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132 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the preferred technique uses to identify a problem with a fire department policy? A) Discuss the problem with other fire officers B) Tell the fire chief there is a problem C) Ask firefighters if there is a problem D) Review the policies |
Answer: A) Discuss the problem with other fire officers |
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A complaint about a co-worker (or co-workers) is an example of (blank) conflict. A) department B) company C) internal D) in-station |
Answer: C) internal |
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What is used to establish interim and long-term actions to reduce the impact of hazards that cannot be eliminated? A) mitigation plan B) hazard reduction plan C) risk assessment D) continuity plan |
Answer:
A) mitigation plan |
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Which type of occupancy fires have a higher-than-average number of firefighter line-of-duty deaths? A) factory B) residential C) mercantile D) educational |
Answer: C) mercantile |
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Locally elected officials act in two roles relative to the development of the local budget. One is advocate. What is the other role? A) champion B) customer C) grandfather D) gatekeeper |
Answer: D) gatekeeper |
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What is the next step after a budget request is authorized to replace a fire engine? A) purchase the engine B) Issue a request for proposal C) determine the engine to be replaced D) determine the engine specifications |
Answer: B) Issue a request for proposal |
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Uniforms, protective clothing, and fire apparatus maintenance are all examples of purchases that would be classified as what type of expense? A) periodic B) general C) capital D) operating |
Answer: D) operating |
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A verbal presentation must include which of the following? A) interest statement B) power point slides C) handouts D) nonverbal cues |
Answer: A) interest statement |
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Which of the following is NOT an area in which the fire officer needs to keep the chief officer involved? A) performance goals B) controversy C) morale D) shift roster |
Answer: D) shift roster |
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Sometimes people send out unintentional nonverbal messages that may be misunderstood by others. For example, how might a message of self-disapproval be interpreted by others? A) as a sign of dangerous depression B) as a cynical world view C) as a sign of scheming or deception D) as a disapproval of them |
Answer: D) as a disapproval of them |
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*** Using the order model of communication, assuming an order was issued from Command to Engine 5, what was the last part of the communication? A) acknowledgement from Engine 5 B) confirmation from Command C) order from Command D) repeat of order by Engine 5 *** |
*** Answer: B) confirmation from Command *** |
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Which NFPA standard pertains to an emergency services incident management system? A) NFPA 1451 B) NFPA 1500 C) NFPA 1561 D) NFPA 1600 |
Answer: C) NFPA 1561 |
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The NIMS has five components: preparedness, communications and information management, command and management, ongoing management and maintenance, and (blank). A) resource management B) functional response C) recovery D) reimbursement |
Answer: A) resource management |
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What is Layman's final step in the five-step process of size up? A) make a report to dispatch B) develop the plan of operation C) name the incident D) transfer command |
Answer: B) develop the plan of operation |
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What is the National Fire Academy fire flow formula based on? A) square footage B) cubic footage C) building contents D) building construction materials |
Answer: A) square footage |
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What is the term for a systematic process of gathering and processing information to evaluate the situation and them translating that information into a plan to deal with the situation? A) size-up B) incident action plan C) pre-fire plan D) pre-incident plan |
Answer: A) size-up |
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The ability to quickly size-up a fire situation requires a solid foundation of reference information and (blank). A) reach-back B) a standard operating procedure C) a checklist D) a systematic approach |
Answer: D) a systematic approach |
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The level of supervision should be balanced with the nature of the assignment that is being performed and (blank). A) the experience of the fire officer B) the duration of the incident so far C) the experience of the company members D) the anticipated further duration of the incident |
Answer: C) the experience of the company members |
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If a fire is thought to have been caused by a defective appliance, such a microwave over, will insurance companies ever conduct their own investigations? A) no B) no, unless the fire occurs of premises they own, not just insure C) yes, but only very rarely if a pattern of such fires has emerged D) yes, they often will |
