Mstc 2012

Front 1

Which COMDINST covers practices for respiratory protection?

Back 1

COMDTINST M6260.2D

Front 2

Who can establish Regulated Navigation Areas?

Back 2

District Commander

Front 3

What are Limited Access Areas?

Back 3

Security Zones, Safety Zones, RNA's

Front 4

Which COMDINST covers Civil Penalty Procedures?

Back 4

COMDTINST 16200.3

Front 5

Who can establish a safety zone in a Deepwater Port?

Back 5

COMDT

Front 6

Who can establish a safety zone for an OCS facility?

Back 6

District Commander

Front 7

What Marine Safety Manual covers multi mission patrols?

Back 7

MSM VOL VI COMDTINST M16000.11

Front 8

Who establishes Special Anchorage Areas?

Back 8

COMDT or Dist Commander

Front 9

What regulations list LAA?

Back 9

33 CFR 165

Front 10

Which regulations give COTP authority to authorize Security Zones?

Back 10

33 CFR 6

Front 11

How is targetting for Multi Mission Patrols conducted?

Back 11

Targetted IAW goals set forth in Business Planj for Maine Safet, Security and Environmental Protection.

Front 12

Who determines frequency of Multi Mission Patrols?

Back 12

COTP or Dist. Commander

Front 13

What DOT form grants an exemption from 49 CFR during emergency military loads?

Back 13

DOT E-3498

Front 14

When are annual permits issued for Explosive Loads?

Back 14

Small quantities of 1.1 and 1.2 Less then 500lbs Routine operation.

Front 15

What permit is utilized to request permission from the COTP to load Designated Dangerous Cargo?

Back 15

CG-4260

Front 16

True of False. COTP may not require seperation distance if explosive loads can be driven directly on or off the vessel?

Back 16

True and not over 24 hours of operation.

Front 17

Seperation distance is based on?

Back 17

Total net weight of explosives

Front 18

What regulations address the National Contingency Plan?

Back 18

40 CFR 300

Front 19

What subpart of the NCP contains info on State Involvment in the NCP?

Back 19

Subpart F

Front 20

How many subparts is the NCP broken down into?

Back 20

12

Front 21

Where can you find the four phases of response for oil?

Back 21

NCP Subpart D

Front 22

What subpart contains info on Natural Resource Trustees?

Back 22

Subpart G

Front 23

How many organizations does the NRT consist of?

Back 23

16

Front 24

Which organization provides info on provides advice and assistance to other OSCs/RPMs for emergency actions essential for the control of immediate radiological hazards.

Back 24

DOE

Front 25

Who co-chairs the NRT

Back 25

USCG

Front 26

Who can provide OSC's during a national response?

Back 26

DOE/USCG/EPA/DOD

Front 27

Which team has a readily deployable team of experts to assist the OSC during complex spills?

Back 27

DRAT (District Response Advisory Team)

Front 28

What response law dictated the development of Area Contingency Plans?

Back 28

OPA 90

Front 29

What is a decision support tool to assist in responding to oil and hazmat spills?

Back 29

SPEARS

Front 30

True of false. The Coastal zone contains the Great Lakes?

Back 30

True. Coastal Waters exempts the Great Lakes and ports and harbors in inland waters.

Front 31

What team is required to develop RCP's?

Back 31

RRT -Regional Response Team

Front 32

What is a flexible standard response management system that wil allow for the cultivation of response management expertise at all echelons of USCG management?

Back 32

NIIMS

Front 33

Who maintains forms and equipment for 10 days of a worst case scenario?

Back 33

District Commanders

Front 34

What COMDTINST contains guidelines for ICS structure?

Back 34

COMDTINST 3120.14

Front 35

What ICS form contains the Unit Activity Log?

Back 35

ICS 214

Front 36

Who is responsible for the collection,evaluation dissemination, and use of information?

Back 36

Planning Section Chief

Front 37

What Section does the Situational Unit Leader work under

Back 37

Planning

Front 38

What two branches are the Logistics Section broken down into?

Back 38

Service and Supply

Front 39

Who does the Safety Officer report directly to?

Back 39

Incident Commander

Front 40

Which ICS form provides the UC/IC with basic information regarding the incident situation?

Back 40

ICS form 201

Front 41

What was developed by California and oil industry to use during emergency responses?

Back 41

Field Operations Guide (FOG)

Front 42

Who is responsible for developing the Org Chart ICS 207?

Back 42

Resource Unit Leader

Front 43

What ICS Form is ICS 211

Back 43

Check in List

Front 44

What regulations contain requirements for the disposal of hazardous waste?

Back 44

40 CFR 260-263

Front 45

Who is someone that generates less then 1000kg of hazardous waste?

Back 45

Small quantity generator

Front 46

49 CFR 172.700 contains info on?

Back 46

Training requirements

Front 47

Where can you find regulations for placarding of hazardous cargo?

Back 47

49 CFR 172 500

Front 48

Column number 6 in the 101 table is entitled

Back 48

Label required

Front 49

Column number 7 in the 101 table is entitled

Back 49

Special Provisions

Front 50

The Medical Manual is what COMDTINST?

Back 50

COMDTINST M6000.1

Front 51

The Safety and Environmental Health Manual is what COMDINST?

Back 51

COMDINST M5100.47

Front 52

Where can you find the regulations that give authority to commsioned, warrant and petty officers to carry out the duties of the COTP?

Back 52

33 CFR 1.01.90

Front 53

What form to stated/federal agencies fill out to recover cost from a federalized spill?

Back 53

SF-1080(81)

Front 54

What form is a Hot Work Permit?

Back 54

CG 4201

Front 55

Where can you find info on Site Safety Plans?

Back 55

29 CFR 1910.120 MSM VOL IX NCP

Front 56

What level of training must a First Responder operations level have?

Back 56

8 hours of training-Annual refresher

Front 57

How much training is required to meet "de minimis" training

Back 57

4 hours

Front 58

How much training must a manager or supervisor engaged in hazardous waste operations possess?

Back 58

40 hours 24 hours field experience 8 hours haz waste operations 8 hours refresher

Front 59

Where is the requirement for NOA's found?

Back 59

33 CFR 160

Front 60

True or False the COTP can downgrade a targetted administration scoring from 7 to 11 points to an ISPS III

Back 60

TRUE, if removal of the flag Administration targeting points results in 6 or fewer points, if the Coast Guard previously boarded the vessel within the past 6 months and found no serious security deficiencies

Front 61

Utilizing the ISPS/MTSA targetting matrix how many points is a targetted management?

Back 61

5 points

Front 62

How many points is a Priority 1 vessel?

Back 62

17

Front 63

Utilizing the PSC Safety Environmental Targetting matrix how many points is Bulk Freight Ship greater then 20 years old?

Back 63

4 points

Front 64

Utilizing the Safety and Environmental Targetting matrix how many points is a Flag state with a detention ratio up to 2 times the overall average

Back 64

2 points

Front 65

Utilizing the ISPS/MTSA targetting matrix. How many points for a vessel that has a CAR more then 1.5% up to 3.0% and mroe then one major control action in past 12 mos?

Back 65

2 points

Front 66

How many points for two or more RSO control actions in past 12 mos.

Back 66

5 points

Front 67

A class society with a detention ratio less then 1%

Back 67

3 points

Front 68

What form number is the Waterfront Facility Compliance Guide?

Back 68

CG 5562a

Front 69

What form number is the Facility Vulnerability and Security Measure Assessment?

Back 69

CG 6025

Front 70

What form number is the EPA Hazardous Waste Manifest?

Back 70

EPA 8700-22

Front 71

Where cna you find regulations pertaining to State access to the OSTLF?

Back 71

33 CFR 133

Front 72

What document is required for utilizing State or Federal assets during a Federal response?

Back 72

Pollution Removal Funding Authorization (PRFA)

Front 73

What form is given to the suspected spiller designating them as the RP?

Back 73

Notice of Designation

Front 74

Where cnan you find RQ's under the FWPCA for hazmat?

Back 74

40 CFR 117

Front 75

What regulations designate hazmat under the FWPCA?

Back 75

40 CFR 116

Front 76

WHere can you find RQ's under CERCLA?

Back 76

40 CFR 302

Front 77

What COMDTINST has info on COA's for oil?

Back 77

CONDTINST 16450.27

Front 78

What COMDTINST has info on COA's for NLS?

Back 78

CONDTINST 16450.29

Front 79

What are the 4 measures to refer a CERCLA case to the EPA?

Back 79

Originates form Haz waste facility - Release does not require immediate removal - removal secured before clean up is complete - substantial clean up methods needed

Front 80

CERCLA requests cannot exceed what dollar amount?

Back 80

250K

Front 81

How many days does the COTP have to submit it's Financial Summary Report?

Back 81

120 days

Front 82

What form number is used to for ceiling managment of the fund?

Back 82

5136F

Front 83

How many years must a unit retain records for a medium spill before destroying?

Back 83

20 years

Front 84

True or False a unit can destroy records for a major spill?

Back 84

False Records must be sent to NARA after 10 years.

Front 85

What are the two type of shoreline assessments?

Back 85

“Geographic” Shoreline Assessments

“Topical” or “Hot-Spot” Shoreline Assessments

Front 86

What is the age requirement for a CG Academy slot?

Back 86

ANS: 18-22 yrs old

Front 87

Applicant minimum eligibility requirements for appointment to Warrant must be completed by

Back 87

ANS: Jan 1st year of board

Front 88

CG SELRES personnel are generally authorized on how many active duty paid training days per year?

Back 88

ANS: 12 days

Front 89

CG cutters 180' and above are appointed to whom?

Back 89

ANS: Area

Front 90

CG cutters 180' or less are appointed to whom?

Back 90

ANS: District

Front 91

It is recommended to help reduce stress you must do what?

Back 91

ANS: Exercise 30 minutes 3 times a week

Front 92

What do you not do to a person that is talking to you about suicide?

Back 92

ANS: Do Not make a judgment

Front 93

If a person is in IMMEDIATE danger of suicide you must do what?

Back 93

ANS: Stay with them till help arrives

Front 94

Anytime a member is involved in an alcohol incident what must happen?

Back 94

ANS: they will be screened

Front 95

What do you do for a 1st time alcohol incident?

Back 95

ANS: They will be screened

Front 96

What do you do for a 3rd time alcohol incident?

Back 96

ANS: processed for separation

Front 97

When are a special set of marks required?

Back 97

ANS: When convicted of court martial or NJP

Front 98

How long does a supervisor have to counsel a member on their marks?

Back 98

ANS: 21 days

Front 99

Who did they name Coastal Buoy Tenders after?

