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645 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which COMDINST covers practices for respiratory protection?
|
COMDTINST M6260.2D
|
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Who can establish Regulated Navigation Areas?
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District Commander
|
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What are Limited Access Areas?
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Security Zones, Safety Zones, RNA's
|
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Which COMDINST covers Civil Penalty Procedures?
|
COMDTINST 16200.3
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Who can establish a safety zone in a Deepwater Port?
|
COMDT
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Who can establish a safety zone for an OCS facility?
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District Commander
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What Marine Safety Manual covers multi mission patrols?
|
MSM VOL VI COMDTINST M16000.11
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Who establishes Special Anchorage Areas?
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COMDT or Dist Commander
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What regulations list LAA?
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33 CFR 165
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Which regulations give COTP authority to authorize Security Zones?
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33 CFR 6
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How is targetting for Multi Mission Patrols conducted?
|
Targetted IAW goals set forth in Business Planj for Maine Safet, Security and Environmental Protection.
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Who determines frequency of Multi Mission Patrols?
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COTP or Dist. Commander
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What DOT form grants an exemption from 49 CFR during emergency military loads?
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DOT E-3498
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When are annual permits issued for Explosive Loads?
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Small quantities of 1.1 and 1.2 Less then 500lbs Routine operation.
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What permit is utilized to request permission from the COTP to load Designated Dangerous Cargo?
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CG-4260
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True of False. COTP may not require seperation distance if explosive loads can be driven directly on or off the vessel?
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True and not over 24 hours of operation.
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Seperation distance is based on?
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Total net weight of explosives
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What regulations address the National Contingency Plan?
|
40 CFR 300
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What subpart of the NCP contains info on State Involvment in the NCP?
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Subpart F
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How many subparts is the NCP broken down into?
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12
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Where can you find the four phases of response for oil?
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NCP Subpart D
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What subpart contains info on Natural Resource Trustees?
|
Subpart G
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How many organizations does the NRT consist of?
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16
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Which organization provides info on provides advice and assistance to other OSCs/RPMs for emergency actions essential for the control of immediate radiological hazards.
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DOE
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Who co-chairs the NRT
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USCG
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Who can provide OSC's during a national response?
|
DOE/USCG/EPA/DOD
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Which team has a readily deployable team of experts to assist the OSC during complex spills?
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DRAT (District Response Advisory Team)
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What response law dictated the development of Area Contingency Plans?
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OPA 90
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What is a decision support tool to assist in responding to oil and hazmat spills?
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SPEARS
|
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True of false. The Coastal zone contains the Great Lakes?
|
True. Coastal Waters exempts the Great Lakes and ports and harbors in inland waters.
|
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What team is required to develop RCP's?
|
RRT -Regional Response Team
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What is a flexible standard response management system that wil allow for the cultivation of response management expertise at all echelons of USCG management?
|
NIIMS
|
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Who maintains forms and equipment for 10 days of a worst case scenario?
|
District Commanders
|
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What COMDTINST contains guidelines for ICS structure?
|
COMDTINST 3120.14
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What ICS form contains the Unit Activity Log?
|
ICS 214
|
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Who is responsible for the collection,evaluation dissemination, and use of information?
|
Planning Section Chief
|
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What Section does the Situational Unit Leader work under
|
Planning
|
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What two branches are the Logistics Section broken down into?
|
Service and Supply
|
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Who does the Safety Officer report directly to?
|
Incident Commander
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Which ICS form provides the UC/IC with basic information regarding the incident situation?
|
ICS form 201
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What was developed by California and oil industry to use during emergency responses?
|
Field Operations Guide (FOG)
|
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Who is responsible for developing the Org Chart ICS 207?
|
Resource Unit Leader
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What ICS Form is ICS 211
|
Check in List
|
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What regulations contain requirements for the disposal of hazardous waste?
|
40 CFR 260-263
|
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Who is someone that generates less then 1000kg of hazardous waste?
|
Small quantity generator
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49 CFR 172.700 contains info on?
|
Training requirements
|
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Where can you find regulations for placarding of hazardous cargo?
|
49 CFR 172 500
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Column number 6 in the 101 table is entitled
|
Label required
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Column number 7 in the 101 table is entitled
|
Special Provisions
|
|
The Medical Manual is what COMDTINST?
|
COMDTINST M6000.1
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|
The Safety and Environmental Health Manual is what COMDINST?
|
COMDINST M5100.47
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Where can you find the regulations that give authority to commsioned, warrant and petty officers to carry out the duties of the COTP?
|
33 CFR 1.01.90
|
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What form to stated/federal agencies fill out to recover cost from a federalized spill?
|
SF-1080(81)
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What form is a Hot Work Permit?
|
CG 4201
|
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Where can you find info on Site Safety Plans?
|
29 CFR 1910.120 MSM VOL IX NCP
|
|
What level of training must a First Responder operations level have?
|
8 hours of training-Annual refresher
|
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How much training is required to meet "de minimis" training
|
4 hours
|
|
How much training must a manager or supervisor engaged in hazardous waste operations possess?
|
40 hours 24 hours field experience 8 hours haz waste operations 8 hours refresher
|
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Where is the requirement for NOA's found?
|
33 CFR 160
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True or False the COTP can downgrade a targetted administration scoring from 7 to 11 points to an ISPS III
|
TRUE, if removal of the flag Administration targeting points results in 6 or fewer points, if the Coast Guard previously boarded the vessel within the past 6 months and found no serious security deficiencies
|
|
Utilizing the ISPS/MTSA targetting matrix how many points is a targetted management?
|
5 points
|
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How many points is a Priority 1 vessel?
|
17
|
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Utilizing the PSC Safety Environmental Targetting matrix how many points is Bulk Freight Ship greater then 20 years old?
|
4 points
|
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Utilizing the Safety and Environmental Targetting matrix how many points is a Flag state with a detention ratio up to 2 times the overall average
|
2 points
|
|
Utilizing the ISPS/MTSA targetting matrix. How many points for a vessel that has a CAR more then 1.5% up to 3.0% and mroe then one major control action in past 12 mos?
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2 points
|
|
How many points for two or more RSO control actions in past 12 mos.
|
5 points
|
|
A class society with a detention ratio less then 1%
|
3 points
|
|
What form number is the Waterfront Facility Compliance Guide?
|
CG 5562a
|
|
What form number is the Facility Vulnerability and Security Measure Assessment?
|
CG 6025
|
|
What form number is the EPA Hazardous Waste Manifest?
|
EPA 8700-22
|
|
Where cna you find regulations pertaining to State access to the OSTLF?
|
33 CFR 133
|
|
What document is required for utilizing State or Federal assets during a Federal response?
|
Pollution Removal Funding Authorization (PRFA)
|
|
What form is given to the suspected spiller designating them as the RP?
|
Notice of Designation
|
|
Where cnan you find RQ's under the FWPCA for hazmat?
|
40 CFR 117
|
|
What regulations designate hazmat under the FWPCA?
|
40 CFR 116
|
|
WHere can you find RQ's under CERCLA?
|
40 CFR 302
|
|
What COMDTINST has info on COA's for oil?
|
CONDTINST 16450.27
|
|
What COMDTINST has info on COA's for NLS?
|
CONDTINST 16450.29
|
|
What are the 4 measures to refer a CERCLA case to the EPA?
|
Originates form Haz waste facility - Release does not require immediate removal - removal secured before clean up is complete - substantial clean up methods needed
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CERCLA requests cannot exceed what dollar amount?
|
250K
|
|
How many days does the COTP have to submit it's Financial Summary Report?
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120 days
|
|
What form number is used to for ceiling managment of the fund?
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5136F
|
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How many years must a unit retain records for a medium spill before destroying?
|
20 years
|
|
True or False a unit can destroy records for a major spill?
|
False Records must be sent to NARA after 10 years.
|
|
What are the two type of shoreline assessments?
|
“Geographic” Shoreline Assessments
“Topical” or “Hot-Spot” Shoreline Assessments |
|
What is the age requirement for a CG Academy slot?
|
ANS: 18-22 yrs old
|
|
Applicant minimum eligibility requirements for appointment to Warrant must be completed by
|
ANS: Jan 1st year of board
|
|
CG SELRES personnel are generally authorized on how many active duty paid training days per year?
|
ANS: 12 days
|
|
CG cutters 180' and above are appointed to whom?
|
ANS: Area
|
|
CG cutters 180' or less are appointed to whom?
|
ANS: District
|
|
It is recommended to help reduce stress you must do what?
|
ANS: Exercise 30 minutes 3 times a week
|
|
What do you not do to a person that is talking to you about suicide?
|
ANS: Do Not make a judgment
|
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If a person is in IMMEDIATE danger of suicide you must do what?
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ANS: Stay with them till help arrives
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Anytime a member is involved in an alcohol incident what must happen?
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ANS: they will be screened
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What do you do for a 1st time alcohol incident?
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ANS: They will be screened
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|
What do you do for a 3rd time alcohol incident?
|
ANS: processed for separation
|
|
When are a special set of marks required?
