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172 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The mouse is assigned to genus____________, subfamily____________, family___________, order________________.
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MUS, Murinae, Muridae, Rodentia
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Genus species of house mouse of North America and Europe?
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Mus musculus
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Mice have__________chromosomes.
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40
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_______________loci control expression of cell surface molecules that modulate immune phenomena.
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Histocompatibility
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Skin graft rejection are controlled by 2 groups of 6 H loci. The major group is called __ and is located on chromosome #___. These genes cause rejection (10-20 days) of grafts that display foreign ___antigens.
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H-2, #17, H-2
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Where are minor H. loci groups located?
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Scattered throughout genome
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How are inbred strains produced?
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BXS mating for at least 20 generations
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In random breeding of 25 pairs heterozygosity will decrease at _______% per generation.
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1%
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How do you develop a recombinant inbred strain?
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BXS for 20 generations or more from F2 of a cross between 2 inbred strains
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Strains of mice are designated by a series of letters and /or numbers. What does C57BL/6J mean?
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C57BL/6J originated from female 57 at Cold Spring Harbor Labs (C) and was the black (BL) line from this female. 6 indicates that it's subline #6 from Jackson (J) labs.
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Mice consume about _______-______grms of feed/day and maintain this through life.
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3-5 gms/day
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Mice have a relatively large/small surface area per gram of body weight.
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large
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How does the mouse adapt to cold?
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generates heat = to about 3X the BMR
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Can mice tolerate nocturnal cooling well? Why or Why not?
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No, because mice must generate such a high energy level to maintain body temperature and they do not have a large heat sink.
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Is mouse more or less sensitive than most mammals to H20 loss? Explain.
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More - mouse has higher ratio of evaporative surface to body mass. Also biological half-time for H2O turnover (1.1 days) is more rapid than for larger mammals.
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Mouse does/does not have sweat glands. Can it pant?
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does not, no
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How do mice compensate for increased ambient temperatures?
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They increase body temperature, decrease basal metabolism rate, increase vascularization of ears - retreat into burrow
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Describe number of lung lobes of mouse?
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Left lung is single, right lung has 4 lobes
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Mouse urine is high/low concentration. Mice excrete large/small units of protein in the urine.
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high, large amounts of protein
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What amino acid is always in the urine of mice?
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taurine
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The ____________ salivary gland, a mixed gland in most animals, secretes only one type of saliva (seromucoid) in mice.
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submaxillary
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The eso & proximal part of stomach have what type epi?
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cornified squamous epi - Keratin
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The GI flora consists of over __________ species of bacteria that begin to colonize the GI shortly after birth.
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100
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Translocation of bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract in immunodeficient mice.
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Lab Anim 30/1 pg46
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Lymph node cortex divided into _______lymphocytes domains called ________follicles and_______lymphocytes domains known as the diffuse cortex.
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B, primary, T
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Mice do not have tonsils. True or False?
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TRUE
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As mice age they lose maternal immunity. Mice between 1-2 mo of age become susceptible to enzootic ____________ infection in breeding colonies.
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Sendai
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Females have how many clitoral glands? The clitoral gland is analogous to what male gland?
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2 clitoral glands (1 pr) - homologous to male preputial gland.
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How many mammary glands in females?
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5 - 3 are thoracic, 2 are inguinal
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FSH/LH promotes gametogenesis in males & females. LH/FSH promotes secretions of estrogen & progesterone in females & androgens in males.
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FSH; LH
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The mouse is polyestrous and cycles every 4-5 days. True or False
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TRUE
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What are the 4 phases of estrus cycle in female mice?
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Proestrus, estrus, metestrus, Diestrus
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Estrus is routinely observed in mice in about ______-_____ hrs after parturition.
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14-24
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Mice are induced/spontaneous ovulators.
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spontaneous
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Ovulation accompanies every estrus. True or False.
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FALSE
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Estrus is suppressed in mice housed in large groups due to pseudopreg or diestrus. Whitten/Bruce effect?
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Whitten
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Pheromones from strange males particularly of a different strain, may prevent implantation or pseudopreg in recently bred females. Bruce or Whitten effect?
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Bruce
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Mating is normally detected by formation of what?
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vaginal plug
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Where does fertilization take place? How long can ova be fertilized for?
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ampulla or upper part of oviduct; 10-12 hrs
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Gestation in mice?
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19-21 days
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Mice are social mammals in which __________ serve as a principal mechanism for communication.