Back 99

ANS: Life Saving Servicemembers

Front 100

What was the role of the CG during the Mexican-American war?

Back 100

ANS:River expeditions

Front 101

Bullets are due mid marking and when

Back 101

ANS: 14 days prior to mark due date

Front 102

When two members are E6 who can be the Marking Official?

Back 102

ANS: When the member is a XPO

Front 103

Who assists Military members in Professional Development?

Back 103

ANS: Career Development Advisor

Front 104

What were the keepers of light houses referred as?

Back 104

ANS: Wreck master

Front 105

What are the 3 qualities of leadership?

Back 105

ANS: Self, working with others and performance

Front 106

HOW MANY ROLES DOES THE CG HAVE?

Back 106

ANS: 5

Front 107

HOW MANY MISSIONS DOES THE CG HAVE?

Back 107

ANS: 11

Front 108

What tool is used for a member to reach career goals?

Back 108

ANS: IDP

Front 109

Report of survey is not done for what?

Back 109

ANS: $500 or less

Front 110

Discrepancies with training competencies in People Soft go to who?

Back 110

ANS: Servicing Personnel Office (SPO)

Front 111

What is considered a Micro Purchase?

Back 111

ANS: $2500 or less

Front 112

Human Relation Council is required for units with how many people?

Back 112

ANS: 25 or more

Front 113

What does the "E" in SPE stand for?

Back 113

ANS: Exposure

Front 114

BMC Patterson was awarded the Bronze Star on?

Back 114

ANS: Point Welcome

Front 115

What year did Congress pass the need for the rank of E-8 and E-9?

Back 115

ANS: 1958

Front 116

What was the legislative bill number that passed the rank of E-8 and E-9?

Back 116

ANS: Public Law 85-422

Front 117

What does the R in STAAR stand for?

Back 117

ANS: Reduce

Front 118

What cutter captured the first ship in the War of 1812?

Back 118

ANS: Jefferson

Front 119

How many types of P&D entries are there for a CG 3307?

Back 119

ANS: 33

Front 120

How many types of Administrative Remarks that may be entered on a CG3307?

Back 120

ANS: 7

Front 121

How many accomplishments should you gather when writing an award for someone?

Back 121

ANS: 3-5

Front 122

What is the travel claim form number?

Back 122

ANS: DD1351-2

Front 123

Who provides immediate direction to Headquarters Units?

Back 123

ANS: Commandant

Front 124

What year did Coast Guard cutters stop using the standard?

Back 124

ANS: 1917

Front 125

What lighthouse did Ida Lewis man for over 30 years?

Back 125

ANS: Lime Rock

Front 126

What type of rescue device did the Life Saving Stations use to perform rescues?

Back 126

ANS: Life Car

Front 127

After reporting into your new unit, up to how many days can you request TLA?

Back 127

ANS: 10

Front 128

When was fog bells first used in Aids to Navigation?

Back 128

ANS: 1852

Front 129

On the Coast Guard slash, what is the angle set to?

Back 129

ANS: 64 DEG.

Front 130

What year did the rates in the Coast Guard become the same as the Navy?

Back 130

ANS: 1917

Front 131

When did the Coast Guard begin environmental protection?

Back 131

ANS: 1822

Front 132

Hooker, Byrd, Cumberbatch, Cooke, and who were the first 5 black women Spars?

Back 132

ANS: Mosley

Front 133

What is the 3rd step in ORM?

Back 133

ANS: Access Risk

Front 134

On a Summary Court Martial what is the lowest ranking person to sit?

Back 134

ANS: O4

Front 135

How many members are required other than the judge for a general court martial?

Back 135

ANS: at least 5

Front 136

During what war did the cutter Pickering capture 10 prizes of war?

Back 136

ANS: Quasi War

Front 137

Who was the only man awarded both the Medal of honor and Gold Life Saving Medal?

Back 137

ANS: Marcus Hannah

Front 138

What is the name of the US flag when displayed on a vehicle?

Back 138

ANS: Standard

Front 139

During what period does a reservist get reviewed?

Back 139

ANS: after 19 drill periods

Front 140

What was the date the Coast Guard started the Ice Patrol?

Back 140

ANS: Feb 7, 1914

Front 141

What are the two types of reserves?

Back 141

ANS: Selected and Individual Ready

Front 142

When are E5 marks due?

Back 142

ANS: October and April

Front 143

When could women be both officer or enlisted?

Back 143

ANS: 1978

Front 144

How far from a building must you be to smoke?

Back 144

ANS: 50 ft

Front 145

Where was the first reserve unit located?

Back 145

ANS: Boston

Front 146

Who was the first MCPO in the coast guard?

Back 146

1958. ON NOVEMBER 1, MASTER CHIEF YEOMAN JACK KERWIN BECOMES THE FIRST COAST GUARD E-9.

Front 147

How many stripes on the coast ensign?

Back 147

THE 16 VERTICAL RED AND WHITE STRIPES ON THE COAST GUARD ENSIGN REPRESENT THE NUMBER OF STATES IN THE UNION AT THE TIME THE FLAG WAS ADOPTED. THE ENSIGN'S DESIGN HAS EVOLVED SINCE ITS INTRODUCTION.

Front 148

How long do you have to dispute marks?

Back 148

15 CALENDAR DAYS IN WHICH TO SUBMIT A MARKS APPEAL.

Front 149

How long do you have to dispute a UCMJ?

Back 149

IN WRITING WITHIN 5 CALENDAR DAYS AFTER THE PUNISHMENT IS IMPOSED OR THE RIGHT TO APPEAL IS WAIVED

Front 150

Quasi war? Who was in it?

Back 150

THE U.S. WAS SUCCESSFUL IN STOPPING THE DEPREDATIONS OF THE FRENCH

Front 151

Who is in charge of districts?

Back 151

DISTRICTS ARE COMMANDED BY REAR ADMIRALS (ONE- OR TWO-STAR), WHO REPORT DIRECTLY TO THEIR AREA COMMANDERS. ATLANTIC AREA HAS FIVE DISTRICT OFFICES, AND PACIFIC AREA HAS FOUR DISTRICT OFFICES.

Front 152

A master sergeant in the army is equal to what in the coast guard

Back 152

E-8 SENIOR CHIEF

Front 153

What is EMI for?

Back 153

EXTRA MILITARY INSTRUCTION:

Front 154

Awards recommendation form number?

Back 154

CG1650

Front 155

What happens to member after first alcohol incident?

Back 155

1ST INCIDENT DISPOSITION: ANYTIME A MEMBER IS INVOLVED IN AN ALCOHOL INCIDENT, HE OR SHE WILL BE SCREENED AND APPROPRIATE ACTION WILL BE TAKEN. MEMBERS ABUSING ALCOHOL, BUT NOT INVOLVED IN AN ALCOHOL INCIDENT, SHOULD BE CLOSELY SCRUTINIZED BY THE COMMANDING OFFICER AND,

Front 156

What is the awards manual.

Back 156

COMDTINST P1650.27, REWARDS AND RECOGNITION HANDBOOK

Front 157

What priority does an individual have on an inconus underway unit?

Back 157

PRIORITY 3: MEMBERS SERVING ONBOARD INCONUS AFLOAT UNITS, LEDETS, HITRON DEPLOYMENT CREWS,

Front 158

Who can receive an alcohol incident? (enlisted)(officer)(Both)

Back 158

ENLISTED AND OFFICER

Front 159

What rank does the surgeon general hold?

Back 159

09 VICE ADMIRAL (VADM)

Front 160

141. Who was the first MCPOCG?

Back 160

MASTER CHIEF CALHOUN WAS THE FIRST MASTER CHIEF PETTY OFFICER OF THE COAST GUARD.

Front 161

During which war did we take over the navy rating system?

Back 161

1917: DURING WORLD WAR I, THE RATES IN THE COAST GUARD BECOME THE SAME AS THOSE IN THE NAVY.

Front 162

How many years for warrant officer in the armed forces?

Back 162

DUTY STATUS: BE A MEMBER OF THE COAST GUARD OR COAST GUARD RESERVE WITH AT LEAST EIGHT YEARS TOTAL ACTIVE SERVICE IN THE U.S. ARMED FORCES...THE LAST 4 YEARS WITH THE COAST GUARD. THE MEMBER MUST NOT BE SCHEDULED FOR SEPARATION NOR HAVE APPLIED FOR RETIREMENT.

Front 163

Who is a Medal of Honor recipient other than Munro?

Back 163

MARCUS HANNA, WHO SERVED AT THE CAPE ELIZABETH LIGHT. HE IS PROBABLY THE ONLY MAN IN HISTORY TO HAVE BEEN AWARDED BOTH THE MEDAL OF HONOR AND THE GOLD LIFESAVING MEDAL.

Front 164

What is the time in service to advance to E-8?

Back 164

TWO YEARS IN PRESENT PAY GRADE IS REQUIRED TO BE ADVANCED EACH STEP FROM E-6 THROUGH E-9.

Front 165

An Army Master Sergeant is equal to what in the Coast Guard?

Back 165

SENIOR CHIEF PETTY OFFICER E-8

Front 166

What is the award form?

Back 166

CG1650

Front 167

What cutter captured 500+ immigrants in 1995?

Back 167

THE LARGEST NUMBER OF MIGRANTS RESCUED FROM A SINGLE VESSEL IN COAST GUARD HISTORY OCCURRED ON NOVEMBER 24, 1995 WHEN CGC DAUNTLESS RESCUED 578 MIGRANTS FROM A GROSSLY OVERLOADED 75-FOOT COASTAL FREIGHTER. IN THE YEAR 2000 ALONE, THE COAST GUARD SORTIED 57,697 TIMES AND SAVED 3,400 LIVES.

Front 168

Eagle recaptured 2 vessels during what war?

Back 168

QUASI WAR • ANOTHER NOTEWORTHY CUTTER, THE EAGLE, RECAPTURED THE AMERICAN VESSELS

Front 169

What era can the term "Chief" be dated back to?

Back 169

1865, Civil War Era

Front 170

When did the Navy create the rank of CPO?

Back 170

April 1, 1893

Front 171

When was did the USCG establish the CPO Grade

Back 171

May 18, 1920

Front 172

Who were the first Coast Guard Chiefs?

Back 172

Station Keepers at life saving stations

Front 173

When were the rank of SCPO and MCPO established?

Back 173

May 1958

Front 174

Who was the first CG MCPO?

Back 174

MCPO Jack Kerwin, November 1, 1958

Front 175

Senior and Master Chiefs must __________for the entire fleet

Back 175

Set the Example

Front 176

The CPO should:

Back 176

Support command policy and point out flaws that are detrimental to morale or mission

Front 177

What is the bulk criteria for mens hair?