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ANS: When convicted of court martial or NJP
|
|
How long does a supervisor have to counsel a member on their marks?
|
ANS: 21 days
|
|
Who did they name Coastal Buoy Tenders after?
|
ANS: Life Saving Servicemembers
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What was the role of the CG during the Mexican-American war?
|
ANS:River expeditions
|
|
Bullets are due mid marking and when
|
ANS: 14 days prior to mark due date
|
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When two members are E6 who can be the Marking Official?
|
ANS: When the member is a XPO
|
|
Who assists Military members in Professional Development?
|
ANS: Career Development Advisor
|
|
What were the keepers of light houses referred as?
|
ANS: Wreck master
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What are the 3 qualities of leadership?
|
ANS: Self, working with others and performance
|
|
HOW MANY ROLES DOES THE CG HAVE?
|
ANS: 5
|
|
HOW MANY MISSIONS DOES THE CG HAVE?
|
ANS: 11
|
|
What tool is used for a member to reach career goals?
|
ANS: IDP
|
|
Report of survey is not done for what?
|
ANS: $500 or less
|
|
Discrepancies with training competencies in People Soft go to who?
|
ANS: Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)
|
|
What is considered a Micro Purchase?
|
ANS: $2500 or less
|
|
Human Relation Council is required for units with how many people?
|
ANS: 25 or more
|
|
What does the "E" in SPE stand for?
|
ANS: Exposure
|
|
BMC Patterson was awarded the Bronze Star on?
|
ANS: Point Welcome
|
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What year did Congress pass the need for the rank of E-8 and E-9?
|
ANS: 1958
|
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What was the legislative bill number that passed the rank of E-8 and E-9?
|
ANS: Public Law 85-422
|
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What does the R in STAAR stand for?
|
ANS: Reduce
|
|
What cutter captured the first ship in the War of 1812?
|
ANS: Jefferson
|
|
How many types of P&D entries are there for a CG 3307?
|
ANS: 33
|
|
How many types of Administrative Remarks that may be entered on a CG3307?
|
ANS: 7
|
|
How many accomplishments should you gather when writing an award for someone?
|
ANS: 3-5
|
|
What is the travel claim form number?
|
ANS: DD1351-2
|
|
Who provides immediate direction to Headquarters Units?
|
ANS: Commandant
|
|
What year did Coast Guard cutters stop using the standard?
|
ANS: 1917
|
|
What lighthouse did Ida Lewis man for over 30 years?
|
ANS: Lime Rock
|
|
What type of rescue device did the Life Saving Stations use to perform rescues?
|
ANS: Life Car
|
|
After reporting into your new unit, up to how many days can you request TLA?
|
ANS: 10
|
|
When was fog bells first used in Aids to Navigation?
|
ANS: 1852
|
|
On the Coast Guard slash, what is the angle set to?
|
ANS: 64 DEG.
|
|
What year did the rates in the Coast Guard become the same as the Navy?
|
ANS: 1917
|
|
When did the Coast Guard begin environmental protection?
|
ANS: 1822
|
|
Hooker, Byrd, Cumberbatch, Cooke, and who were the first 5 black women Spars?
|
ANS: Mosley
|
|
What is the 3rd step in ORM?
|
ANS: Access Risk
|
|
On a Summary Court Martial what is the lowest ranking person to sit?
|
ANS: O4
|
|
How many members are required other than the judge for a general court martial?
|
ANS: at least 5
|
|
During what war did the cutter Pickering capture 10 prizes of war?
|
ANS: Quasi War
|
|
Who was the only man awarded both the Medal of honor and Gold Life Saving Medal?
|
ANS: Marcus Hannah
|
|
What is the name of the US flag when displayed on a vehicle?
|
ANS: Standard
|
|
During what period does a reservist get reviewed?
|
ANS: after 19 drill periods
|
|
What was the date the Coast Guard started the Ice Patrol?
|
ANS: Feb 7, 1914
|
|
What are the two types of reserves?
|
ANS: Selected and Individual Ready
|
|
When are E5 marks due?
|
ANS: October and April
|
|
When could women be both officer or enlisted?
|
ANS: 1978
|
|
How far from a building must you be to smoke?
|
ANS: 50 ft
|
|
Where was the first reserve unit located?
|
ANS: Boston
|
|
Who was the first MCPO in the coast guard?
|
1958. ON NOVEMBER 1, MASTER CHIEF YEOMAN JACK KERWIN BECOMES THE FIRST COAST GUARD E-9.
|
|
How many stripes on the coast ensign?
|
THE 16 VERTICAL RED AND WHITE STRIPES ON THE COAST GUARD ENSIGN REPRESENT THE NUMBER OF STATES IN THE UNION AT THE TIME THE FLAG WAS ADOPTED. THE ENSIGN'S DESIGN HAS EVOLVED SINCE ITS INTRODUCTION.
|
|
How long do you have to dispute marks?
|
15 CALENDAR DAYS IN WHICH TO SUBMIT A MARKS APPEAL.
|
|
How long do you have to dispute a UCMJ?
|
IN WRITING WITHIN 5 CALENDAR DAYS AFTER THE PUNISHMENT IS IMPOSED OR THE RIGHT TO APPEAL IS WAIVED
|
|
Quasi war? Who was in it?
|
THE U.S. WAS SUCCESSFUL IN STOPPING THE DEPREDATIONS OF THE FRENCH
|
|
Who is in charge of districts?
|
DISTRICTS ARE COMMANDED BY REAR ADMIRALS (ONE- OR TWO-STAR), WHO REPORT DIRECTLY TO THEIR AREA COMMANDERS. ATLANTIC AREA HAS FIVE DISTRICT OFFICES, AND PACIFIC AREA HAS FOUR DISTRICT OFFICES.
|
|
A master sergeant in the army is equal to what in the coast guard
|
E-8 SENIOR CHIEF
|
|
What is EMI for?
|
EXTRA MILITARY INSTRUCTION:
|
|
Awards recommendation form number?
|
CG1650
|
|
What happens to member after first alcohol incident?
|
1ST INCIDENT DISPOSITION: ANYTIME A MEMBER IS INVOLVED IN AN ALCOHOL INCIDENT, HE OR SHE WILL BE SCREENED AND APPROPRIATE ACTION WILL BE TAKEN. MEMBERS ABUSING ALCOHOL, BUT NOT INVOLVED IN AN ALCOHOL INCIDENT, SHOULD BE CLOSELY SCRUTINIZED BY THE COMMANDING OFFICER AND,
|
|
What is the awards manual.
|
COMDTINST P1650.27, REWARDS AND RECOGNITION HANDBOOK
|
|
What priority does an individual have on an inconus underway unit?
|
PRIORITY 3: MEMBERS SERVING ONBOARD INCONUS AFLOAT UNITS, LEDETS, HITRON DEPLOYMENT CREWS,
|
|
Who can receive an alcohol incident? (enlisted)(officer)(Both)
|
ENLISTED AND OFFICER
|
|
What rank does the surgeon general hold?
|
09 VICE ADMIRAL (VADM)
|
|
141. Who was the first MCPOCG?
|
MASTER CHIEF CALHOUN WAS THE FIRST MASTER CHIEF PETTY OFFICER OF THE COAST GUARD.
|
|
During which war did we take over the navy rating system?
|
1917: DURING WORLD WAR I, THE RATES IN THE COAST GUARD BECOME THE SAME AS THOSE IN THE NAVY.
|
|
How many years for warrant officer in the armed forces?
|
DUTY STATUS: BE A MEMBER OF THE COAST GUARD OR COAST GUARD RESERVE WITH AT LEAST EIGHT YEARS TOTAL ACTIVE SERVICE IN THE U.S. ARMED FORCES...THE LAST 4 YEARS WITH THE COAST GUARD. THE MEMBER MUST NOT BE SCHEDULED FOR SEPARATION NOR HAVE APPLIED FOR RETIREMENT.
|
|
Who is a Medal of Honor recipient other than Munro?
|
MARCUS HANNA, WHO SERVED AT THE CAPE ELIZABETH LIGHT. HE IS PROBABLY THE ONLY MAN IN HISTORY TO HAVE BEEN AWARDED BOTH THE MEDAL OF HONOR AND THE GOLD LIFESAVING MEDAL.
|
|
What is the time in service to advance to E-8?
|
TWO YEARS IN PRESENT PAY GRADE IS REQUIRED TO BE ADVANCED EACH STEP FROM E-6 THROUGH E-9.
|
|
An Army Master Sergeant is equal to what in the Coast Guard?
|
SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER E-8
|
|
What is the award form?
|
CG1650
|
|
What cutter captured 500+ immigrants in 1995?
|
THE LARGEST NUMBER OF MIGRANTS RESCUED FROM A SINGLE VESSEL IN COAST GUARD HISTORY OCCURRED ON NOVEMBER 24, 1995 WHEN CGC DAUNTLESS RESCUED 578 MIGRANTS FROM A GROSSLY OVERLOADED 75-FOOT COASTAL FREIGHTER. IN THE YEAR 2000 ALONE, THE COAST GUARD SORTIED 57,697 TIMES AND SAVED 3,400 LIVES.
|
|
Eagle recaptured 2 vessels during what war?
|
QUASI WAR • ANOTHER NOTEWORTHY CUTTER, THE EAGLE, RECAPTURED THE AMERICAN VESSELS
|
|
What era can the term "Chief" be dated back to?
|
1865, Civil War Era
|
|
When did the Navy create the rank of CPO?
|
April 1, 1893
|
|
When was did the USCG establish the CPO Grade
|
May 18, 1920
|
|
Who were the first Coast Guard Chiefs?
|
Station Keepers at life saving stations
|
|
When were the rank of SCPO and MCPO established?
|
May 1958
|
|
Who was the first CG MCPO?