Answer: D) yes, they often will |
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A competent ignition source has three components: generation, transmission, and (blank). A) relation B) heating C) contact D) transfer |
Answer: B) heating |
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How do fire officers exercise leadership of a team? A) implied consent B) discipline C) rank and authority D) coaching and mentoring |
Answer: C) rank and authority |
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In addition to "naturalistic decision making," what is the other decision-making model fire ground commanders use? A) learned B) incident control C) situational awareness D) recognition primed |
Answer: D) recognition primed |
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What skills promote synergy between the mechanical element and human players? A) inquiry and advocacy B) technology and fallibility C) activity and latency D) proactivity and teamwork |
Answer: A) inquiry and advocacy |
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Which of the following belongs with "complacency, distraction, and fatigue" as a reason humans make mistakes? A) norms B) freelancing C) freeloading D)restlessness |
Answer: A) norms |
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The 1994 NIOSH report, entitles "A request for Assistance in Preventing Injuries and Deaths of Firefighters" identified four necessary components for protecting fire fighters. What was one of those? A) mandatory annual physical exams B) the availability of latex gloves to all personnel C) mandatory driver training, including defensive driving D) an adequate respirator maintenance program |
Answer: D) an adequate respirator maintenance program |
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Which of the following levels of Fire Officer is most bestowed upon an individual who supervises a single fire suppression unit, or a small administrative group within the fire department? A. Fire Officer I B. Fire Officer II C. Fire Officer III D. Fire Officer IV page 4 |
Answer) A. Fire Officer I |
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What percentage of firefighters in the United States are volunteer? A. 51% B. 62% C. 72% D. 84% page 7 |
Answer) C. 72% |
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There are approximately HOW MANY fire departments in the United States? A. 25,000 B. 30,000 C. 35,000 D. 40,000 page 7 |
Answer) B. 30,000 |
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Which of the following represents the four functions of a fire officer as identified by Henry Fayol? 1) planning 2) teaching 3) organizing 4) leading 5) controlling A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 1, 2, 4, 5 C. 1, 3, 4, 5 D. 2, 3, 4, 5 page 13 |
Answer) C. Planning, Organizing, Leading, Controlling |
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(blank) are developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions. A. Rules and Regulations B. Policies C. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) D. Standard Operating Guidelines (SOG) page 15 |
Answer) B. Policies |
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Requiring that all members wear seat belts when riding on apparatus would be an example of: A. Rules and Regulations B. Policies C. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) D. Standard Operating Guidelines (SOG) page 15 |
Answer) A. Rules and Regulations |
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Staffing issues affect all fire departments whether they are career, combination or volunteer. However what time period is particularly challenging for volunteer organizations? A. Midnight to 6 a.m. B. Weekends C. Daytime hours D. Evenings page 13 |
Answer) C. Daytime hours |
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In most fire departments completion of the promotional process creates an eligibility list that last ______. A) 1 year B) 2 years C) 2 to 6 years D) 5 years page 25 |
The Answer: C: 2 to 6 years |
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Some fire departments require a set time to pass between a formal disciplinary action and consideration for an officer promotion. Which of the following best represents that time limit? A) 1 Month B) 6 Months C) 1 Full year D) All of the above Page 26 |
ANSWER) D: All of the above |
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Up to - Blank - of the promotional test will focus on the technical aspects of a supervising officer. A) 60% B) 70% C) 80% D) 90% Page 30 |
ANSWER) B: 70% |
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The first key point of an interaction assessment is______? A) Tell the employee the exact behavior you expect. B) Maintain control of the interview C) Clearly explain the consequences if the employee's behavior does not change or improve. D) Give the employee a deadline to demonstrate a consistent behavioral change. page 33 |
ANSWER) B: Maintain control of the interview. |
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In his book, "Effective Company Command", James O. Page divided company officer's duties into three roles, which include all but which of the following? A) Trainer B) Leader C) Commander D) Supervisor page 46 |
Answer B) Leader |
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Which piece of legislation provides additional compensatory and punitive damages in case of intentional discrimination under Title VII? A) The Civil Rights Act of 1964 B) The Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972 C) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 D) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 page 52 |
