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170 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is the basic structure of a local anaesthetic?

Lipophilic group (aromatic ring) connected by an intermediate chain via an ester or amide to an ionizable group (i.e. A tertiary amine)

What is the difference between ester links and amide links in local anaesthetics?

Ester links are more prone to hydrolysis and and thus usually have a shorter duration of action.

Are LAs acids or bases?

Usually weak base


Therefore in the body they usually exist as the charged cation - pKa.



The lower the pKa the greater percentage of uncharged species at a give pH.

Which form of LAs bind the receptor site?

Charged cation


BUT it is the uncharged form that is able to enter the cell and bind the internal receptor site on the voltage gated sodium channel (alpha subunit) on the inside of the cell membrane (internal binding site)

Why are LAs less effective in infected tissues?

Due to lower extra cellular pH which favors the charged form and hence it cannot reach the internal binding site.



I.e. Adding bicarbonate can help potentiate the effect shortening time to onset.

What is the function of pharmacokinetics in the use of LAs?

Mainly functions to limit effect via metabolism and elimination



No need for activation etc

Name common LAs and the duration of action.

SHORT - procaine



MEDIUM - lidocaine, mepivacaine



LONG - tetracaine, bupivacaine, ropivacaine

What factors affect systemic absorption of LAs?

Dosage


Site of injection


Drug-tissue binding


Local tissue blood flow


Use of vasoconstrictor


Drug properties - i.e. Lipophilic or protein binding increases duration of action

What do the terms hyperbaric, isobaric, hypobaric refer to with regards to LAs?

Refers to the movement of the LA relative to the CSF during a spinal anaesthetic



Hyperbaric - descend


Isobaric - remain static


Hypobaric - ascend

What is the half life of bupivacaine, ropivacaine, lidocaine?

Bupivacaine - 3.5


Ropivacaine - 4.2


Lidocaine - 1.6

Describe the distribution of LAs in the systemic blood.

2 phases


Initial alpha phase - rapid distribution in well perfused organs (brain, heart, kidneys, liver) characterized by a steep exponential decline in concentration


Secondary beta phase - slower distribution to other organs, slower decline

Metabolism and excretion of LAs?

Amides - liver - P450 groups (hydroxylation and N-dealkylation)



Esters- plasma butyrylcholinesterases



Both are then excreted in the urine

How can you increase urinary excretion of LAs?

Excretion only occurs in the cationic form - not the neutral form.



Acidification of urine promotes ionization of the weak base (tertiary amine) - greater water solubility

Mechanism of action of LAs?

Bind the internal vestibule of voltage gated sodium channel and blocking activity



Binds alpha subunit


Prevents depolarization, graded effect

Which nerve block results in the highest peak blood level?

Intercostal due to high surrounding blood flow

Which nerve block results in the highest peak blood level?

Intercostal due to high surrounding blood flow

What are the physiological effects of local anaesthetic on the nerve?

Block Na channel.



Increase threshold for excitation


Impulse conduction slows


Rate of AP rise declines


AP amplitude declines


Finally ability to generate an AP is abolished.

What are the effects of Ca and K on LA effects?

Calcium partially antagonises the effect via increasing surface membrane potential



Potassium extracellular - depolarizes the membrane and increases the effect of LAs

Other effects of LAs?

Blunting of the stress response


Improvement in perioperative outcome with epidural anaesthesia


Antithrombotic effect


Modulation of inflammation

What are the complications of LA administration?

Allergy


Cardiotoxicity - cardiac arrest , bradycardia, AV block


CNS toxicity - metallic taste, tinnitus, nystagmus, perioral tingling, agitation, seizures


SNS block- hypotension


Respiratory depression and urinary retention with spinals

What is the order of type (modality) of nerves blocked by LAs?

SNS


Temp


Pain


Light touch


Motor block

What effect do vasoconstrictors with LAs have?

Neuronal uptake is enhanced due to increased concentration


Reduced systemic level


Longer duration of effect

Treatment for LA toxicity?

Intralipid


If seizures - midazolam and intubation to prevent acidosis which will potentiate LA effects

What are the mechanisms by which neurotoxicity occur with LAs?

Conduction failure


Membrane damage


Enzyme leakage


Cytoskeleton disruption


Accumulation of intracellular calcium


Disruption of atonal transport


Growth cone collapse


Apoptosis

What is dantrolene used for ?

Malignant hyperthermia due to anaesthesia



It is a spasmolytic with no central effects

What is the origin of non depolarizing muscle relaxants ?

South America curare poison arrows to kill animals

What are the subunits that make up the nicotinic ACh receptor ?

2 alpha


Beta


Gamma


Delta



Binding receptor on alpha-beta and alpha -delta parts

Besides non depolarizing and depolarizing - what drugs/ situations may have similar effects?

Cholinesterase inhibitor intoxication



ACh high levels

Neuromuscular blocking agents have limited CNS penetration. Why?

Each have one or two quaternary nitrogens making them poorly lipid soluble which limits CNS penetration

Reasons to use paralysis in ICU?