|
MCPO Jack Kerwin, November 1, 1958
|
|
Senior and Master Chiefs must __________for the entire fleet
|
Set the Example
|
|
The CPO should:
|
Support command policy and point out flaws that are detrimental to morale or mission
|
|
What is the bulk criteria for mens hair?
|
1 1/2 inches from scalp
|
|
What is the CPO self evaluation form?
|
3788F
|
|
What budget system does the CG employ?
|
Zero Based Budgeting
|
|
What are the advantages of Zero Based Budgeting
|
Eliminates a sense of entitlement to cost increases
|
|
You need to submit an explanation of justification and impact of denial for all items requested
|
True
|
|
What is step one of ORM?
|
Define the Mission/Task
|
|
What is step two of ORM?
|
Identify Hazards
|
|
What is step three of ORM?
|
Assess the risk
|
|
What is step four of ORM?
|
Identify the options
|
|
What is step five of ORM?
|
Evaluate Risk vs Gain
|
|
What is step six of ORM?
|
Execute the Decision
|
|
What is step seven of ORM?
|
Monitor the situation
|
|
What step of ORM would you use STAAR?
|
Step four
|
|
What does STAAR stand for?
|
Spread out
|
|
What step of ORM do you use the SPE (Severity, Probabilty, Exposure) or GAR model?
|
Step three
|
|
How many leadership compentencies are there?
|
28
|
|
What process improvement tool would you use to identify the root cause(s) of a problem?
|
Why Technique
|
|
What type of process improvement tool would you use to capitalize on negative thought?
|
Contingency Diagram
|
|
What type of process improvement tool would you use to organize verbal information into a visual pattern?
|
Affinity Diagram
|
|
The tool you can use to best develop an action plan is __________.
|
A Contingency Diagram
|
|
What is the ISM Code?
|
International Safety Management Code.
|
|
Who is the Document of Compliance (DOC) for the safe managemant of ships issued to?
|
Issused to Company that complies with the code (will list vessel types).
|
|
Who is the Safety Management Certificate issued to?
|
The vessel
|
|
How many funtional elements does the ISM Code require a for a Safety Management System?
|
Six
|
|
What is a Designated Person Ashore?
|
Direct link for vessel to highest level of management.
|
|
What is a non-comformity?
|
An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a specified requirement.
|
|
What is a major non-comformity?
|
An identifiable deviation that poses a serious threat to the safety of personnel or the ship or a serious threat to the environment that requires immediate corrective action
|
|
What is a SMS?
|
Safety Management System
|
|
How long are Interim ISM-DOCs, SMCs good for?
|
A period not to exceed 6 months
|
|
The ISM Code applies to whom?
|
Vessel greater than 500 GRT.
|
|
What certificate is issued under the provisions of the International Load Lines Convention?
|
International Load Line Certificate.
|
|
How long is an International Load Line Certificate valid?
|
5years
|
|
Who is required an International Load Line Certificate?
|
Vessel greater 79 feet; Greater 150 GRT; On international voyage.
|
|
What is a Load Line?
|
Measurement of Freeboard.
|
|
What is a Deck Line?
|
A horizontal line 300 mm (12 inches in length) 25 mm (1 inch) wide. Located amidships and represent uppermost continuous watertight deck.
|
|
What are the requirements for load line color?
|
White or Yellow on a dark background; Black on a white background. Permanently marked.
|
|
What is MARPOL ANNEXX VI?
|
Air.
|
|
How long must a vessel keep bunker receipts?
|
3 years.
|
|
How long must a vessel keep fuel samples?
|
12 months.
|
|
Vessel over 10000 GRT what additional requirements on the OWS?
|
Alamr and Stopping Device.
|
|
What is the ISPS Code?
|
International Ship & Port Facility Code.
|
|
ISPS Code applies to what ships?
|
Following Ships on international route;
Cargo 500grt and up, Passenger vessels. |
|
What is a Declaration of Security?
|
An agreement on the shared responsibilities of security between ship and facility..
|
|
When is a vessel required to conduct security frills?
|
Once every three months in addition to when there is more than 25% personell changed.
|
|
Were is the ship's identication number required to be permantly marked.
|
Visble place either on the stern or side AND in a easily accesible place on an transverse bulked in the engine room.
|
|
What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?
|
A certificate that provides an onboard record of information on the ship with respect to involved parties. STAYS WITH SHIP.
|
|
What is a SSAS.
|
Ship Security Alert System.
|
|
What is the weight of a Lifebuoy NOT intended to activate a quick release mechanism?
|
A mass not less than 2.5 kg
|
|
What is the weight of a Lifebuoy intended to activate a quick release mechanism?
|
A mass not less than 4 kg
|
|
How many days shal a liferaft be designed to wihstand exposure afloat in all condistions.
|
30
|
|
Pyrotechnics (Flares) requirments of a LIFERAFT.
|
4 rocket parachute flares, two buoyant smoke signals, 6 hand flares.
|
|
What are the ten original cutters?
|
The Massachusetts. Scammel Argus Vigilant General Greene Active Virginia Diligence South Carolina Eagle
|
|
Where can you find the four phases of response for Hazmat?
|
NCP Subpart E
|
|
Where are the requirements to report OIL?
|
33 CFR PART 153.203
|
|
What is purpose of 40 CFR 110.3?
|
“HARMFUL QUANTITIES” DISCHARGE OF OIL IN SUCH QUANTITIES AS ‘‘MAY BE HARMFUL’’.
|
|
Where is a Reportable Quantity defined?
|
REPORTABLE QUANTITIES MEANS: QUANTITIES THAT MAY BE HARMFUL AS SET FORTH IN § 117.3, AND REQUIRES NOTICE AS SET FORTH IN § 117.21.
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|
What is COMDTINST M16000.11 (series)?
|
MARINE SAFETY MANUAL VOLUME. VI, PORTS AND WATERWAYS ACTIVITIES
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|
What is COMDTINST M16000.14 (series)
|
MSM VOLUME IX – MARINE ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION.
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|
When is a SITUATION REPORT POLLUTION (SITREP POL) required?
|
POLREPS ARE REQUIRED FOR EVERY SPILL OR POTENTIAL SPILL. THE COTP SHALL SUBMIT A POLREP FOR EACH REPORTED INCIDENT TO THE DISTRICT COMMANDER, WITH INFORMATION COPIES TO APPROPRIATE AGENCIES; SUBSEQUENT POLREPS SHOULD BE SENT AS SIGNIFICANT PER CIM16000.11 7.B.6.B
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|
What are the spill classifications?
|
MINOR DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE INTO THE INLAND WATERS OF LESS THAN 1,000 GALLONS OF OIL OR A DISCHARGE TO THE COASTAL WATERS OF LESS THAN 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL.
MEDIUM DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE OF 1,000 TO 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE INLAND WATERS OR A DISCHARGE OF 10,000 TO 100,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE COASTAL WATERS. (MAJOR DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE OF MORE THAN 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE INLAND WATERS OR MORE THAN 100,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE COASTAL WATERS. |
|
What is COMDTINST M16000.10 (series)
|
MARINE SAFETY MANUAL VOLUME V (INVESTIGATIONS)
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|
What is a Major Marine Casualty?
|
An incident that meets any of the following criteria: Resulted in the loss of six of more lives, Resulted in the loss of mechanically propelled vessel of 100 or more gross tons, Resulted in property damage initially estimated at $500,000 or more, Resulted in serious threat, as determined by the commandant and concurred in by the NTSB chairman, to life, property, or the environment by hazardous materials.
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|
What is a Serious Marine Incident (SMI) for pollution?
|
A SMI, as defined by 46 CFR 4.03-2, includes the following events: A discharge of 10,000 gallons or more of oil into the navigable waters of the united states, whether or not resulting from a marine casualty, A discharge of a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance into the navigable waters or into the environment of the united states, whether or not resulting from a marine casualty.
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|
What is COMDTPUBP 3120.17(A)?
|
U.S. COAST GUARD INCIDENT MANAGEMENT HANDBOOK
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|
What is a CG-3639A?
|
BLUE BOOK
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|
What COMDINST is CERCLA Response Authority?
|
COMDINST 16465.29
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|
What is IMO Resolution A.787(19) as amended by Resolution A.882(21)?
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PROCEDURES FOR PORT STATE CONTROL (GREEN BOOK)
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|
What MSM discusses PSC?
|
MSM VOLUME II (MATERIEL INSPECTION), COMDTINST M16000.7
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What NVIC Discusses PSC Targeting?
|
06-03 COAST GUARD PORT STATE CONTROL TARGETING BOARDING POLICYFOR SECURITY AND SAFETY VESSEL
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|
What is in 33 CFR 151?
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US REGULATION FOR MARPOL ANNEX I, II, V; BALLAST WATER REGS
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|
What is the PSC examination form number?
|
CG5437A and CG5437B
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|
What are the vessel categories and point values?
|
17 or more points = ISPSI/PI vessel, 7 to 16 points = ISPSII/PII vessel, 0-6 points = ISPS III/PNV vessel
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|
Where do you conduct a ISPSI/PI exam?
|
OFFSHORE PRIOR TO ARRIVAL
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|
When do you conduct a PII/ISPSII?
|
PRIOR TO CARGO OPS.