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pheromones
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What are the 2 categories of pheromones?
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primer & releaser
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The pheromones in males responsible for the Bruce effect are primer or releaser?
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primer
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Male BALB/C mice will fight. How is it best to prevent or minimize this without individual caging?
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cage together only males from one litter or males paired prior to weaning
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The causative agent of Tyzzers disease is ________ _________, a long thin gram _____ spore/non-spore forming bacterium that infects only living cells. How is it propagated?
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Clostridium piliforme, gram neg, spore forming propagated by inoculation of susceptible vertebrates or yolk sac of embryonated hens eggs. Cell lines - 3T3 and BRL
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In Tyzzers acute death may be preceded by ____________. High or low morbidity & mortality in acute? Subclinical?
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diarrhea; high morbidity & mortality; there can be subclinical infections.
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How does Tyzzers get into colony?
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feces contaminated food and bedding
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Is there in utero transmission of Tyzzers?
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probably - can be done experimentally but prevalence in colonies has not been determined.
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In mice what are gross lesions?
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one or more grey foci in liver; ileum & colon red & dilated with watery fetid contents.
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Where are organisms found and what stain is used?
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Org in liver hepatocytes - org also in epi cells of intestine; Warthin-Starry Silver Stain.
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What diseases must Tyzzers be differentiated from?
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mouse pox, corona viral hepatitis, reoviral hepatitis and salmonellosis
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Detection of Clostridium piliforme by enzymatic assay of amplified cDNA segment in microtitration plates.
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LAS 46/5 pg493 - biotin labeled downstream primer (RJ-2c), upstream primer (RJ-1). Incubate the PCR product with alkaline phosphatase (ap) probe. Incubate in strepavidin wells. Add p-nitrophenol phosphenyl (PNP) reacts with ap to produce color change
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A novel presentation of Clostridium piliforme infection (Tyzzer'sdisease) in nude mice.
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LAS 46/1 pg21 - first report of a toxigenic isolate of C. piliforme recovered from mice also the first report of spontaneous Tyzzer's disease in nude mice.
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Transmissible Murine Colonic Hyperplasia (TMCH) in mice is caused by what organism?
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Citrobacter freundii
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This org is gram ____________, and usually motile, but the substrain which causes TMCH is _______________and designated strain #___________.
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Neg, nonmotile, 4280
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What age mice and what clinical signs are seen with TMCH?
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suckling & weanling - decreased growth, ruffled fur, soft feces or diarrhea, rectal prolapse. Moderate mortality.
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What is the pathognomonic gross finding? Where does the org come from?
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severe thickening of the descending colon, which is rigid and either empty or contains semiformed feces. Org may contaminate food, bedding or H20. QA should insure C. freundii 4280 is not there.
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa is gram ___________, motile/nonmotile, spore/non-spore forming.
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Neg, motile, non-spore forming
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What 'type' mice are prone to pseudomonas infection?
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immuno-compromised
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Generalized infections are associated with increase or decrease WBC?
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decreased WBC - leukopenia
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Clinical signs of pseudomonas?
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upper resp & GI ulcers, liver necrosis. Org usually enters via oropharynx; drinking H2O.
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Will acidification or hyperchlorination prevent and eliminate infections?
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neither will eliminate established infections
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What virus infection enhances susceptibility to pseudomonas?
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Cytomegalovirus (Herpes)
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An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for monitoring rodent colonies for Pasteurella pneumotropica antibodies.
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Lab Anim 29/3 pg307
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Randomly amplified polymorphic DNA polymerase chain reaction assay for molecular epidemiologic investigation of Pasteurella pneumotropica in laboratory rodent colonies.
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LAS 46/4 pg386 - RAPD-PCR (Randomly amplified polymorphic DNA polymerase chain reaction) Relies on arbitary olygodeoxynucleotide primers and not on restriction fragment length polymorphisms.
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Detection of Pasteurella pneumotropica in laboratory mice and rats by polymerase chain reaction.
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LAS 46/1 pg81 - sensitive down to 10 cells per sample. An enrichment step (24 hours in BHI broth) was used to improve results.
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Efficacy of various therapeutic regimens in eliminating Pasteurella pneumotropica from the mouse.
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LAS 46/3 pg280 - enroflaxacin either SQ or in the water at a dose of 25.5 or 85.0 mg/kg effectively eliminated P. pneumotropica from infected C57BL/6N mice. Tetracycline did not work and 85 mg Enro SQ causes skin ulcers.
