Hx breast cancer, BRCA1 or 2 gene, FHx of B.C.

Front 123

List 6 risk factors for benign breast disease

Back 123

early menarche, late birth of 1st child, late menopause, high socioeconomic status, nulliparity or low parity, caffeine

Front 124

How ofter should screening tests be done for breast exams?

Back 124

CBE: Under 40, Q 1-3 yrs. Over 40, annually.
Mammography: (avg. risk) Under 50, Q 1-2 yrs.
High risk, @ 35 annually

Front 125

Risk factors for prostate cancer (5)

Back 125

age (>50), race (black), nationality (NA, NW Europe), Family Hx, Diet high in animal fat

Front 126

What're the most & least common types of hernias?

Back 126

Most=indirect, least=femoral

Front 127

When should men get PSA screening?

Back 127

40 high risk, 50 avg. risk