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|
What temperatures do you store oil samples?
|
41-45
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|
How many copies of an operations manual does a COTP return to a facility?
|
One copy of the manual to the operator marked ``examined by the coastguard”
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|
How big must the small discharge containment be for a transfer pipe 6 inches in diameter?
|
33 CFR 154.530 – SMALL DISCHARGE CONTAINMENT TWO BARRELS
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|
How much experience in transfer operations must a PIC have?
|
48 hours 33 CFR 154.710
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|
The two most common ways oil is transported by the environment are spreading and…….?
|
Advection - The usually horizontal movement of a mass of fluid (as air or an ocean current).
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|
USCG ships oil samples in accordance with what regulatory authority?
|
International civil aviation organizations (ICAO DG) the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
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|
What must a facility submit to the OCMI in addition to the Operations Manual?
|
Letter of intent
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How often must security drills be conducted?
|
Every three months
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|
What is the 17c on a CG-5437B?
|
(17) to be corrected prior to departure, (c)to the satisfaction of the coast guard.
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|
An operations manual must meet all the requirements in 33CFR154 and what?
|
33 CFR §156
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|
How many major Headquarters directorates are below the Commandant?
|
11
|
|
Earring Requirements?
|
One earring per ear centered on the earlobe of plain gold or silver with a shining or brushed matte finish, plain diamond, or natural white pearl ball studs, 4-6 mm (1/8 to 1/4-inch diameter), with all uniforms. Decorative or combination settings are not authorized. Earrings are to be worn only by female members.
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What is form CG-4910?
|
Report of offense and disposition
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What are the seven steps of ORM?
|
Step 1: define the mission/task, Step 2: identify the hazards, Step 3: assess the risk, Step 4: identify the options, Step 5: evaluate risk vs. gain, Step 6: execute the decision, Step 7: monitor the situation,
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|
What model is used in Step 3 of ORM?
|
SPE model: (S)everity, (P)robability, (E)xposure. SxPxE=risk
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What technique is use in Step 4 of ORM: Identify the Options?
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STAAR; Spreadout the risk, Transfer risk, Avoid risks all together, Accept risk, Reduce risk,
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What is the International Maritime Organization (IMO)?
|
The international maritime organization is a specialized agency of the united nations that is responsible for improving maritime safety and preventing pollution from ships.
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Rear admirals head up districts. a. True b. False?
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True
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Vice Admirals lead the Atlantic Area and the Pacific Area. a. True b. False?
|
True
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On May 28, 1798, Congress authorized the capture of armed French vessels hovering off the U.S. coast, initiating?
|
Quasi-war- an undeclared war with France (1798-99).
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What cutter captured 10 prizes, one of which carried 44 guns and 200 men, three times her own force?
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PICKERING
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What cutter recaptured the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable in amemorable fight in 1799 with the French privateer, Revenge?
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EAGLE
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What war began the Coast Guard’s role of augmenting the Navy with shallowdraft craft?
|
War of 1812 with England
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|
What war was declared on May 13, 1846?
|
Mexican-American War
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In what war did the cutter McCulloch, carrying six guns and manned by 10 officers and 95 crewmen, engage in the battle of Manila Bay?
|
SPANISH-AMERICAN WAR
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|
What six cutters were deployed to Gibraltar in WWI?
|
Ossipee, Seneca, Yamacraw, Algonquin, Manning, and Tampa
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|
When wasCoast Guard was given responsibility for cold weather operations in Greenland.
|
APRIL 9, 1941
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|
How many cutter were involved in Operation Market Time?
|
TWENTY-SIX 82-FOOT COAST GUARD CUTTERS
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|
When was the Coast Guard transferred from the Department of Transportation (DOT) to the DHS?
|
MARCH 1, 2003
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|
In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and assisted in two other captures.
|
QUASI-WAR
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|
A Coast Guard cutter is credited with firing the first naval shots of this war.
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CIVIL WAR
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|
First time during a war that the entire Coast Guard was transferred to the Navy.
|
WORLD WAR I
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During this war, the McCulloch served as both the escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey’s squadron.
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SPANISH-AMERICAN WAR
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|
In this war effort, the Coast Guard played a marginal role, primarily one of support.
|
KOREAN WAR
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|
Following World War II, members of what organization were given rates and ratings, uniforms, and insignia?
|
COAST GUARD AUXILIARY
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|
To help rescue immigrants from vessels ravished by winter storms, a Federal lifesaving service was initiated in _______.
|
1848
|
|
The only Coast Guard-manned light station in the U.S. today is located in _______.
|
Boston Harbor
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|
Who was one of first uniformed women to serve in the Coast Guard.
|
LUCILLE BAKER
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|
When were women integrated into active duty and Coast Guard Reserve.
|
1973
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|
What year did all officer career fields and enlisted ratings are opened to women.
|
1978
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|
What year did USCG get first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard.
|
1969
|
|
Two-time winner of the Gold Lifesaving Medal.
|
SURFMAN FREDERICK HATCH
|
|
Credited with saving more than 600 lives, he earned two gold medals, three silver, and other awards during his long and distinguished career.
|
JOSHUA JAMES
|
|
The supervisor must route the completed employee review to the next level of the rating chain no later than ________days prior to the period ending date.
|
9
|
|
The ________counsels and reviews the evaluation with the evaluee.
|
SUPERVISOR
|
|
It is the responsibility of the ________ to ensure training is properly recorded.
|
Coast Guard Member
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|
All training that members receive is recorded in ________.
|
Personal training record
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|
What are the FOUR core values and concepts upon which the CQA and CPQ are built
|
Leadership, Customer focus, Process management, Business Results
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|
What is the ICS-208-CG?
|
Site Safety Plan.
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|
What is the ICS-215A-CG?
|
Hazard/Risk Analysis Worksheet.
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|
What is the ICS-202?
|
Incident Objectives.
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|
What is the ICS-203/207?
|
Organization Assignment List and Incident Organization Chart.
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|
What is the ISC-204?
|
Assignment List.
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|
What is the ICS-206?
|
Medical Plan
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|
What is the purpose of the National Contingency Plan?
|
To provide the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharge of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants and contaminants. (40CFR300.1)
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|
What is the first general priority of the National Contingency Plan?
|
To give safety and human health top priority during every response action. (40CFR300.317)
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|
What is the second general priority of the National Contingency Plan?
|
To stabilize the situation in order to prevent the event from worsening. (40CFR300.317)
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|
What is the third general priority of the National Contingency Plan?
|
To use all necessary containment and removal tactics in a coordinated manner to ensure timely, effective response. (40CFR300.317)
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|
What is the fourth general priority of the National Contingency Plan?
|
To take action to minimize further environmental impact from environmental discharges. (40CFR300.317)
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|
What is the authority that a qualified FOSCR has under the NCP?
|
FOSCR is delegated the authority of OSC. (33CFR1.01-70 to 90) OSCs/RPMs may designate capable persons from federal, state, or local agencies to act as their on-scene representatives. (40CFR300.120/135(d))
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|
What is the On-Scene Coordinators primary responsibilities?
|
The OSC directs response efforts and coordinates all other efforts at the scene of the discharge or release. In addition, the OSC is responsible for overseeing development of the Area Contingency Plan (ACP) in the area of the OSC's responsibility. (40CFR300.120)
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|
What are the notification requirements outlined in the NCP?
|
Notice of an oil discharge or release of a hazardous substance in an amount equal to or greater than the reportable quantity must be made immediately. (40CFR300.125)
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|
What is the first phase of an oil spill?
|
Discovery or Notification (40CFR300.300)
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|
What is the second phase of an oil spill?
|
Preliminary Assessment and Initiation of Action (40CFR300.300)
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|
What is the third phase of an oil spill?
|
Containment, countermeasures, cleanup and disposal (40CFR300.300)
|
|
What is the fourth phase of an oil spill?
|
Documentation and cost recovery (40CFR300.300)
|
|
What is the first phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Discovery and notification (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the second phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Removal site evaluation (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the third phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Removal action (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the fourth phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Remedial Site evaluation (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the fifth phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Establishing remedial priorities (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the sixth phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Remedial investigation (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the seventh phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Remedial action (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the eighth phase of a hazardous substance incident?
|
Procedures and processes for planning and implementing off-site response actions (40CFR300.400)
|
|
What is the Coast Guards Jurisdiction?
|
The Coast Guard shall provide OSC's for oil discharges (including discharges from facilities and vessels under the jurisdiction of another federal agency) within or threatening the coastal zone. The Coast Guard shall also provide OSC for the removal of releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants into or threatening the coastal zone. (40CFR300.120(a)(1))
|
|
What is the Environmental Protection Agencies Jurisdiction?
|
The EPA shall provide OSC's for discharges or releases into or threatening the inland zone. The EPA will also assume all remedial actions at National Priority List sites in the coastal zone.(40CFR300.120(a)(2))
|
|
What is the Department of Defenses Jurisdiction?
|
For releases of hazardous substances, when the release is on, or the sole source of the release is from, any facility or vessel, under the jurisdiction, custody or control of DOD or DOE, DOD/DOE shall provide OSC's. 40CFR300.120(c)(1))
|
|
What is the FOSC authority?
|
The OSC/RPM directs response efforts and coordinates all other efforts at the scene of a discharge or release. 42USC9605, 33USC1321(d)(2)(k), 40CFR300.120
|
|
What is the COTPs authority?
|
Captains of the port and their representatives enforce within their respective areas port safety and security and marine environmental protection regulations, including, without limitation, regulations for the protection and security of vessels, harbors, waterfront facilities, anchorages, security zones, safety zones, regulated navigation areas, deepwater ports, water pollution and ports and waterways safety. (33CFR6.04-1 thru 11)
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|
What is the COTPs authority to prevent access of personnel to vessels or waterfront facilities?
