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192 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what are representative agents of CCB's?
verapamil
diltiazem
dihydrophyridines
what are examples of dihydropyridines?
-amlodipine (norvasc)
-felodipine (Plendil)
-isradipine (DynaCirc)
-nicardipine (Cardene)
-nifedipine (procardia, adalat
-nimodipine (Nimotop)
-nisoldipine (Sular)
All CCB's undergo what metabolism?
all undergo hepatic metabolism except verapamil
where do CCB's bind to?
-voltage gated L-type calcium channels in heart and vascular sm muscle and block transmembrane Ca++ flux
CCB's interfere w/ what?
-phase O depolarization of SA and AV nodal cells
-phase 2 depolarization of ventricular muscle
-depolarization of vascular sm muscle cells
what agents mainly affect the heart of the CCB's?
verapamil
diltiazem
relaxation of vascular sm muscle results from what?
arteriolar vasodilatation and reduced SVR
what agents have greater affect on arteriolar vasodilatation?
dihydropyridines
what are CV actions of CCB's?
-depression of myocardial contractility
-decrease in HR
-decreased automaticity
-decreased rate of impulse conduction through the AV node
-relaxatio of vasc. sm muscle
-decrease in MvO2
-relief/prevention of coronary artery vasospasm
-decrease in BP
what agent has high affinity for cerebral blood vessels and can prevent/relieve cerbral vasospams assoc w/ SAH?
nimodipine
what are adverse effects of CCB's?
-flushing
-dizziness
-nausea
-constipation
-myocardial depression
-AV block
-CHF
-conduction abnormalities
-bradydysrhythmias
what CCB can cause torsades?
bepridil (prolongs repolarization and increases QT interval)
what are clinical uses of CCB's?
-mngmt of angina pectoris
-nifedipine-increased coronary blood flow and myocardial oxygen delivery
-tx of narrow complex tachycardia
-class IV antidysrhythmic
-essential HTN
-hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
-Raynaud's syndrome
what can CCB's do to muslce relaxants?
potentiate the effects of depolarizing and nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
what agent should be avoided in combination w/ a beta blocker?
verapamil (particularily in pts w/ conduction degects or poor ventricular function)
what is most frequent cause of artery obstruction?
atherosclerosis
when does angina result?
when myocardial oxygen demand exceeds oxygen supply
what occurs predictably at a particular level of exertion or during emotional stress?
stable angina
unstable angina usually occur when?
at rest
what is variant angina (Prinzimetal's angina)?
coronary artery vasospasm cause transient ischemia episodes
how do nitrates/nitrites work?
to prevent or relieve imbalance btwn myocardial O2 demand and O2 supply
what agents are nitrates/nitrites?
-NTG
-isosorbide dinitrate (isordil)
-isosorbide monotitrate (ismo)
-amyl nitrite (aspirols)
what is packaged as a cloth-covered glass ampules and crushing the ampule releases volatile drug to be inhaled?
Amyl nitrite
what is MOA of antianginals?
agents release NO--activation of guanylyl cyclase in vasc. sm muscle--increased cGMP--sm muscle relaxation
what are effects of antianginals on vascular sm muscle?
-veins and arteries dilate
-venodilation reduces preload
-dilation of coronary arteries and increase in coronary blood flow
venodilation and arterial dilation reduce what ?
ventricular wall tension, afterload, MVO2
what is effect of antianginal on variant angina?
nitrates relieves vasospasm of epicardial coronary arteries
what are adverse effects of antianginals?
-orthostatic hypotension
-reflex tachycardia
-throbbing HA
what are effects on heart of blockade of beta-1 adrenergic receptors?
-reduces HR, contractility, CO and BP
-slows AV conduction
-reduces myocardial Oxygen demand
what types of pts should you use with caution or not all w/ beta blockers?
-CHF, heart block
-PVD
-asthma
-diabetes
what CCB is best combined with beta blocker?
nifedipine
what cobination of meds is generally effective and well tolerated?
beta blockers plus nitrate
what may be useful in pts with significant ventricular dysfunction?
nifedipine and nitrate
why is CCB beneficial w/ nitrates?
verapamil and dilt. reduce reflex tachycardia produced by nitrates
what are pharmacological effects of diuretics?
