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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
#01. Where are the explicit operating instructions for test equipment, and which TO tells you where to find further information?

a. Test equipment front covers; 00-5-2
b. Applicable technical orders; 00-5-2
c. Test equipment front covers; 0-1-33-1
d. Applicable technical orders; 0-1-33-1
D. Applicable technical orders; 0-1-33-1
#02. Repair and calibration of test equipment is the responsibility of the

a. user
b. manufacturer
c. test and measurement squadron
d. test measurment and diagnostic support center
d. test measurment and diagnostic support center
#03. When can a shop standard be used for routine maintenance functions?

a. during critical alignments when accuracy is vital.
b. if an emergency condition exists and like test equipment is inoperative.
c. when like items are not calibrated and preventive maintenance inspections are due.
d. when normal shop items are at another location, and authorization has been provided.
B. if an emergency condition exists and like test equipment is inoperative.
#04. To eliminate moisture, most complex items of electronic test equipment use

a. sealed cases
b. cooling fans
c. built in heaters
d. aperture grommets
C. built in heaters
#05. Which test equipment item is most likely to be tropicalized and fungus-proofed?

a. Laminated circuit board
b. Component socket
c. Connector
d. Relay
A. Laminated circuit board
#06. Which of these is usually not affected by storing test equipment accessories improperly?

a. Maintenance procedures
b. Intermittent troubles
c. Unreliable indications
d. Changes in their characteristics
A. Maintenance procedures
#07. Of what should you be aware in taking voltage measurements?

a. A voltmeter of low sensitivity used on a low range may render circuits inoperable.
b. A voltmeter of high sensitivity used on a low range may render circuits inoperable.
c. A voltmeter of high sensitivity used on a high range may render circuits inoperable.
d. A voltmeter of low sensitivity used on a high range may render circuits inoperable
A. A voltmeter of low sensitivity used on a low range may render circuits inoperable.
#08. Before measuring a resistance, you must sometimes unsolder one side of a resistor in order to

a. ensure power is removed
b. prevent erroneous readings
c. prevent damage to meters and transistors.
d. ensure all circuit resistance points are checked.
B. prevent erroneous readings
#09. In troubleshooting equipment, which of these measurements are not commonly taken?

a. Resistance
b. Frequency
c. Waveform
d. Current
D. Current
#10. What is the problem in measuring current with a multimeter with handheld probes?

a. High attenuation of the signal
b. High risk of electrical shock
c. Erroneous readings
d. Meter damage
B. High risk of electrical shock
#100. Which mode is first used to analyze the fiber after fiber insertion?

a. SCAN mode
b. RECORD mode
c. AVERAGE mode
d. REAL-TIME mode
D. REAL-TIME mode
#11. Which test set can you use to check the frequency of a transmitter?

a. Signal generator
b. Digital multimeter
c. Analog multimeter
d. Frequency counter
D. Frequency counter
#12. Which component is not a troubleshooting aid?

a. Analyze the system operation
b. System and unit programs
c. Fault indicators
d. Flow charts
B. System and unit programs
#13. What is the most important step in the troubleshooting effort?

a. Analyze the system operation
b. Isolate the defective circuit
c. Isolate the defective state
d. Think before you act
D. Think before you act
#14. In the established general troubleshooting procedures, steps 1 through 4 are used in

a. testing and readjusting the circuit's operation
b. removing and replacing the defective part
c. locating the trouble
d. repairing the unit
C. locating the trouble
#15 What are functional inspections?

a. Visual inspections for corrosion, loose connections, or mechanical defects
b. Visual inspections of mechanical aspects of the equipment
c. Inspections done through frequent bench checks
d. Inspections done through periodic tests.
D. Inspections done through periodic tests.
#16. its important to document periodic maintenance inspections because they reveal

a. That some sort of failure exists in a suspected piece of equipment
b. that the possibility of failure exists in a suspected piece of equipment
c. slow progressive drifts that may be too small to show up in any one test
d. overall equipment inspections that maybe too small to show up in any one test.
C. slow progressive drifts that may be too small to show up in any one test
#17. What trouble shooting technique would be used to isolate a circuit card or module failure?

a. In house loopback
b. Equipment substitution
c. Component replacement
d. Internal diagnostic checks
D. Internal diagnostic checks
#19. The resistance values provided in TO resistance charts are normally measured between


b. a resistor and a capacitor
c. a capacitor and an inductor
d. the indicated point and ground
D. the indicated point and ground
#20. What safety practices do you observe before making resistance checks?