|
The Captain of the port may prevent any person, article, or thing from boarding or being taken or placed on board any vessel or entering or being taken into or placed in or upon any waterfront facility whenever it appears to him that such action is necessary in order to secure such vessel from damage or injury or to prevent damage or injury to any vessel, or waterfront facility or waters of the United States, or to secure the observances of rights and obligations of the United States. (33CFR6.04-5)
|
|
What is the COTPs authority to control vessel and facility operations?
|
The COTP may prescribe such conditions and restrictions relating to the safety of waterfront facilities and vessels in port as he finds to be necessary under existing circumstances. Such conditions may extend, but shall not be limited to, the inspection, operation, maintenance, guarding, and manning of, and fire prevention measures for, such vessels and waterfront facilities. (33CFR6.14-1)
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|
What is the COTPs authority to control vessel movement?
|
The COTP may supervise and control the movement of any vessel and shall take full or partial possession or control of any vessel or any part thereof, within the territorial waters of the United States under his jurisdiction, whenever it appears to him that such action is necessary in order to secure such vessel from damage or injury, or to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or waterfront facility or waters of the United States, or to secure the observance of rights and obligations of the United States. (33CFR6.04-8)
|
|
When may a COTP order a vessel to operate or anchor in the manner directed?
|
When the COTP has a reasonable cause to believe that the vessel is not in compliance with any regulation law or treaty; when the COTP determines that the vessel does not satisfy the conditions for vessel operation and cargo transfers; or the COTP has determined that such order is justified in the interest of safety by reason of weather, visibility, sea conditions, temporary port congestion, other temporary hazardous circumstances, or the condition of the vessel. (33CFR160.111)
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|
What is the COTPs authority to enlist aid from other local and government agencies?
|
The COTP may enlist the aid and cooperation of Federal, State, county, municipal, and private agencies to assist in the enforcement of regulations issued pursuant to this part. (33CFR6.04-11)
|
|
How may a Safety Zone be used to manage a pollution incident?
|
As defined a safety zone is a water area, shore area, or water and shore area to which, for safety or environmental purposes, access is limited to authorized persons, vehicles or vessels. It may be stationary and described by fixed limits or it may be described as a zone around a vessel in motion. In the event of a discharge or release of a harmful or reportable quantity of a substance, a safety zone may be set in place for a variety of reasons, including minimizing adverse health effects on the public. (33CFR165.30)
|
|
What are the procedures for obtaining a flight zone restriction?
|
A temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) Zone is similar in nature to a COTP safety zone in the maritime environment, and is normally issued only when absolutely necessary. To obtain a TFR you must call the Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) for your area.
|
|
What are the situations which would result in requesting a Temporary Flight Restriction?
|
To protect persons and property in the air and on the surface from surface hazards; to provide a safe environment for disaster relief aircraft; or to prevent an unsafe congestion of sight seeing and other aircraft above an incident or event that may generate a high degree of public interest.
|
|
What is the agency which provides assistance in determining the trajectory and fate of an oil spill or hazardous substance release?
|
NOAA
|
|
Where would you obtain the Federal Project Number or CERCLA Number?
|
CANAPS
|
|
What is the first role of the National Strike Force Coordination Center?
|
Provide technical assistance, equipment and other resources to augment the OSC staff during a spill response
|
|
What is the second role of the NSFCC?
|
Assist in coordinating the use of public and private resources in support of the OSC during a response to or threat of a worst case discharge of oil
|
|
What is the third role of the NSFCC?
|
Review the area contingency plan, including evaluating equipment readiness and coordination among responsible public agencies and private organizations.
|
|
What is the fourth role of the NSFCC?
|
Assist in locating spill response resources for response and planning, using the NSFCC's national and international computerized inventory of spill response resources.
|
|
What is the fifth role of the NSFCC?
|
Will assist in coordination and evaluation of pollution response exercises.
|
|
What are the three Strike Teams?
|
Atlantic, Gulf and Pacific
|
|
What is the role of the Strike Teams?
|
Each team provides trained personnel and specialized equipment to assist the OSC in training for spill response, stabilizing and containing the spill, and in monitoring or directing the response actions of the responsible parties and/or contractors.
|
|
How does the OSC contact the Strike Team?
|
The OSC has a specific team designated for initial contact and may contact that team directly for any assistance?
|
|
What is the role of the Public Information Assistance Team (PIAT)?
|
The PIAT is available to assist OSCs to meet the demands for public information during a response or exercise. Use is encouraged any time the OSC requires outside public affairs support.
|
|
How does an OSC contact a PIAT?
|
Requests for PIAT must be made through the NSFCC or NRC.
|
|
What is a Scientific Support Coordinator?
|
The principal advisers for scientific issues, communication within the scientific community, and coordination of request for assistance from state and federal agencies regarding scientific studies.
|
|
What is the MAXIMUM distance in feet for cargo space between cross aisles?
|
75
|
|
What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access is _____ feet.
|
20
|
|
What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility without fire truck access is _____ feet.
|
8
|
|
How many feet of clear and open space must be maintained between cargo, freight, merchandise and other materials piles and both sides of facility walls, fire walls and fire stops, and sides of the pier?
|
2 feet
|
|
The first and broadest term used to describe regulated cargo?
|
Dangerous Cargo
|
|
Who is responsible for providing the witness for a prewash
|
COTP
|
|
Once an oil transfer is complete, the person in charge must _____.
|
Sign the transfer papers
|
|
What is a vapor destruction unit?
|
Incinerator
|
|
What color must the vapor recovery hose be?
|
Yellow and red
|
|
What must be stenciled on a Vapor Recovery hose?
|
"Vapor"
|
|
What do facilities with vapor recovery systems have to provide to the Coast Guard?
|
Written certification that the VRS meets the requirements
|
|
May the COTP impose any requirements from 33 CFR 154-156 on a Marina Fuel Dock, that does not transfer oil or hazmat in bulk to a vessel with a capacity of over 250 Bbls?
|
Yes
|
|
What things DO NOT have to be marked on all oil transfer hoses?
|
Burst pressure
|
|
Who is required to witness and verify the prewash of any cargo tank?
|
Prewash surveyor
|
|
What type of cargo requires a written permit to handle?
|
Designated dangerous cargo
|
|
Which document does the person in charge complete before starting an oil transfer operation?
|
Declaration of Inspection
|
|
The vent system used with pressurized cargo, which protects cargo tanks from over pressurization, is a _____.
|
Safety relief valve
|
|
How big must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are 2 in or less in diameter?
|
1/2 barrel
|
|
Where are the regulations for PSC's found?
|
33 CFR 125
|
|
During an inspection of a marine oil transfer facility, what equipment must be marked with the product used or "oil service" and the MAWP?
|
Hose assemblies
|
|
Butterfly valves, wafer-type resilient seated valves, and blank flanges are what type of equipment?
|
Closure devices
|
|
Who is responsible for making sure that there is enough water for firefighting at an ammonia nitrate load?
|
The owner
|
|
Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ____ meters from the general public or railways
|
300
|
|
At a Waterfront Facility handling LNG, the substructures are within 5 meters of any pipe or equipment containing LNG, or are within 15 meters of a loading flange must.....
|
-be made of concrete or steel, - have a fire endurance rating of not less than 2 hours
|
|
On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have at least ____ portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of methane?
|
2
|
|
At a LNG waterfront facility, the emergency power source must provide enough power for the operation of the ____________.
|
-Emergency shutdown system, - communications, - fire fighting system, - emergency lighting
|
|
How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?
|
At least 1
|
|
How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?
|
24 months
|
|
On a LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?
|
- a description of pressure checks, dates & results of tests, description of any corrective actions taken after the tests
|
|
Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have at least ____ portable gas detector(s), or ____ fixed gas detector(s) in the marine transfer area?
|
2,1
|
|
How many copies of the operations manual must a LHG/LNG facility sent to the COTP?
|
2
|
|
After the COTP receives a letter of intent to operate a LHG/LNG facility, what does the COTP send to the owner?
|
Letter of recommendation
|
|
When the COTP has directed that access to a waterfront facility be restricted, personnel requiring access to that area must have one or more of the identification credentials listed ______.
|
33 CFR 125
|
|
What do NFPA pamphlets 10 & 10A provide guidance for?
|
Fire fighting equipment
|
|
To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person in Charge (PIC)?
|
Facility operator
|
|
Each hose used for the transfer of oil must be marked with AT LEAST the maximum allowable working pressure and the phrase ____.
|
Oil service
|
|
What regulations cover Solid bulk dangerous cargo?
|
46 CFR 148
|
|
How high must an ammunition magazine be kept off the deck?
|
10mm
|
|
What is the inspection form used for facility inspections?
|
CG 4200
|
|
What is the primary thing to look for when monitoring a transfer operation?
|
That transfer ops are being followed
|
|
What are the conditions for issuing a permit to handle designated dangerous cargo?
|
A facility must meet the safety requirements of 33 CFR 126.19
|
|
What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo, cargo of a particular hazard, and designated dangerous cargo?
|
Facility of a Particular Hazard
|
|
What types of facilities need to have a COA for garbage?
|
Facilities that handle oceangoing vessels of 400 Gt. or more, handle NLS, commercial fishing facilities, recreational boating facilities.
|
|
On a facility which started operation after Nov.1 , 1980, the emergency shutdown system must stop the flow of oil in ___ seconds.