Back 177

1 1/2 inches from scalp

Front 178

What is the CPO self evaluation form?

Back 178

3788F

Front 179

What budget system does the CG employ?

Back 179

Zero Based Budgeting

Front 180

What are the advantages of Zero Based Budgeting

Back 180

Eliminates a sense of entitlement to cost increases

Front 181

You need to submit an explanation of justification and impact of denial for all items requested

Back 181

True

Front 182

What is step one of ORM?

Back 182

Define the Mission/Task

Front 183

What is step two of ORM?

Back 183

Identify Hazards

Front 184

What is step three of ORM?

Back 184

Assess the risk

Front 185

What is step four of ORM?

Back 185

Identify the options

Front 186

What is step five of ORM?

Back 186

Evaluate Risk vs Gain

Front 187

What is step six of ORM?

Back 187

Execute the Decision

Front 188

What is step seven of ORM?

Back 188

Monitor the situation

Front 189

What step of ORM would you use STAAR?

Back 189

Step four

Front 190

What does STAAR stand for?

Back 190

Spread out

Front 191

What step of ORM do you use the SPE (Severity, Probabilty, Exposure) or GAR model?

Back 191

Step three

Front 192

How many leadership compentencies are there?

Back 192

28

Front 193

What process improvement tool would you use to identify the root cause(s) of a problem?

Back 193

Why Technique

Front 194

What type of process improvement tool would you use to capitalize on negative thought?

Back 194

Contingency Diagram

Front 195

What type of process improvement tool would you use to organize verbal information into a visual pattern?

Back 195

Affinity Diagram

Front 196

The tool you can use to best develop an action plan is __________.

Back 196

A Contingency Diagram

Front 197

What is the ISM Code?

Back 197

International Safety Management Code.

Front 198

Who is the Document of Compliance (DOC) for the safe managemant of ships issued to?

Back 198

Issused to Company that complies with the code (will list vessel types).

Front 199

Who is the Safety Management Certificate issued to?

Back 199

The vessel

Front 200

How many funtional elements does the ISM Code require a for a Safety Management System?

Back 200

Six

Front 201

What is a Designated Person Ashore?

Back 201

Direct link for vessel to highest level of management.

Front 202

What is a non-comformity?

Back 202

An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of a specified requirement.

Front 203

What is a major non-comformity?

Back 203

An identifiable deviation that poses a serious threat to the safety of personnel or the ship or a serious threat to the environment that requires immediate corrective action

Front 204

What is a SMS?

Back 204

Safety Management System

Front 205

How long are Interim ISM-DOCs, SMCs good for?

Back 205

A period not to exceed 6 months

Front 206

The ISM Code applies to whom?

Back 206

Vessel greater than 500 GRT.

Front 207

What certificate is issued under the provisions of the International Load Lines Convention?

Back 207

International Load Line Certificate.

Front 208

How long is an International Load Line Certificate valid?

Back 208

5years

Front 209

Who is required an International Load Line Certificate?

Back 209

Vessel greater 79 feet; Greater 150 GRT; On international voyage.

Front 210

What is a Load Line?

Back 210

Measurement of Freeboard.

Front 211

What is a Deck Line?

Back 211

A horizontal line 300 mm (12 inches in length) 25 mm (1 inch) wide. Located amidships and represent uppermost continuous watertight deck.

Front 212

What are the requirements for load line color?

Back 212

White or Yellow on a dark background; Black on a white background. Permanently marked.

Front 213

What is MARPOL ANNEXX VI?

Back 213

Air.

Front 214

How long must a vessel keep bunker receipts?

Back 214

3 years.

Front 215

How long must a vessel keep fuel samples?

Back 215

12 months.

Front 216

Vessel over 10000 GRT what additional requirements on the OWS?

Back 216

Alamr and Stopping Device.

Front 217

What is the ISPS Code?

Back 217

International Ship & Port Facility Code.

Front 218

ISPS Code applies to what ships?

Back 218

Following Ships on international route;
Cargo 500grt and up,
Passenger vessels.

Front 219

What is a Declaration of Security?

Back 219

An agreement on the shared responsibilities of security between ship and facility..

Front 220

When is a vessel required to conduct security frills?

Back 220

Once every three months in addition to when there is more than 25% personell changed.

Front 221

Were is the ship's identication number required to be permantly marked.

Back 221

Visble place either on the stern or side AND in a easily accesible place on an transverse bulked in the engine room.

Front 222

What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?

Back 222

A certificate that provides an onboard record of information on the ship with respect to involved parties. STAYS WITH SHIP.

Front 223

What is a SSAS.

Back 223

Ship Security Alert System.

Front 224

What is the weight of a Lifebuoy NOT intended to activate a quick release mechanism?

Back 224

A mass not less than 2.5 kg

Front 225

What is the weight of a Lifebuoy intended to activate a quick release mechanism?

Back 225

A mass not less than 4 kg

Front 226

How many days shal a liferaft be designed to wihstand exposure afloat in all condistions.

Back 226

30

Front 227

Pyrotechnics (Flares) requirments of a LIFERAFT.

Back 227

4 rocket parachute flares, two buoyant smoke signals, 6 hand flares.

Front 228

What are the ten original cutters?

Back 228

The Massachusetts. Scammel Argus Vigilant General Greene Active Virginia Diligence South Carolina Eagle

Front 229

Where can you find the four phases of response for Hazmat?

Back 229

NCP Subpart E

Front 230

Where are the requirements to report OIL?

Back 230

33 CFR PART 153.203

Front 231

What is purpose of 40 CFR 110.3?

Back 231

“HARMFUL QUANTITIES” DISCHARGE OF OIL IN SUCH QUANTITIES AS ‘‘MAY BE HARMFUL’’.

Front 232

Where is a Reportable Quantity defined?

Back 232

REPORTABLE QUANTITIES MEANS: QUANTITIES THAT MAY BE HARMFUL AS SET FORTH IN § 117.3, AND REQUIRES NOTICE AS SET FORTH IN § 117.21.

Front 233

What is COMDTINST M16000.11 (series)?

Back 233

MARINE SAFETY MANUAL VOLUME. VI, PORTS AND WATERWAYS ACTIVITIES

Front 234

What is COMDTINST M16000.14 (series)

Back 234

MSM VOLUME IX – MARINE ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION.

Front 235

When is a SITUATION REPORT POLLUTION (SITREP POL) required?

Back 235

POLREPS ARE REQUIRED FOR EVERY SPILL OR POTENTIAL SPILL. THE COTP SHALL SUBMIT A POLREP FOR EACH REPORTED INCIDENT TO THE DISTRICT COMMANDER, WITH INFORMATION COPIES TO APPROPRIATE AGENCIES; SUBSEQUENT POLREPS SHOULD BE SENT AS SIGNIFICANT PER CIM16000.11 7.B.6.B

Front 236

What are the spill classifications?

Back 236

MINOR DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE INTO THE INLAND WATERS OF LESS THAN 1,000 GALLONS OF OIL OR A DISCHARGE TO THE COASTAL WATERS OF LESS THAN 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL.
MEDIUM DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE OF 1,000 TO 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE INLAND WATERS OR A DISCHARGE OF 10,000 TO 100,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE COASTAL WATERS.
(MAJOR DISCHARGE: A DISCHARGE OF MORE THAN 10,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE INLAND WATERS OR MORE THAN 100,000 GALLONS OF OIL TO THE COASTAL WATERS.

Front 237

What is COMDTINST M16000.10 (series)

Back 237

MARINE SAFETY MANUAL VOLUME V (INVESTIGATIONS)

Front 238

What is a Major Marine Casualty?

Back 238

An incident that meets any of the following criteria: Resulted in the loss of six of more lives, Resulted in the loss of mechanically propelled vessel of 100 or more gross tons, Resulted in property damage initially estimated at $500,000 or more, Resulted in serious threat, as determined by the commandant and concurred in by the NTSB chairman, to life, property, or the environment by hazardous materials.

Front 239

What is a Serious Marine Incident (SMI) for pollution?

Back 239

A SMI, as defined by 46 CFR 4.03-2, includes the following events: A discharge of 10,000 gallons or more of oil into the navigable waters of the united states, whether or not resulting from a marine casualty, A discharge of a reportable quantity of a hazardous substance into the navigable waters or into the environment of the united states, whether or not resulting from a marine casualty.

Front 240

What is COMDTPUBP 3120.17(A)?

Back 240

U.S. COAST GUARD INCIDENT MANAGEMENT HANDBOOK

Front 241

What is a CG-3639A?

Back 241

BLUE BOOK

Front 242

What COMDINST is CERCLA Response Authority?

Back 242

COMDINST 16465.29

Front 243

What is IMO Resolution A.787(19) as amended by Resolution A.882(21)?

Back 243

PROCEDURES FOR PORT STATE CONTROL (GREEN BOOK)

Front 244

What MSM discusses PSC?

Back 244

MSM VOLUME II (MATERIEL INSPECTION), COMDTINST M16000.7

Front 245

What NVIC Discusses PSC Targeting?

Back 245

06-03 COAST GUARD PORT STATE CONTROL TARGETING BOARDING POLICYFOR SECURITY AND SAFETY VESSEL

Front 246

What is in 33 CFR 151?

Back 246

US REGULATION FOR MARPOL ANNEX I, II, V; BALLAST WATER REGS

Front 247

What is the PSC examination form number?

Back 247

CG5437A and CG5437B

Front 248

What are the vessel categories and point values?

Back 248

17 or more points = ISPSI/PI vessel, 7 to 16 points = ISPSII/PII vessel, 0-6 points = ISPS III/PNV vessel

Front 249

Where do you conduct a ISPSI/PI exam?

Back 249

OFFSHORE PRIOR TO ARRIVAL

Front 250

When do you conduct a PII/ISPSII?

Back 250

PRIOR TO CARGO OPS.

Front 251

What temperatures do you store oil samples?

Back 251

41-45

Front 252

How many copies of an operations manual does a COTP return to a facility?

Back 252

One copy of the manual to the operator marked ``examined by the coastguard”

Front 253

How big must the small discharge containment be for a transfer pipe 6 inches in diameter?

Back 253

33 CFR 154.530 – SMALL DISCHARGE CONTAINMENT TWO BARRELS

Front 254

How much experience in transfer operations must a PIC have?

Back 254

48 hours 33 CFR 154.710

Front 255

The two most common ways oil is transported by the environment are spreading and…….?

Back 255

Advection - The usually horizontal movement of a mass of fluid (as air or an ocean current).

