More Micro Exam 2

Front 1

describe the peptidoglycan layer?

Back 1

Composed of repeating disaccharides w/ 4 aa in a side chain extending from each disaccharide

Front 2

what is the function of transpeptidase? how is it important medically? what is another name for this enzyme?

Back 2

it is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of aa of one peptidoglycan chain to aa on other peptidoglycan chains.
it's important b/c this is what penicillin inhibits; for this reason it is aka pencillin binding protein.

Front 3

What are some examples of chemical mutagens?

Back 3

1. Nucleotide analogs

2. Nucleotide-altering chemicals

3. Frameshift mutagens

Front 4

Because Bacteria has circular DNA, where do they know to start replication?

Back 4

At the ORI (origin

Front 5

What are some different stains that you can do?

Back 5

1. Simple stain = one color

2. Differential stain = 2 colors

3. Negative stain = stain the background

Front 6

In the Ames test, if _______________ is present then there is a carcinogen present.

Back 6

Histidine

Front 7

In Glycolysis, Glucose is ___________ to make _____ Pyruvate, and _____ ATP while at the same time reducing ____ NAD+ to make NADH.

Back 7

Oxidized

2

2

2

Front 8

Under Aerobic conditions, Pyruvate is converted to _________ and ___________ via the enzyme ____________.

Back 8

Acetyl CoA

CO2

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

Front 9

Which type of bacteria are capable of surviving within a phagocytic cell?

Back 9

1. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

2. Salmonella typhi

Front 10

Describe a highly invasive infection and give an example

Back 10

Little or no toxin made



Ex: Shigella

M. Tuberculosis

Front 11

Describe a minimal invasive infection and provide an example

Back 11

Potent toxin



Ex: Corynebacterium Diptheria

or

C. tetani

Front 12

If you have a higher ____________ then your Optical Density is ________ which means there is ____________ bacteria

Back 12

Absorbance

higher

more

Front 13

Structural stains involve staining of these structures: _____________, _____________, _____________

Back 13

Flagella

Endospore

Capsule

Front 14

T/F: The Krebs Cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondria in prokaryotes and in the Cytoplasm for Eukaryotes.

Back 14

False;

Prokaryotes = Cytoplasm

Eukaryotes = Mitochondrial Matrix

Front 15

What is the endosymbiosis theory?

Back 15

That organelles such as Mitochondria and Chlorplast evolved from symbiotic prokaryotes living in other prokaryotes

Front 16

Compare and contrast the different routes of transmission of diseases.

Back 16

1. Airborne-borne = Most common, travels > 1 m (ex: Cold, Flu, TB)



2. Anthropod- borne = Carried by vector (ex: Thphus fever from body lice)



3. Direct contact = STDs



4. Food-borne = Preformed toxins (ex: Botulinum)



5. Water-borne = ex: Cholera

Front 17

What is PTS?

Back 17

Phosphotransferase System



Gluc comes into the cell and gets PO4+ via PEP

(is highly regulated)

Front 18

What are the applications for Recombinant DNA technology?

Back 18

1. Genome mapping

2. Drug development

3. Vaccine Development

4. Agricultural applications

5. Provides info on metabolism, growth

6. Relate DNA sequence to protein synthesis

7. Transgenic organisms

Front 19

Describe the artificial methods for inserting DNA into cells

Back 19

1. Electroporation = Make the membrane more responsive

2. Protoplast fusion = fuse 2 cells membranes

3. Injection = gene gun and microinjection

Front 20

What is a pathogen? And which 2 microbes are usually pathogens?

Back 20

Bacteria capable of causing disease (only a small # are pathogens)



Usually: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB)

and

Yersenia Pestis

Front 21

List some examples of techniques used in Recombinant DNA Technology.

Back 21

1. PCR

2. Separation of DNA molecules

3. Insertion of DNA into cells

4. Clone Selection

Front 22

___________________ is where a disease is typically found

Back 22

Reservoir

Front 23

_______________ is an example of a symbiosis whereas paratism is an example of ____________.

Back 23

Mutualism



Antagonism

Front 24

What is epidemiology concerned with?

Back 24

Transmission, spread, control and prevention of infectious diseases in populations.



(All aspects of disease except treatment

Front 25

What is the first enzyme in the ETC and what is the final electron acceptor?

Back 25

1. NADH Dehydrogenase

2. O2

Front 26

What is genetic recombination?