Answer C) The Civil Rights Act of 1991 |
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What is the second most important issue noted by administrative fire officers? A) The need to make prompt notifications B) The need to make decisions on their own C) The need to solve problems promptly D) The need to invoke strict discipline page 44 |
Answer A) The need to make prompt notifications 1- Shift Reports 2- Prompt Notifications 3- Decision Making Skills 4- Problem Solving Abilities |
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Human resource management is built from which of the following generalized schools of management thought? A) scientific management B) humanistic management C) holistic management D) A and B only page 63 |
Answer: D) A and B only |
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Scientific Management is based on which of the following? A) Breaking down work tasks into constituent elements, and timing each element based on repeated stopwatch studies B) The standardization of work tasks on detailed instruction cards C) The systematic consolidation of the shop floor's brain in a "planning department." D) All of the above page 63 |
Answer: D. All of the above |
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The basic concepts of Scientific Management include which of the following? A) Work is performed by skilled craftsmen who serve lengthy apprenticeships to learn their trade. B) Much of the autonomy is taken away. Skills are converted into simplified jobs that can be performed by unskilled workers. C) Work is performed under strict time constraints which allows for an increase in production, but also a decrease in quality D) All workers on the industrial stage are equally trained so they can be used interchangeably anywhere in the process of producing a product. page 63 |
Answer: B. Much of the autonomy is taken away. Skills are converted into simplified jobs that can be performed by unskilled workers. |
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Fire Officer Bob says that a Theory Y manager believes that people do like work and they need encouragement, not to be controlled. Fire Officer Bill says that a Theory X manager believes that people don't like work and need to be closely watched and controlled. Fire Officer Brad says that a Theory Y manager believes that people like to work only if they are closely watched and controlled. Who is correct? A) Fire Officer Bob B) Fire Officer Bill and Brad C) Fire Officer Bob and Bill D) Fire Officer Bob and Brad page 64 |
Answer C) Fire Officer Bob and Bill Theory Y Managers believe that people do like work and that they need to be encouraged, not controlled. Theory X= Control Theory Y= Encourage |
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The lowest level of Maslow's ladder includes which of the following? A) Safety, Security, and Order B) Physiological Needs C) Esteem and Status D) Social and Affection page 65 |
Answer: B) Physiological Needs These needs are physical and include air, water, food, and shelter 5- Self-Actualization 4- Esteem, Status 3- Social, Affection 2- Safety, Security, Order 1- Physiological Needs |
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Blake and Mouton describe five behavioral models based upon a person's position on the Managerial Grid. Which model would fit a person who demonstrates a high concern for results, along with a low concern for others? A) Indifferent - Evade and Elude B) Controlling - Direct and Dominate C) Contribute and Commit - Sound D) Status Quo - Balance and Compromise page 68 |
Answer: B) Controlling - Direct and Dominate (results driven) |
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Blake and Mouton describe five behavioral models based upon a person's position in the Managerial Grid. Which model would fit a person who sees no contradiction in demonstrating a high concern for both people and results at the same time? A) Indifferent - Evade and Elude B) Accommodating - Yield and Comply C) Contribute and Commit - Sound D) Status Quo - Balance and Compromise page 68 |
Answer: C) Contribute and Commit - Sound There is no need to restrain, control or diminish the concerns for others and results in a relationship. |
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In attempting to reduce their workforce, most fire departments have opted to use (blank)? A) Terminations B) Attrition and Layoffs C) Transfers D) Reduced work weeks page 70 |
Answer: B) Attrition and Layoffs Staffing functions are typically accomplished at the organizational level. |
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Blake and Mouton describe five behavioral models based upon a person's position on the Managerial Grid. Which model would best fit a person who believes there is an inherent contradiction between two concerns, but does not value one concern over another? A) Indifferent - Evade and Elude B) Accommodating - Yield and Comply C) Contribute and Commit D) Status Quo - Balance and Compromise page 68 |
Answer: D) Status Quo - Balance and Compromise This person sees a high concern for either people or results as too extreme and tries to moderate both. |
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The National Industrial Recovery Act (NIRA) guaranteed unions the right to collective bargaining. Which one of the following actions was taken on 1935 on the Act by the U. S. Supreme Court? A. Remanded the case to a lower court B. Upheld the constitutionality of the act. C. Found the act unconstitutional and struck it down. D. Voted not to hear the case. page 79 |