a. Discharge all filter capacitors and ensure the meter and equipment are correctly grounded
b. Ensure the power is turned off and set the meter to the highest range
d. Ensure the power is turned off and discharge all filter capacitors
D. Ensure the power is turned off and discharge all filter capacitors
#21. Regardless of the size of the circuit you are troubleshooting, you can immediately isolate the defective half of a unit by which troubleshooting technique?

a. Half-split method
b. Diagnostic tests
c. Marginal checking
d. Group removal and replacement
A. Half-split method
#22. Which analog multimeter control do you use for AC/DC voltages, current and resistance measurements?

a. Range switch
b. voltage switch
c. Function switch
d. Zero ohms switch
C. Function switch
#23. Which control on the analog multimeter calibrates the meter's pointer to zero for a resistance measurment?

a. Zero ohms switch
b. Function switch
c. Voltage switch
d. Range switch
A. Zero ohms switch
#24. Which analog multimeter control must you depress to remove an overload condition and return the meter to its normal operation?

a. Zero ohms control
b. Range switch
c. Reset button
d. Fuse switch
C. Reset button
#25 When you make a resistance measurement, how do you electrically isolate a resistor from the circuit?

a. Remove power from the circuit
b. Short both sides of the resistor
c. Insulate both sides of the resistor
d. Disconnect one side of the resistor
D. Disconnect one side of the resistor
#26. How do you place multimeter test leads in a circuit to measure voltage?

a. series
b. Parallel
c. Series parallel
d. parallel parallel
B. Parallel
#27. In which type of circuit would you measure the AC component of an output voltage where both AC and DC voltage levels exist?

a. Filter
b. Resonant
c. Amplifier
d. Differential
C. Amplifier
#28 Which feature of the fluke 8025A multimeter do you use to select various measurement functions?

a. Circuit jacks
b. rotary switch
c. Range push button
d. touch hold button
B. rotary switch
#29. Which part of the Fluke 8025A's display section indicate the absolute value of the input?

a. Digital
b. Annunciator
c. Range indicator
d. Analog bar graph
D. Analog bar graph
#30. which feature of the fluke 8025a locks the measurment into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement

a. rotary switch
b. range and push button
c. power up self test
d. touch hold push button
D. touch hold push button
#31. When you use the Fluke 8025A, which voltage range do you select to measure 50 Vdc?

a. Volts ac
b. Volts dc
c. Millivolts ac
d. millivolts dc
B.Volts dc
#32. Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps AC?

a. Microamps DC
b. Microamps AC
c. Milliamps/amp DC
d. Milliamps/amp AC
D. Milliamps/amp AC
#33. Which fluke 3024a multimeter function displays "OL" with the leads connected in one direction while reversing them produces a continuous audible tone?

a. Diode test
b. Power-up self-test
c. Current measurement
d. Resistance measurement
A. Diode test
#34. How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?

a. Voltage+intensity, time=vertical axis, and depth=horizontal axis
b. Voltage=intensity, time =horizontal axis, and depth=vertical axis
c. Voltage=horizontal axis, time=vertical axis, and depth=intensity
d. Voltage=vertical axis, time=horizontal axis, and depth=intensity
D. Voltage=vertical axis, time=horizontal axis, and depth=intensity
#35. Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?

a. Auto
b. Norm
c. External
d. Source
A. Auto
#36. Which triggering source would be used to look for power line hum?

a. External
b. Internal
c. Slope
d. Line
D. Line
#37. Where should the volt/cm (volts/div) control be set to begin with?

a. Maximum setting
b. Minimum setting
c. Uncalibrated
d. Horizontal
A. Maximum setting
#38. Which control should you adjust if the display is too tall (extends off screen)?

a. Volts/cm
b. Time/cm
c. Triggering
d. Input coupling
A. Volts/cm
#40. Which probe lets you use the oscilloscope to measure higher voltage levels, raises the input impedance, does not require a bias voltage, and attenuates noise?

a. Current probe.
b. Passive 1:1 probe
c. Active (FET) probe
d. Passive divider, 10:1 probe
D. Passive divider, 10:1 probe
#41. Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?

a. Current probe
b. Passive 1:1 probe
c. Active (FET) probe
d. Passive divider, 10:1 probe
A. Current probe
#42. In which of these situations is probe compensation not necessary?

