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264 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
which foods are Krebs intermediates?
ALL of them
Krebs = final stage for
ALL foods that are oxidized to CO2 and H2O
4 cofactors that BOTH pyruvate DH and aKGDH require:
1. thiamine pyrophosphate

2. CoA

3, FAD

4. NAD
the cofactors that pyruvate DH and aKGDH require are derived from:
1. thiamine

2. pantothetic acid

3. riboflavin

4. niacin
regulation of Krebs: NADH inhibits:
MANY points
in Krebs, what does ATP inhibit?
**aKGDH**
when energy needs are satisfied, Krebs is:
**shut down**,

and intermediates are shunted to other pathways
**Krebs substrates are products, so they inhibit:**
**their own steps**

e.g. citrate will inhibit citrate synthase
***Krebs does not experience any:
*hormonal* regulation
***what does electrical stimulation do to Krebs?***
***overrides inhibition*** from NADH, ATP

=> activation of Krebs
which enzyme is required in order for AA's to get into Krebs?
**transaminase**
***transaminase requires ____________ as cofactor***
pyroxidol P,

from B6
interconversion in Krebs: carbs can become:
fat and nonessential AA's
interconversion in Krebs: protein =>
carbs (from nonessential) and fat (from all AA's)
interconversion in Krebs: fat =>
NEITHER carbs NOR protein

- both C's of fat are lost before succinate
***Krebs requires constant supply of OAA to: ***
combine with ACoA***

- but OAA is continually depleted by GNG
carbs => BOTH
OAA and ACoA

(via pyruvate carboxylase and pyruvate kinase, respectively)
Protein => BOTH
OAA and ACoA
Fat => ONLY
**ACoA**

=> only fate of fat is to be oxidized in Krebs
***glycogen synthesis/breakdown is regulated by:***
hormones
glycogen =
alpha 1,4 linkages

with a1,6 branch points
what's the purpose of glycogen branch points?
to have multiple ends and thus cleave off many glucose mlcls at once
which 2 enzymes are necessary for glycogen synthesis?
1. ***glycogen synthase***

2. branching enzyme
***glycogen synthase ONLY makes:***
a1,4 linkages

(branching enzyme makes the a1,6 after it)
which 2 enzymes are necessary for glycogen breakdown?
1. ***glycogen phsphorylase***

2. debranching enzyme
***glycogen phsophorylase ONLY cleaves:***
a1,4 links
the debranching enzyme converts:
a1,6 links to a1,4

so that glycogen phosphorylase can cleave
***UDP-glucose = example of:
high-energy, activated sugar

- glycogen synthase uses this high energy to drive addition of glucose to glycogen chain
glucose-6-phosphatase is only found in the
liver and kidney
effect of hormones on glycogen: Glucagon/EPI => cAMP =>
PKA => P'n of glycogen phosphorylase kinase (GPK) => P'n of glycogen phosphorylase => activation => glycogen breakdown

meanwhile, PKA => P'n of glycogen synthase => *inhibition* of glycogen synthase
EPI has two kinds of receptors:
alpha and Beta adrenergic
EPI's alpha receptor =>

while Beta =>
Ca2+ release;

cAMP
subunits of GPK: out of the 4, 2 are activated by:
PKA

=> *some* activation of GPK

=> *some* activation of glycogen phosphorylase
GPK is somewhat active when PKA activates 2 of its subunits, but it's MOST active when:
BOTH PKA **and** calmodulin are activating its subunits
***muscle doesn't have alpha adrenergic receptors*** but the same maximum level of glycogen breakdown is achieved by:
electrical stimulation => Ca2+

along with EPI, => max glycogen breakdown **in exercising muscle**
PPS is driven **entirely** by:
mass action
products of PPS:
NADPH, ribose-5-P, or both
NADPH production is regulated by:
the cell's need for NADPH

- NADPH will inhibit G6PDH if the cell has enough
what is ribose-5-P used for?
RNA, DNA synthesis
the NonOx portion of PPS is
***reversible***
NonOx PPS = "carbon shuffling" between:
ribULOSE-5-P

and glycolysis intermediates (F6P, G3P)
**2 enzymes necessary for NonOx PPS:**
1. transketolase

2. transaldolase
BOTH transketolase and transaldolase require the cofactor:
***thiamine pyro-P***
what determines whether a cell uses Ox or NonOx PPS?
**its needs at the time**
to get both NADPH AND ribose-5-P, use
the Oxidative Portion of PPS
to get ONLY ribose-5-P, use
the NonOx portion of PPS