|
30
|
|
What is the MINIMUM distance two cargoes must be separated when the term "Away From" is used?
|
10 feet
|
|
How many feet must a hazardous material be away from walls, or the edge of the pier?
|
2 ft
|
|
How many hours must a PIC have before they can be qualified?
|
48 hours
|
|
What are the basic requirements for a general permit?
|
Maintain the safety condition in 33 CFR 126.15, notify COTP when handling specified amount of particular hazard class of cargo, separate certain hazard classes stowed on the facility
|
|
What is the regulation that covers warehouses on designated waterfront facilities?
|
33 CFR 126
|
|
At least ____ days before transferring LHG/LNG, the owner or operator of a new or an inactive existing facility shall submit 2 copies of the operations manual and thee emergency manual to the COTP?
|
30
|
|
Flammable cargo can be stowed to a maximum of ____.
|
12ft
|
|
The regulation covering facilities that handle oil, NLS, and garbage is
|
33CFR126
|
|
Reception facilities must be able to receive NLS within ____ notice.
|
24 hours
|
|
If a designated waterfront facility released a harmful quantity of hazardous substance on the facility but not in the coastal zone, who would be required to notify the NRC?
|
The person in charge of the facility
|
|
LNG/LPG storage tanks must have the minimum volume necessary for.....
|
-surge protection, - pump suction supply, - other processing needs
|
|
On a LNG waterfront facility, each transfer emergency shut off system is activated automatically when the fixed sensors measure LNG concentrations exceeding ___ of the LEL.
|
40%
|
|
On warning signs at LNG/LHG waterfront facilities, how high must the letters be?
|
3 inches high
|
|
What records must the facility retain at the facility?
|
copy of letter of intent, names of PIC's, most recent hose test, all exam's by COTP for 3 yrs, DOI within the last 30 days, records of all repairs made to vapor recovery in the last 3 yrs plans, calculations, and specifications of FAC VRS.
|
|
On a MOTF, what type of hose is exempted from the requirement to blank off the ends of hoses not hooked up to a manifold?
|
new, unused hoses
|
|
What regulations cover break-bulk hazardous materials?
|
49 CFR 170-179
|
|
What regulation addresses specific source waste?
|
40 CFR 261.32
|
|
What does 33 CFR 127 cover?
|
Waterfront facilities handling liquefied natural gas and liquefied hazardous gas
|
|
Each operator of a passenger terminal subject to 33 CFR 129 shall submit 2 copies of _____ at least 60 days before transferring passengers to or from a vessel?
|
Terminal Security Plan
|
|
What does 33 CFR 158 cover?
|
Reception facilities for oil, noxious liquid substances, garbage
|
|
What must the owner of a LHG/LNG facility provide to the COTP 30 days before transferring product?
|
2 copies of the operations manual and 2 copies of the emergency manual
|
|
What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo only?
|
Designated Waterfront Facility
|
|
When do permits for handling of designated dangerous cargo terminate?
|
at the conclusion of the transaction for which the permit has been issued or whenever the COTP deems necessary
|
|
Ammonia Nitrate (and the like) shall be separated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least _____ from organic materials or other flammable materials?
|
30 feet
|
|
How many days does an owner of a LNG/LHG facility have to send the COTP a letter of intent?
|
60 days before transferring LHG/LNG
|
|
In what regulation is the listing of LNG/LHG?
|
33 CFR 127, Table 127.005
|
|
What does 33 CFR 154 cover?
|
Facilities transferring oil or hazardous material in bulk
|
|
Category D cargoes are the least toxic chemicals. They have no stripping requirements because they simply require a ___ dilution prior to discharge.
|
10:1
|
|
For a COA for MARPOL V, a facility must be able to receive APHIS regulated garbage within ___ hours.
|
24
|
|
How often must a hold containing explosives be checked after being loaded?
|
24 hours
|
|
What are the regulations that apply to all onshore and offshore facilities engaged in transfer of oil in bulk?
|
33 CFR 154
|
|
What are the 3 common heights of containers?
|
8, 8 1/2, 9
|
|
Who has the authority to terminate cleanup operations?
|
OSC
|
|
Documentation is needed for federal cleanups to _____.
|
determine cost recovery from the polluter
|
|
Performance of oil booms is greatly affected by _______.
|
current speed, tides and wave action
|
|
Which response information system is run by the NRC?
|
HACS
|
|
Subchapter C of the NCP is
|
planning and preparedness
|
|
Which Commandant Instruction contains guidance regarding CERCLA response authority and associated Coast Guard policies?
|
COMDTINST M16465.29
|
|
True or False: In the NOV program, a previous PPR violation is defined as one where a final assessment has been made by a Coast Guard hearing officer regardless if the NOV has been paid.
|
True
|
|
When issuing an NOV, if the RP has had 2 or more previous offenses within the past year, the penalty is multiplied by
|
2
|
|
What is a written promise given by or on behalf of a RP to ensure that sufficient assets are available to meet the maximum fine which may be assessed for the violation charged?
|
Letter of Undertaking
|
|
Is a POLREP required on a federalized drum recovery case?
|
Yes
|
|
What pollution response law provided requirements for emergency planning and a "community right to know" as it relate to hazardous substances?
|
CERCLA
|
|
Which type of chemical agent is prohibited for use?
|
sinking agent
|
|
Which pollution response law included provisions authorizing the OSC to issue administrative orders?
|
OPA
|
|
The environmental response team is comprised of personnel from which agency?
|
EPA
|
|
A hazardous substance release occurred at a facility in the coastal zone and the Coast Guard responds. The cleanup will require remedial action. Who will be the OSC for the duration of the cleanup?
|
The EPA
|
|
Which pollution response law has been interpreted to prohibit the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the United States?
|
Refuse Act
|
|
What type of skimmer uses a water pump and on oil-water separator?
|
Centrifugal
|
|
What condition must exist for a chemical agent to be approved for use?
|
The agent must be listed on the NCP product schedule
|
|
Which type of boom deployment is used to divert oil into a collection area?
|
Deflection
|
|
Privacy act statements advise the person being interviewed of your authority to collect the data and _________.
|
What the data will be used for
|
|
Subchapter D of the NCP is
|
operational response phases for oil removal
|
|
A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a substantial threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ________.
|
major release
|
|
What is a role of the ERT?
|
To provide the OSC with sanitary and environmental advice
|
|
What type of skimmer is particularly useful in shallow water?
|
Suction
|
|
Subchapter I in the NCP is
|
administrative record for selection of response action
|
|
Which pollution response law created the $1 billion super fund for hazardous substance cleanup operations?
|
CERCLA
|
|
What is a method of reducing entrainment?
|
Place boom in area of slowest current
|
|
All shipboard oil transfers are recorded in the ______.
|
oil record book
|
|
What is the main emphasis on tank barge monitors?
|
Adherence to CG approved oil transfer procedures
|
|
What pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to designate the responsible party?
|
OPA90
|
|
In order for the CG to authorize cleaning of hard surfaces using steam, concurrence of the ___ must be obtained.
|
EPA
|
|
All hazardous materials in a packaging having a rated capacity of _____ gallons or less shall be marked.
|
100
|
|
Technical advice and equipment pertaining to the environmental effects of discharges or releases is provided by the ________.
|
Environmental Response Team (ERT)
|
|
Regional Response Teams are composed of designated ____.
|
State and federal agencies
|
|
Loading arms used in place of hoses must have a means for draining oil or _____.
|
closed before being disconnected
|
|
Flammable liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or below a temperature of _____ deg F.
|
80
|
|
Combustible liquids are those which fire off flammable vapors at temperatures above ____ deg F.
|
80
|
|
What is the physical barrier that prevents materials from flowing under the boom?
|
The skirt
|
|
What are the 3 basic classes of sorbents?
|
Natural organic materials, mineral-based materials, synthetic organic sorbents
|
|
Where are the regulations for the oil spill liability trust fund procedures?
|
33 CFR 153
|
|
A cleanup operation projected to cost over ___ million dollars or lasting more than ______ must be referred to the EPA.
|
2, 1yr
|
|
What must be available for all personnel involved in a transfer?
|
Operations Manual
|
|
What is the maximum penalty that can be given to a RP for failure to clean up a pollution incident, as stated on the NOFI.
|
3 X the actual cost
|
|
Which pollution response law is the correct law to use when seeking civil penalties of oil and hazardous substance spills?
|
FWPCA
|
|
Who would you contact to ask for information about oil trajectory?
|
SSC
|
|
What act created the need for the NPFC?
|
OPA90
|
|
Which pollution response law authorized the establishment of Pollution Prevention Regulations?
|
FWPCA
|
|
The primary law for the enforcement of oil & hazardous substance discharge violations is
|
FWPCA
|
|
Which agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Refuse Act?
|
USACE
|
|
Where are reportable quantities listed?
|
40 CFR
|
|
In which regulation is hazardous waste named & listed?
|
40 CFR
|
|
POLREPS should be sent within _____ hours of receiving the initial report.
|
6
|
|
Which is the minimum level of protection recommended for initial entry?
|
B
|
|
A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a _________
|
medium release
|
|
Who provides scientific support for the OSC in the coastal zone?
|
NOAA
|
|
Subchapter A of the NCP is
|
responsibility and organization of response
|
|
An inland hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a _______.
|
medium release
|
|
Sawdust, hay, peat moss, and straw are in which class of sorbent?