a. Whenever you reconnect a probe to a different input connector
b. Any time you have changed test points
c. Whenever you change probes
d. At the beginning of each work day
B. Any time you have changed test points
#43. Rise time is measured between

a. 10 and 90 percent amplitude points on the leading or trailing edge of the pulse.
b. the 6th division points on the leading or trailing edge of the pulse.
d. zero crossing points
A. 10 and 90 percent amplitude points on the leading or trailing edge of the pulse.
#44. If a sine wave signal's positive alternation covers 2.5 time divisions and the TIME/DIV is set to 20 nS, what is the signal's frequency?

a. 10 MHz
b. 20 MHz
c. 30 MHz
d. 50 MHz
A. 10 MHz
#45. In using an oscilloscope to compare two signals, if the Lissajous pattern has 3 bumps on one axis and 4 on the other,

a. you should readjust the volts/div until you get a "bow tie" pattern
b. the signals are 90° out of phase with each other
c. the signals are in phase with each other
d. the signals have different frequencies
D. the signals have different frequencies
#46. What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals?

a. Analog to digital converter
b. Digital to analog converter
c. Charged coupled device
d. Cathode ray tube
C. Charged coupled device
#47. Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as

a. sequential records
b. waveform points
c. record lengths
d. record points
B. waveform points
#48. What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?

a. Microprocessor
b. Acquisition
c. Memory
d. Input
A. Microprocessor
#49. What types of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?

a. Sequential
b. Repetitive
c. Real-time
d. Random
C. Real-time
#50. What type of interpolation does a digital storage oscilloscope use to measure pulse waves?

a. Sine
b. Linear
c. Normal
d. Sequential
B. Linear
#51. Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode?

a. Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample
b. Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time
c. Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging
d. Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect
A. Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample
#52. Which digital storage oscilloscope button controls all waveforms displayed in the STORE mode?

a. CURSORS control
b. MEMORY control
c. SELECT C1/C2 switch
d. SAVE/CONTINUE switch
A. CURSORS control
#53. In acquiring a 4k record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?

a. 1,000
b. 2,000
c. 3,000
d. 4,000
A. 1,000
#54. What is the purpose of the bit error rate test set?

a. Ensure the selected bit rate is transmitted to the selected receiver
b. Provide an error detection system to determine the quality of received data
c. Provide an error suppression system to improve the quality of received data
d. Ensure the selected data source transmits the correct bit rate to the selected receiver
B. Provide an error detection system to determine the quality of received data
#55. What test equipment item provides a patterned digital test signal for loop testing and compares an identical pattern to determine the loop data quality?

a. BERTS
b. Spectrum analyzer
c. RF signal generator
d. Digital storage oscilloscope
A. BERTS
#56. Which of these is a major section of the typical bit error rate test set?

a. Analog signal generator
b. External clock generator
c. Internal clock generator
d. Bit synchronizer and error counter
C. Internal clock generator
#57. In the internal clock generator section of a typical bit error rate test set, what generates the basic clock that provides all clock phases, and is periodically frequency calibrated by a crystal-controlled oscillator in the automatic calibration section?

a. VCO
b. Countdown
c. Code converter
d. DAC and decode range splitter
A. VCO
#58. Which pattern simulator section of a bit error rate test set controls the clock selector and selects either the external clock or the internal clock for processing?

a. Clock drivers
b. Code converter
c. Data/sync selector
d. Data/clock select encoder
D. Data/clock select encoder
#59. What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?

a. PRN generator
b. PRN comparator
c. 48-bit transmitter only
d. 48-bit register and 8-bit word display
C. 48-bit transmitter only
#60. What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the NRZ-L data into the desired coding, such as NRZ-M?

a. Data drivers
b. Code converter
c. PRN generator
d. External data comparator
B. Code converter
#61. What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/clock receivers?

a. 48-bit transmitter
b. 48-bit synchronizer/comparator
c. PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator
d. External data pattern synchronizer/comparator
C. PRN pattern synchronizer/comparator
#62. When will the pattern synchronizer and error counter error/IN SYNC section of the bit error rate test set provide an output to the front panel display, and what interrupts this output?

a. At the end of the count cycle only, rest pulse
b. When the countdown pulse is received only, read/enter pulse
c. At the end of the count cycle or when the reset switch is pushed, reset pulse
d. When the countdown pulse is received or when the rest switch is pushed, read/enter pulse
C. At the end of the count cycle or when the reset switch is pushed, reset pulse
#63. Which of these are the primary means of measuring the quality of transmitted digital information, and how is this means derived?