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Salmonella most common from mice are what?
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S. enteritidis, Serovar typhimurium
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How does org infect mice? Which route?
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infection via ingestion - contaminate food & H2O; vermin, birds, feral animals, humans
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Resistance to Salmonella natural infection is increased by the presence of what in GI?
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normal flora
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Nutritional ___________deficiency attenuates Salmonella infection while _____ overload enhances it.
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iron, iron
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Weanling are more/less susceptible than older mice?
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more
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Frank salmonellosis is rare/common in mice.
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rare
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Gastroenteritis is common but feces may remain formed. True or False?
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TRUE
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What causes distended abdomen with Salmonellosis?
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hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
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The virulence of S. enteritidis depends on its ability to do what?
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penetrate GI walls, enter lymphatics, multiply and disseminate
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Can there be carriers? Is there arthritis?
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yes, yes, chronic arthritis has been reported
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In animals that are acutely affected - gross lesions are always present. True or False?
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False, may be no gross lesions
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Streptobacillus moniliformis is a gram ________________; exists in vivo and in vitro as non-pathogenic ___________phase variant but can revert in vivo to virulent form.
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Neg, L
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S. moniliformis can have acute and chronic phase. True or False?
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TRUE
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Clinical signs of acute? chronic?
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Acute - death, dull damp hair, conjunctivitis, diarrhea Chronic - skin ulcers, arthritis and gangrenous amputation
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Different diagnosis of Streptobacillus moniliformis?
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Mouse pox - gangrene, mycoplasma, conjunctivities Tyzzers - diarrhea, trauma Salmonella - diarrhea Corynebacteria - skin ulcers
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Pseudo TB is caused by ____________ _____________ a gram + rod.
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Corynebacteria kutscherii, gram positive
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What would precipitate this disease?
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Stress or immuno suppression
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Clinical signs of Pseudo TB?
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Anorexia, emaciation, nasal and ocular discharge, cutaneous ulcers, arthritis
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Gross lesions of pseudo TB?
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caseous abscesses in various organs, kidney, liver, lung, brain
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How is pseudo TB differentiated from mycoplasma and strep lung infections?
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pseudo TB associated with caseous necrosis. Myco and strep are not.
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Serological studies of Corynebacterium kutscheri and coryneform bacteria using an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).
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Lab Anim 29/3 pg294
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Outbreaks of hyperkeratotic dermatitis of athymic nude mice innorthern Italy.
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Lab Anim 31/3 pg206
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Hyperkeratosis in athymic nude mice caused by a coryneform bacterium: microbiology, transmission, clinical signs, and pathology.
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LAS 45/2 pg131 - Corynebacterium sp. related to bovis. restricted to the stratum cornuem
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Natural habitats of Corynebacterium kutscheri in subclinically infected ICGN and DBA/2 strains of mice.
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LAS 45/1 pg6 - most freq. found in the oral cavity, cecum, colon and rectum in both strains. ICGN mice also had it in the nasal cavity and trachea.
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What culture media is used for Corynebacterium kutscheri?
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LAS 45/1 pg6 - FNC agar - furazolidone, nalidixic acid, and colimycin in heart infusion agar.
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Staph is probably an opportunistic infection. Where are lesions generally?
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skin - face & neck; genital mucosa in males causing preputial gland abscesses
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Human phage type of staph can infect mice. True or False?
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TRUE
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Most strep infections in lab mice are caused by organisms in Lancefield Group ___________.
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C
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A common Strep syndrome with mice is ____________ lymphadenitis with fistulous drainage to the _____________.
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cervical, neck
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E. coli, Klebsiella pneumonia and Clostridium perfringens Type D are not common in mice. True or False?
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TRUE
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What is the causative organism of Murine leprosy?
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Mycobacterium lepraemurium - gram positive acid fast
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Clinical signs of murine leprosy?
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SQ swellings, algsecia, skin ulcers
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Gross lesions of murine leprosy?
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modules in SQ and in organs (lung, spleen, Ln, bone marrow, thymus) and RE tissues
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What is the primary histologic characteristic?
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perivascular granulomatosis with large foamy epithelioid macraphages (leprae cells) packed with acid fast bacilli.
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Leptospirosis in mice is generally ________________.
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asymptomatic
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Zoonotic outbreaks associated with mice are associated primarily with what lepto organism.