Intubation


Improve patient ventilator synchrony


Enhance gas exchange


Reduce barotrauma


Reduce muscle 02 consumption


Raised ICP


facilitate treatment of tetanus etc

What is the rate of homozygous defective pseudoholinesterase?

1/3200



Paralysis for 3-8 hrs following a single dose

Side effects of suxamethonium?

Hypertension


Tachycardia


Bradycardia


Ventricular arrhythmias


Hyperkalaemia


Raised ICP


Malignant hyperthermia (within 1 hr)


Why do you not use suxamethonium in burns patients?

Do not use in burns -- causes large K release which may cause cardiac arrest.

What is dantrolene ?

A spasmolytiC-- no central effects - treat malignant hyperthermia


ryanodine receptor and prevents Ca2+ release via blocking the ryanodine1 R on the SR --> causes muscle weakness (skeletal muscle)


Prevents contraction, lactic acidosis and high temps

Describe the volume of distribution of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.

Small Vd - only slightly larger than plasma as they are highly ionised and do not readily cross cell membranes and are not strongly bound to peripheral tissues


? Due to quaternary amides

Describe the half life of non depolarizing muscle relaxants.

Depends on the method of elimination/excretion



Kidney - longer half life - pancuronium


Liver metabolism - shorter i.e. Roc and vec



ATRACURIUM -- hepatic + HOFFMANN --> laudanosine (may cause seizures in accumulation)



--> liver (all steroid based) - although they may have active metabolites which may accumulate with prolonged administration -ICU)

Describe the volume of distribution of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.

Small Vd - only slightly larger than plasma as they are highly ionised and do not readily cross cell membranes and are not strongly bound to peripheral tissues

MOA, Metabolism and duration of action of sux?

Short


5-10min


Rapid hydrolysis by butyrylcholinesterase and pseudocholinesterase in the liver and plasma respectively



Blockade is terminated by diffusion away from the end plate



MOA - blockade of nAChr



Metabolized to succinylmonocholine is rapidly broken down to succinic acid and choline

Test for assessing for variant of plasma cholinesterase?

Dibucaine number



The abnormality causes prolonged muscle paralysis from sux

Which muscle relaxant (non -depolarizing) has the fastest onset and shortest duration?

Rocuronium

MOA of sux?

PHASE I - Binds nAChR - opens the channel - depolarisation - muscle contraction (fasiculations). Then flaccid paralysis as excitation - contraction coupling requires repriming and repetitive firing to maintain muscle tension - i.e. Non further depolarisations possible.



PHASE II - prolonged exposure - membrane is repolarised but desensitized - the receptors act like that are in a prolonged closed phase ---> possible reversal with cholesterase inhibitors at this stage (not earlier)

Metabolism of roc?

Liver mainly, some renal

Metabolism of sux?

Plasma cholinesterase

Metabolism of cis?

Mostly spontaneous via Hoffmann degradation



Action - 25-45 min

How do you assess neurotransmission whilst under a NMJ blocking agent?

Stimulator and recorder



Single twitch


Train of four


Tetanic stimulation


Double burst and post tetanic count

What is train of four ?

Four muscle twitches in a dose reduced fashion. Ratio of the first and last muscle contractions.




With depolarizing agents there is fade inversely proportional to the blockade.



>0.7 for breathing


>0.9 normal (no drug)

What does the absence of fade on a double burst mean?

There is no clinically significant neuromuscular blockade present

Which muscle is last to be relaxed with paralysis?

Diaphragm

Side effects from nondepolarising NMJ blockers?

CVS - atracurium - histamine - hypotension; pancuronium - tachy, increase CO; sux - negative CO/HR


HYPERKALAEMIA - sux


INCREASE INTRAOCULAR P - sux - not for OPEN globe injuries


INCREASED INTRAGASTRIC P - sux - risk of aspiration - bad for delayed gastric emptying (DM), emergency cases, oesophageal dysfunction, morbid obesity


MUSCLE PAIN - sux - myalgia

What is the effect of anaesthetics on paralytics?

Potentiate the effects



CNS depression


Increased muscle blood flow - increased paralytic to muscle


Decreased sensitivity of the post junction all membrane to depolarisation




Also potentiated by LA and aminoglycosides

Conditions requiring extra /less paralysis

Severe burns


Upper motor neuron disease




Myasthenia graves and old age require dose reduction

Name agents for reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

Neostigmine


Pyridostigmine


Edrophonium


Sugammadex (roc only) 1mg.kg

Describe spasticity.

Tonic stretch reflexes


Flexor muscle spasms (increased basal tone)


Muscle weakness


Hyper excitability alpha motor neurons




Common with spinal injury, cerebral palsy, multiple sclerosis, stroke

MOA benzodiazepines

GABAa agonist

MOA Baclofen

Orally active


GABA mimetic


Agonist GABAb receptors --> increased k --> hyperpolarization --> pre synaptic inhibition by reducing Ca influx --> reducing the release of excitatory transmitters in the brain and spinal cord.