Front 256

USCG ships oil samples in accordance with what regulatory authority?

Back 256

International civil aviation organizations (ICAO DG) the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

Front 257

What must a facility submit to the OCMI in addition to the Operations Manual?

Back 257

Letter of intent

Front 258

How often must security drills be conducted?

Back 258

Every three months

Front 259

What is the 17c on a CG-5437B?

Back 259

(17) to be corrected prior to departure, (c)to the satisfaction of the coast guard.

Front 260

An operations manual must meet all the requirements in 33CFR154 and what?

Back 260

33 CFR §156

Front 261

How many major Headquarters directorates are below the Commandant?

Back 261

11

Front 262

Earring Requirements?

Back 262

One earring per ear centered on the earlobe of plain gold or silver with a shining or brushed matte finish, plain diamond, or natural white pearl ball studs, 4-6 mm (1/8 to 1/4-inch diameter), with all uniforms. Decorative or combination settings are not authorized. Earrings are to be worn only by female members.

Front 263

What is form CG-4910?

Back 263

Report of offense and disposition

Front 264

What are the seven steps of ORM?

Back 264

Step 1: define the mission/task, Step 2: identify the hazards, Step 3: assess the risk, Step 4: identify the options, Step 5: evaluate risk vs. gain, Step 6: execute the decision, Step 7: monitor the situation,

Front 265

What model is used in Step 3 of ORM?

Back 265

SPE model: (S)everity, (P)robability, (E)xposure. SxPxE=risk

Front 266

What technique is use in Step 4 of ORM: Identify the Options?

Back 266

STAAR; Spreadout the risk, Transfer risk, Avoid risks all together, Accept risk, Reduce risk,

Front 267

What is the International Maritime Organization (IMO)?

Back 267

The international maritime organization is a specialized agency of the united nations that is responsible for improving maritime safety and preventing pollution from ships.

Front 268

Rear admirals head up districts. a. True b. False?

Back 268

True

Front 269

Vice Admirals lead the Atlantic Area and the Pacific Area. a. True b. False?

Back 269

True

Front 270

On May 28, 1798, Congress authorized the capture of armed French vessels hovering off the U.S. coast, initiating?

Back 270

Quasi-war- an undeclared war with France (1798-99).

Front 271

What cutter captured 10 prizes, one of which carried 44 guns and 200 men, three times her own force?

Back 271

PICKERING

Front 272

What cutter recaptured the American vessels Nancy and Mehitable in amemorable fight in 1799 with the French privateer, Revenge?

Back 272

EAGLE

Front 273

What war began the Coast Guard’s role of augmenting the Navy with shallowdraft craft?

Back 273

War of 1812 with England

Front 274

What war was declared on May 13, 1846?

Back 274

Mexican-American War

Front 275

In what war did the cutter McCulloch, carrying six guns and manned by 10 officers and 95 crewmen, engage in the battle of Manila Bay?

Back 275

SPANISH-AMERICAN WAR

Front 276

What six cutters were deployed to Gibraltar in WWI?

Back 276

Ossipee, Seneca, Yamacraw, Algonquin, Manning, and Tampa

Front 277

When wasCoast Guard was given responsibility for cold weather operations in Greenland.

Back 277

APRIL 9, 1941

Front 278

How many cutter were involved in Operation Market Time?

Back 278

TWENTY-SIX 82-FOOT COAST GUARD CUTTERS

Front 279

When was the Coast Guard transferred from the Department of Transportation (DOT) to the DHS?

Back 279

MARCH 1, 2003

Front 280

In this war, cutters captured 18 prizes unaided and assisted in two other captures.

Back 280

QUASI-WAR

Front 281

A Coast Guard cutter is credited with firing the first naval shots of this war.

Back 281

CIVIL WAR

Front 282

First time during a war that the entire Coast Guard was transferred to the Navy.

Back 282

WORLD WAR I

Front 283

During this war, the McCulloch served as both the escort and dispatch with Commodore George Dewey’s squadron.

Back 283

SPANISH-AMERICAN WAR

Front 284

In this war effort, the Coast Guard played a marginal role, primarily one of support.

Back 284

KOREAN WAR

Front 285

Following World War II, members of what organization were given rates and ratings, uniforms, and insignia?

Back 285

COAST GUARD AUXILIARY

Front 286

To help rescue immigrants from vessels ravished by winter storms, a Federal lifesaving service was initiated in _______.

Back 286

1848

Front 287

The only Coast Guard-manned light station in the U.S. today is located in _______.

Back 287

Boston Harbor

Front 288

Who was one of first uniformed women to serve in the Coast Guard.

Back 288

LUCILLE BAKER

Front 289

When were women integrated into active duty and Coast Guard Reserve.

Back 289

1973

Front 290

What year did all officer career fields and enlisted ratings are opened to women.

Back 290

1978

Front 291

What year did USCG get first Master Chief Petty Officer of the Coast Guard.

Back 291

1969

Front 292

Two-time winner of the Gold Lifesaving Medal.

Back 292

SURFMAN FREDERICK HATCH

Front 293

Credited with saving more than 600 lives, he earned two gold medals, three silver, and other awards during his long and distinguished career.

Back 293

JOSHUA JAMES

Front 294

The supervisor must route the completed employee review to the next level of the rating chain no later than ________days prior to the period ending date.

Back 294

9

Front 295

The ________counsels and reviews the evaluation with the evaluee.

Back 295

SUPERVISOR

Front 296

It is the responsibility of the ________ to ensure training is properly recorded.

Back 296

Coast Guard Member

Front 297

All training that members receive is recorded in ________.

Back 297

Personal training record

Front 298

What are the FOUR core values and concepts upon which the CQA and CPQ are built

Back 298

Leadership, Customer focus, Process management, Business Results

Front 299

What is the ICS-208-CG?

Back 299

Site Safety Plan.

Front 300

What is the ICS-215A-CG?

Back 300

Hazard/Risk Analysis Worksheet.

Front 301

What is the ICS-202?

Back 301

Incident Objectives.

Front 302

What is the ICS-203/207?

Back 302

Organization Assignment List and Incident Organization Chart.

Front 303

What is the ISC-204?

Back 303

Assignment List.

Front 304

What is the ICS-206?

Back 304

Medical Plan

Front 305

What is the purpose of the National Contingency Plan?

Back 305

To provide the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharge of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants and contaminants. (40CFR300.1)

Front 306

What is the first general priority of the National Contingency Plan?

Back 306

To give safety and human health top priority during every response action. (40CFR300.317)

Front 307

What is the second general priority of the National Contingency Plan?

Back 307

To stabilize the situation in order to prevent the event from worsening. (40CFR300.317)

Front 308

What is the third general priority of the National Contingency Plan?

Back 308

To use all necessary containment and removal tactics in a coordinated manner to ensure timely, effective response. (40CFR300.317)

Front 309

What is the fourth general priority of the National Contingency Plan?

Back 309

To take action to minimize further environmental impact from environmental discharges. (40CFR300.317)

Front 310

What is the authority that a qualified FOSCR has under the NCP?

Back 310

FOSCR is delegated the authority of OSC. (33CFR1.01-70 to 90) OSCs/RPMs may designate capable persons from federal, state, or local agencies to act as their on-scene representatives. (40CFR300.120/135(d))

Front 311

What is the On-Scene Coordinators primary responsibilities?

Back 311

The OSC directs response efforts and coordinates all other efforts at the scene of the discharge or release. In addition, the OSC is responsible for overseeing development of the Area Contingency Plan (ACP) in the area of the OSC's responsibility. (40CFR300.120)

Front 312

What are the notification requirements outlined in the NCP?

Back 312

Notice of an oil discharge or release of a hazardous substance in an amount equal to or greater than the reportable quantity must be made immediately. (40CFR300.125)

Front 313

What is the first phase of an oil spill?

Back 313

Discovery or Notification (40CFR300.300)

Front 314

What is the second phase of an oil spill?

Back 314

Preliminary Assessment and Initiation of Action (40CFR300.300)

Front 315

What is the third phase of an oil spill?

Back 315

Containment, countermeasures, cleanup and disposal (40CFR300.300)

Front 316

What is the fourth phase of an oil spill?

Back 316

Documentation and cost recovery (40CFR300.300)

Front 317

What is the first phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 317

Discovery and notification (40CFR300.400)

Front 318

What is the second phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 318

Removal site evaluation (40CFR300.400)

Front 319

What is the third phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 319

Removal action (40CFR300.400)

Front 320

What is the fourth phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 320

Remedial Site evaluation (40CFR300.400)

Front 321

What is the fifth phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 321

Establishing remedial priorities (40CFR300.400)

Front 322

What is the sixth phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 322

Remedial investigation (40CFR300.400)

Front 323

What is the seventh phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 323

Remedial action (40CFR300.400)

Front 324

What is the eighth phase of a hazardous substance incident?

Back 324

Procedures and processes for planning and implementing off-site response actions (40CFR300.400)

Front 325

What is the Coast Guards Jurisdiction?

Back 325

The Coast Guard shall provide OSC's for oil discharges (including discharges from facilities and vessels under the jurisdiction of another federal agency) within or threatening the coastal zone. The Coast Guard shall also provide OSC for the removal of releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, or contaminants into or threatening the coastal zone. (40CFR300.120(a)(1))

Front 326

What is the Environmental Protection Agencies Jurisdiction?

Back 326

The EPA shall provide OSC's for discharges or releases into or threatening the inland zone. The EPA will also assume all remedial actions at National Priority List sites in the coastal zone.(40CFR300.120(a)(2))

Front 327

What is the Department of Defenses Jurisdiction?

Back 327

For releases of hazardous substances, when the release is on, or the sole source of the release is from, any facility or vessel, under the jurisdiction, custody or control of DOD or DOE, DOD/DOE shall provide OSC's. 40CFR300.120(c)(1))

Front 328

What is the FOSC authority?

Back 328

The OSC/RPM directs response efforts and coordinates all other efforts at the scene of a discharge or release. 42USC9605, 33USC1321(d)(2)(k), 40CFR300.120

Front 329

What is the COTPs authority?

Back 329

Captains of the port and their representatives enforce within their respective areas port safety and security and marine environmental protection regulations, including, without limitation, regulations for the protection and security of vessels, harbors, waterfront facilities, anchorages, security zones, safety zones, regulated navigation areas, deepwater ports, water pollution and ports and waterways safety. (33CFR6.04-1 thru 11)

Front 330

What is the COTPs authority to prevent access of personnel to vessels or waterfront facilities?