-diuresis (increased urine flow rate)
-natriuresis (increased sodium excretion)
what are principal clinical uses of diuretics?
-mobilization of peripheral or pulm edema fluid
-tx of essential HTN
-tx of increased ICP
-prophylaxis/tx of ARF
what agents are true thiazides?
-chlorothiazide (Diuril)
-HCTZ
-hydroflumethiazide
what agents are thiazide like cmpds?
-chlorothalidone (Thalitone)
-metolazone (zaroxolyn)
-indapamide (lozol)
what are principle uses of thiazides?
-CHF
-essential HTN
-hypercalciuria
-nephrogenic DI
do thiazides affect CMOG?
No
what is MOA of thiazides?
-inhibition of Na and CL reabsorption in the distal tubule
-reduced H2O reabsorption in collecting tubules secondary to impaired distal tubule NaCl reabsorption
what are S/S of hypokalemia?
-cardiac dysrhtyhmias
-skeletal muscle weakness
-enhanced digital toxicity
what are adverse effects of thiazides?
increased K+ secretion in CCT-kaliuresis; hypokalemia can result
-hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
-hyperglycemia
-hyponatremia
-volume depletion
what are the loop diuretics?
-furosemide (lasix)
-ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)
-bumetanide (Bumex)
-torsemide (demadex)
what are principle uses of loop diuretics?
-mngt edema in pts w/ CHF or RF
-tx of acute pulm edema
-tx of acute hypercalcemia
-ARF
what is MOA of loop diuretics?
-inhibit Na+ and Cl absorption in the thick ascending loop of H
-washout CMOG
-reduced H2O reabsorption in collecting tubules
-FEna can reach 20-25%
what are adverse effects of loop diuretics?
-volume depletion
-kaliuresis
-hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
-deafness
-hypomagnesemia
what agents are osmotic diuretics?
-mannitol
-urea
what are clinical uses for osmotic diuretics?
-prophylaxis against ARF
-conversion of oliguric ARF to nonoliguric ARF
-reduction in ICP
what is MOA of osmotic diuretics?
-inhibition of waer and Na+ reabsorption in the PCT--accelerates flow out of PCT
-accelerated flow leads to reduced Na+ reabsorption in LofH
-washout of CMOG
-water lost in excess of Na+
what are adverse effects of osmotic diuresis?
-initial ECF expansion may complicate CHF and cause pulm edema
-volume depletion and hypernatremia
what are potassium sparing diuretics?
-amiloride (Midamor)
-spironalactone (Aldactone)
-triamterene (Dyrenium)
what agent is used in tx of primary Conn's syndrome or secondary hyperaldosteronism?
spironolactone
what may be used to tx polyuria due to lithium induced nephrogenic DI?
amiloride
what is principle use of potassium sparing diuretics?
combination therapy w. a loop or thiazide diuretic to diminish K+ loss
what is MOA of potassium sparing diuretics?
-act to inhibit Na+ reabsorption in the CCT
-FEna reaches only 1-2%
what agents block Na+ channels in luminal cell membranes?
-amiloride
-triamtrene
what does spironolactone and eplerenone do?
antagonize aldosterone action; reduce Na+ and K+ channels in luminal cell membranes
what are adverse effects of potassium sparing diuretics?
-reduction in K+ secretion can lead to hyperkalemia
-hypercholermic metabolic acidosis
what agent is representative of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
acetazolamide (Diamox)
what are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors used for?
-reduction in IOP
-adjunct therapy for epilepsy
-prophylaxis/tx of high-altitude sickness (decrease is CSF formation and pH)
-
what is MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?
inhibtion of carbonic anhydrase and reabsorption of HCO3 and Na+ in the PCT
-diuresis and natriuresis are very mild
-FEna-1%
what is most common cause of CHF?
CAD
systolic dysfunction represents what?
impaired contractility
what type of ventricular dysfunction is d/t acute heart failure d/t MI?
systolic dysfunction-reduced CO and EF <45%
what agents is systolic dysfunction usually responsive to initially?
inotropic agents
what is diastolic dysfunction?
inadequate ventricular relaxation during diastole and filling
what happens to CO and EF during diastolic dysfunction?