|
Natural organic
|
|
How many shoreline cleanup techniques have been identified for general use
|
23
|
|
How many teams make up the National Strike Force?
|
3
|
|
Which regulation specifies the jurisdiction of the Coast Guard and of the EPA?
|
40 CFR 300
|
|
Which response information system has a mapping capability?
|
SPEARS
|
|
What are the three categories of oil samples to be taken?
|
Un-polluted water, oil in water, oil from suspect sources
|
|
What are the three classes of boom?
|
Heavy duty, harbor/river, sorbent
|
|
Which pollution response law created the national cleanup priorities list?
|
OPA
|
|
Subchapter B of the NCP is
|
responsibility and organization of response
|
|
Who is responsible for supervising cleanups initiated by the responsible party?
|
The OSC
|
|
Regulations for lights displayed on booms are found in ____.
|
NAV RULES
|
|
An oil sample chain of custody is maintained from the time ______.
|
the sample is taken until it is disposed of
|
|
The role of the scientific support coordinator is to _______.
|
provide scientific advise and arrange for scientific support
|
|
A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health and the environment would be considered a _______.
|
minor release
|
|
Coast Guard jurisdiction includes all hazardous substance releases in the coastal zone EXCEPT those releases ______.
|
requiring remedial action
|
|
Who manages the National Strike Force?
|
The NSFCC
|
|
Which federal agency is responsible for cleanup operations for hazardous substance releases on a DOD facility?
|
DOD
|
|
What is the most common source of oil pollution in the coastal zone?
|
Damaged vessel
|
|
How thick must oil be on a shoreline before it is considered a high degree of contamination?
|
1 cm
|
|
Which pollution response law is used for response to all hazardous substance releases?
|
CERCLA
|
|
Vermiculite, perlite, and volcanic ash are in which class of sorbent?
|
Mineral-based
|
|
Which pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to "designate" the responsible party?
|
OPA
|
|
Which method of gauging requires inserting a weighted measuring tape into a cargo tank?
|
Open
|
|
Which pollution response law contained the provision to establish the National Response Center (NRC)?
|
CWA
|
|
How soon after a request is made does a strike team have to have equipment dispatched?
|
4 hrs
|
|
Which type of boom is used for most inner harbor spills?
|
River/harbor boom
|
|
Why is documentation needed for federal cleanups?
|
For proper administration of the fund
|
|
Which Federal agency enforces FWPCA violations in the inland zone?
|
EPA
|
|
Which Federal agency enforces FWPCA violations in the coastal zone?
|
USCG
|
|
What type of agent makes it possible to sustain ignition of the oil on the water?
|
burning agent
|
|
Which form is used to transfer oil samples outside of the unit?
|
DD-1149
|
|
Subchapter F in the NCP is
|
state involvement in hazardous substance response
|
|
Which pollution response law is used when civil penalties are sought for prohibited discharges of hazardous substances?
|
FWPCA
|
|
Which disposal method uses high temperature oxidation?
|
Incineration
|
|
How many classes of sorbents are there?
|
3
|
|
Response phase IV consists of
|
documentation and cost recovery
|
|
Which Commandant Instruction contains policy for response to hazardous substance releases?
|
COMDTINST M16465.30
|
|
All Coast Guard personnel exposed to hazardous substances on a regular basis are required to be enrolled in the _____.
|
Occupational Medical Monitoring Program
|
|
What are BOA's?
|
Pre negotiated contracts between MLC and cleanup contractors
|
|
Subchapter K of then NCP is
|
federal facilities
|
|
What does the RCP do?
|
lists equipment and resources available in the region, - defines policies on shoreline cleanup techniques, chemical agents, and bioremediation, -defines regional guidance and support for OSC's during response ops
|
|
An OSC would be needed for ......
|
minor spills which require cleanup and RP is unknown, minor spills where RP is not taken appropriate action, all medium and major pollution incidents.
|
|
Oil Samples must have ______ when sent to MSL?
|
1149, chain of custody, request for analysis
|
|
Who is responsible for preparing and maintaining the area contingency plan for their geographic area?
|
Area Committees
|
|
Who is responsible for developing preparedness plans for the designated geographical area and for providing advice and support to the OSC when activated during a response?
|
RRT Regional Response Teams
|
|
What is a team of Federal agency representatives responsible for developing national policy, preparedness plan requirements, and national agency coordination for response to incidents?
|
NRT, National Response Team
|
|
What plan lists the resources available for removal operations (including firefighting equipment)
|
ACP
|
|
What plan lists equipment and resources available in the region?
|
RCP
|
|
What provides guidance for funding, damage claims, use of chemical agents, liabilities of the responsible party, and health and safety issues?
|
NCP
|
|
What provides basic steps to be followed for response operations?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan provides guidance on how other plans shall be written?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan defines response terms?
|
NCP
|
|
What plan is required to contain an annex on wildlife habitats for the area?
|
ACP
|
|
What plan calls for a coordinated response among all involved parties and interested agencies?
|
ACP
|
|
What agency does the Scientific Support Coordinator work for?
|
NOAA
|
|
What plan describes procedures for obtaining a rapid decision on dispersant use?
|
ACP
|
|
What defines the area including the boundaries, mutual agreements for response and assistance, and environmental sensitivity zones?
|
ACP
|
|
What defines the regional boundaries and mutual agreements for response and assistance among the applicable agencies for the region?
|
RCP
|
|
What agency does the Emergency Response Teams work for?
|
EPA
|
|
Keeping the news media informed of ongoing pollution activities is the responsibility of the ___.
|
PIAT
|
|
What form is the Contractor Personnel Form?
|
CG 5136E-1
|
|
What form is the Government Short Form?
|
CG-5136E
|
|
What form is the Government Purchases/Expendables/Travel Orders/Contractors?
|
CG 5136D
|
|
What form is the Government Equipment Form?
|
CG 5136C
|
|
What form is the Government Personnel Form?
|
CG 5136B
|
|
What form is the Daily Resource Report/Government Summary Sheet?
|
CG 5136A
|
|
What regulations apply to a vessel which is transferring oil and hazardous material with a capacity of 250 barrels of oil to or from a facility or another vessel?
|
33 CFR 156
|
|
What form is the Contractor/Subcontractor/Materials/Other Expenses Form?
|
CG 5136E-3
|
|
What regulations cover the Oil Pollution Prevention and Safety Regulations for Marine Oil Transfer Facilities?
|
33 CFR 154
|
|
What form is the Contractor Short Form?
|
CG 5136E-4
|
|
The 3 types of MARPOL 1 surveys are _____ _____ _____.
|
initial, annual and intermediate
|
|
Which CFR sections pertain to the use of chemical agents?
|
40 CFR 300 and 49 CFR 172
|
|
What current is far enough out where there are no barriers?
|
Rotary
|
|
What kind of tide is occurring when the moon is farthest away from the earth?
|
Apogean tide
|
|
When the tide is not moving, what is it called?
|
slack
|
|
The direction toward which a current flows is called a .....?
|
set
|
|
What COMDTINST covers CG personnel and equipment standard rates?
|
COMDTINST 7310E
|
|
What are the operational oil spill response phases listed in the NCP?
|
notification, assessment & removal process, removal & disposal, documentation and cost recovery
|
|
At what percent does oil move along with water?
|
3%
|
|
What company is available 24 hours a day to respond to emergency hazmat stuff?
|
CHEMTREK
|
|
Which CFR cite identifies the amount of oil which may be harmful?
|
40 CFR 110
|
|
Which CFR cite identifies the amount of hazardous waste which may be harmful?
|
40 CFR 117
|
|
Hazardous wastes are prepared for transport under ___(what regulation?).
|
49 CFR 171
|
|
Hazardous waste manifests are prepared under _____(what regulation?).
|
40 CFR 262
|
|
A conditionally exempt generator is one who creates ___ per month.
|
90 kg of hazardous waste
|
|
A small quantity generator is one who creates ____ per month.
|
Less than 1000 kg of hazardous waste
|
|
A large quantity generator is one who creates ____ per month.
|
Greater than 1000 kg of hazardous waste or 1 kg of acute haz-waste
|
|
What characteristics does solid waste exhibit?
|
corrosively, reactivity, ignitability, toxicity
|
|
What is considered to be solid waste?
|
garbage, refuse, sludge, any other discarded material including solid, semisolid, liquid or contained gaseous material
|
|
What are the objectives of the hazardous waste program?
|
control or manage hazardous waste from generation to disposal; i.e. cradle to grave
|
|
How many days does a transporter have to file a report with DOT if an accidental release occurs?
|
30
|
|
What are five functional areas of ICS?
|
command, operations, planning, logistics, and finance
|
|
What is a rare catastrophic spill which greatly exceeds the response capabilities of local and regional levels?
|
spill of national significance
|
|
The functional area of ICS responsible for collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of the information is the ____ section.
|
Planning
|
|
What must be conducted as soon as possible to determine the actions required to abate the damage?
|
damage assessment
|
|
Who is the Superfund fund administrator?
|
EPA
|
|
Once hired by the Coast Guard, the OSC must issue what to the contractor defining requirements placed on them?
|
Authorization to proceed letter
|
|
What plan defines regional guidance and support for during response operations?
|
RCP
|
|
The functional area responsible for the management for all tactical operations at an incident is the _____ section.
|
Operations
|
|
The functional area of ICS involving directing, ordering, and controlling resources is the ____ section.
|
Command
|
|
The functional area of ICS responsible for locating and providing facilities and services and material for an incident is the ____ section.