a. Bit error rate (BER), the ratio of the number of bits in error to total number of bits transmitted
b. Bit error rate (BER), the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received
c. Distribution of errors, the ratio of the number of bits in error to total number of bits transmitted
d. Distribution of errors, the difference between the number of bits transmitted and the total number of bits received.
A. Bit error rate (BER), the ratio of the number of bits in error to total number of bits transmitted
#64. What is the first step in the basic bit error rate testing procedure?

a. A noise signal is generated at the receiving end of the data channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel
b. A noise signal is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel
c. A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the receiving end of the data channel or equipment under test and is compared with the channel
d. A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel.
D. A known bit pattern, usually pseudo-random, is generated at the sending end of the data channel or equipment under test and is transmitted through the channel.
#65. During a basic bit error rate testing procedure, an error signal is generated when

a. any bit in the received signal is not the same as the timing bit
b. any bit in the received signal is not the same as the generated bit
c. 100 bits in the received signal are not the same as the timing bits
d. 100 bits in the received signal are not the same as the generated bits
B. any bit in the received signal is not the same as the generated bit
#66. Which of these data circuit speeds would normally use the shorter generated bit error rate (BER) test pattern lengths, and what is data circuit bit rate?

a. Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600 bps
b. Low to intermediate, 9600 to 12 kbps
c. Higher speed circuits, 5000 to 64 Kbps
d. Higher speed circuits, 50 Kbps to 64 Kbps
A. Low to intermediate, 1200 to 9600 bps
#67. Which of these bit rates should you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit?

a. 511 bps
b. 9600 bps
c. 64 Kbps
d. 1.544 Mbps
C. 64 Kbps
#68. On the bit error rate test set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to

a. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern
b. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations
c. isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern
d. isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.
b. simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations
#69. The primary use of a signal generator is to

a. test digital multiplexors
b. trace system signal-flow
c. troubleshoot a shorted circuit
d. align frequency sensitive or tuned circuits
D. align frequency sensitive or tuned circuits
#70. What is the frequency range of an audio signal generator?

a. 10 Hz to 10 kHz
b. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 10 kHz to 10 GHz
d. 20 kHz to 35 MHz
B. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
#71. What components make up the frequency determining device in a signal generator, and which of these elements is usually chosen as the variable element?

a. A resistor and capacitor (RC circuit) with the resistor as the variable element
b. A resistor and capacitor (RC circuit) with the capacitor as the variable element
c. A inductor and capacitor (LC circuit) with the inductor as the variable element
d. A inductor and capacitor (LC circuit) with the capacitor as the variable element
B. A resistor and capacitor (RC circuit) with the capacitor as the variable element
#73. A radio frequency generator is used to

a. monitor odd harmonics
b. align telemetry receivers
c. modulate subcarrier oscillators
d. check galvanometer frequency response
B. align telemetry receivers
#74. What is the variable voltage range of signals output from the HP 3325B

a. 1 mV to 10 V peak-to-peak
b. 1 mV to 10 V peak
c. 1 V to 10 V peak-to-peak
d. 1 V to 10 V peak
A. 1 mV to 10 V peak-to-peak
#75. The output of the HP 3325B function generator may generate only DC voltages, to a maximum of

a. ±1 V
b. ±4.5 V
c. ±5 V
d. ±10 V
C. ±5 V
#76. In using the phase modulation controls of the HP 3325B function generator, an input of a ±5 V peak would result in what approximate phase deviation?

a. ±42.5° per volt for sine wave
b. ±42.5° per volt for square wave
c. ±425° per volt for sine wave
d. ±425° per volt for square wave
D. ±425° per volt for square wave
#77. The 10:1 power ratio represented by 1 bel can also be represented by how many decibels(dB)?

a. 1 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 10 dB
D. 10 dB
#78. A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicate the

a. ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard
b. ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard
c. actual power level expressed in milliwatts
d. actual power level expressed in megawatts
A. ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard
#79. The measurable frequency and power ranges of the HP 436A power meter are determined by the

a. digital display
b. power sensor
c. power meter
d. interface
B. power sensor
#80. The most efficient power sensor for converting RF energy to the DC voltage measured by the HP 436A power meter is the

a. calorimeter
b. thermocouple
c. detecting diode
d. thermistor mount
C. detecting diode
#81. When you connect a new or different power sensor to the HP 436A power meter, you should

a. immediately calibrate the units together
b. calibrate the power meter separately before use
c. calibrate the power sensor separatly before use
d. observe a 30 day break-in period before calibrating the units together
A. immediately calibrate the units together
#82. You are using an HP 436A power meter to troubleshoot a transmitter. You are trying to determine which stage is causing a low power output from the transmitter. To find out how well each transmitter is amplifying, which power meter mode should you select?