Answer: C) Found the act to be unconstitutional and struck it down. |
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After World War 2 unions grew substantially stronger due to government protection and favorable courts decisions. In an attempt to restore some balance, Congress passed one of the following acts over a presidential veto: A. Landrum-Griffin B. Taft-Hartley C. Wagner-Connery D. Fair Labor Standards page 80 |
Answer) B) Taft-Hartley |
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The Taft-Hartley Act provides for a how many day cooling off period when negotiations for the renewal of a labor contract fail? A. 30 day B. 45 day C. 60 day D. 90 day page 80 |
Answer) C) 60 DAY |
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The Landrum-Griffin Act was a reaction to the wide spread corruption revealed in older union locals. Which of the following was NOT a provision of the ACT? A. A union members bill of rights. B. A requirement that labor unions disclose union assets and the names and assets of every union officer and employee. C. Limitations on representation elections. D. Amended portions of the Taft-Hartley Labor Act. page 50 |
Answer) C) Limitations on representation elections. |
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Collective bargaining is regulated by a complex system of: A. Federal legislation. B. Federal and state legislation. C. Federal and local government legislation. D. State and local government legislation. page 79 |
Answer: B) Federal and State Legislation |
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In June of 2007, NFPA Fire Analysis and Research Division published a 30 year retrospective analysis of the fir fighter deaths and noted that there was a decline of - Blank-, from an average of 151 deaths annually in the 1970s. A) 20% B) 30% C) 40% D) 45% Page 99 |
Answer: B: 30% |
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Between the years 1995 to 2004 what percentage of on-duty deaths were attributed to heart attacks? A) 22% B) 33% C) 44% D) 55% Page 100 |
Answer: C; 44% |
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Trauma deaths resulting from motor vehicle collisions make up - Blank - of the annual line-of-duty deaths in the U.S. fire administration retrospective study. A) 12% B) 22% C) 28% D) 33% Page 101 |
Answer: B; 22% |
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Which NFPA standard establishes Apparatus Driver/Operator professional qualifications? A) NFPA 1001 B) NFPA 1002 C) NFPA 1900 D) NFPA 2006 Page 105 |
Answer: B; NFPA 1002 |
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Emergency incidents that require specific and advanced training and specialized tools and equipment would be considered____? A) Special operations B) Specific operations C) Designated operations D) Determinate operations page 110 |
Answer: A; Special operations |
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Some incidents based on their size, complexity, or duration require more than one safety officer. This group of assistant incident safety officers is called a _____? A) Safety team B) Safety crew C) Safety unit D) Safety squad page 111 |
Answer: C; Safety unit |
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Errors in the fire fighting are considered unintentional and are based on which of the following? A) Decisions B) Skills C) Perception D) All the above page 103 |
Answer: D; All the above |
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What NFPA standard is the standard on health-related fitness programs for fire department members? A) NFPA 1452 B) NFPA 1584 C) NFPA 1582 D) NFPA 1583 page 104 |
Answer: D; NFPA 1583 |
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Which organization issues accreditation certification programs that are operated by 49 states, provinces, and other agencies? A) NFPA (national fire protection association) B) NBFSPQ (national board on fire service professional qualifications) C) IFSAC (international fire service accreditation congress) D) IAFF (international association of fire fighters) page 124 |
Answer B) NBFSPQ (national board on fire service professional qualifications) |
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Initial, Plateau, Latency, and Mastery would all be examples of - A) Cognitive skills B) Psychical skills C) Psychomotor skills D) Perspicacious skills page 129 |
Answer C) Psychomotor Skills |
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A driver/operator who can remember the route to an area of the district where the engine company has not responded to in several months would be an example of which of the following pyschomotor skills? A) Initial B) Plateau C) Latency D) Mastery page 129 |
Answer C) Latency initial= no clue plateau= 85% competent latency= 100% recollection mastery= multiple routing options from memory |
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Which NFPA standard is the standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting? A) NFPA 1402 B) NFPA 1142 C) NFPA 1051 D) NFPA 1061 page 133 |
Answer B) NFPA 1142 |
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A good lesson plan contains which of the following(1) Organizes the lesson (2) Identifies key points(3) Can be reused (4) Can be easily changed by others (5) Allows others to teach the program A) 1,3,4,5 B) 1,2,3,5 C) 1,3,4,5 D) all the above page 135 |
Answer B) 1,2,3,5 |