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Leptospira ballum - also infects rats
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What is preferred means of diagnosis? Why?
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Serological testing or isolate organisms because no clinical signs in mice
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In utero transmission? Carriers?
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No in utero transmission but plenty of asymptomatic carriers.
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_______________ is a syndrome characterized by suppurative rhinitis, otitis media and chronic pneumonia. What is the organisms?
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MRM murine respiratory mycoplasmosis, Mycoplasma pulmonis
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Asymptomatic infections may occur but generally what are clinical signs?
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chattering, dyspnea (from purulent exudate in nasal passages) weight loss, rough haircoat
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Survivors of MRM develop what?
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chronic bronchopneumonia, pulmonary abscesses and can spread disease
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In utero infection of MRM occurs in mice and rats. True or False?
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False, not in mice, occurs in rats
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Cam M. pulmonis infect other lab animals?
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Yes, besides rats & mice, also hamsters, gp & rabbits
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What species serves as reservoir of infection for mice?
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rats
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The primary lesion in early disease is what?
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Suppurative rhinitis
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The primary lung lesion is what?
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Chronic bronchopneumonia
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Prior infection w/Sendai enhances/reduces the growth of M. pulmonis & severity of lung lesions.
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enhances
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Besides upper resp. tract, what other area should be cultured for mycoplasma infection?
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genital tract
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How are mycoplasmas cultured; i.e. what broth?
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standard Hayflick's Broth or Mycoplasma agar at 37oC.
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Growth is detected in ____ days and cultures should be held ___ days until negative.
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7 days (1 wk), 21 days
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What serologic test is used?
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ELISA
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Can C-sect derived eliminate Mycoplasma infection?
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Yes, but fetal membranes and offspring must be tested to R/O transmission in utero
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In rats, M. pulmonis has been associated w/an increased incidence of what?
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carcinogen-induced cancers
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What is the etiologic agent for rolling disease in mice?
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M. neurolyticum
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Is rolling disease common or rare naturally?
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rare
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After injection of M.neurolyticum how long before clinical signs appear? What age are mice most susceptible? How soon before they die?
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rolling begins in one hour, all ages susceptible, death occurs in a few hours after rolling begins
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In vitro effects of Mycoplasma pulmonis on murine natural killer cell activity.
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LAS 45/4 pg352 - virulent M. pulmonis increased NK cell activity only in cells from susceptible C3H/HeN mice
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What is poly I:C?
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LAS 45/4 pg352 - an interferon stimulator
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Acute Mycoplasma pulmonis infection associated with coagulopathy in C3H/HeN mice.
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LAS 45/4 pg368 - intranasally inoculated with M. pulmonis strain UAB CT. FDP and Fibrinogen levels were elevated. In DIC fibrinogen should decrease due to consumptive coagulopathy.
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Prevention and treatment of cilia-associated respiratory bacillus in mice by use of antibiotics.
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LAS 45/5 pg503 - Sulfamerazine one week prior to exposure prevented infection. sulfa, amp or chlortet did not treat the infection.
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Use of antibiotics to prevent hepatitis and typhlitis in male scid mice spontaneously infected with Helicobacter hepaticus.
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LAS 45/4 pg373 - amoxicillin in the water effectively eliminates H. hepaticus infection if started prior to 4 weeks. Tet did not. Met and Bis also used by gavage.
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The role of Helicobacter species in newly recognized gastrointestinal tract diseases of animals.
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LAS 47/3 pg222 - Helicobacter hepaticus, H. muridarum, H. bilis, H. rappini, H. rodentium. A/JCr develop hepatic adenomas and adenocarcinomas in response to chronic infection with H. hepaticus.
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Inflammatory large bowel disease in immunodeficient mice naturally infected with Helicobacter hepaticus.
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LAS 46/1 pg15 - nudes and scids, rectal prolapse (5%), typhilitis, colitis, and proctitis, less than 5% had hepatitis, Typhilitis most severe in scids. organism consistently located in the int. crypts
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Evaluation of various oral antimicrobial formulations for eradication of Helicobacter hepaticus.
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LAS 46/2 pg193 - Amoxicillin/metronidazole and bismuth as a mixture (oral gavage or wafer) effectively treats H. hepaticus. Water treatment was ineffective.
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Helicobacter hepaticus is normally found in what anatomical location?
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cecum and colon
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Helicobacter hepaticus is linked to hepatic tumors in what strain of mouse?
