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77 Cards in this Set

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OA vs. RA: which is symmetrical and which is asymmetrical? Which is autoimmune and which is wear-and-tear related?
OA: wear and tear, asymmetrical
RA: autoimmune, symmetrical
What is the most common form of arthritis?
OA
OA vs. RA: which affects large weight bearing joints? Which affects smaller joints?
OA: large joints (knees, hips, spine)
RA: small joints (hands and feet)
T or F: OA risk increases with age.
true
OA vs. RA: which produces synovial proliferation?
RA
How would x-rays differ in OA and RA?
OA: narrowed joint space
RA: juxta-articular osteoporosis and bone erosions; joint effusion
RA or OA: which shows morning stiffness that improves throughout the day?
RA
What are some systemic symptoms of RA?
fever, malaise, fatigue, lymphadenopathy, rheumatoid nodules, Sjogren’s syndrome, amyloidosis
Synovitis, pannus formation, fibrous and bony ankylosis, joint deformities, and baker cysts are all symptoms of OA or RA?
RA
What is eburnation? Is this seen in OA or RA?
exposed bone becomes polished; OA
A systemic, chronic inflammatory disease characterized by progressive arthritis, production of rheumatoid factor, and extra-articular manifestations:
RA
OA or RA: subchondral bone sclerosis and cysts, loose bodies, bone spurs.
OA
OA or RA: affects females 20-50
RA
What are the possible genetic causes for RA?
HLA-DR4 and DR1
OA or RA: which is associated with "loose bodies" and osteophytes (bone spurs)?
OA
What is the term for arthritis due to infection? Which bacterium is most often associated with this kind of arthritis?
suppurative arthritis; gonococci, staph, strep
Where are rheumatoid nodules normally found?
extensor surfaces of forearms or elbows
Which form of arthritis usually displays large, tender, painful, swollen erythematous joints, and is monoarticular?
suppurative arthritis
In which arthritis will there be cloudy synovial fluid with high neutrophil count?
suppurative arthritis
What are the features of a ganglionic cyst?
1. up to 1.5cm
2. in joint capsule or tendon sheath
3. benign
4. no communication with joint space
5. likely recurrence
What is the most common MD?
Duchenne's
What is lacking in Duchenne's MD?
dystrophin
(hint: Duchenne's-Dystrophin-Disastrous)
What is the problem in Becker's MD?
dystrophin size is altered
Which MD has a slower progression and is more delayed: Becker's or Duchenne's?
Becker's
What gene is affected in X-linked MD? Which protein does this encode?
Xp21 gene; encodes a 427kd protein
Which MD has the following histopathology: variation in fiber size, increased number of internalized nuclei, degeneration of muscle fibers, regeneration of muscle fibers, and proliferation of endomysial connective tissue?
x-linked MD
Which MD is normal at birth, but begins to weaken by 5 y/o with death by early 20’s?
x-linked MD
Which ion channel myopathy shows the following: autosomal dominance, hypermetabolic state triggered by anesthesia, (halogens and succinylcholine), and mutation in sodium channels?
malignant hyperpyrexia (malignant hyperthermia)
What is Lambert-Eaton (LE) myasthenic syndrome? What is this commonly associated with?
paraneoplastic disorder of the NMJ; small cell carcinoma of the lung
MG or LE: which has increased contractions with repeated stimuli?
Lambert-Eaton (LE)
What disease presents with easy fatigability, ptosis, thymoma, and diplopia resulting from immune mediated injury?
MG
Antibodies are formed against what in MG?
Ach receptors
What is the treatment in MG?
plasmapheresis; removing thymomas
What is the most common form of inherited dwarfism?
achondroplasia
What is the inheritance pattern seen in achondroplasia?
autosomal dominant
Where is the mutation in achondroplasia? What does this do?
mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3)->inhibited cartilage synthesis at epiphyseal growth plate, decreased endochondral bone formation and premature ossification of the growth plates
Describe the bone structure in achondroplasia:
long bones are short and thick, cranium and vertebrae are normal
Briefly describe osteogenesis imperfecta (OI):
hereditary defect that causes abnormal synthesis of type I collagen, leading to brittle bones
What disease will display the following features: recurrent fractures, blue sclera, deafness, and hypermobility?