- can start with F6P, G3P and work backward
to create ONLY NADPH, use
BOTH Ox and NonOx

- Ox => NADPH

- NonOx = > glycolysis intermediates
G6PDH deficiency ~
massive hemolysis

(b/c G6P can't work in PPS => membranes not protected from ROS)
2 types of membrane damage:
1. prot. disulfide formation

2. mixed disulfide formation
***GSH =
***reduced glutathione***
what does reduced glutathione (GSH) do?
1. protects cell damage from ROS

2. prevents oxidation of proteins
what 2 things are required to keep glutathione in reduced state?
1. glutathione reductase

2. NADPH
***reduction of prot. and mixed disulfide formation is done by 2 proteins:***
1. thioredoxin

2. glutaredoxin
cells with mit. can make
NADPH in other pathways
b/c RBC's don't have mit, they are dependent on _______________ for NADPH
***G6PDH***
some drugs produce large amounts of free radicals/mixed disulfides; what should you check for before administering such drugs?
G6PDH levels
what kind of AA's CANNOT be used to synthesize glucose?
**ketogenic** AA
ALL AA's can be
catabolized for energy
there is preferential shunting of glucogenic AA's to make glucose via the
Ala-Glucose cycle

(GNG)
protein quality =
how well the item provides ALL 20 AA's
Arginine is special; it's
conditionally essential - extra is needed during growth, illness, etc.
Arginine helps make:

(3)
1. urea

2. creatine

3. NO
NO. metabolism depends on:
the concentration of Arginine in the body
Creatine P "immediately" transfers
P to ATP
CP =
energy *storage* in muscle
both creatine and CP become
creatinin

=> urine
ATP + CP ~
+5 seconds of max exertion
normally, ATP production is 2.5x slower
w/o CP
Creatine Kinase isozymes are dimers of 2 subunits:
M and B
CKmm ~
skeletal muscle
CKmB ~
***cardiac*** muscle

(CK = creatine kinase)
***increased serum concentrations of CKmB ~
myo infaction
NO = NT in
many systems
NO is a gas, so it diffuses through the membrane
easily
***NO acts by increasing levels of:***
**cGMP**
NO is a potent vasodilator - it relaxes
SM
NO also causes
erection
what is NO used to treat?
angina pectoris

(insufficient flow of blood to the heart)
glutamate =
excitatory NT
GABA =
ihibitory NT,

a derivative of glutamate
which AA are DO, NOR, and EPI made from?
tyrosine
which AA is SER made from?
Tryptophan
which AA is Histamine made from?
histidine
Parkinson's disease lacks
DO in the brain

- need to administer L-dopa, which can cross BBB

- then it's converted to DOpamine
what does MAO do?
***inhibits*** DO, NOR, and SER
how does MAO inhibit NT's?
by removing NH2 from them

(=> urea)
errors in AA, N metabolism =>
mental retardation if untreated
2 diseases of AA metabolism error:
1. PKU

2. Maple Syrup disease
Maple Syrup disease =
defect in BCAA catabolism
PKU =
**Phe-hydroxylase deficiency**
in PKU, Phe builds up because:
it's not being converted to tyrosine
Phe is converted to
phenylpyruvate
accumulation of Phe =>

(2)
1. mental retardation

2. mousy urine
treatment of PKU =
lifelong limit of Phe in diet

- avoiding aspartame
aspartame contains
high levels of Phe
hepatic encephalopathy =
decrease in brain function due to failure of liver to remove ammonia

= hyperammonia
***NH3 enters the brain's blood supply
easily
NH3 in brain's blood supply is converted to
glutamine

=> accumulation => coma, death
2 other problems with excess NH3 in brain:
1. excess glutamine becomes glutamate => excitatory seizures

2. uses up aKG => energy metabolism defects
the unionized/nonpolar form of a drug is often
the form of the drug that's reabsorbed
oral administration does fall under
the first pass effect
phase I transformation facts:

(2)
1. addition of functional group

2. small increase in hydrophilicity
phase I transformation rxns include:

(2)
1. RedOx

2. Hydrolysis
Oxidation =

(3)
1. lose electrons

2. lose H

3. gain O
Reduction =
1. gain electrons

2. gain H

3. lose O
which kind of enzymes are responsible for the majority of metabolic rxns?
***CYtochrome P450's***
CYP 450's are
**oxidases**
CYP450's are membrane-bound enzymes with
large active sites

- use heme/Fe
***each CYP450 can bind to
***MANY different drugs***
what do CYP450's oxidize?
otherwise-inert mlcls
what do CYP450's do, chemically?