Back 26

It is the exchange of DNA segments composed of homogolous sequences

Front 27

What are some causes for a nosocomial infection?

Back 27

1. Patients are already ill, have impaired defenses

2. crowding = more infections

3. Most virulent forms are in hospitals

4. Newborns lack functional immune system

5. Drug resistant pathogens

Front 28

What device measures the increase in cell mass which thus can determine the growth rate?

Back 28

Spectrophotometer

Front 29

Define In Situ Hybridization

Back 29

Uses labeled complementary DNA or RNA strand (probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion/section of tissue

Front 30

What are ways to separate DNA molecules?

Back 30

1. Gel electrophoresis = separate based on charge, size and shape

(the smaller the faster it will travel)



2. Southern Blot

Front 31

What is PCR?

Back 31

Polymerase Chain Reaction



Used for multiplying/ amplifying DNA in vitro



(Was used for West Nile virus and Bacilius Antracis to ID the source of spores

Front 32

What 2 ways do bacteria avoid host antibody during invasion? And give examples of bacteria that do this

Back 32

1. Rapid antigenic change (changes it pili so wont recognize it) - N.Gonerrhea, Borrelia



2. Precipitate Antibody by binding to Fc portion (inactivates it) - Staphylcoccus Aureus

Front 33

How does Temp and pH affect microbial growth?

Back 33

Temp: if 2 hi or low can denature protein by affecting H bonds



pH: Changes enzymatic activity by changing the shape of the protein

Front 34

The Cytotoxin, S. Aureus has an alpha toxin that does what?

Back 34

Disturbs the cell membranes ion channels

Front 35

What gives proteins its biological properties and what things affect the protein structure?

Back 35

Folding gives its properties



Temp (can melt H bonds)

pH (can affect polarity/charge

Front 36

What is the energy source for active transport?

Back 36

The Proton Motive Force

Front 37

______________ destroys cell walls

Back 37

Lysozymes

Front 38

List the degree of invasiveness

Back 38

1. No invasion

2. Minimal Invasion

3. Highly invasive

Front 39

The tertiary structure of proteins results from what kind of bonds/forces?

Back 39

1. Disulfide bonds (S-S = covalent bond)

2. Hydrophobic interactions

3. Van Der Waals interactions

Front 40

There are 2 different types of culture medias, what are the they and the difference between the 2?

Back 40

Defined = You know the exact # of material and you need a buffer to maintain pH



Undefined (complex) = You dont know the # and is uses proteins derived from plants and animal extracts as the buffer

Front 41

The electron transport system:
(1) requires a membrane
(2) utilizes the nuclear membrane of eukaryotes
(3) utilizes the mitochondrial membrane of prokaryotes
(4) generates a concentration gradient of protons
(5) both 1 and 4 are correct

Back 41

(5) both 1 and 4 are correct

Front 42

Chemical mutagens that mimic the naturally occurring bases are called
(1) base analogs
(2) intercalating agents
(3) alkylating agents
(4) activator molecules

Back 42

(1) base analogs

Front 43

Restriction enzymes have proved so useful in manipulating DNA because:
(1) they cut DNA at defined sites
(2) the sticky ends make it very easy to allow recombination of any type of DNA
(3) they cut both strands of DNA
(4) they cut both plasmid and chromosome molecules
(5) all of the above are true for restriction enzymes

Back 43

5) all of the above are true for restriction enzymes

Front 44

Movement of molecules from an area of higher to lower concentration with the help of membrane
proteins is:
(1) facilitated diffusion
(2) active transport
(3) signal transduction
(4) endocytosis
(5) simple diffusion

Back 44

(1) facilitated diffusion

Front 45

Which of the following statement is not TRUE
(1) during aerobic respiration most of the energy is derived from the electron transport system
(2) fermentation yields less energy than anaerobic respiration
(3) most of the energy in fermentation is left in the end products
(4) complete oxidation of glucose involves the formation of CO2 and H2O
(5) all of the above are TRUE statements

Back 45

(5) all of the above are TRUE statements

Front 46

If you are designing an experiment involving photoautotrophs, which of the following would be most
essential to maintaining growth of the photoautotrophs:
(1) a continual supply of oxygen
(2) a medium containing glucose
(3) a source of carbon dioxide
(4) a medium containing chlorophyll
(5) none of the above measures are needed to grow this organism