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Fire Officer Jill says that positive discipline should always be used before negative discipline. Fire Officer Joan says that negative discipline should always be used before positive discipline. Fire Officer Joe says that either positive or negative discipline can be used first depending on the situation. Who is correct? A) Fire Officer Jill B) Fire Officer Joan C) Fire Officer Joe D) None are correct page 148 |
Answer: A) Fire Officer Jill |
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The fire officer sets the stage for positive discipline by setting clear expectations and by _____? A) Walking the walk B) Talking the talk C) Walking the talk D) Talking the walk page 148 |
Answer: C) Walking the talk |
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The form of discipline that moves from mild to more severe punishments if a problem is not corrected is known as _____? A) Progressive Discipline B) Graduated Discipline C) Progressive Negative Discipline D) Radical Discipline page 151 |
Answer: C) Progressive Negative Discipline |
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Which of the following is a negative disciplinary action that removes the firefighter from the work location and prohibits the firefighter from performing any fire department duties? A) Forced leave B) Suspension C) Termination D) Restrictive duty page 153 |
Answer: B) Suspension |
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What is the second obligation of a fire company operating in the hot zone or burning structure during a Mayday situation? A. To maintain the company. B. To maintain sector integrity. C. To move quickly towards the source of the Mayday. D. A and B only. page 168 |
ANSWER: D) A & B only. To maintain the company and To maintain sector integrity. |
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Fire officer Mike says that the fire officer's safety message should be applicable to the particular community and be delivered on a format the community can understand and act on. Fire officer Mark says the fire officer's message should be consistent no matter what the demographics of the community may be. Who is correct? A) Fire officer Mike B) Fire officer Mark C) Both are correct D) Neither are correct page 177 |
ANSWER: A; Fire officer Mike saying that the fire officer's safety message should be applicable to the particular community and be delivered on a format the community can understand and act on. |
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When designing a public education program, the fire officer should review the "ABCD" of course preparation. What does the "C" stand for? A) Conditions B) Certification C) Communication D) Commission Page 185 |
ANSWER: A) Conditions A= audience B= Behaviors learned C= conditions D= degree of proficiency |
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Public education programs need to be evaluated in order to determine their effectiveness. Which of the following types of evaluation focuses on the effectiveness of a program in relation to the desired effect? A) Immediate feedback B) Intermediate feedback C) Critical feedback D) Long-term feedback page 185 |
ANSWER: D; Long-term feedback |
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Public safety has four basic objectives. The first would be Educate target audiences in specific subjects in order to change their behavior. Which of the following would not be considered the other three objectives. A) Instruct target audiences on the basics of structural fire fighting. B) Instruct target audience how to perform specific task, such as stop drop and roll. C) Inform large groups of people about public safety. D) Distribute information on a timely subjects to target audiences. page 181 |
ANSWER: A) Instruct target audiences on the basics of structural fire fighting. |
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A detailed inquiry or systematic examination is known as _____? A) Analysis B) Inquisition C) Interrogation D) Investigation page 203 |
Answer D) Investigation |
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What do fire prevention codes do? A) Establish legally enforceable regulations that relate specifically to fire safety. B) Define regulation of hazardous materials. C) Established guidelines with the specific goal of reducing the incidence of fire in the community. D) A and B only. page 220 |
Answer: D) A and B only. |
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Regulations that apply to existing buildings and to situations that involve a potential fire risk or hazard are known as _____? A) model codes. B) fire codes. C) building codes. D) Ordinances. page 220 |
Answer: B) fire codes. |
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What is meant when a state adopts mini/max codes? A) the local jurisdiction can enforce fire codes that are more restrictive that state codes. B) the local jurisdiction can enforce fire codes that are less restrictive than state fire codes. C) the local jurisdiction does not have the option of adopting more restrictive regulations. D) the local jurisdiction must establish fire codes that are not already defined in the state fire code. page 221 |
Answer: C) the local jurisdiction does not have the option of adopting more restrictive regulations. |
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(Blank) is when a jurisdiction passes an ordinance that adopts a specific edition of the model code. A) adoption by association. B) adoption of transcription. C) adoption by reference. D) adoption by implication. page 222 |
Answer: C) adoption by reference. |