Back 330

The Captain of the port may prevent any person, article, or thing from boarding or being taken or placed on board any vessel or entering or being taken into or placed in or upon any waterfront facility whenever it appears to him that such action is necessary in order to secure such vessel from damage or injury or to prevent damage or injury to any vessel, or waterfront facility or waters of the United States, or to secure the observances of rights and obligations of the United States. (33CFR6.04-5)

Front 331

What is the COTPs authority to control vessel and facility operations?

Back 331

The COTP may prescribe such conditions and restrictions relating to the safety of waterfront facilities and vessels in port as he finds to be necessary under existing circumstances. Such conditions may extend, but shall not be limited to, the inspection, operation, maintenance, guarding, and manning of, and fire prevention measures for, such vessels and waterfront facilities. (33CFR6.14-1)

Front 332

What is the COTPs authority to control vessel movement?

Back 332

The COTP may supervise and control the movement of any vessel and shall take full or partial possession or control of any vessel or any part thereof, within the territorial waters of the United States under his jurisdiction, whenever it appears to him that such action is necessary in order to secure such vessel from damage or injury, or to prevent damage or injury to any vessel or waterfront facility or waters of the United States, or to secure the observance of rights and obligations of the United States. (33CFR6.04-8)

Front 333

When may a COTP order a vessel to operate or anchor in the manner directed?

Back 333

When the COTP has a reasonable cause to believe that the vessel is not in compliance with any regulation law or treaty; when the COTP determines that the vessel does not satisfy the conditions for vessel operation and cargo transfers; or the COTP has determined that such order is justified in the interest of safety by reason of weather, visibility, sea conditions, temporary port congestion, other temporary hazardous circumstances, or the condition of the vessel. (33CFR160.111)

Front 334

What is the COTPs authority to enlist aid from other local and government agencies?

Back 334

The COTP may enlist the aid and cooperation of Federal, State, county, municipal, and private agencies to assist in the enforcement of regulations issued pursuant to this part. (33CFR6.04-11)

Front 335

How may a Safety Zone be used to manage a pollution incident?

Back 335

As defined a safety zone is a water area, shore area, or water and shore area to which, for safety or environmental purposes, access is limited to authorized persons, vehicles or vessels. It may be stationary and described by fixed limits or it may be described as a zone around a vessel in motion. In the event of a discharge or release of a harmful or reportable quantity of a substance, a safety zone may be set in place for a variety of reasons, including minimizing adverse health effects on the public. (33CFR165.30)

Front 336

What are the procedures for obtaining a flight zone restriction?

Back 336

A temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) Zone is similar in nature to a COTP safety zone in the maritime environment, and is normally issued only when absolutely necessary. To obtain a TFR you must call the Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC) for your area.

Front 337

What are the situations which would result in requesting a Temporary Flight Restriction?

Back 337

To protect persons and property in the air and on the surface from surface hazards; to provide a safe environment for disaster relief aircraft; or to prevent an unsafe congestion of sight seeing and other aircraft above an incident or event that may generate a high degree of public interest.

Front 338

What is the agency which provides assistance in determining the trajectory and fate of an oil spill or hazardous substance release?

Back 338

NOAA

Front 339

Where would you obtain the Federal Project Number or CERCLA Number?

Back 339

CANAPS

Front 340

What is the first role of the National Strike Force Coordination Center?

Back 340

Provide technical assistance, equipment and other resources to augment the OSC staff during a spill response

Front 341

What is the second role of the NSFCC?

Back 341

Assist in coordinating the use of public and private resources in support of the OSC during a response to or threat of a worst case discharge of oil

Front 342

What is the third role of the NSFCC?

Back 342

Review the area contingency plan, including evaluating equipment readiness and coordination among responsible public agencies and private organizations.

Front 343

What is the fourth role of the NSFCC?

Back 343

Assist in locating spill response resources for response and planning, using the NSFCC's national and international computerized inventory of spill response resources.

Front 344

What is the fifth role of the NSFCC?

Back 344

Will assist in coordination and evaluation of pollution response exercises.

Front 345

What are the three Strike Teams?

Back 345

Atlantic, Gulf and Pacific

Front 346

What is the role of the Strike Teams?

Back 346

Each team provides trained personnel and specialized equipment to assist the OSC in training for spill response, stabilizing and containing the spill, and in monitoring or directing the response actions of the responsible parties and/or contractors.

Front 347

How does the OSC contact the Strike Team?

Back 347

The OSC has a specific team designated for initial contact and may contact that team directly for any assistance?

Front 348

What is the role of the Public Information Assistance Team (PIAT)?

Back 348

The PIAT is available to assist OSCs to meet the demands for public information during a response or exercise. Use is encouraged any time the OSC requires outside public affairs support.

Front 349

How does an OSC contact a PIAT?

Back 349

Requests for PIAT must be made through the NSFCC or NRC.

Front 350

What is a Scientific Support Coordinator?

Back 350

The principal advisers for scientific issues, communication within the scientific community, and coordination of request for assistance from state and federal agencies regarding scientific studies.

Front 351

What is the MAXIMUM distance in feet for cargo space between cross aisles?

Back 351

75

Front 352

What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility with fire truck access is _____ feet.

Back 352

20

Front 353

What is the MINIMUM width allowed for the main aisle on a designated waterfront facility without fire truck access is _____ feet.

Back 353

8

Front 354

How many feet of clear and open space must be maintained between cargo, freight, merchandise and other materials piles and both sides of facility walls, fire walls and fire stops, and sides of the pier?

Back 354

2 feet

Front 355

The first and broadest term used to describe regulated cargo?

Back 355

Dangerous Cargo

Front 356

Who is responsible for providing the witness for a prewash

Back 356

COTP

Front 357

Once an oil transfer is complete, the person in charge must _____.

Back 357

Sign the transfer papers

Front 358

What is a vapor destruction unit?

Back 358

Incinerator

Front 359

What color must the vapor recovery hose be?

Back 359

Yellow and red

Front 360

What must be stenciled on a Vapor Recovery hose?

Back 360

"Vapor"

Front 361

What do facilities with vapor recovery systems have to provide to the Coast Guard?

Back 361

Written certification that the VRS meets the requirements

Front 362

May the COTP impose any requirements from 33 CFR 154-156 on a Marina Fuel Dock, that does not transfer oil or hazmat in bulk to a vessel with a capacity of over 250 Bbls?

Back 362

Yes

Front 363

What things DO NOT have to be marked on all oil transfer hoses?

Back 363

Burst pressure

Front 364

Who is required to witness and verify the prewash of any cargo tank?

Back 364

Prewash surveyor

Front 365

What type of cargo requires a written permit to handle?

Back 365

Designated dangerous cargo

Front 366

Which document does the person in charge complete before starting an oil transfer operation?

Back 366

Declaration of Inspection

Front 367

The vent system used with pressurized cargo, which protects cargo tanks from over pressurization, is a _____.

Back 367

Safety relief valve

Front 368

How big must the fixed containment be at the manifold at each oil transfer connection if the hoses are 2 in or less in diameter?

Back 368

1/2 barrel

Front 369

Where are the regulations for PSC's found?

Back 369

33 CFR 125

Front 370

During an inspection of a marine oil transfer facility, what equipment must be marked with the product used or "oil service" and the MAWP?

Back 370

Hose assemblies

Front 371

Butterfly valves, wafer-type resilient seated valves, and blank flanges are what type of equipment?

Back 371

Closure devices

Front 372

Who is responsible for making sure that there is enough water for firefighting at an ammonia nitrate load?

Back 372

The owner

Front 373

Each LNG loading flange must be located at least ____ meters from the general public or railways

Back 373

300

Front 374

At a Waterfront Facility handling LNG, the substructures are within 5 meters of any pipe or equipment containing LNG, or are within 15 meters of a loading flange must.....

Back 374

-be made of concrete or steel, - have a fire endurance rating of not less than 2 hours

Front 375

On a LNG Waterfront facility, the marine transfer area must have at least ____ portable gas detectors capable of measuring 0-100% of the LFL of methane?

Back 375

2

Front 376

At a LNG waterfront facility, the emergency power source must provide enough power for the operation of the ____________.

Back 376

-Emergency shutdown system, - communications, - fire fighting system, - emergency lighting

Front 377

How many portable fire extinguishers must a LNG waterfront facility have available in each designated parking area?

Back 377

At least 1

Front 378

How long must a LNG waterfront facility keep transfer system testing records?

Back 378

24 months

Front 379

On a LNG waterfront facility, what testing records must the operator keep on file?

Back 379

- a description of pressure checks, dates & results of tests, description of any corrective actions taken after the tests

Front 380

Each waterfront facility handling LHG that transfers a flammable LHG must have at least ____ portable gas detector(s), or ____ fixed gas detector(s) in the marine transfer area?

Back 380

2,1

Front 381

How many copies of the operations manual must a LHG/LNG facility sent to the COTP?

Back 381

2

Front 382

After the COTP receives a letter of intent to operate a LHG/LNG facility, what does the COTP send to the owner?

Back 382

Letter of recommendation

Front 383

When the COTP has directed that access to a waterfront facility be restricted, personnel requiring access to that area must have one or more of the identification credentials listed ______.

Back 383

33 CFR 125

Front 384

What do NFPA pamphlets 10 & 10A provide guidance for?

Back 384

Fire fighting equipment

Front 385

To conduct an oil transfer, who must qualify the Person in Charge (PIC)?

Back 385

Facility operator

Front 386

Each hose used for the transfer of oil must be marked with AT LEAST the maximum allowable working pressure and the phrase ____.

Back 386

Oil service

Front 387

What regulations cover Solid bulk dangerous cargo?

Back 387

46 CFR 148

Front 388

How high must an ammunition magazine be kept off the deck?

Back 388

10mm

Front 389

What is the inspection form used for facility inspections?

Back 389

CG 4200

Front 390

What is the primary thing to look for when monitoring a transfer operation?

Back 390

That transfer ops are being followed

Front 391

What are the conditions for issuing a permit to handle designated dangerous cargo?

Back 391

A facility must meet the safety requirements of 33 CFR 126.19

Front 392

What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo, cargo of a particular hazard, and designated dangerous cargo?

Back 392

Facility of a Particular Hazard

Front 393

What types of facilities need to have a COA for garbage?

Back 393

Facilities that handle oceangoing vessels of 400 Gt. or more, handle NLS, commercial fishing facilities, recreational boating facilities.

Front 394

On a facility which started operation after Nov.1 , 1980, the emergency shutdown system must stop the flow of oil in ___ seconds.

Back 394

30

Front 395

What is the MINIMUM distance two cargoes must be separated when the term "Away From" is used?

Back 395

10 feet

Front 396

How many feet must a hazardous material be away from walls, or the edge of the pier?