CO reduced but EF normal
what is diastolic dysfunction often due to?
ventricular hypertrophy and stiffening
what may occur when body oxygen demands overwhelm an already increased CO ?
high-output failure
what is therapy for high-output failure?
direct therapy at cause, poorly responds to inotropic agents
what are s/s of heart failure?
-decreased exercise tolerance
-tachycardia
-SOB
-peripheral and pulm edema
what are compensatory responses to heart failure?
-increased SNS activity
-activiation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
-myocardial hypertrophy and remodeling
what is the only glcoside used in the U.S?
Digoxin
what are clinical uses of digoxin?
-tx of CHF
-contorl of ventricular rate in pts w/ SVT
what is the Aglycone portion?
lactone ring attached to a steroid nucleus
what is glycone portion?
-seriesof sugar attached to the steroid nucleus; determine pharmacokinetic behavior
effects on myocardium from glycosides?
-inhibition of Na+, K+ ATPase in cardiac cell membranes
-cardiac glycosides inhibit Na+ extrusion from cell
-increase Na+ reduces Na+-Ca+ exchange allowing Ca+ to increase inside cell
-increase intracellular Ca+ causes positive inotropic effect
what are cardiovascular responses to glycosides?
-incresae in myocardial contactility (positive inotropic effect)
-delayed conduction of cardiac impulse through the AV node
-prolonged PR interval
-Shortened QT interval
what does a decrease in myocadial contracililty from glycosides cause?
-increased SV
-decreased LVEDP
-decreased heart size
-shift in vent. fxn curve upward and to left
what does the delayed conduction of cardiac impulse through AV node from glycosides cause?
-enhanced parasympathetic discharge
-reduction in HR adn MVO2
what is another important effect of cardiac glycosides?
-decreased peripheral vascular resistance (decrease afterload)
where is digoxin taken up?
extensively in tissues; at equilibrium cong of dig in heart muscle is 10-50x the plasma drug conc
what is T1/2 of dig?
40h
where is 2/3 of dig dose excreted?
unchanged in the kidneys; therefore reduce dose in pts w. renal insuff
main tissue reservoir of dig is what?
skeletal muscle
what is TI of dig?
1.2 (narrow margin of safety)
what are GI adverse effects of dig?
-anorexia
-N/V
what is another adverse effect of dig?
heart block due to impulse delay at AV node
ventricular dysrhythmias can occur w/ dig d/t what?
increased automaticity
what is most common cause of death from cardiac glycoside toxicity?
v-fib
what are some possible contributors to toxicity?
-hypokalemia
-hypercalcemia;hypomagnesemia
-increased SNS activity
-renal insuff
-decreased skeletal muscle mass
how does hypokalemia contribute to dig toxicity?
-enhances binding of dig to cardiac muscle and increased drug effect
-concurrent use of diuretics that cause K+ loss
-hyperventilation (during anesthesia)
what are agents that have + inotropic effect but are not glycosides?
-glucagon
-Bipyridines
how does glucagon have + inotropic effect?
-increases cAMP
-increased SV and HR
-enhanced automaticity in SA and AV nodes but not in ventricles
what are uses of glucagon?
-reersal of depressed HR and myocardial contracitility d/t OD of beta adrenergic antagonists
by which routes is glucagon administered?
IV or IM (ineffective orally b/c is hyrolyzed in GI tract)
what is another use of glucagon?
releive opioid induced contraction of sphincter of Oddi
what are adverse effects of glucagon?
-hyperglycemia
-hypoglycemia (d/t glucagon mediated insulin release)
-hypokalemia
-N/V
what are the Bipyridines that can be used acutely?
-Inamrinone (Inocor)
-Milrinone (Primacor)
what are pharmacodynamics of bipyridines?
-positive inotropic effect--increased CO
-decreased LVEDP
what is the mechanism of inotropic action?
inhibition of phosphodiesterase--elevation of intracellular cAMP--calcium mobilization
perihperal vasodilation does what?
reduces SVR and afterload
what is T1/2 of dypryidines?
3-6h
what are SE of inamrinone?
N/V; thrombocytopenia
what are SE of milrinone?
dysrhythmias; long term use has increased moratality in pts w/ CHF
what are other inotropic agents can be used as + inotropic agents?
-beta adrenergic agonists ex isoproterenol, dobutamine, epi
-dopamine
LA are classified as what?
either esters or amides
what are the esters of LA?