Back 46

(3) a source of carbon dioxide

Front 47

Okazaki fragments are synthesized during replication. These fragments will make up the _________,
and they are synthesized by_________
(1) Lagging strand, DNA polymerase
(2) Lagging strand, Reverse transcriptase
(3) Leading strand, RNA polymerase
(4) primer, DNA polymerase
(5) Leading strand, DNA polymerase

Back 47

(1) Lagging strand, DNA polymerase

Front 48

Which of the following is a mismatch
(1) replication: formation of two identical DNA molecules
(2) transcription: RNA synthesis from DNA template
(3) ribosomes: made of protein and DNA molecules
(4) codon: sequence of 3 bases on mRNA molecule
(5) All match correctly

Back 48

(3) ribosomes: made of protein and DNA molecules

Front 49

A student with a cold sneezes onto a facial tissue, and throws it into a wastepaper basket, but misses,
and the tissue goes on the floor. A custodian walks by, picks up the tissue, throws it in the basket after that
he rubs his eyes with his fingers. A few days later the custodian develops a cold. Which of the following is
NOT correct
(1) the student is a reservoir
(2) this is not an arthropod-borne disease
(3) the custodian acquired the cold via indirect contact
(4) this is a nosocomial infection
(5) All of the above are correct

Back 49

(4) this is a nosocomial infection

Front 50

Which of the following enzymes and their functions is mismatched
(1) DNA ligase--joins nucleic acids together
(2) RNA polymerase-synthesizes primer
(3) RNA polymerase-synthesizes okazaki fragments
(4) DNA polymerase-removes bases from DNA
(5) All of the above are matched

Back 50

3) RNA polymerase-synthesizes okazaki fragments

Front 51

Commensalism is a symbiotic relationship in which only one side is benefited or harmed
(1) True
(2) False

Back 51

(2) False

Front 52

If you suspect someone has tuberculosis, staining a sputum sample is one way to identify the infectious
agent, Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Which of the following staining procedures would be the most
appropriate to verify the infection.
(1) Acid-fast stain
(2) Gram stain
(3) Simple stain
(4) Structural stain
(5) None of the above

Back 52

(1) Acid-fast stain

Front 53

Name 2 examples of where RFLP was useful medically?

Back 53

1) can distinguish different strains of HSV
2) has also been used to show the spread of a strain of Streptococcus producing necrotizing fasciitis

Front 54

Assume that you have a bacterial culture that requires teichoic acid in its
growth medium. If teichoic acid is not provided, the bacteria will not be able to synthesize its:
(1) Cell wall
(2) Capsule
(3) Cell membrane
(4) Enzymes
(5) DNA

Back 54

(1) Cell wall

Front 55

tRNA is a key player in protein synthesis. Which of the following is true of tRNAs
(1) they are the product of translation
(2) they carry message to be read by ribosomes
(3) they carry amino acids to the ribosomes
(4) they carry codon for amino acids
(5) none of the above

Back 55

(3) they carry amino acids to the ribosomes

Front 56

RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter region
(1) sigma factor
(2) alpha subunit
(3) beta subunit

Back 56

(1) sigma factor

Front 57

Sterilization can be achieved by:
(1) membrane filtration
(2) disinfectants
(3) autoclaving
(4) hot dry air
(5) all of the above

Back 57

(5) all of the above

Front 58

This gaseous disinfectant is used to disinfect large equipments and hospital beds.
(1) ethylene dioxide
(2) alcohol
(3) phenol
(4) cresol
(5) none of the above

Back 58

(1) ethylene dioxide

Front 59

The difference between inducible operon and repressible operon is that in a repressible operon the
operon is off when there is no substrate in the media
(1) True
(2) False

Back 59

(2) False

Front 60

Microorganisms possess different means in order to avoid host immune components. Which of the
following does not help microbe evade the host immune system?
(1) Lysozyme
(2) Capsule
(3) Superantigens
(4) Cross reactivity with the host
(5) Proteases

Back 60

(1) Lysozyme

Front 61

Following coronary artery bypass surgery, seven patients develop Rhodococcus bronchialis infections.
Cultures of the operating rooms, Nurse A, and Nurse B are taken. R. bronchialis grows from the hand and
nasal swabs of Nurse A. The patients' infections are an example of a(n):
(1) Nosocomial infection
(2) Sporadic infection
(3) Communicable infection
(4) Emerging infectious disease
(5) None of the above