Back 396

2 ft

Front 397

How many hours must a PIC have before they can be qualified?

Back 397

48 hours

Front 398

What are the basic requirements for a general permit?

Back 398

Maintain the safety condition in 33 CFR 126.15, notify COTP when handling specified amount of particular hazard class of cargo, separate certain hazard classes stowed on the facility

Front 399

What is the regulation that covers warehouses on designated waterfront facilities?

Back 399

33 CFR 126

Front 400

At least ____ days before transferring LHG/LNG, the owner or operator of a new or an inactive existing facility shall submit 2 copies of the operations manual and thee emergency manual to the COTP?

Back 400

30

Front 401

Flammable cargo can be stowed to a maximum of ____.

Back 401

12ft

Front 402

The regulation covering facilities that handle oil, NLS, and garbage is

Back 402

33CFR126

Front 403

Reception facilities must be able to receive NLS within ____ notice.

Back 403

24 hours

Front 404

If a designated waterfront facility released a harmful quantity of hazardous substance on the facility but not in the coastal zone, who would be required to notify the NRC?

Back 404

The person in charge of the facility

Front 405

LNG/LPG storage tanks must have the minimum volume necessary for.....

Back 405

-surge protection, - pump suction supply, - other processing needs

Front 406

On a LNG waterfront facility, each transfer emergency shut off system is activated automatically when the fixed sensors measure LNG concentrations exceeding ___ of the LEL.

Back 406

40%

Front 407

On warning signs at LNG/LHG waterfront facilities, how high must the letters be?

Back 407

3 inches high

Front 408

What records must the facility retain at the facility?

Back 408

copy of letter of intent, names of PIC's, most recent hose test, all exam's by COTP for 3 yrs, DOI within the last 30 days, records of all repairs made to vapor recovery in the last 3 yrs plans, calculations, and specifications of FAC VRS.

Front 409

On a MOTF, what type of hose is exempted from the requirement to blank off the ends of hoses not hooked up to a manifold?

Back 409

new, unused hoses

Front 410

What regulations cover break-bulk hazardous materials?

Back 410

49 CFR 170-179

Front 411

What regulation addresses specific source waste?

Back 411

40 CFR 261.32

Front 412

What does 33 CFR 127 cover?

Back 412

Waterfront facilities handling liquefied natural gas and liquefied hazardous gas

Front 413

Each operator of a passenger terminal subject to 33 CFR 129 shall submit 2 copies of _____ at least 60 days before transferring passengers to or from a vessel?

Back 413

Terminal Security Plan

Front 414

What does 33 CFR 158 cover?

Back 414

Reception facilities for oil, noxious liquid substances, garbage

Front 415

What must the owner of a LHG/LNG facility provide to the COTP 30 days before transferring product?

Back 415

2 copies of the operations manual and 2 copies of the emergency manual

Front 416

What is a facility that is authorized to handle dangerous cargo only?

Back 416

Designated Waterfront Facility

Front 417

When do permits for handling of designated dangerous cargo terminate?

Back 417

at the conclusion of the transaction for which the permit has been issued or whenever the COTP deems necessary

Front 418

Ammonia Nitrate (and the like) shall be separated by a fire resistant wall or by a distance of at least _____ from organic materials or other flammable materials?

Back 418

30 feet

Front 419

How many days does an owner of a LNG/LHG facility have to send the COTP a letter of intent?

Back 419

60 days before transferring LHG/LNG

Front 420

In what regulation is the listing of LNG/LHG?

Back 420

33 CFR 127, Table 127.005

Front 421

What does 33 CFR 154 cover?

Back 421

Facilities transferring oil or hazardous material in bulk

Front 422

Category D cargoes are the least toxic chemicals. They have no stripping requirements because they simply require a ___ dilution prior to discharge.

Back 422

10:1

Front 423

For a COA for MARPOL V, a facility must be able to receive APHIS regulated garbage within ___ hours.

Back 423

24

Front 424

How often must a hold containing explosives be checked after being loaded?

Back 424

24 hours

Front 425

What are the regulations that apply to all onshore and offshore facilities engaged in transfer of oil in bulk?

Back 425

33 CFR 154

Front 426

What are the 3 common heights of containers?

Back 426

8, 8 1/2, 9

Front 427

Who has the authority to terminate cleanup operations?

Back 427

OSC

Front 428

Documentation is needed for federal cleanups to _____.

Back 428

determine cost recovery from the polluter

Front 429

Performance of oil booms is greatly affected by _______.

Back 429

current speed, tides and wave action

Front 430

Which response information system is run by the NRC?

Back 430

HACS

Front 431

Subchapter C of the NCP is

Back 431

planning and preparedness

Front 432

Which Commandant Instruction contains guidance regarding CERCLA response authority and associated Coast Guard policies?

Back 432

COMDTINST M16465.29

Front 433

True or False: In the NOV program, a previous PPR violation is defined as one where a final assessment has been made by a Coast Guard hearing officer regardless if the NOV has been paid.

Back 433

True

Front 434

When issuing an NOV, if the RP has had 2 or more previous offenses within the past year, the penalty is multiplied by

Back 434

2

Front 435

What is a written promise given by or on behalf of a RP to ensure that sufficient assets are available to meet the maximum fine which may be assessed for the violation charged?

Back 435

Letter of Undertaking

Front 436

Is a POLREP required on a federalized drum recovery case?

Back 436

Yes

Front 437

What pollution response law provided requirements for emergency planning and a "community right to know" as it relate to hazardous substances?

Back 437

CERCLA

Front 438

Which type of chemical agent is prohibited for use?

Back 438

sinking agent

Front 439

Which pollution response law included provisions authorizing the OSC to issue administrative orders?

Back 439

OPA

Front 440

The environmental response team is comprised of personnel from which agency?

Back 440

EPA

Front 441

A hazardous substance release occurred at a facility in the coastal zone and the Coast Guard responds. The cleanup will require remedial action. Who will be the OSC for the duration of the cleanup?

Back 441

The EPA

Front 442

Which pollution response law has been interpreted to prohibit the discharge of virtually any material into the navigable waters of the United States?

Back 442

Refuse Act

Front 443

What type of skimmer uses a water pump and on oil-water separator?

Back 443

Centrifugal

Front 444

What condition must exist for a chemical agent to be approved for use?

Back 444

The agent must be listed on the NCP product schedule

Front 445

Which type of boom deployment is used to divert oil into a collection area?

Back 445

Deflection

Front 446

Privacy act statements advise the person being interviewed of your authority to collect the data and _________.

Back 446

What the data will be used for

Front 447

Subchapter D of the NCP is

Back 447

operational response phases for oil removal

Front 448

A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a substantial threat to public health and the environment would be considered a ________.

Back 448

major release

Front 449

What is a role of the ERT?

Back 449

To provide the OSC with sanitary and environmental advice

Front 450

What type of skimmer is particularly useful in shallow water?

Back 450

Suction

Front 451

Subchapter I in the NCP is

Back 451

administrative record for selection of response action

Front 452

Which pollution response law created the $1 billion super fund for hazardous substance cleanup operations?

Back 452

CERCLA

Front 453

What is a method of reducing entrainment?

Back 453

Place boom in area of slowest current

Front 454

All shipboard oil transfers are recorded in the ______.

Back 454

oil record book

Front 455

What is the main emphasis on tank barge monitors?

Back 455

Adherence to CG approved oil transfer procedures

Front 456

What pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to designate the responsible party?

Back 456

OPA90

Front 457

In order for the CG to authorize cleaning of hard surfaces using steam, concurrence of the ___ must be obtained.

Back 457

EPA

Front 458

All hazardous materials in a packaging having a rated capacity of _____ gallons or less shall be marked.

Back 458

100

Front 459

Technical advice and equipment pertaining to the environmental effects of discharges or releases is provided by the ________.

Back 459

Environmental Response Team (ERT)

Front 460

Regional Response Teams are composed of designated ____.

Back 460

State and federal agencies

Front 461

Loading arms used in place of hoses must have a means for draining oil or _____.

Back 461

closed before being disconnected

Front 462

Flammable liquids are those which give off flammable vapors at or below a temperature of _____ deg F.

Back 462

80

Front 463

Combustible liquids are those which fire off flammable vapors at temperatures above ____ deg F.

Back 463

80

Front 464

What is the physical barrier that prevents materials from flowing under the boom?

Back 464

The skirt

Front 465

What are the 3 basic classes of sorbents?

Back 465

Natural organic materials, mineral-based materials, synthetic organic sorbents

Front 466

Where are the regulations for the oil spill liability trust fund procedures?

Back 466

33 CFR 153

Front 467

A cleanup operation projected to cost over ___ million dollars or lasting more than ______ must be referred to the EPA.

Back 467

2, 1yr

Front 468

What must be available for all personnel involved in a transfer?

Back 468

Operations Manual

Front 469

What is the maximum penalty that can be given to a RP for failure to clean up a pollution incident, as stated on the NOFI.

Back 469

3 X the actual cost

Front 470

Which pollution response law is the correct law to use when seeking civil penalties of oil and hazardous substance spills?

Back 470

FWPCA

Front 471

Who would you contact to ask for information about oil trajectory?

Back 471

SSC

Front 472

What act created the need for the NPFC?

Back 472

OPA90

Front 473

Which pollution response law authorized the establishment of Pollution Prevention Regulations?

Back 473

FWPCA

Front 474

The primary law for the enforcement of oil & hazardous substance discharge violations is

Back 474

FWPCA

Front 475

Which agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Refuse Act?

Back 475

USACE

Front 476

Where are reportable quantities listed?

Back 476

40 CFR

Front 477

In which regulation is hazardous waste named & listed?

Back 477

40 CFR

Front 478

POLREPS should be sent within _____ hours of receiving the initial report.

Back 478

6

Front 479

Which is the minimum level of protection recommended for initial entry?

Back 479

B

Front 480

A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a _________

Back 480

medium release

Front 481

Who provides scientific support for the OSC in the coastal zone?

Back 481

NOAA

Front 482

Subchapter A of the NCP is

Back 482

responsibility and organization of response

Front 483

An inland hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health but causes a moderate to substantial threat to the environment would be considered a _______.

Back 483

medium release

Front 484

Sawdust, hay, peat moss, and straw are in which class of sorbent?

Back 484

Natural organic

Front 485

How many shoreline cleanup techniques have been identified for general use

Back 485

23

Front 486

How many teams make up the National Strike Force?

Back 486

3

Front 487

Which regulation specifies the jurisdiction of the Coast Guard and of the EPA?

Back 487

40 CFR 300

Front 488

Which response information system has a mapping capability?