OI
Of the 4 types of osteogenesis imperfecta, which form is the most lethal?
type II (causes stillbirth)
Name the disease: localized disorder of bone remodeling resulting in excessive bone resorption followed by disorganized bone replacement, producing thick but weak bone that is susceptible to deformity and fracture.
Paget's disease
Describe the pattern seen in Paget's disease:
Triphasic Pattern: osteolytic, mixed osteolytic-osteoblastic, osteosclerotic
What population does Paget's disease mostly affect?
those of European descent over 40 y/o
What is the most common bone disease in the U.S.? Who does it target?
osteoporosis; postmenopausal women and elderly
Name the disease: decreased bone mass (ostopenia) resulting in thin fragile bones that are susceptible to fracture.
osteoporosis
What are the 2 forms of osteomyelitis?
pyogenic and tuberculous
What is the most common spread of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
hematogenous (seeding of bone after infection)
What bacteria are indicated in pyogenic osteomyelitis?
Staph aureus, E coli, Streptococci, Gonococci, Haemophilus influenzae, Salmonella, Pseudomonas
What are the clinical signs in pyogenic osteomyelitis?
fever and leukocytosis, localized pain, erythema, and swelling
What is the treatment for pyogenic osteomyeltis?
antibiotics and surgical drainage
Name the disease based on this characteristic: caseating granulomas with extensive destruction of the bones.
tuberculous osteomyelitis
What are the common sites for tuberculous osteomyelitis?
thoracic and lumbar vertebrae (“Pott disease”)
Tuberculous osteomyelitis is seen in what % of TB cases?
1%
What is the most common bone lesion?
metastatic cancer (prostate, breast, lung, thyroid, kidney)
Name the disease: malignant neoplasm of undifferentiated cells arising in marrow cavity.
Ewing's Sarcoma
Describe the genetics of Ewing's sarcoma:
classic translocation t(11;22) which produces EWS-FLI1 fusion protein
What populations are affected most by Ewing's sarcoma?
males more than females, teenagers
What is the most common soft tissue tumor of adulthood?
lipoma
What does a lipoma (fatty tumor) consist of?
mature fat cells and delicate reticulin network with a surrounding capsule
Where are lipomas normally found on the body? What populations?
trunk or upper extremities in the subcutaneous region; middle-aged and elderly men and women
What is the treatment for lipoma?
excision
What is one of the most common sarcomas of adulthood? What populations are seen?
liposarcoma; 40's-60's
Where are liposarcomas found?
deep soft tissues of proximal extremities and retroperitoneum
What are some microscopic findings in a liposarcoma?
well-differentiated, myxoid, round cell and pleomorphic variants; lipoblasts with small lipid vacuoles
What is the most common type of soft tissue sarcoma? Which of these is most common?
malignant fibrous histiocytoma (MFH); Storiform-pleomorphic
What are some microscopic findings in an MFH?
swirling (storiform) pattern, plump spindle cells
Where are MFH normally found? What population?
deep soft tissues of extremities; peak in 7th decade
Name the disease: presence of metaplastic bone in soft tissue (musculature); usually in athletic adults/young adults following trauma.
Myositis Ossificans
How can Myositis Ossificans be differentiated from a neoplasm?
in MO, bone matures peripherally, not centrally
How can MO be treated?
excision
Is this early or late MO: circumscribed, full → painless, hard, well-demarcated?
late
What skin lesion is a benign, round, brownish purple growth with an unknown etiology?
dermatofibroma
Which type of OI shows little progression after puberty?
type I
X-ray findings in osteopetrosis?
Erlenmeyer flask”-shaped deformity
Paget's disease would show elevation of what lab test?
alk phos
T or F: Paget's disease can have cardiac sequelae?
true
What is the most common organism in osteomyelitis?
s. aureus