Can have withdrawal symptoms - seizures - needs slow cessation


Tizanidine MOA

Alpha 2 agonist



Used for spasticity



Less cardio effects than clonidine

What are the 5 characteristics of general anaesthesia?

Unconsciousness


Amnesia


Inhibition of autonomic reflexes


Skeletal muscle relaxation


Analgesia

Define local anaesthetic.

Drugs which provide a loss of sensation in a region of a body



Is REVERSIBLE (vs etoh and tetrodotoxin)

Nerve sensitivity to LAs

Back (Definition)

Basic structure of LAs

Intermediate = ester or amide

Draw the buffer curve for a weak base.

Weak acid is inverse of this


Steep portion due to logarithmic scale of pH

Factors that prolong the effects of LAs?

Increased lipid solubility


Increased protein binding



Injected into less vascular tissue


Vasoconstrictor added

Describe the pKa, protein binding and oil:gas partition coefficient.



What effect does this have?

Lower pKa = faster onset



Increased protein binding and oil:gas coefficient = longer duration of action

Effect of liver disease on LAs?

Significant accumulation!! Toxicity



I.e. Lignocaine can increase t1/2 from 1.5 hrs to 6 hrs



I.e. Less frequent dosing

Problems with LAs



Toxicity - local and systemic

Local - intraneural injection (neuropraxia), direct pressure (due to large volume)



Spinal - TNS (transient neurological symptoms) - lignocaine, cauda equine syndrome, cardiac arrest (behold-jarisch reflex)



Systemic - CNS (perioral, tinnitus, muscle twitching, seizures, unconsciousness, apnoea, coma), cardiovascular collapse

Problem with prilocaine?

Significant metHb in adults with doses > 600mg



Beware - blue baby (cyanosis) with excess EMLA - contains prilocaine

Recommended doses for common LAs

Lignocaine 3mg/kg (7mg/kg with adrenalin)





Bupivacaine - 2mg/kg


(Addition of adrenalin for alpha 2 effects)





Ropivacaine - 3mg/kg

Which is less cardio toxic - ropivacaine or bupivacaine?

Ropivacaine - provided as s isomer and less lipid soluble vs bupivacaine




BUPIVACAINE IS Bad for the heart

What is the classic arrhythmia with LA toxicity?

Torsades de pointes

Indication of muscle relaxants?

Paralyse skeletal muscle with no effect on cardiac or smooth muscle




Intubation (relax vocal cords, no gaging/coughing)


Facilitate mechanical ventilation + major surgery

Muscle relaxant adverse effects?

Very dangerous, takes away the ability to breathe without an effect on consciousness (i.e. they are aware)




Apnoea --> Death




May also cause Anaphylaxis

When do most cases of awareness occur when under a muscle relaxant without sufficient anaesthesia ?

During prolonged induction, prolonged intubation attempts, Emergence/recovery (residual paralysis)

Describe the physiology of the NMJ.

ACh is synthesised in the nerve terminal by choline acetyl transferase from acetyl CoA and choline


--> Depolarisation of the nerve


--> Ca influx


--> Fusion of vesicles with terminal via docking proteins --> ACh release


--> ACh binds nAChR --> depolarisation of muscular endplate /muscle


--> activation of voltage gated Na channels --> propagation of depolarisation --> Contraction




(Can also have spontaneous vesicle release - MEPP)

What do vesicles with ACh contain besides ACh?

ATP


Ca, Mg, H

What is MEPP ?




Function?

Mini End Plate Potential - depolarisation due to ACh binding --> summate to cause depolarisation of the muscle and contraction




Individual MEPP unable to cause depolarisation individually




Possible function to main population of nAChR (lost with denervation)

What can happen to ACh following release from the Nerve terminal?

1. Hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase


2. Bind post synaptic nAChR


3. Bind pre synaptic AChR (mobilise further ACh)


4. Diffuse away from NMJ to ECF/plasma

Describe the nAChR.

Pentamer


Transmembrane


Ligand -Gated Ion Channel (Cation pore - Na, Ca)




2x alpha, beta, delta, epsilon --> adult form


ACh binds alpha units - requires 2 ACh molecules for activation




Presynaptic and foetal forms have different subunit makeup

Which answer is correct regarding the release of ACh at the motor endplate:




A. Hemicholinium directly interfers with release


B. Only in response to action potential


C. Decreased by aminoglycosides


D. Is a Ca dependent process


E. Always causes an action potential

A. Hemicholinium directly interfers with release (interfers with choline uptake)


B. Only in response to action potential (spontaneous release)




C. Decreased by aminoglycosides - CORRECT




D. Is a Ca dependent process (spontaneous release)


E. Always causes an action potential (MEPP)

Why do you measure muscle relaxant effects?

1. Onset - ? ideal for intubation?


2. Measure depth of paralysis - Adequate for surgery


3. Measure offset - ? require reversal



How do you monitor Muscle relaxants?




Modes?