Back 488

SPEARS

Front 489

What are the three categories of oil samples to be taken?

Back 489

Un-polluted water, oil in water, oil from suspect sources

Front 490

What are the three classes of boom?

Back 490

Heavy duty, harbor/river, sorbent

Front 491

Which pollution response law created the national cleanup priorities list?

Back 491

OPA

Front 492

Subchapter B of the NCP is

Back 492

responsibility and organization of response

Front 493

Who is responsible for supervising cleanups initiated by the responsible party?

Back 493

The OSC

Front 494

Regulations for lights displayed on booms are found in ____.

Back 494

NAV RULES

Front 495

An oil sample chain of custody is maintained from the time ______.

Back 495

the sample is taken until it is disposed of

Front 496

The role of the scientific support coordinator is to _______.

Back 496

provide scientific advise and arrange for scientific support

Front 497

A coastal hazardous substance release that poses a minimal threat to public health and the environment would be considered a _______.

Back 497

minor release

Front 498

Coast Guard jurisdiction includes all hazardous substance releases in the coastal zone EXCEPT those releases ______.

Back 498

requiring remedial action

Front 499

Who manages the National Strike Force?

Back 499

The NSFCC

Front 500

Which federal agency is responsible for cleanup operations for hazardous substance releases on a DOD facility?

Back 500

DOD

Front 501

What is the most common source of oil pollution in the coastal zone?

Back 501

Damaged vessel

Front 502

How thick must oil be on a shoreline before it is considered a high degree of contamination?

Back 502

1 cm

Front 503

Which pollution response law is used for response to all hazardous substance releases?

Back 503

CERCLA

Front 504

Vermiculite, perlite, and volcanic ash are in which class of sorbent?

Back 504

Mineral-based

Front 505

Which pollution response law contains provisions authorizing the OSC to "designate" the responsible party?

Back 505

OPA

Front 506

Which method of gauging requires inserting a weighted measuring tape into a cargo tank?

Back 506

Open

Front 507

Which pollution response law contained the provision to establish the National Response Center (NRC)?

Back 507

CWA

Front 508

How soon after a request is made does a strike team have to have equipment dispatched?

Back 508

4 hrs

Front 509

Which type of boom is used for most inner harbor spills?

Back 509

River/harbor boom

Front 510

Why is documentation needed for federal cleanups?

Back 510

For proper administration of the fund

Front 511

Which Federal agency enforces FWPCA violations in the inland zone?

Back 511

EPA

Front 512

Which Federal agency enforces FWPCA violations in the coastal zone?

Back 512

USCG

Front 513

What type of agent makes it possible to sustain ignition of the oil on the water?

Back 513

burning agent

Front 514

Which form is used to transfer oil samples outside of the unit?

Back 514

DD-1149

Front 515

Subchapter F in the NCP is

Back 515

state involvement in hazardous substance response

Front 516

Which pollution response law is used when civil penalties are sought for prohibited discharges of hazardous substances?

Back 516

FWPCA

Front 517

Which disposal method uses high temperature oxidation?

Back 517

Incineration

Front 518

How many classes of sorbents are there?

Back 518

3

Front 519

Response phase IV consists of

Back 519

documentation and cost recovery

Front 520

Which Commandant Instruction contains policy for response to hazardous substance releases?

Back 520

COMDTINST M16465.30

Front 521

All Coast Guard personnel exposed to hazardous substances on a regular basis are required to be enrolled in the _____.

Back 521

Occupational Medical Monitoring Program

Front 522

What are BOA's?

Back 522

Pre negotiated contracts between MLC and cleanup contractors

Front 523

Subchapter K of then NCP is

Back 523

federal facilities

Front 524

What does the RCP do?

Back 524

lists equipment and resources available in the region, - defines policies on shoreline cleanup techniques, chemical agents, and bioremediation, -defines regional guidance and support for OSC's during response ops

Front 525

An OSC would be needed for ......

Back 525

minor spills which require cleanup and RP is unknown, minor spills where RP is not taken appropriate action, all medium and major pollution incidents.

Front 526

Oil Samples must have ______ when sent to MSL?

Back 526

1149, chain of custody, request for analysis

Front 527

Who is responsible for preparing and maintaining the area contingency plan for their geographic area?

Back 527

Area Committees

Front 528

Who is responsible for developing preparedness plans for the designated geographical area and for providing advice and support to the OSC when activated during a response?

Back 528

RRT Regional Response Teams

Front 529

What is a team of Federal agency representatives responsible for developing national policy, preparedness plan requirements, and national agency coordination for response to incidents?

Back 529

NRT, National Response Team

Front 530

What plan lists the resources available for removal operations (including firefighting equipment)

Back 530

ACP

Front 531

What plan lists equipment and resources available in the region?

Back 531

RCP

Front 532

What provides guidance for funding, damage claims, use of chemical agents, liabilities of the responsible party, and health and safety issues?

Back 532

NCP

Front 533

What provides basic steps to be followed for response operations?

Back 533

NCP

Front 534

What plan provides guidance on how other plans shall be written?

Back 534

NCP

Front 535

What plan defines response terms?

Back 535

NCP

Front 536

What plan is required to contain an annex on wildlife habitats for the area?

Back 536

ACP

Front 537

What plan calls for a coordinated response among all involved parties and interested agencies?

Back 537

ACP

Front 538

What agency does the Scientific Support Coordinator work for?

Back 538

NOAA

Front 539

What plan describes procedures for obtaining a rapid decision on dispersant use?

Back 539

ACP

Front 540

What defines the area including the boundaries, mutual agreements for response and assistance, and environmental sensitivity zones?

Back 540

ACP

Front 541

What defines the regional boundaries and mutual agreements for response and assistance among the applicable agencies for the region?

Back 541

RCP

Front 542

What agency does the Emergency Response Teams work for?

Back 542

EPA

Front 543

Keeping the news media informed of ongoing pollution activities is the responsibility of the ___.

Back 543

PIAT

Front 544

What form is the Contractor Personnel Form?

Back 544

CG 5136E-1

Front 545

What form is the Government Short Form?

Back 545

CG-5136E

Front 546

What form is the Government Purchases/Expendables/Travel Orders/Contractors?

Back 546

CG 5136D

Front 547

What form is the Government Equipment Form?

Back 547

CG 5136C

Front 548

What form is the Government Personnel Form?

Back 548

CG 5136B

Front 549

What form is the Daily Resource Report/Government Summary Sheet?

Back 549

CG 5136A

Front 550

What regulations apply to a vessel which is transferring oil and hazardous material with a capacity of 250 barrels of oil to or from a facility or another vessel?

Back 550

33 CFR 156

Front 551

What form is the Contractor/Subcontractor/Materials/Other Expenses Form?

Back 551

CG 5136E-3

Front 552

What regulations cover the Oil Pollution Prevention and Safety Regulations for Marine Oil Transfer Facilities?

Back 552

33 CFR 154

Front 553

What form is the Contractor Short Form?

Back 553

CG 5136E-4

Front 554

The 3 types of MARPOL 1 surveys are _____ _____ _____.

Back 554

initial, annual and intermediate

Front 555

Which CFR sections pertain to the use of chemical agents?

Back 555

40 CFR 300 and 49 CFR 172

Front 556

What current is far enough out where there are no barriers?

Back 556

Rotary

Front 557

What kind of tide is occurring when the moon is farthest away from the earth?

Back 557

Apogean tide

Front 558

When the tide is not moving, what is it called?

Back 558

slack

Front 559

The direction toward which a current flows is called a .....?

Back 559

set

Front 560

What COMDTINST covers CG personnel and equipment standard rates?

Back 560

COMDTINST 7310E

Front 561

What are the operational oil spill response phases listed in the NCP?

Back 561

notification, assessment & removal process, removal & disposal, documentation and cost recovery

Front 562

At what percent does oil move along with water?

Back 562

3%

Front 563

What company is available 24 hours a day to respond to emergency hazmat stuff?

Back 563

CHEMTREK

Front 564

Which CFR cite identifies the amount of oil which may be harmful?

Back 564

40 CFR 110

Front 565

Which CFR cite identifies the amount of hazardous waste which may be harmful?

Back 565

40 CFR 117

Front 566

Hazardous wastes are prepared for transport under ___(what regulation?).

Back 566

49 CFR 171

Front 567

Hazardous waste manifests are prepared under _____(what regulation?).

Back 567

40 CFR 262

Front 568

A conditionally exempt generator is one who creates ___ per month.

Back 568

90 kg of hazardous waste

Front 569

A small quantity generator is one who creates ____ per month.

Back 569

Less than 1000 kg of hazardous waste

Front 570

A large quantity generator is one who creates ____ per month.

Back 570

Greater than 1000 kg of hazardous waste or 1 kg of acute haz-waste

Front 571

What characteristics does solid waste exhibit?

Back 571

corrosively, reactivity, ignitability, toxicity

Front 572

What is considered to be solid waste?

Back 572

garbage, refuse, sludge, any other discarded material including solid, semisolid, liquid or contained gaseous material

Front 573

What are the objectives of the hazardous waste program?

Back 573

control or manage hazardous waste from generation to disposal; i.e. cradle to grave

Front 574

How many days does a transporter have to file a report with DOT if an accidental release occurs?

Back 574

30

Front 575

What are five functional areas of ICS?

Back 575

command, operations, planning, logistics, and finance

Front 576

What is a rare catastrophic spill which greatly exceeds the response capabilities of local and regional levels?

Back 576

spill of national significance

Front 577

The functional area of ICS responsible for collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of the information is the ____ section.

Back 577

Planning

Front 578

What must be conducted as soon as possible to determine the actions required to abate the damage?

Back 578

damage assessment

Front 579

Who is the Superfund fund administrator?

Back 579

EPA

Front 580

Once hired by the Coast Guard, the OSC must issue what to the contractor defining requirements placed on them?

Back 580

Authorization to proceed letter

Front 581

What plan defines regional guidance and support for during response operations?

Back 581

RCP

Front 582

The functional area responsible for the management for all tactical operations at an incident is the _____ section.

Back 582

Operations

Front 583

The functional area of ICS involving directing, ordering, and controlling resources is the ____ section.

Back 583

Command

Front 584

The functional area of ICS responsible for locating and providing facilities and services and material for an incident is the ____ section.

Back 584

Logistics

Front 585

The functional area of ICS in which the NPFC provides the chief of the section is the _____ section.

Back 585

Finance

Front 586

Subchapter J of the NCP is

Back 586

dispersants and other chemicals

Front 587

The CG-5136E-1 - CG-5136E-4 are used to document ____ costs.