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Which of the following classes of standpipes provides both 1.5 and 2.5 inch connections with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene? A) Class 1. B) Class 2. C) Class 3. D) Class 4. page 223 |
Answer: C) Class 3. |
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Which of the following classes of standpipes provides both 1.5 connection with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene? A) Class 1. B) Class 2. C) Class 3. D) Class 4. page 223 |
Answer: B) Class 2. |
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What NFPA standard is the Standard on Types of Building Construction? A) NFPA 64. B) NFPA 200. C) NFPA 220. D) NFPA 240. page 225 |
Answer: C) NFPA 220. |
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All of the following would be classified as "Residential" buildings by the NFPA except for _____? A) your home. B) nursing home. C) Super 8 Inn. D) a local bed-and-breakfast. page 230 |
Answer: B) nursing home. |
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All of the following would be classified as "Business" buildings by the NFPA except for _____? A) shopping malls. B) colleges and university buildings. C) dentist offices. D) radio and television stations page 228 |
Answer: A) shopping malls. |
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Less critical issues found during fire safety inspections should be corrected _____? A) within 48 hours. B) within 72 hours. C) within 30 days. D) within 30 to 90 days. page 233 |
Answer: D) within 30 to 90 days. |
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Measures taken to limit or control the consequences, extent, or severity of an incident that cannot be reasonably prevented is called _____? A) mitigation. B) abatement. C) atonement. D) restoration. page 237 |
Answer: A) mitigation. |
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What is the Standard on Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems? A) NFPA 2010. B) NFPA 2112. C) NFPA 2113 D) NFPA 2001. page 224 |
Answer: D) NFPA 2001. |
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Fire officers must always be aware that there is a possibility of a language barrier or misinterpretation of the message. The best way to keep this from happening is to -Blank- A) Talk vary slowly B) Communication skills C) Supervisory skills D) Listening skills page 269 |
Answer D Listening skills |
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Which of the following would be considered sociological environment noise? A) The receiver is thinking about something else B) Background noise C) Prejudice and bias D) Siren noise page 270 |
Answer C) Prejudice and bias |
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Formal documentation that addresses a specific subject, policy, condition or situation are known as -Blank- A) General orders B) General procedures C) Standard operating procedures D) Standing orders page 273 |
Answer A) General orders |
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What is the first step in making an oral presentation to a community group on a fire department issue? A) Interest statement B) Details C) Get their attention D) Action page 278 |
Answer C) Get their attention |
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The second step in preparing a news release is to -blank- A) Organize the facts B) Develop the concept and write the release C) Seek advise from a senior officer D) Notify the press page 279 |
Answer B) Develop the concept and write the release |
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What should be printed in all caps at the top of the news release? A) PRESS RELEASE B) NEWS RELEASE C) FOR IMMEDIATE RELEASE D) FIRE DEPARTMENT PRESS RELEASE page 279 |
Answer B) NEWS RELEASE |
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An objective-relation database that uses geometry data types to represent the location of an object in the physical world is called a -Blank- A) Geographical information system B) Geodatabase C) SQL Server D) Core Database page 282 |
Answer B) Geodatabase |
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Effective change occurs when: A) the old is replaced by the new B) Politics is removed from public safety C) Preparation meets opportunity D) Planning meets implementation page 259 |
Answer C) Preparation meets opportunity |
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NIMS has five components including preparedness, and command and management. Which one of the following would not be a component of NIMM. A) Financial requisition management B) Ongoing management and maintenance C) Resource management D) Communication and information management page 288 |
Answer A) Financial requisition management |
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What is the primary agency under ESF 10 - Hazardous Materials? A) National Guard B) Department of Transportation C) Department of Environmental Protection D) Environmental Protection Agency page 288 |
Answer D) Environmental Protection Agency |
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The incident management system should be implemented A) only during incidents when there is a potential for loss of life B) During fire and hazardous materials incidents only C) when the incident involves two or more companies D) for every event page 290 |
Answer D) For every event |
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Which of the following is a generic term that can be applied to either geographical or functional component of an incident? A) Divisions B) Branches C) Groups D) Units page 297 |
Answer D) Units |