Peripheral nerve stimulator


- 2 electrodes


- Delivers electrical current


- Monitor - visual, tactile, force transducer




MODES - Single twitch, TOF, double burst (better for tactile monitoring), post tetanic count

Difference between depolarising and non-depolarising muscle relaxants to TOF?

Depolarising -  no fade, TOF always 1 because no fade 

Non depolarising - fade

Depolarising - no fade, TOF always 1 because no fade




Non depolarising - fade

When can reversal of non depolarising muscle relaxants able to be reversed?

TOF count of 2 or more




TOF Ratio > 0.9 = adequate reversal

What is fade with muscle relaxants?

ACh binds both post and presynaptic nAChR




Presynaptic function - Mobilisation of vesicles via Ca influx and acts as a positive feedback loop to provide more ACh.




Reduction in contraction due to >? reduced ACh - due to blockade of BOTH pre and post synaptic receptors



What does Alpha-bungarotoxin do?

It is a snake venom and blocks POST-synaptic nAChR




Acts like non-depolarising muscle relaxant without FADE



Post tetanic count




Physiology?


Clinical Relevance

Tetanic stimulation mobilises/primes vesicles ready for release for subsequent APs.




Greater quantities of ACh are released with APs/single twitches after a period of tetany --> then gradually declines to baseline levels. The extra ACh overcomes non depolarising competitive antagonists --> contraction (i.e. not with SUX)




Count of 8-10 = TOF 1

Describe when different methods of measuring paralysis are useful.

PTC and BD are better for tactile/visual monitoring

PTC and BD are better for tactile/visual monitoring

Describe the receptor occupancy number for


1. a TOFC of 4


2. TOFR >0.9


3. ED95

1. a TOFC of 4 - 75% 

2. TOFR >0.9 - 85%

3. ED95 - >95% (twitch height reduction of 95%)

1. a TOFC of 4 - 75%




2. TOFR >0.9 - 85%




3. ED95 - >95% (twitch height reduction of 95%)

Paralysis agent for RSI?

Sux - short onset (<60sec) and offset (5-8 minutes)




Can be given IMI - i.e. if a patient develops laryngospasm without IV access

Dose of Sux?

1-1.5mg/kg

Onset of SUX?

<60sec with fasciculations

Duration of action of SUX?

6-8 minutes


No reversal (spontaneous)

SUX MOA?

Homologous to ACh (2 molecules)


Binds nAChR - Opening of channel - MEPP - Summation --> Activation of resting Voltage gated Na channels --> opening of M + H gate (activated state) --> time dependent closing of H gate (inactivated state) --> change to resting state is dependent on re-polarisation which does not happen with suxamethonium present (remains depolarised) --> End plate block






Sux - not metabolised by acetylcholinesterase



What are the possible causes of a prolonged block by suxamethonium ?

1. Abnormal SUX metabolism - plasma/pseudo/ butyryl cholinesterase (plasma protein, produced in the liver, high activity)


- Genetics - Absence or reduction in enzyme - dibucaine test


- Low in premies


- Lower in pregnancy


- Liver failure, malnutrition, disseminated malignancy, renal failure


- Iatrogenic - plasma pheresis, Cardiopulmonary bypass


- Drugs - anti cholinesterases - neostigmine, edrophonium; metoclopramide, cyclophosphamide, OCP




2. Phase II block with infusions or repeat dosing (2-4mg/kg) - similar to non-depolarising block



Complications of prolonged paralysis i.e. due to pseudocholinesterase deficiency ?

Reassurance for the patient who is paralysed and conscious


Re-establish unconsciousness


Maintain airway and ventilatory support until resolution --> ICU if prolonged




Later --> Plasma cholinesterase activity assay, family testing, alert bracelet, avoid mivacurium

Why check that sux has worn off before giving a non depolarising muscle relaxant?

To ensure no prolonged paralysis by six to avoid confusion at the end of the case as to which has caused prolonged paralysis if it occurs

What is the Dibucaine number of a normal person?




a. 20


b. 40


c. 60


d. 80


e. 10

a. 20


b. 40


c. 60


d. 80 - Correct


e. 10

Plasma Cholinesterase:




A. Metabolises Dibucaine


B. Metabolises Esmolol


C. Hydrolyses Mirvacurium at 80% the rate of suxamethonium


D. Is unaffected by neostigmine



A. Metabolises Dibucaine (inhibited by dibucaine)


B. Metabolises Esmolol




C. Hydrolyses Mirvacurium at 80% the rate of suxamethonium - Correct




D. Is unaffected by neostigmine

Adverse effects of Sux ?

Uncommon but serious:


Anaphylaxis


Malignant hyperthermia


Bradycardia/Asystole


Severe Hyperkalaemia/Cardiac arrest


Prolonged paralysis


Masseter muscle rigidity / spasm - difficult airway management




Common but less serious:


Myalgias (50%)


Transient rises in IOP + ICP + intra-abdominal pressure


Transient rise in K ~0.5mmol/L



Conditions associated with severe/ life threatening hyperkalaemia with suxamethonium ?