-procaine
-chloroprocaine
-tetracaine
-cocaine
what aer the amides of LA?
-lidocaine
-mepivacaine
-prilocaine
-etidocaine
-bupivacaine
-l-buprivacaine
-ropivacaine
modifications of LA structure can have significant effects on what?
-lipid solubility
-potency
-duration of action
-toxicity
tetracaine has butyl substitution on amino grp so compared to procaine tetracaine is what?
-more lipid soluble
-more potent
- longer DOA
what agent has less toxicity than bupivacaine?
ropivacaine
what is MOA of LA?
-prevent conduction of nerve impulses by blocking fast sodium channels in nerve cell membranes
bupivacaine is how many times more potent than what?
8x more potent than mepivacaine
substituting a butyl grp for the N-methyl grp on mepivacaine results in the cmpd what?
bupivacaine; more lipid soluble, more potent, longer DOA
where do LA bind?
to specific receptor sites near the internal gate of sodium channel, stabilizing the channel in the inactivated-closed state, and preventing return to the rested closed state
inactivated sodium channels are impermeable to Na+ so what happens to AP?
AP propagation is blocked
T or F LA do NOT affect either the resting membrane potential or the threshold potential for AP formation?
True
peripheral nerves are what kind of nerves and contain what?
compound nerves; contain numerous axon bundles, or fasicles
what is the endoneurium?
the connective tissue coast around each axon fascicle
each fascicle is surrounded by a layer of cells known as what/
perineurium
the entire peripheral nerve is surrounded by a collagen sheath known as what?
epineurium
Cm (minimum conc) is influenced by what?
-chemical properties of the drug
-physical properties of the nerve
-local pH
-electrolyte disturbances
what is more susceptible to blockade a nerve w/ high freq firing or or low freq firing?
nerve w/ high freq firing more susceptible to blockade
what affect does pH have on block?
acidosis can antagonize the block
what electrolyte disturbances can antagonize the block?
hypokalemia
hypercalcemia
what is sensitivity to LA of fiber type?
Type B>type C=TypeAdelta>type Abeta>type Aalpha
why are preganglionic autonomic nerve fibers most readily blocked?
combination of myelin and relatively small diameter
axons in the mantle or core are anesthetized first?
axons in nerve mantle are anesthetized before axons in core
LA are weak ________and are readily protonated at what?
bases, physiologic pH
what is the form that diffuses into the nerve cell membrane the ionized or nonionized form?
nonionized form diffuses into the nerve cell membrane
what is the active form of the drug the ionized or nonionized form?
ionized form; form that actually blocks sodium channels
the percent of drug in the nonionized form depends on what?
the pKa of the drug and the local pH
the pka of local anesthetics is somewhat higher than physiologic pH thus?
less than 50% of the drug exists in the nonionized form at physiologic pH
increasing the drug dose will do what to onset of action?
increase onset of action
what terminates LA action?
absorption
what aer the four factors that infuence the absoprtion of LA?
1-blood flow to inj. site
2-physiochemical characteristics of the drugs
3-dose of drug
4-presence or absence of vasoconstrictor
what is flow of absorption from highest to lowest?
trachea>intercostal>caudal>paracervical>epidural>brachial plexus>sciatic>subq
agents like etidocaine have longest DOA b/c have whta phsiochemical characteristics?
-high lipid solubility
-highly bound to tissue protein
what do vasoconstrictors do?
reduce local blood flow, slow the rate of systemic absorption
what is dose of epi that can be added as vasoconstrictor?
1:200,000; 5micrograms/ml
in sp anesthesia epi also does what?
activate alpha2 adrenorecetors in substantia gelatinosa of sp cord--inhibits substance P release
following absorption amide LA distribute where first
to highly perfused tissues like brain, heart, lung; then to more slowly perfused tissues such as muscle and gut
ester LA are rapidly metabolized where?
in the blood and thus do not undergo significant tissue distribution
clearance of LA from circulation is primarily via what?
metabolism
what hydrolyzes the amide bond?
microsomal enzymes
of the amide LA what is order of metabolism from fastest to slowest?
prilocaine>etidocaine>lidocaine>mepivacaine>bupivacaine
the amides undergo what metabolism?
hepatic
what may reduce amide LA clearance and increase risk of systemic toxicity?