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The last step in conducting an incident review is to A) Write a summary of the incident for fire department records B) Identify the positive and negative points of the event C) Critique the incident with all fire fighters who were in attendance D) compile information about the building page 303 |
Answer A) Write a summary of the incident for fire department records |
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What level of the core NIMS curriculum is NIMS Multiagency Coordination System? A) ICS 300 B) ICS 400 C) ICS 701 D) ICS 702 page 289 |
Answer C) ICS 701 |
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What level of the core NIMS curriculum is NIMS Public Information System? A) ICS 300 B) ICS 400 C) ICS 701 D) ICS 702 page 289 |
Answer D) ICS 702 |
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All the following would be considered command staff positions EXCEPT? A) safety officer B) liaison officer C) incident commander D) public information officer page 312 |
Answer: C) incident commander The command staff works under the incident commander |
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Who authored in 1940 Fundamentals of Fire Tactics? A) Frank Brannigan B) Vincent Dunn C) Lloyd Layman D) John Norman page 313 |
Answer: C) Lloyd Layman |
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If rescue is the first tactical priority in fire attack, and exposures are the second priority, then what would you consider the third priority? A) overhaul B) extinguishment C) confinement D) ventilation page 320 |
Answer: C) confinement |
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Why didn't Lloyd Layman include ventilation in his prioritized list? A) ventilation is an indirect task of fire suppression B) ventilation increases fire spread C) he advocated an indirect attack, by applying high-pressure fog stream into a sealed structure D) ventilation is time consuming and delays fire knock down page 320 |
Answer: C) he advocated an indirect attack, by applying high-pressure fog stream into a sealed structure |
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What formula uses a four-part calculation and is based on square footage rather than cubic footage? A) National Fire Academy fire flow formula B) Iowa State University Rate-of-Flow formula C) Kimball Rule of Thumb D) The Florida State University fire flow formula page 318 |
Answer: A) National Fire Academy fire flow formula |
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Which of the following statements would be considered a component for an incident action plan? A) the determination of appropriate strategy to mitigate an incident B) the development of tactics to execute the strategy C) the development of pre plans to anticipate what services and equipment will be required to mitigate the incident D) A and B only page 319 |
Answer: D) A and B only |
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In most cases the best method of protecting an exposure is to _____? A) utilize a wide water curtain between the exposure and the fire B) wet down the exposure with master streams C) use just enough water to prevent fire from spreading D) launch an aggressive attack and extinguish the fire before it spreads page 320 |
Answer: D) launch an aggressive attack and extinguish the fire before it spreads |
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Generally, how often should an incident commander request a PAR? A) every 10 minutes B) every 20 minutes C) every 30 minutes D) every hour page 324 |
Answer: A) every 10 minutes |
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What branch of the ICS is responsible for communications and firefighter rehabilitation? A) service branch B) support branch C) communications branch D) dispatch center and EMS page 326 |
Answer: A) service branch |
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What branch of the ICS is responsible for ensuring adequate supplies, personnel, and equipment? A) Service branch B) Support branch C) Communications branch D) Dispatch center and EMS page 326 |
Answer: B) Support branch |
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Who is responsible for moving equipment and water supply hoselines up and down stairwells? A) stairwell control officer B) stairwell commander C) stairwell support D) stairwell branch page 326 |
Answer: C) stairwell support |
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What was Chief David Dodson's observation after viewing hundreds of structure fire videos? A) light smoke is an indication that flashover is imminent B) flashover can be predicted by the rate in which smoke moves from the structure C) dark smoke becomes even darker moments before flashover D) dark smoke seems to lighten up moments before flashover page 316 |
Answer: D) dark smoke seems to lighten up moments before flashover |
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Who is normally charged with conducting the preliminary investigation of a fire? A) the first arriving officer B) the fire chief C) the incident commander D) the fire marshal page 332 |
Answer: C) the incident commander |
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Who is charged to investigate a fire if there is no formal investigation and a fire investigator does not respond to the scene to determine it's cause and origin? A) The Incident Commander B) The Fire Chief C) The State Fire Marshall D) The first arriving fire officer page 333 |
Answer: A) The Incident Commander |
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Who of the following could serve in the role of fire investigator?