Cause>

Upper or lower motor near defect, prolonged chemical denervation (paralysis, magnesium, botulism), direct trauma, burns (delayed - not with acute burn), disuse atrophy, severe infection




Caused by the up regulation of metal nAChR which stay open for longer allowing greater K EFFLUX and are also able to be activated by Choline (six breakdown product)

Is it safe to use SUX for intubation in patients with a head injury?

YES




Transient rise in ICP but still safe

Other routes of administration for SUXAMETHONIUM?

3-4mg/kg peripheral muscle --> 3-4minutes onset - Long




1mg/kg INTRALINGUALLY will cause apnoea and vocal cord relaxation in 75sec - Quick




IE - use in a child without IV access who develops laryngospasm

MOA of Rocuronium?

Competitive antagonism nAChR




Same as all non-depolarising paralytics

How are Non-depolarising agents usually used?

Post induction


Given IV


Dose is usually 2-3x ED95




Maintenance - smaller intermittent boluses or constant infusion

What is ED50 and LD50?




What is therapeutic index?

ED50 - Effective dose 50 - dose at which 50% of subjects have the desired effect




LD50 - Lethal dose 50 - dose to kill 50% of subjects




Therapeutic index = LD50/ED50

What is EC95%?

Dose required to produce 95% of the maximal response




Graded measure

How is potency of non-depolarising muscle relaxants measured?

ED95




Median dose required to produced 95% twitch height reduction in 50% of subjects - Should actually be EC95




This is actually a graded response - i.e. EC95




ED95 is the ED50 for an EC95 response

Describe the features for both depolarising and non-depolarising paralytic agents.




fasiculations


TOF


tetany


post tetanic facilitation


effect of anti-cholinesterases


potential for Phase II block


K+ efflux


% receptor occupancy for decreased twitch height

Which non-depolarising paralytic has the shorted onset?

Mivacurium - not really used in AUS






ROC is the one we use




Roc < atra

Which Non-depolarising muscle relaxant is the least potent?

roc




i.e. need bigger doses for the same effect

Metabolism of ROC?

Biliary and renal




prolonged duration with biliary obstruction



Metabolism of Atracurium?

Hoffmann degradation - spontaneous degradation






also some hydrolysis by non-specific plasma esterase's




Ie not end organ --> not dependent on liver or kidneys

Which Non-depolarising muscle relaxant has 10 isomers?

atracurium






also associated with histamine release and may cause hypotension

Difference between atracurium and cisatracurium?

Cis - one isomer of atracurium




Cis - less histamine, more potent, smaller doses, slower onset




Metabolism - both - Hoffmann





Breakdown product of Cisatracurium?




Complications ?

Laudanosine




in accumulation associated with CNS excitation and seizures with prolonged administration

Vecuronium


- Elimination?


- Reversal?

Mainly biliary 40-60%; 20-30% renal






Can be reversed with sugammadex

Drugs that potentiate Non-depolarising muscle relaxant effects?

Volatile anaesthetic


Gentamicin, clindamycin


Local anaesthetics


Magnesium, CCBs

Drugs that inhibit the effect of Non-depolarising muscle relaxants?

Carbamazepine




Calcium

Complications of inadequate Non-depolarising muscle relaxant reversal?

Distress / PTSD




Respiratory - airway obstruction, hypoventilation, atelectasis

What are the indicators of adequate reversal from Non-depolarising muscle relaxants?

TOFR >0.9




Clinical (Unreliable) - sustained head lift >5sec, negative inspiratory pressure 40cmH2O, Vital capacity 20ml/kg

Reversal of Sux?

No reversal - short acting




If prolonged action due cholinesterase deficiency --> FFP or whole blood as a source of plasma cholinesterase




If in Phase II (no longer occurs) - normal reversal agents

Agents for Reversal of Non-depolarising muscle relaxants?

1. Increase endogenous agonist with ANTICHOLINESTERASES i.e. neostigmine




2. Bind and inactivate drug - SUGAMMADEX

Problems with reversal of Non-depolarising muscle relaxants?

Cant reverse deep block




Need TOFC >2


Residual block not uncommon




Anticholinesterases - block at both NMJ and PSNS nerve endings --> +++PSNS outflow at mAChR - therefore it is given with an anti-muscarinic agent - atropine or glycopyrrolate




Anticholinesterases can cause paralysis - organophosphates and sarin gas

Benefits of glycopyrrolate over atropine in combination with Non-depolarising muscle relaxant reversal with an anti cholinesterase?

1. Onset similar to Neostigmine 2-3 minutes (atropine is faster and therefore SNS effects prominent)




2. Quanternary nitrogen group - polar - does not cross the BBB into the CNS (Atropine does cross) - central anticholinergic syndrome (elderly) -

What is central anticholinergic syndrome?

Syndrome produced by atropine crossing the BBB --> Causing confusion, drowsiness, delayed waking


+ other muscarinic side effects




Rx - physostigmine (anti cholinesterase which crosses the BBB)

Sugammadex function + uses?