(2)
1. pluck H off

2. shove OH on
prodrug =
precursor that can be either activated or inactivated
dehydrogenases are:
**oxidases**
where do Phase I and II occur?
**in the liver**
hydrolysis =
add H2O to break mlcl up
DRESS =
severe immune response b/c you're missing hydrolases
both Phase I and II are used for:
synthesis

e.g. both necessary for steroid synthesis
general mechanism of Phase II:
*transferase* takes a piece of cofactor,

adds it to the drug
Phase II rxns are used for BOTH
metabolism AND synthesis

e.g. of synthesis = NOR to EPI
***phase II can come before phase I, and
Phase I can is NOT a requirement for phase II
main mechanism of Phase II =
**conjugation**
conjugation =
the addition of a **hydrophilic** functional group, to aid in excretion

- large increase in hydrophilicty
acetaminophen toxicity: acetaminophen is normally converted to an intermediate, then
conjugated to glutathione
too much acetaminophen =>
some of the intermediate converted to hepatotoxic protein
2 mechanisms of variability in drug metabolism:
1. genetic polymorphisms

2. epigenetic, individual differences
genetic polymorphisms =
mutations that change drug amount or activity
e.g. of genetic polymorphism: TPMT takes 6MP and makes it inactive;
allelic variants of TPMT produce all sorts of different activities, including ones that lead to toxicity
**6MP dosing should take into account:
TPMT genotype
e.g. of genetic variability: CYP2D6
amount in a person is allelically variable
CYP2D6 is responsible for metabolizing:
25% of all clinical drugs
you can treat most people with the same dose of drug, but for those who either less or more CYP2D6, you need to
lower dosage,

and increase dosage, respectively
warfarin =
anticoagulant
variability in amount of CYP-C9 =>
functional overdose of warfarin

- **diminished capacity of CYP-C9 to metabolize warfarin** =>

normal dose = overdose
epigenetics ~
age, disease, diet
Induction =
increase in expression of specific enzymes in response to dosage of drug

- takes days
GPCR's are the largest
family of cell surface receptors
GPCR's mediate response to an incredible diversity of signaling mlcls:
hormones, NT's, light, etc
GPCR structure =

(3)
1. 7 membrane-spanning segments

2. ec segment

3. ic segment
extracellular segment of GPCR's:

(3)
1. N-terminus

2. 3 ec loops

3. potential for N-linked glycosylations
intracellular segment of GPCR's

(2)
1. C-terminus

2. 3 ic loops
***transmembrane parts of GPCR's form:***
a bundle, in which biogenic amines bind

- peptide hormones bind to ec loops
rhodopsin =
GPCR
in the inactive state, the salt bridge connects some of the helices; binding of ligand =>
breaking the salt bridge => movement of TM helices => exposure of receptor to GEF activity => increased Kd-GDP => GDP kicked off => alpha subunit activated with GTP => effector enzyme
key point: ligand-receptor complex increases:
Kd-GDP of the alpha subunit
***a given G-protein can be activated by MANY:***
hormone-receptor complexes
2 categories of G-protiens:
1. heterotrimeric

2. small monomeric
heterotrimeric G-protein =
alpha, B, and y subunits
alpha subunit:

(2)
1, binds GDP, GTP

2. has inherent GTPase activity
Beta and y form a tight complex, never
come apart
ligand binding stabilizes:
the OPEN conformation of the receptor
once GTP is hydrolyzed, alpha subunit
dissociates from the effector enzyme and returns to By
RGS =
Regulator of G-prot. Signaling
RGS' have
**GAP activity**
RGS =>
increased kcat activity => decreased alpha activation
in all G-protein situations, the only subunit to regulate **kinases** =
alpha
***LOTS of hormones stimulate:***
Gs
hormones that stimulate Gs use this pathway:
Gs => Ad. cyclase => turns ATP into cAMP => convert inactive PKA to active form
****the pseudo-substrate site blocks the catalytic cleft,
inactivating PKA activity when cAMP isn't around

- binding of cAMP to all 4 binding sites => popping pseudo-substrate site out of the way
what do the the dimerization/docking domains of PKA do?
1. connect regulatory subunits into a dimer