A) Fire department member. B) Law enforcement officer. C) Employee from the county or state fire marshal's office. D) All of the above page 333 |
Answer:
D) All of the above |
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Fire patterns are sometimes called (BLANK)? A) Movement patterns, because fire officers can trace the fire and smoke patterns back to the origin. B) Ignition patterns, because they clearly show where the fire initiated. C) Intensity patterns, because they show a history from incipient to smoldering. D) A and B. page 334 |
Answer: A) Movement patterns, because fire officers can trace the fire and smoke patterns back to the origin. |
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What is the first step in determining the cause of a fire? A) Determine the fuel that was first ignited. B) Determine the circumstances or human actions that allowed the ignition source and fuel to come together. C) Determine the source of ignition. D) Determine the rate and direction of fire spread. page 335 |
Answer: C) Determine the source of ignition. |
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What is the last step in determining the cause of a fire? A) Determine the fuel that was first ignited. B) Determine the circumstances or human actions that allowed the ignition source and fuel to come together. C) Determine the potential motive behind any suspicious fire. D) Determine the rate and direction of fire spread. page 335 |
Answer: B) Determine the circumstances or human actions that allowed the ignition source and fuel to come together. |
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Which of the following would NOT be considered one of the three components of a competent ignition source? A) Generation B) Growth C) Transmission D) Heating page 335 |
Answer: B) Growth |
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The scientific process of examining a fire occurrence to determine all the relevant facts, including the origin, cause, subsequent development of the fire, as well as determining the responsibility for whatever occurred is know as (BLANK)? A) Combustion analysis. B) Fire analysis. C) Ignition analysis D) Investigative analysis page 336 |
Answer: B) Fire analysis. |
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The U.S Fire Administration reports that (BLANK) of vehicle fires are caused by mechanical failure and malfunction. A) 47% B) 66% C) 75% D) 80% page 337 |
Answer: A) 47% |
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Evidence of a tangible nature that can be identified by witnesses, such as incendiary devices and fire scene debris is known as (BLANK)? A) Documentary evidence B) Hard evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Demonstrative evidence Page 344 |
Answer: D) Demonstrative evidence |
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The remains of the material first ignited, the ignition source, or other items or components that are in some way related to the fire ignition, development, or spread is known as (BLANK)? A) Exhibits B) Hard evidence C) Collection D) Artifacts Page 344 |
Answer: D) Artifacts |
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Who is responsible for protecting the fire scene evidence from the public and from excessive salvage and overhaul? A) The fire police B) The police department C) The fire officer D) The incident commander Page 344 |
Answer: C) The fire officer |
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What is crew resource management? A) An NFPA training program that teaches fire officers how to manage their personnel under stressful situations B) A training program developed by the U.S. Army that teaches officers to manage the resources found within their platoons C) A behavioral modification training system developed by NASA to reduce aviation accident rates. D) A training program developed by M.A.S.H. units in Korea during the 1950's that teaches how to accomplish the most work, with the fewest number of personnel, in the shortest amount of time page 352 |
Answer C) A behavioral modification training system developed by NASA to reduce aviation accident rates. |
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What is known as the inevitable "resident pathogens" within the system? A) Latent conditions B) Systemic conditions C) Inherent conditions D) Congenital conditions page 353 |
Answer A) Latent Conditions |
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Which of the following statements is true in regard to a fire company responding to an alarm? A) the officer and driver should be exchanging only information that is pertinent to responding to and arriving safely at the scene of the alarm, freeing the rest of the crew to relax, and thus reducing stress. B)The drive should be exchanging only information that is pertinent to responding and arriving safely at the scene of an alarm, freeing the rest of the crew to relax, and thus reducing stress. C) The entire crew should be exchanging only information that is pertinent to responding to and arriving safely at the scene of the alarm D) Limit topics of speech en route to alarms increases fire fighter stress and therefore should be avoided page 354 |
Answer C) The entire crew should be exchanging only information that is pertinent to responding to and arriving safely at the scene of the alarm |
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Which of the following statements regarding CRM is true? A) Subordinates are encouraged to provide input B) CRM advocates the creation of "management by committee." C) Leadership should give way to consensus D) all the above page 357 |
Answer A) Subordinates are encouraged to provide input |
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Dividing responsibilities among individuals and teams in a manner that allows for their effective accomplishment is best described by which of the following? A) micro-manage B) delegate C) commission D) task allocation page 357 |
Answer D) Task allocation |
