Mqf (The Hard Ones)

Front 1

To determine aircraft maximum payload weight,

Back 1

subtract operating weight from max zero fuel weight

Front 2

AP has two modes of operation:

Back 2

normal

AP degraded

Front 3

Will AP degraded mode engage below Vmma with invalid aircraft weights (both MC computers inop, etc?)

Back 3

Yes

Front 4

The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited by the ___ switch in the cargo compartment

Back 4

INTL HORN INHIBIT

Front 5

Obiggs II: with total loss of electrical power during air operation, _____ may result

Back 5

Fuselage Fire

(not obiggs manifold failure)

Front 6

which pack supplies air conditioning to flight compartment, crew rest, and avionics

Back 6

left pack

Front 7

If cabin pressure differenital exceeds ^8.2 psi, ______ automatically open

Back 7

CABIN pressure relief valves

(not negative)

Front 8

When RAT is sole means of supplying hydro, do not slow below ______.

Back 8

130 KCAS

Front 9

what is the HSC priority for hydraulic pump #3

Back 9

primary secondary xfer aux

Front 10

What has priority, rudder steering or tiller

Back 10

tiller

Front 11

With a large disparity between IRU ground speed and anti-skid controller sensed ground speed, accomplish landing using ______

Back 11

erroneous ground speed procedure

Front 12

pitch reference trim is available ______

Back 12

in MECH or EFCS

Front 13

In frontside flight, the default mode for AFCS pitch axis is _______

Back 13

vertical speed / altitude hold

Front 14

a target within 6nm and potenitally hazardous is considered a _______

Back 14

traffic advisory

Front 15

IRCM Laser can damage eyes ____ft for one or ____ft for 2+

Back 15

187 / 200

Front 16

stick shaker and "stall" warning alert pilots approaching what speed range (Vs)

Back 16

1.05 - 1.15 Vs

Front 17

Aircraft is capable of backing up a ___% slope at a weight of ____ lbs

Back 17

2%

586,000

Front 18

SC zero -- use when IRUs are one will erase ____ keys and ____will take a long time to reallign

Back 18

M gps

Front 19

standard departure profile uses MC COF: ____

Back 19

ACT

Front 20

If N1 RPM inidcates zero or all displays are blank ___________

Back 20

could indicate catastrophic engine failure

Front 21

4 engine flameout is most likely to occur when flying through ______

Back 21

all of the above

rain / hail / icing / volcanic ash

Front 22

if experiencing severe engine vibrations during flight do what?

Back 22

immediately shut down engine using emergency engine shutdown checklist

Front 23

for pitch authority CAWS alert while airborne, do what?

Back 23

slow down and immediately split stab handles

Front 24

if master caution and EFCS MCD occur on takeoff roll, do what?

Back 24

reject before Vgo

continually press efcs reset if above Vgo

Front 25

in fixed gains, large rudder inputs above ___ knots can overstress the vertical stab

Back 25

200KCAS

Front 26

Primary flight controls are powered by ____ hydraulics systems

Back 26

2

Front 27

Block 19:

use the lower of the following 2 altitudes to determine the planned 3 engine acceleration altitude

Back 27

MC ACC altitude, Min IFR altitude

Front 28

What is the configuration for an emergency descent?

Back 28

Throttles Idle or idle rev

Speed brakes deployed

airspeed as required

Front 29

During a RTO, (regarding thrust use)

Back 29

assymetrical thrust should be used with caution

Front 30

Engine must be completely stopped before starter is re-engaged. exception to this is?

Back 30

engine clearing procedure:

starter may be reengaged below 20%

Front 31

Maximum time limit for MAX / DRT is?

Back 31

5 minutes

Front 32

maximum landing touchdown for a steep approach 502,100 is ____

Back 32

660f/m

Front 33

flight through extremely heavy rain may _____

Back 33

cause flameouts

Front 34

during windsheer recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed ___ degrees of pitch below ___ ft AGL

Back 34

15

200

Front 35

failure to use engine anti-ice when icing conditions are presernt may result in _____

Back 35

engine damage due to ice ingestion

Front 36

taxi speed suggested on icy surfaces while turning?

Back 36

5 knots

Front 37

C-17 is considered a _____ type aircraft for deicing

Back 37

aluminum

Front 38

MC Told:

If Vbo LDG DIST exceeds _____ and ldg dist is valid...

Back 38

rwy available

Front 39

During degraded mode ____ use last valid altitude and heading data

Back 39

IFF and TCAS

Front 40

if both MCs fail, ____ control of cabin pressure is lost

Back 40

automatic

Front 41

visual sign for brakeaway?

Back 41

flashes PDI lights and beacon on

Front 42

if reciever overruns tanker, reduce speed to ___ kias

Back 42

255KCAS or Vmma

Front 43

when receiver pilot is closing in, they must attain _____

Back 43

precontact position, zero rate of closure

Front 44

tanker and receiver will begin monitoring radio frequencies no later than ___ minutes prior

Back 44

30

Front 45

during brakeaway, receiver pilot shall use caution not to over run the tanker. if it does happen, under no condition should ______ be made until positive seperation has been attained

Back 45

a turn, left or right

Front 46

brute force disconect should only be used _____

Back 46

as a last resort

Front 47

who must initiate disconnect during emergency boom latching procedures? (since the ___are deactivated)

Back 47

receiver pilot

Limit switches

Front 48

During RV Delta procedure ....

Back 48

D

answer a&C

Front 49

What will make an individual declared NMR?

Back 49

failure to maintain flying currency

failure to complete semi-annual currency

failure to complete ground continuation

All of these above

Front 50

how many reciever AR events may be accomplished per sortie?

Back 50

1

Front 51

crew members will aid in clearing for _____ and below _____

Back 51

taxi operations

below 10,000ft

Front 52

what is min vis required to depart an operational mission without RVR readouts

Back 52

1/2 mile or

800 meters

Front 53

file 2 alternates when _____

Back 53

vis is less than precision

Front 54

what descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 and configured with slats and speed brakes?

Back 54

525ft/nm

Front 55

standard terminology for assault landing is ____ of the zone

Back 55

front, middle, back

(don't say "third")

Front 56

1 on X AAR

Back 56

1000, 500

Front 57

AAR pre-departure min onload required:

____ or ____ reaches 0

Back 57

stored or Un-id extra

Front 58

RoT for c-17 max formatting?

KC-10?

KC-135?

Back 58

FL210

FL230