2. bind to different targets
which 2 hormones bind to the Gq family of G-proteins?
1. angiotensin

2. EPI (via a1 adrenergic receptors)
DAG =
lipophilic

- stays in the membrane
IP3 operates in the
cytoplasm

- **regenerated into PIP2**
like ALL kinases, PKC has
an ATP-binding domain and a substrate-binding domain
how does activation of PKC occur?
DAG and Ca2+ bind to it
PKC is NOT a
dimer
which hormone uses the Gi family?
EPI

(via a2 adrenergics)
Gi's affect BOTH
**PKA and PKC**
in Gi, what does the alpha subunit do when activated?
inactivates Ad. cyc., thereby **INHIBITING** production of cAMP
in Gi, what activates PLCB to eventually activate PKC?
**By** subunit
Insulin does NOT stimulate glucose uptake in:

(2)
RBC's and brain
a decreased state of ionization will increase
drug absorption
***only EPI stimulates BOTH:***
PKA and calmodulin in the liver
***EPI is more effective than
Glucagon

- in liver, etc.
the energy needs of the body are greater in __________ than during the fasting state
**exercise**
RBC's do NOT synthesize:
***FA's***
***antagonist's or agonist's effect is independent of:***
**their affinity for the receptor**
Kd is independent of
efficacy
what's the major cytochrome of the liver?
CYP3A4
treated with courmarin; phenobarbitol is a coumarin-remover; phenobarbitol induces
CYP production

- once phenobarbitol is cleared and CYP's are turned over

=> HUGE increase in coumarin (b/c it's given at the same dose)
7 factors that *induce* CYP's:
1. aromatics

2. pollution

3. cigarette smoke

4. barbs

5. steroids

6. herbal remedies

7. alcohol
Inhibition: one enzyme that's metabolized the same way inhibits another when
co-administered
inhibition =>
complete loss of one or more enzyme activities
compare timing of induction vs. inhibition:
induction = days

inhibition = **immediate**
6 factors that increase inhibition

(all sit in the active site of the other enzyme and don't come out)
1. grapefruit

2. green tea

3. anti-fungal drugs

4. certain antibodies

5. cigarette smoke

6. SSRI's
***drug absorption =
***drug's movement into the bloodstream***
2 ways that drugs are eliminated?
1. excretion

2. metabolism

(Phase I and Phase II)
rates of metabolism can affect the drug's:

(3)
1. safety

2. efficacy

3. treatment uses
genetic and epigenetic differences in metabolic rates can lead to large differences in
drug and metabolite concentrations

- most applicable for non-redundant or rate-limiting enzymes
concomitant drug treatments can cause:
induciton OR inhibition

- potential adverse effects
isoniazoid =>
neuropathy if acetylaition (conjugation) is too slow
pregnant women take
LOTS of drugs

- Prescription, OTC, supplements
A label =
no risk
B label =
no evidence of risk
C label =
risk cannot be ruled out, but benefits outweigh the risk
D label =
risk exists; benefits *may* outweigh risk
X label =
don't give to pregnant ladies
FDA categories/labels are incomplete descriptions of risk; for example, some drugs are good for:
the third trimester, but not the first
teratogens =
drugs that cause malformations in fetus
teratogens operate during a particular time
check
the degree of the teratogenic effect depends on:
the dose
baseline risk of any drug to be a tetatogen =
3%
"teratogen" does NOT =
alcohol, cocaine, etc.
pregnancy lowers both:
1. peak drug concentration

2. steady-state drug concentration

***mostly due to increase in blood volume***
which size of drugs CROSS the placenta?
<500 Da
which size is the placenta impermeable to?
>1000 Da's
**warfarin passes in to the placenta freely - replace with
coumarin**
****placenta and fetal liver have:****
limited capacity to metabolize the drugs
***drugs can enter:***
breast milk
****6 kinds of drugs that are present in breast milk in large amounts:****
1. tetracycline

2. alcohol

3. opioids

4. barbs

5. lithium

6. radio-iodine (chemo)
characteristics of infants:

(4)
1. more water (inc. Vd)

2. less fat

3.higher gastric pH

4. low bile production
high gastric pH of infants =>
1. inc. absorption of some drugs b/c they're not degraded

2. dec. absorption of weak acids
low bile production of infants =>
**dec. absorption of lipophilic drugs**
***in general, infants have _______ absorption***
SLOWER
contraindicative =
you wouldn't want to administer it
***most significant issue for geriatrics =
***decrease in liver blood flow***
other problems with geriatrics:

(2)
1. diseases that affect liver function

2. renal decline
geriatrics: very important to know what they're taking,
involve the families

be conservative with disage

start low
***liver problems =>

(2)
1. decreased first-pass effect

2. slower elimination of most drugs
teratogens have effects during particular periods of fetal development - specifically, during
3-7 weeks of pregnancy
G-protein signaling problems occur when:

(3)
1. their expression is reduced

2. their activation is increased

3. their activation is decreased

(can cause constitutive activity even in absence of hormone)
which two disease correspond to gain of function?
1. Cholera

2. FPP
what are cholera?
gram negative bacteria
cholera bacteria colonize
the intestine and produce a toxin that stays there
effect of cholera =

(3)
1. severe diarrhea

2. water loss

3. electrolyte imbalance
cholera toxin = protein with:

(2)
1. five B subunits (~ host cell recognition)

2. one A subunit
what does the A subunit of cholera toxin do?
***adds AD-ribose to

G-alpha-s***
adding AD-r to GaS =>
***inhibiting GTPase activity***
=> active GaS => inc. cAMP => inc. PKA => ***increased secretion of fluid from interstinal epithilial cells***
what's the overall effect of adding AD-ribose to GaS?
***decrease kcat-GTP***
FPP =
Familial Precocious Puberty
FPP =>
higher basal activity of LH receptor => higher release of testosterone
facets of FPP:

(2)
1. males only

2. puberty by age 4
flagship characteristic of FPP: testeoterone secretions are:
INDEPENDENT of normal regulation by other proteins (LH, GRH)
in FPP, LH and GRH are at normal levels, but testosterone is being released at
**higher-than-normal levels**
FPP is cause by mutation to
***LH receptor***

Asp -> Gly
mutation in LH receptor gene =>
****traps receptor in partially-activated conformation****
even mutated receptor is still able to bind regulating hormones, which =>
even more activity
what do pertussis bacteria colonize?
the cilia of the airways
2 stages of pertussis infection:
1. colonization stage => upper respiratory, nonspecific symptoms

2. toxemic stage => prolonged coughing ending in whooping cough
pertussis toxin protein structure:
5 Beta subunits,

1 alpha subunit
the A subunit of the pertussis toxin is responsible for:
**catalyzing ADP ribosylation**
what does the A subunit of pertussis toxin add AD-r to?
to the Cys residue near C-terminus of ***G-alpha-i***
***effect of Ad-r attached to G-a-i =
***TRAPS G-a-i in GDP-bound state => ad. cyc. no longer inhibited => inc. cAMP => PKA => ***Inc. secretion by cilia of lungs*** => coughing
***overall effect of pertussis toxin ADP ribosylation of G-a-i =
***DECREASED Kd*** => more-active G-alpha***
AHO =
Albright Hereditary Osteodystrophy
clinical features of AHO:

(4)
1. short stature

2. bone deformities

3. obesity

4. MR
AHO is a ____ __ ______ disease

which G-protein subunit is either not expressed enough OR not active enough?
loss of function;

GaS
AHO patients present in one of 2 way:
1. PHP 1a

2. PPHP
PHP 1a =
pseudo-hypo-parathyroidism Type 1a
2 effects of having PHP1a =
1. PTH resistance

2. resistance to multiple hormones that normally increase cAMP levels (Glucagon, Gonadotropin, etc.)
PPHP =
pseudo-pseudo- parahypothyroidism
effect of PPHP:

(1)
**resistance to PTH**
BOTH
PHP1a and PPHP ~
PTH resistance,

but PHP1a also ~ resistance to hormones that normally inc. cAMP
2 destinations of PTH:
1. bones

2. kidneys
effect of PTH on bones:
***increases Ca2+ release INTO blood***
effect of PTH on kidneys:

(3)
1. increased P excretion

2. decreased Ca2+ excretion

3. increased production of Vit. D
***resistance to PTH =>***

(3)
1. hypocalcemia

2. hyperphosphatemia

3. dec. Vit D production
***there's only ONE gene for
GaS

(two alleles though)
loss of one allele (from mother's side or father's) =>
50% reduction in GaS activity
***GaS activity can decrease via:

(2)
1. decreased expression

OR

2. decreased activation
not all plasma is
filtered
"loading dose" =
** Q **
"plasma threshold concentration" =
Css
b.i.d. =
every 12 hours