a. Peak power
b. Average power
c. Absolute power
d. Relative power
D. Relative power
#83. Which one of these measurments is not made with a spectrum analyzer?

a. Frequency stability
b. Peak-peak voltage
c. Amplitude modulation
d. Subcarrier oscillator outputs
B. Peak-peak voltage
#84. Which of these measurments do you make with a spectrum analyzer?

a. Subcarrier oscillator output
b. Transducer output voltage
c. Time between two events
d. Pulse width
A. Subcarrier oscillator output
#85. Which trigger control on a spectrum analyzer lets the sweep be triggered by an AC power source at a rate equal to the frequency of the power source?

a. LINE
b. FREE RUN
c. INT (internal)
d. EXT (external)
A. LINE
#86. Which sweep control on a spectrum analyzer do you select to run the sweep only after triggering, with a READY light indication each time it is run?

a. Single
b. Manual
c. External
d. TIME/DIV
A. Single
#87. Beside the per division mode, what are the other two scan modes available through the FREQUENCY SPAN/DIV control on a spectrum analyzer?

a. Manual and 0 Hz
b. Manual and 50 Hz
c. Maximum and 0 Hz
d. Maximum and 50 Hz
C. Maximum and 0 Hz
#88. On a spectrum analyzer, you select LIN (linear) VERTICAL DISPLAY mode. The VERTICAL DISPLAY reads "5.00/ mV," and there is a signal peak six division above the CRT bottom line. What will the amplitude readout display?

a. 5 mV
b. 12 mV
c. 25 mV
d. 30 mV
D. 30 mV
#89. Which spectrum analyzer control selects the maximum input level of the analyzer and reduces input signals to an optimum level?

a. FREQUENCY SPAN/DIV
b. VERTICAL DISPLAY
c. REFERENCE LEVEL
d. MIN RF ATTEN dB
D. MIN RF ATTEN dB
#90. Which electronic counter measurement represents the average bit-to-bit time of an input signal?

a. Period
b. Scaling
c. Frequency
d. Time interval
A. Period
#91. Which electronic counter measurment counts the number of bits in a pulse train?

a. Period
b. Scaling
c. Totalize
d. Time interval
C. Totalize
#92. When the display section of a frequency counter receives the first 10 pulses passed from the signal gate, what is sent from the first decimal counting unit to the second decimal counting unit?

a. A set signal
b. A reset pulse
c. A carry pulse
d. A relay latch signal
C. A carry pulse
#93. Which of these is not an application of a frequency counter?

a. Monitoring transmitter frequencies
b. Monitoring bit clock frequencies
c. Monitoring transducer outputs
d. Monitoring FM drift
C. Monitoring transducer outputs
#94. A time domain reflectometer will not detect cable

a. moisture
b. splices
c. ground
d. short
C. ground
#95. What principle does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?

a. Amplitude
b. Frequency
c. Audio
d. Radar
D. Radar
#96. Which push-button(s) would you select to get 125 ohms impedance on the time domain reflectometer?

a. None
b. 75 ohms only
c. 125 ohms only
d. 50 ohms and 75 ohms
D. 50 ohms and 75 ohms
#97. What type of deflection return on the TDR CRT would indicate a cable "short?"

a. No "pip"
b. Positive "pip"
c. Negative "pip"
d. Smeared "pip"
C. Negative "pip"
#98. What do we call the power that is reflected back

a. Reflection
b. Backscatter
c. Scatter coefficient
d. Reflection coefficient
B. Backscatter
#99. How is the signal loss represented in on optical time domain display?

a. Watts
b. Power
c. Candles
d. Decibels
D. Decibels
#18. What type of tests would you do to isolate a defective component?

a. Resistance measurement, voltage measurement, and waveform comparisons
b. Circuit, system, and equipment tests
c. Preventive maintenance tests
d. Marginal checking.
A. Resistance measurement, voltage measurement, and waveform comparisons
#39. Which oscilloscope probe is essentially just a sheilded peice of wire?

a. Current probe
b. Passive 1:1 probe
c. Active field effect transistor probe
d. Passive divider, 1:10 probe
B. Passive 1:1 probe
#72. Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency generator?

a. Verifying transmitter frequencies
b. Troubleshooting receivers
c. Checking antenna systems
d. Aligning galvanometers
D. Aligning galvanometers