Back 61

(1) Nosocomial infection

Front 62

Many virulence factors are enzymes that degrade or otherwise harm host tissue. Which of the following
destroys connective tissue and is known as "spreading factor"?
(1) Hyaluronidase
(2) Hemolysins
(3) Leukocidines
(4) Coagulase
(5) Streptokinase

Back 62

(1) Hyaluronidase

Front 63

Virulence is:
(1) The degree or intensity of pathogen
(2) The ability to spread in the host
(3) The ability to establish infection
(4) The ability to cause disease
(5) None of the above

Back 63

(1) The degree or intensity of pathogen

Front 64

Which of the following affects the elimination of bacteria from an object
(1) number of bacteria present
(2) temperature
(3) presence of organic matter
(4) pH
(5) All of the above affect the action of antimicrobial agents

Back 64

5) All of the above affect the action of antimicrobial agents

Front 65

What make(s) the quaternary ammonium compounds (QUATS) an excellent antimicrobial agent
(1) they are odorless
(2) easily soluble
(3) nontoxic
(4) effective against fungi, viruses, and protozoan
(5) all of the above make quats an excellent antimicrobial agent

Back 65

5) all of the above make quats an excellent antimicrobial agent

Front 66

A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a:
(1) Complex medium
(2) Defined medium
(3) Selective medium
(4) Differential medium
(5) None of the above

Back 66

(1) Complex medium

Front 67

Vibrio cholerae causes Cholera. The characteristics of the toxin produced by this miroorganism.do not
include the following
(1) Its an exotoxin
(2) Its a protein
(3) It increases cAMP level
(4) Its an enterotoxin
(5) It inhibits protein synthesis

Back 67

(5) It inhibits protein synthesis

Front 68

Septic shock is caused by the release of:
(1) Lipopolysaccharides
(2) Superantigens
(3) Exotoxins
(4) Enterotoxins
(5) All of the above

Back 68

(1) Lipopolysaccharides

Front 69

Bacteria exchange their genetic materials via different ways. Which one involves help of a virus
(1) Transduction
(2) Conjugation
(3) Transformation
(4) Recombination
(5) Cross-over

Back 69

(1) Transduction

Front 70

Ames test is used to determine if a substances is mutagenic. This test is designed to test the effects of
chemicals on the ability of microbes to
(1) Carry on with glycolysis
(2) Breakdown proteins
(3) Synthesize amino acids
(4) Carry on with replication process
(5) Carry on with transcription process

Back 70

(3) Synthesize amino acids

Front 71

This is not an obligatory step for bacteria to establish infection inside the host
(1) attach to the host
(2) enter the host
(3) exit from the host after infection
(4) cause damage to the host
(5) multiply (grow) in the host

Back 71

(4) cause damage to the host

Front 72

Which of the following is NOT true of a mutation
(1) can be lethal
(2) is a permanent change in DNA
(3) is inheritable
(4) changes the sequence of DNA molecule
(5) involves only a single base pair in certain parts of DNA molecule

Back 72

(5) involves only a single base pair in certain parts of DNA molecule

Front 73

Which is mismatch
(1) infection--growth of pathogen in the host
(2) reservoir of infection--where organism is usually found
(3) toxigenic--production of endotoxin
(4) invasiveness--ability to spread in the host
(5) pathogen--organism that can cause infection

Back 73

3) toxigenic--production of endotoxin

Front 74

Reoxidation of NADH via electron transport chain allows protons to be pumped out. This process could result in:
(1) Production of high energy compounds
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) ATP formation
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Back 74

4) All of the above

Front 75

tRNA is a key player in protein synthesis. Which of the following is true of tRNAs
(1) they are the product of translation
(2) they carry message to be read by ribosomes
(3) they carry amino acids to the ribosomes
(4) they carry codon for amino acids
(5) none of the above

Back 75

4) they carry codon for amino acids

Front 76

RNA polymerase recognizes the promoter region
(1) sigma factor
(2) alpha subunit
(3) beta subunit

Back 76

1) sigma factor

Front 77

The difference between inducible operon and repressible operon is that in a repressible operon the operon is off when there is no substrate in the media
(1) True
(2) False

Back 77

2) False

Front 78

Adhesions are attachmnt means made of proteins, that are found on the surface of Gram Positive bacteria
(1) True
(2) False

Back 78

1) True