liver disease (cirrhosis) or reduction in hepatic blood flow (ex anesthetsia)
prilocaine is metabolized to what?
ortho-toluidine; an oxidizing cmpd that can convert Hgb to methgb
when prilocaine dose exceed what can methgb be present and pt appears what?
exceeds 600mg (8mg/Kg) and pt appears cyanotic
what is clinical uses of prilocaine?
low doses can be used in Bier block and its a component of EMLA
metabolism of esters is via what?
plasma pseudocholinestersase to derivatives of para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
what can PABA cause?
allergic reactions
what are comparative rates of metabolism of esters (fastest to slowest)?
chloroprocaine>procaine>tetracaine
spinal block w/ tetracaine is terminated by what?
drug absorption into circulation; b/c CSF contains very littel pseudocholinesterase activity
what does systemic toxicity of LA result from?
exces plasma levels of the drug; most commonly caused by inadvertent intravascular inj of LA during epidural or peripheral nerve block
what is first sign of toxicity of LA?
numbness of tongue and mouth; "metallic" taste
what are CNS s/s of LA systemic toxicity?
-vertigo, tinnitus, visual blurring
-restlessness,skeletal muscle twitching, seizures
-slurred speech, coma, resp arrest, cardiac arrest
what are the toxic plasma levels of lidocaine, mepivacaine,prilocaine?
5-10ug/ml
what is toxic levels of bupivacaine, etidocaine?
1.5ug/ml
T or F CV system is more resistant to local toxicity than CNS.
TrUe
what is cv effect from toxic levels of LA?
-hypotension (d/t depression of myocardial contracility)
-can block myocardial fast sodium channels
what LA has highest likely hood of cardiotoxicity?
Bupivacaine
cardiac dysrhythmias are less likely with what agents?
-l-bupivacaine or ropivacaine
what is used for tx of severe systemic LA toxicity?
Lipid rescue- iV administration of lipid emulsion
what do LA do to nondepolarizing muscle relaxants?
potentiate the effects of NDMR
what agents reduce liver blood flow and amide LA clearance?
-cimetidine
-propranolol
what agents can be used as topical anesthetics?
Lidocaine
tetracaine
what agent can be used as topical and is unique b/c it causes vasoconstriction?
cocaine
what agents do not readily cross epithelium and are not used for topical anesthesia?
procaine and chloroprocaine
what agents can be used for local infiltration?
lidocaine
mepivacaine
bupivacaine
ropivacaine
for spinal block LA is injected into what space and acts on what?
subarachnoid space, acts on spinal nerve roots
what agents are used for spinal block?
-tetracaine
-lidocaine
-bupivacaine
-ropivacaine
-chloroprocaine
the sp gravity of a LA is important in determining the _________of the drug in subarachnoid space.
distribution
adding______increases solution density relative to CSF?
glucose
adding _______ _________ decreases solution density (hypobaric solution)
distilled water
what are complications from spinal block?
-venodilation--decreased venous return--fall in CO and BP (hypotension)
-spinal HA
injection of LA for epidural block is where?
epidural space
agents used for epidural block include?
-chloroprocaine
-lidocaine
-mepivacaine
-bupivacaine
-ropivacaine
test dose of what is administered initially w/ epidural block and why?
3ml of LA containing 1:200,000 epi; to detect intrathecal or intravascular injection
what would you see w/ intravascular injection ?
20% or > increase in HR
what is peripheral nerve block?
inj of LA in proximity to individual peripheral nerves or nerve plexuses
agents used for peripheral nerve block are?
-chloroprocaine
lidocaine
mepivacaine
bupivacaine
ropivacaine
what is a Bier Block?
method of anesthetizing a limb by intravenous inj of a LA while blood flow to the extremety is occluded by a tourniquet
what is DOA of LA for bier block determined by?
time tourniquest is applied
why is chloroprocaine not recommended for bier block?
high incidence of thrombophlebitis
why is bupivacaine not recommended for bier block?
potential cardiotoxic effects when circulation is restored
what agent is freq. used for bier blocks?
lidocaine-
low incidence of thrombophlebitis
what LA can be used for tx of cardiac dysrhythmias?
lidocaine
what LA can be used for suppression of tonic-clonic seizures?
Lidocaine
mepivacaine