Irreversibly binds and inactivates rocuronium or vecuronium in the plasma






Uses


1. Difficult airway - use large dose of roc for rapid onset and then if - can't intubate, cant ventilate - give sugammadex and rapid reversal in 90seconds


2. Reversal from deep paralysis for quick surgeries i.e. open/shut laparotomy or microlaryngoscopy


3. Therapy for Roc anaphylaxis

Factors affecting the onset of paralysis ?

Blood flow - i.e. cardiac output, IVC vs CVC, Highly perfused muscles




From blood to NMJ --> Diffusion --> Ficks law of diffusion - Concentration/dose




Receptor interaction - Sux only requires 15% of receptors bound to have effect, vs non-depolarising which require >70% for onset

Describe the physical properties of the ideal anaesthetic.

Physical Properties


Stable in aqueous solution (don't need be mixed)


Stable in light and at room temperature (can sit on the shelf)


Stable in plastics


No environmental impact


Cheap, easy to produce


Easy to administer


Non-irritant to veins, arteries or tissues


No pain on injection

Describe the Chemical properties of the ideal anaesthetic.

CHEMICAL PROPERTIES




Rapid and smooth onset and offset


Predictable onset


No allergic reactions


Rapid metabolism to inactive substances (Not dependent on end organ metabolism)


No accumulation with repeated doses or infusion


No drug interactions


Minimal effects on body systems

Name the common Intravenous agents for sedation or induction?

Barbituates - Thiopentone


Alkylphenols - Propofol


Imidazoles - Etomidate (USA)


Benzodiazepines - Midazolam


Opioids - Fentanyl


Other - Ketamine, droperidol, althesin

Physiochemical properties of Thiopentone?

THIOPENTONE




Barbituate


pKa7.5, pH 10.8


Produced as a salt - needs to be diluted


Irritant to veins, arteries, tissues


Some bacteriostatic properties

Physiochemical properties of Propofol?

PROPOFOL




Alkylphenol


pKa11, pH 6.0-8.5


Very lipid soluble


1% solution in soybean oil, glycerol, lecithin


Solution promotes bacterial growth


Pain on injection


Non-irritant

Physiochemical properties of Midazolam?

pH 3.3


Water soluble


2 concentrations available - be careful!


Non-painful, Non-irritant

Physiochemical properties of Ketamine>?

Phencyclidine derivative


pKa 7.5, pH 3.5-5.5


Water soluble

Describe the structure activity Relationships for BARBITURATES.





Increase solubility- Sodium substitution at N3 ›




Increase hypnosis - At C5 substitute with an aryl or alkyl group, increase the number ofC atoms at R1/ R2 (at > 5-6 carbon atoms will decrease potency,increase convulsant activity) ›




Increase anticonvulsant effect- Phenyl substitution at C5, N1, N3 ›




Faster onset/ recovery – sulphonate C2, methyl substitution at N1 ›




Excitatory phenomena – methyl or ethyl substitution at N1

Describe the structure activity Relationships for benzodiazepines.




(Ie chemical substitutions for clinical effect)

Benzodiazepines


Electronegative group at R7 essential for activity




Increase activity – methyl group at R1, halogen group at R11




Decrease activity – larger group at R1, substitutions at R31

For Sedatives what does high lipid solubility allow for?

High lipid solubility along with the large proportion of cardiac delivering blood to the brain allows for a rapid onset of action

What is the effect of high protein binding on ONSET of sedatives?

Bound drug cannot cross the blood-brain barrier, so whenprotein concentration is decreased, more drug is available




Ie in hypoalbuminaemia --> increased drug available (requires dose reduction)

What is redistribution half-life?

Redistribution half-life – t1/2α – the time required for thecentral compartment concentration to decrease by 50%

Describe the pharmacokinetic properties of PROPOFOL.




Onset, Lipid solubility, Vd, protein binding, metabolism

Onset - 1-2min




Highly lipid soluble, oil:water partition coefficient is 4700




Vd 200-400l (High)




98% protein-bound




High hepatic extraction ratio (hepatic blood flow is moreimportant than the liver’s ability to extract propofol indetermining clearance) ›




Total clearance is greater than hepatic blood flow(significant extra-hepatic metabolism); 1400 – 2800 ml/min




Hepatic Metabolism - Glucuronide and sulpha congugation + Renal metabolism





Describe the Metabolism of Propofol.

Hepatic metabolism - Glucuronide and sulpha congugation




Renal metabolism (Up to 40%)




>? pulmonary - low




No active metabolites

What is the half life of propofol?

3 Compartment model




T1/2 - alpha --> 2-8 minutes (removal from CNS - reflects clinical effects)




T1/2 - beta --> 40 minutes (Secondary redistribution)




T1/2 - terminal --> 300-700 minutes (Complete elimination - very long but no clinical effect on the pt)

Pharmacodynamics of propofol on the CNS?

Rapid acting hypnotic 1-3mg/kg for induction




Decrease cerebral metabolism, decreases cerebral blood flow, decreases ICP due to vasocontriction




Anticonvulsant effect




Causes myoclonic movements




Shortens therapeutic seizure in ECT




Significant amnesia at sedative doses

Pharmacodynamics of propofol on the Respiratory System?