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A/JCr
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An animal model of gastric ulcer due to bacterial gastritis in mice.
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Vet Path 32/5 pg489
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What 2 rickettsia occur w/mice?
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Eperythrozoon cocciodes & Haemobartonella muris
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How are these orgs transmitted?
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Eperythrozoon-mouse louse (polyplax serrata); Haemobartonella- rat louse (polyplax spinulosa)
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Rickettsia give one of 2 basic clinical signs. What are they?
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anemia or asymptomatic
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If latent, what will cause these orgs to manifest clinical signs?
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splenectomy & other immunosuppression, i.e. irradiation, steroids, etc.
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E. coccoides may convert asymptomatic ____ virus to a fatal disease.
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mouse hepatitis
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Inoculating test material into splenectomized mice is very sensitive. If positive how do you diag?
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Bleed mouse every six hours for 48 hours because rickettsemia is brief and stain with Romanovsky procedure or indirect immunofluorescence.
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Chlamydia (C. trachomatis) can cause a pneumonitis in mice. This org is known as the _______________ agent.
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NIGG
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Virus infection in rat and mouse colonies reared in Brazilian animal facilities.
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LAS 46/5 pg582 - MHV3, TMEV-GDVII, MVM most common in mice.
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Mousepox is caused by _____________ virus which is an ___________ that is related to vaccinia virus.
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ectromelia, orthopoxvirus
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How is mousepox virus grown?
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Chorioallantoic membrane of embryonated chicken eggs, HELA cells, BSC-l cell line, etc.
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Mousepox can take what 3 clinical courses?
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acute w/high mortality; chronic infection w/variable mortality; asymptomatic
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The rapidly fatal form of mousepox is associated with necrosis of lymphoid tissue and ____________ and w/hemorrhage in ______________.
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liver, GI
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Severe viral infection of feet and tail can lead to ____________.
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amputation
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Why are resistant mouse strains dangerous for this virus?
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They don't die and develop enzootic asymptomatic infections - carriers
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What age is most susceptible to mousepox?
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Very young and very old
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Ectromelia virus produces 2 types of ICB's (inclusion bodies). The __________ type (__________body) and the ____________type.
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A; marchal; B
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How do each type of ICB stain?
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A is eosinophilic; B is basophilic
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Outline the pathogenesis of ectromelia.
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day 0 =skin invasion;(day 1)=Ln;blood= (day 2);spleen and liver=(day 4); blood= (day 5);rash=(day 7-11)
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The liver develops white spots in mousepox. True or False?
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True, they're areas of necrosis
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What kind of ICB's: intracytoplasmic or intra-nuclear?
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intracytoplasmic
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Does vaccination work for mousepox?
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Yes, a hemagglutinin - deficient strain of vaccine virus (IHD- T) - scarified on dorsum of tail.
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Mousepox outbreak in a laboratory mouse colony.
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LAS 46/6 pg602 - ectromelia virus (strain M-1) in a commercial mouse serum, BALB/cByJ most severely effected. Conjunctivitis was the primary lesion. most common histo finding was splenic necrosis
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Specific detection of mousepox virus by polymerase chain reaction.
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Lab Anim 31/3 pg201
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What are the 2 mouse herpesviruses?
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mouse cytomegalovirus (MCMV) and mouse thymic virus (MTV)
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MCMV establishes persistent infection where in mouse?
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salivary gland and pancreas
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What is the most sensitive diagnostic technique?
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ELISA
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How are MCMV & MTV differentiated?
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serologically and MTV causes necrosis of thymus and LN's. MCMV does not
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MCMV can immunosuppress and allow other orgs (bact) to become pathogenic. True or False?
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True, such as Pseudomonas
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Murine cytomegalovirus-associated arteritis.
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Vet Path 32/2 pg127
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What does LDHV stand for and what type of virus is it?
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Lactate dehydrogenase elevating virus - a togavirus (arterivirus)
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What other animals does LDHV infect?
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none, specific for mice
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How is LDHV detected?
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Do LDH levels on mouse plasma before and 4 days after inoculating SPF w/suspected material.
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What is primary mode of transmission of LDHV?
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Mechanical transfer of tissue or serum from infected mice. Transmission between mice is rare.
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Does LDHV infect tumors? Can it multiply in them?
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Yes, Yes, more than 50 tumors so far
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How do you make tumors free of LDHV?
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pass them several times in other rodents like rat before repassing in mice.
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