|
Logistics
|
|
The functional area of ICS in which the NPFC provides the chief of the section is the _____ section.
|
Finance
|
|
Subchapter J of the NCP is
|
dispersants and other chemicals
|
|
The CG-5136E-1 - CG-5136E-4 are used to document ____ costs.
|
Contractor
|
|
All steel containers used to transport military explosives must be lined with a minimum of ____ plywood?
|
1/4"
|
|
How many years must oil record books be kept?
|
3yrs
|
|
What characteristic does oil have that determines the flow?
|
Viscosity
|
|
What is the measurable temperature at which oil flows?
|
Pour point
|
|
Rubber, polyester foam, polystyrene, and polyurethane are in which class of sorbent?
|
Synthetic
|
|
What type of skimmer uses a rotating belt to force oil toward a collection well?
|
Submersion
|
|
Which reference contains policy for use of chemical agents for oil cleanup?
|
33 CFR 153
|
|
What type of skimmer is adjusted to float at the water-oil interface?
|
Suction
|
|
What type of skimmer uses gravity?
|
Weir
|
|
Subchapter H in the NCP is
|
participation by other persons
|
|
What type of skimmer creates a whirlpool which draws oil into a collection area?
|
Centrifugal
|
|
What COMDTINST covers the Correspondence Manual?
|
COMDTINST 5216.4
|
|
What COMDTINST is the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?
|
COMDTINST M1414.8
|
|
The ____ gauging method uses the size of the opening through which the tape is passed is smaller than a normal ullage opening.
|
Restricted
|
|
What is used to indicate the maximum amidships draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged?
|
Load lines
|
|
Minimum number of elements in a site safety plan?
|
10
|
|
What are the 10 minimum elements in a site safety plan?
|
(A) safety and health risk or hazard
(B) Employee training assignments (C) Personal protective equipment to be used (D) Medical surveillance requirements (E) Frequency and types of air monitoring, personnel monitoring, and environmental sampling techniques and instrumentation to be used, including methods of maintenance and calibration of monitoring and sampling equipment to be used. (F) Site control measures (G) Decontamination procedures (H) An emergency response plan (I) Confined space entry procedures. (J) A spill containment program |
|
If positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is not used as part of the entry ensemble, and if respiratory protection is warranted by the potential hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation, an escape self-contained breathing apparatus of at least ? minute's duration shall be carried by employees during initial site entry.
|
5 min
|
|
If the preliminary site evaluation does not produce sufficient information to identify the hazards or suspected hazards of the site, an ensemble providing protection equivalent to Level ? PPE shall be provided as minimum protection, and direct reading instruments shall be used as appropriate for identifying ? conditions.
|
B, IDLH
|
|
The site control program shall, as a minimum, include:
|
A site map; site work zones; the use of a “buddy system”; site communications including alerting means for emergencies; the standard operating procedures or safe work practices; and, identification of the nearest medical assistance. Where these requirements are covered elsewhere they need not be repeated.
|
|
Employees shall not be permitted to participate in or supervise field activities until they have been?
|
trained to a level required by their job function and responsibility
|
|
General site workers (such as equipment operators, general laborers and supervisory personnel) engaged in hazardous substance removal or other activities which expose or potentially expose workers to hazardous substances and health hazards shall receive a minimum of ? hours of instruction off the site, and a minimum of ? days actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
|
40HRS, 3 Days
|
|
Workers on site only occasionally for a specific limited task (such as, but not limited to, ground water monitoring, land surveying, or geo-physical surveying) and who are unlikely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits shall receive a minimum of ? hours of instruction off the site, and the minimum of ? day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.
|
24HRS, 1 Day
|
|
On-site management and supervisors directly responsible for, or who supervise employees engaged in, hazardous waste operations shall receive ? hours initial training, and ?days of supervised field experience
|
40HRS, 3 Days
|
|
The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following:
|
(i) Pre-emergency planning.
(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication. (iii) Emergency recognition and prevention. (iv) Safe distances and places of refuge. (v) Site security and control. (vi) Evacuation routes and procedures. (vii) Decontamination procedures which are not covered by the site safety and health plan. (viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid. (ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures. (x) Critique of response and follow-up. (xi) PPE and emergency equipment. |
|
Purpose of the National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan
|
to provide the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants
|
|
What does the NCP provide?
|
efficient, coordinated, and effective response to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants in accordance with the authorities of CERCLA and the CWA. It provides for:
(1) The national response organization that may be activated in response actions. It specifies responsibilities among the federal, state, and local governments and describes resources that are available for response. (2) The establishment of requirements for federal, regional, and area contingency plans. It also summarizes state and local emergency planning requirements under SARA Title III. (3) Procedures for undertaking removal actions pursuant to section 311 of the CWA. (4) Procedures for undertaking response actions pursuant to CERCLA. (5) Procedures for involving state governments in the initiation, development, selection, and implementation of response actions, pursuant to CERCLA. (6) Listing of federal trustees for natural resources for purposes of CERCLA and the CWA. (7) Procedures for the participation of other persons in response actions. (8) Procedures for compiling and making available an administrative record for response actions. (9) National procedures for the use of dispersants and other chemicals in removals under the CWA and response actions under CERCLA. |
|
The two principal components of the RRT mechanism are?
|
Standing Team and incident specific teams
|
|
National response priorities?
|
(A) Safety of human life
(b) Stabilizing the situation to preclude the event from worsening (c) The response must use all necessary containment and removal tactics in a coordinated manner to ensure a timely, effective response that minimizes adverse impact to the environment. (d) All parts of this national response strategy should be addressed concurrently, but safety and stabilization are the highest priorities. The OSC should not delay containment and removal decisions unnecessarily and should take actions to minimize adverse impact to the environment that begins as soon as a discharge occurs, as well as actions to minimize further adverse environmental impact from additional discharges. (e) The priorities set forth in this section are broad in nature, and should not be interpreted to preclude the consideration of other priorities that may arise on a site-specific basis. |
|
What are the 7 steps in the ORM Process?
|
ID mission taks
ID hazards Assess Risk ID options Eval risk vs gain Execute decision Monitor situation |
|
Class Societies are reviewed every ____ Yrs?
|
3
|
|
U.S. Vessels over 10,000GT not operating on the Great Lakes must have how many radars?
|
2
|
|
MARPOL ANNEXES
|
Annex I - Oil
Annex II - Noxious Liquid Substances carried in Bulk Annex III - Harmful Substances carried in Packaged Form Annex IV - Sewage Annex V - Garbage Annex VI - Air Pollution |
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# stripes on CG ensign?
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16
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MINIMUM OF __ CLEARANCE AROUND FIRE APPLIANCES
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4 ft
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MINIMUM OF __ CLEARANCE BETWEEN CARGO AND WALLS
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2ft
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CROSS ISLES ON DWF ARE TO BE A MINIMUM OF __ WIDE AND STRAIGHT AT A MAXIMUM OF __FT INTERVALS
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5FT, 75FT INTERVALS
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INFLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTABLE MATERIALS CAN BE STACKED NO MORE THAN __FT HIGH
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12 ft
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MINIMUM OF __ INCHES OF CLEARANCE BETWEEN CARGO AND SPRINKLER HEADS
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12 in
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MINIMUM OF _FT ISLE LEADING FROM MAIN ISLE TO FIRE EQUIPMENT
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3 ft
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UNINSPECTED US SHIPS CAN HAVE IOPP ISSUED FOR MAXIMUM OF _ YEARS
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5 yrs
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IOPP SURVEYS ARE TO BE CONDUCTED ON INSPECTED SHIPS FOR THE IOPP AS CLOSE AS POSSIBLE AT __ AND __MONTHS
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12 & 36 months
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COI GOOD FOR MAX _ YEARS
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5 years
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33 CFR 164 APPLIES TO VESSELS __GROSS TONS OR MORE
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Over 1600 GT
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What is COMDTINST 3500.3 ?
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OPERATIONAL RISK MANAGEMENT
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What is ORM?
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A continuous, systematic process of identifying and controlling risks in all activities according to a set of pre-conceived parameters by applying appropriate management policies and procedures. This process includes detecting hazards, assessing risks, and implementing and monitoring risk controls to support effective, risk-based decision-making.
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EXECUTIVE ORDER 10421 MANDATES ?
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A PHYSICAL SECURITY PROGRAM
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GIVE OFF VAPORS WHEN BELOW 80F?
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FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS
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GIVE OFF VAPORS (FLASH POINT) ABOVE 80F?
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COMBUSTABLE LIQUIDS
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OIL RECORD BOOK TO BE MAINTAINED FOR ?
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3 yrs
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DECIBELS IS THE MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS LEVEL
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84
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DECIBELS IS THE MAXIMUM IMPACT LEVEL
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140
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ASTM D4489-85
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IS THE OIL SPILL TRANSMITAL GUIDE
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4 MAJOR PARTS OF A POLREP
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PARAGRAPH 1: SITUATION
PARAGRAPH 2: ACTION PARAGRAPH 3: PLANS AND RECOMMENDATIONS PARAGRAPH 4: CASE STATUS |
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What article of the UCMJ covers rights of accused?
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134
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What article of the UCMJ covers the right of a Commanding Officer to invoke Non Judicial Punishment?
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15
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Facility Regulations for Small Discharge Containment
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33CFR154.530
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What is the Organizational Structure of ICS?
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Command
Sections Branches Divisions/Groups Units Resources |