Decreases ventilatory drive, tidal volume and minute ventilation (dose dependent)




Apnoea common




Decreases airway responsiveness




Decreases protective airway reflexes (risk of aspiration)




Decreases airway resistance

Pharmacodynamics of propofol on the CVS System?

Decreases blood pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance and myocardial contractility




Blunts the barostatic reflex




May cause arrhythmias, sinus arrest

Regarding Propofol which of the following is correct?


1. Causes PONV


2. Causes irritation with arterial injection or tissue extravasation


3. Causes hypertension on administration


4. Is metabolised by the liver only


5. Has intrinsic anti-emetic activity



1. Causes PONV (No - helps prevent PONV)


2. Causes irritation with arterial injection or tissue extravasation (No)


3. Causes hypertension on administration (Hypotension)


4. Is metabolised by the liver only (Renal also)


5. Has intrinsic anti-emetic activity

Which is correct regarding PROPOFOL?




A. Pain free injection


B. Triggers Histamine Release on injection


C. Is a trigger for malignant hyperthemia


D. Rarely causes anaphylaxis


E. Can cause puritis


F. Associated with Lactic acidosis following brief administration

A. Pain free injection (Painful)


B. Triggers Histamine Release on injection (No)


C. Is a trigger for malignant hyperthemia (No)


D. Rarely causes anaphylaxis


E. Can cause puritis (Anti-puritic)


F. Associated with Lactic acidosis following brief administration (Prolonged administration with high doses)

Regarding Fospropofol vs propofol which of the following are incorrect (more than 1)?


1. Prodrug of propofol


2. Metabolised by the liver to propofol + phosphate +formaldehyde


3. Effects are due to metabolite - propofol


4. Faster onset than propofol


5. Also has painful administration


6. Sedation dose - 6.5mg/kg


7. Currently used in NSW

1. Prodrug of propofol


2. Metabolised by the liver to propofol + phosphate + formaldehyde


3. Effects are due to metabolite - propofol


4. Faster onset than propofol - incorrect (3-4 minutes)


5. Also has painful administration - incorrect (Painless)


6. Sedation dose - 6.5mg/kg


7. Currently used in NSW - incorrect

Regarding the pharmacokinetics of Thiopentone which of the following is INCORRECT (Multiple).




1. Highly lipid soluble


2. Oil:water coefficient = 5000


3. 20% protein bound


4. T1/2 alpha - 2-4minutes ; T1/2 beta 6-12hrs


5. Hepatic metabolism with inactive metabolites


6. Clearance 120-180ml/min


7. Vd - low ~ 10-20L

THIOPENTONE




1. Highly lipid soluble - true




2. Oil:water coefficient = 5000 - incorrect


(propofol ~5000, thiopentone 500)




3. 20% protein bound - incorrect (85% protein bound)




4. T1/2 alpha - 2-4minutes ; T1/2 beta 6-12hrs - true




5. Hepatic metabolism with inactive metabolites - incorrect (Pentobarbitone longer acting metabolite) - hangover effect




6. Clearance 120-180ml/min - true




7. Vd - low - incorrect (High - 100-200L)

Regarding the pharmacodynamic effects of THIOPENTONE which of the following are correct/incorrect:




1. Rapid onset hypnotic - dose 4-7mg/kg


2. Decreases CMRO2/CBF/ICP


3. Neuroprotective - can have flat EEG


4. Anticonvulsant effect


5. Inhibitory effects on the respiratory system (reduced drive, Vt, MV + apnoea + reduced protective reflexes)


6. Decreases airway responsiveness



THIOPENTONE




1. Rapid onset hypnotic - dose 4-7mg/kg


2. Decreases CMRO2/CBF/ICP


3. Neuroprotective - can have flat EEG


4. Anticonvulsant effect


5. Inhibitory effects on the respiratory system (reduced drive, Vt, MV + apnoea + reduced protective reflexes)




6. Decreases airway responsiveness - incorrect - increases - i.e. laryngospasm (propofol decreases)

Regarding the pharmacodynamic effects of THIOPENTONE which of the following are correct/incorrect:




1. Causes Bradycardia


2. Causes hypotension


3. Causes PONV


4. Stimulate histamine


5. Anaphylaxis is common


6. Non-irritating to vessels/tissues


7. Decreased renal blood flow and increases ADH

THIOPENTONE




1. Causes Bradycardia - incorrect (Tachycardia)


2. Causes hypotension


3. Causes PONV


4. Stimulate histamine


5. Anaphylaxis is common - incorrect (uncommon)


6. Non-irritating to vessels/tissues - incorrect (very irritating - may cause thrombophlebitis or thrombosis in arteries or tissue necrosis)


7. Decreased renal blood flow and increases ADH

Which anaesthetic is contraindicated in PORPHYRIA ?