Back 587

Contractor

Front 588

All steel containers used to transport military explosives must be lined with a minimum of ____ plywood?

Back 588

1/4"

Front 589

How many years must oil record books be kept?

Back 589

3yrs

Front 590

What characteristic does oil have that determines the flow?

Back 590

Viscosity

Front 591

What is the measurable temperature at which oil flows?

Back 591

Pour point

Front 592

Rubber, polyester foam, polystyrene, and polyurethane are in which class of sorbent?

Back 592

Synthetic

Front 593

What type of skimmer uses a rotating belt to force oil toward a collection well?

Back 593

Submersion

Front 594

Which reference contains policy for use of chemical agents for oil cleanup?

Back 594

33 CFR 153

Front 595

What type of skimmer is adjusted to float at the water-oil interface?

Back 595

Suction

Front 596

What type of skimmer uses gravity?

Back 596

Weir

Front 597

Subchapter H in the NCP is

Back 597

participation by other persons

Front 598

What type of skimmer creates a whirlpool which draws oil into a collection area?

Back 598

Centrifugal

Front 599

What COMDTINST covers the Correspondence Manual?

Back 599

COMDTINST 5216.4

Front 600

What COMDTINST is the Enlisted Qualifications Manual?

Back 600

COMDTINST M1414.8

Front 601

The ____ gauging method uses the size of the opening through which the tape is passed is smaller than a normal ullage opening.

Back 601

Restricted

Front 602

What is used to indicate the maximum amidships draft to which a vessel can be lawfully submerged?

Back 602

Load lines

Front 603

Minimum number of elements in a site safety plan?

Back 603

10

Front 604

What are the 10 minimum elements in a site safety plan?

Back 604

(A) safety and health risk or hazard
(B) Employee training assignments
(C) Personal protective equipment to be used
(D) Medical surveillance requirements
(E) Frequency and types of air monitoring, personnel monitoring, and environmental sampling techniques and instrumentation to be used, including methods of maintenance and calibration of monitoring and sampling equipment to be used.
(F) Site control measures
(G) Decontamination procedures
(H) An emergency response plan
(I) Confined space entry procedures.
(J) A spill containment program

Front 605

If positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is not used as part of the entry ensemble, and if respiratory protection is warranted by the potential hazards identified during the preliminary site evaluation, an escape self-contained breathing apparatus of at least ? minute's duration shall be carried by employees during initial site entry.

Back 605

5 min

Front 606

If the preliminary site evaluation does not produce sufficient information to identify the hazards or suspected hazards of the site, an ensemble providing protection equivalent to Level ? PPE shall be provided as minimum protection, and direct reading instruments shall be used as appropriate for identifying ? conditions.

Back 606

B, IDLH

Front 607

The site control program shall, as a minimum, include:

Back 607

A site map; site work zones; the use of a “buddy system”; site communications including alerting means for emergencies; the standard operating procedures or safe work practices; and, identification of the nearest medical assistance. Where these requirements are covered elsewhere they need not be repeated.

Front 608

Employees shall not be permitted to participate in or supervise field activities until they have been?

Back 608

trained to a level required by their job function and responsibility

Front 609

General site workers (such as equipment operators, general laborers and supervisory personnel) engaged in hazardous substance removal or other activities which expose or potentially expose workers to hazardous substances and health hazards shall receive a minimum of ? hours of instruction off the site, and a minimum of ? days actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.

Back 609

40HRS, 3 Days

Front 610

Workers on site only occasionally for a specific limited task (such as, but not limited to, ground water monitoring, land surveying, or geo-physical surveying) and who are unlikely to be exposed over permissible exposure limits and published exposure limits shall receive a minimum of ? hours of instruction off the site, and the minimum of ? day actual field experience under the direct supervision of a trained, experienced supervisor.

Back 610

24HRS, 1 Day

Front 611

On-site management and supervisors directly responsible for, or who supervise employees engaged in, hazardous waste operations shall receive ? hours initial training, and ?days of supervised field experience

Back 611

40HRS, 3 Days

Front 612

The employer shall develop an emergency response plan for emergencies which shall address, as a minimum, the following:

Back 612

(i) Pre-emergency planning.
(ii) Personnel roles, lines of authority, and communication.
(iii) Emergency recognition and prevention.
(iv) Safe distances and places of refuge.
(v) Site security and control.
(vi) Evacuation routes and procedures.
(vii) Decontamination procedures which are not covered by the site safety and health plan.
(viii) Emergency medical treatment and first aid.
(ix) Emergency alerting and response procedures.
(x) Critique of response and follow-up.
(xi) PPE and emergency equipment.

Front 613

Purpose of the National Oil and Hazardous Substances Pollution Contingency Plan

Back 613

to provide the organizational structure and procedures for preparing for and responding to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants

Front 614

What does the NCP provide?

Back 614

efficient, coordinated, and effective response to discharges of oil and releases of hazardous substances, pollutants, and contaminants in accordance with the authorities of CERCLA and the CWA. It provides for:
(1) The national response organization that may be activated in response actions. It specifies responsibilities among the federal, state, and local governments and describes resources that are available for response.
(2) The establishment of requirements for federal, regional, and area contingency plans. It also summarizes state and local emergency planning requirements under SARA Title III.
(3) Procedures for undertaking removal actions pursuant to section 311 of the CWA.
(4) Procedures for undertaking response actions pursuant to CERCLA.
(5) Procedures for involving state governments in the initiation, development, selection, and implementation of response actions, pursuant to CERCLA.
(6) Listing of federal trustees for natural resources for purposes of CERCLA and the CWA.
(7) Procedures for the participation of other persons in response actions.
(8) Procedures for compiling and making available an administrative record for response actions.
(9) National procedures for the use of dispersants and other chemicals in removals under the CWA and response actions under CERCLA.

Front 615

The two principal components of the RRT mechanism are?

Back 615

Standing Team and incident specific teams

Front 616

National response priorities?

Back 616

(A) Safety of human life
(b) Stabilizing the situation to preclude the event from worsening
(c) The response must use all necessary containment and removal tactics in a coordinated manner to ensure a timely, effective response that minimizes adverse impact to the environment.
(d) All parts of this national response strategy should be addressed concurrently, but safety and stabilization are the highest priorities. The OSC should not delay containment and removal decisions unnecessarily and should take actions to minimize adverse impact to the environment that begins as soon as a discharge occurs, as well as actions to minimize further adverse environmental impact from additional discharges.
(e) The priorities set forth in this section are broad in nature, and should not be interpreted to preclude the consideration of other priorities that may arise on a site-specific basis.

Front 617

What are the 7 steps in the ORM Process?

Back 617

ID mission taks
ID hazards
Assess Risk
ID options
Eval risk vs gain
Execute decision
Monitor situation

Front 618

Class Societies are reviewed every ____ Yrs?

Back 618

3

Front 619

U.S. Vessels over 10,000GT not operating on the Great Lakes must have how many radars?

Back 619

2

Front 620

MARPOL ANNEXES

Back 620

Annex I - Oil
Annex II - Noxious Liquid Substances carried in Bulk
Annex III - Harmful Substances carried in Packaged Form
Annex IV - Sewage
Annex V - Garbage
Annex VI - Air Pollution

Front 621

# stripes on CG ensign?

Back 621

16

Front 622

MINIMUM OF __ CLEARANCE AROUND FIRE APPLIANCES

Back 622

4 ft

Front 623

MINIMUM OF __ CLEARANCE BETWEEN CARGO AND WALLS

Back 623

2ft

Front 624

CROSS ISLES ON DWF ARE TO BE A MINIMUM OF __ WIDE AND STRAIGHT AT A MAXIMUM OF __FT INTERVALS

Back 624

5FT, 75FT INTERVALS

Front 625

INFLAMMABLE AND COMBUSTABLE MATERIALS CAN BE STACKED NO MORE THAN __FT HIGH

Back 625

12 ft

Front 626

MINIMUM OF __ INCHES OF CLEARANCE BETWEEN CARGO AND SPRINKLER HEADS

Back 626

12 in

Front 627

MINIMUM OF _FT ISLE LEADING FROM MAIN ISLE TO FIRE EQUIPMENT

Back 627

3 ft

Front 628

UNINSPECTED US SHIPS CAN HAVE IOPP ISSUED FOR MAXIMUM OF _ YEARS

Back 628

5 yrs

Front 629

IOPP SURVEYS ARE TO BE CONDUCTED ON INSPECTED SHIPS FOR THE IOPP AS CLOSE AS POSSIBLE AT __ AND __MONTHS

Back 629

12 & 36 months

Front 630

COI GOOD FOR MAX _ YEARS

Back 630

5 years

Front 631

33 CFR 164 APPLIES TO VESSELS __GROSS TONS OR MORE

Back 631

Over 1600 GT

Front 632

What is COMDTINST 3500.3 ?

Back 632

OPERATIONAL RISK MANAGEMENT

Front 633

What is ORM?

Back 633

A continuous, systematic process of identifying and controlling risks in all activities according to a set of pre-conceived parameters by applying appropriate management policies and procedures. This process includes detecting hazards, assessing risks, and implementing and monitoring risk controls to support effective, risk-based decision-making.

Front 634

EXECUTIVE ORDER 10421 MANDATES ?

Back 634

A PHYSICAL SECURITY PROGRAM

Front 635

GIVE OFF VAPORS WHEN BELOW 80F?

Back 635

FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS

Front 636

GIVE OFF VAPORS (FLASH POINT) ABOVE 80F?

Back 636

COMBUSTABLE LIQUIDS

Front 637

OIL RECORD BOOK TO BE MAINTAINED FOR ?

Back 637

3 yrs

Front 638

DECIBELS IS THE MAXIMUM CONTINUOUS LEVEL

Back 638

84

Front 639

DECIBELS IS THE MAXIMUM IMPACT LEVEL

Back 639

140

Front 640

ASTM D4489-85

Back 640

IS THE OIL SPILL TRANSMITAL GUIDE

Front 641

4 MAJOR PARTS OF A POLREP

Back 641

PARAGRAPH 1: SITUATION
PARAGRAPH 2: ACTION
PARAGRAPH 3: PLANS AND RECOMMENDATIONS
PARAGRAPH 4: CASE STATUS

Front 642

What article of the UCMJ covers rights of accused?

Back 642

134

Front 643

What article of the UCMJ covers the right of a Commanding Officer to invoke Non Judicial Punishment?

Back 643

15

Front 644

Facility Regulations for Small Discharge Containment

Back 644

33CFR154.530

Front 645

What is the Organizational Structure of ICS?

Back 645

Command
Sections
Branches
Divisions/Groups
Units
Resources