Thiopentone / barbituates




The barbiturates induce ALA synthase which catalyses theinitial step in haeme biosynthesis - ALA can accumulate because of the reduced enzyme activityand is neurotoxic

What is the benefit of etomidate?

Minimal CVS effects - i.e. no hypotension, cardiac depressive effects like propofol and thiopentone

Which of the following are incorrect/correct regarding MIDAZOLAM pharmacokinetics:




1. T1/2 alpha - 7-15min


2. Cl 300-400ml/min


3. Vd 70-130L


4. High protein binding 94%


5. Highly lipid soluble due to unprotonated state


6. Metabolised via hydroxylation


7. High first pass metabolism - 15% oral bioavailability

ALL CORRECT




1. T1/2 alpha - 7-15min


2. Cl 300-400ml/min


3. Vd 70-130L


4. High protein binding 94%


5. Highly lipid soluble due to unprotonated state6. Metabolised via hydroxylation


7. High first pass metabolism - 15% oral bioavailability

Effects of midazolam - True/false:




1. Strong anxiolytic


2. Respiratory depression equally in all patients


3. Rapid onset hypnosis with large doses


4. Anticonvulsant effect


5. No drug synergy

MIDAZOLAM




1. Strong anxiolytic




2. Respiratory depression equally in all patients - Incorrect (COPD greater depression)




3. Rapid onset hypnosis with large doses




4. Anticonvulsant effect




5. No drug synergy - incorrect (significant synergy with EtOH and opioids)

Regarding the pharmacokinetics of KETAMINE which of the following are correct/incorrect:




1. Long T1/2 alpha - 11-17minutes


2. Cl 1250-1400ml/min


3. Vd 200-250L


4. High protein binding 90%


5. Metabolism - hepatic via N-demethylation to an inactive compound norketamine

KETAMINE




1. Long T1/2 alpha - 11-17minutes


2. Cl 1250-1400ml/min


3. Vd 200-250L


4. High protein binding 90% - incorrect (low 12%)


5. Metabolism - hepatic via N-demethylation to an inactive compound norketamine - incorrect (true except norketamine is an ACTIVE compound)

Effects of Ketamine on the CNS?

Block NMDA - receptor


Dissociated anaesthetic


Profound analgesia


Hallucinations


Dysphoria


Increases CMRO2/CBF/ICP

IV dose of Ketamine?

1-2mg/kg




IMI 6-8mg/kg

Benefits and negatives of Ketamine on CVS, resp, GIT...

BENEFITS


Bronchodilator


Little respiratory depression


Limited effects on airway reflexes


Increases BP, HR, CO, SVR, contractility (may decrease if at maximal catecholaemine state)




NEGATIVES


Copious salivation (give with glycopyrrolate)


Increase myocardial demand (AMI)


PONV



Effects of propofol, thiopentone, etomidate, benzos, ketamine on CMRO2, CBF, ICP, CPP?

Mainly Ketamine increase

Mainly Ketamine increase

Effects of propofol, thiopentone, etomidate, benzos, ketamine on the Cardiovascular System?

Ketamine only ++ 

Ketamine only ++

Effects of propofol, thiopentone, etomidate, benzos, ketamine on the Respiratory System?

Ie if coughing after propofol ? aspiration because so depressant 

Ie if coughing after propofol ? aspiration because so depressant

DOSE OF LIGNOCAINE, BUPIVACAINE, ROPIVACAINE

Lignocaine 3mg - 7mg/kg with adrenalin




Bupivacaine - 2mg/kg (cardiotoxic)




Ropivacaine - 3mg/kg

Which LA has the highest protein binding?

Bupivacaine 95%




ropivacaine 94%

Potency order for paralytics for vec, cis, roc, pan, atracurium

Vecuronium = pancuronium > cisatracurium = Atracurium > rocuronium

Dose of sugammadex?

1mg/kg

What is the mechanism for the reduced incidence of hypotension with a single bolus dose of thiopentone compared with propofol?




It is a direct positive inotrope


Inhibition of the baroreceptor reflex is less pronounced


It does not cause peripheral vasodilation


Direct vasoconstrictor activity


Less histamine release

Inhibition of the baroreceptor reflex is less pronounced

What are the respiratory side effects of propofol?




Apnoea and reduced minute ventilation


Bronchodilation and reduced bronchial secretions


Reduction in upper airway reflexes with preservation of minute ventilation


Respiratory stimulation and increased minute ventilation


Bronchospasm and increased bronchial secretions

Apnoea and reduced minute ventilation

Apart from anxiolysis what is the other desired effect that makes midazolam useful in premedication for general anaesthesia?

Anterograde Amnesia

Ketamine is highly desirable as an anaesthetic drug. As well as its “dissociative anaesthetic” effect what other property is useful in the intraoperative management of patients?

Analgesic properties

What causes FADE?

Non-depolarizing NMBDs block prejunctional receptors, resulting in failure of mobilization of ACh to keep pace with the demands of the stimulation frequency. Clinically, this is manifest as tetanic fade and TOF fade, in which there is a reduction in twitch height with successive stimuli.