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147 Cards in this Set

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Which of the following statements about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act is true?
A. All employees must have equal working conditions.
B. Discrimination against race and sexual orientation is prohibited.
C. Employers must provide sexual harassment training for all employees.
D. Employees must have an equal opportunity to participate in training.
D. Employees must have an equal opportunity to participate in training.

The correct answer is D. This law was passed to prohibit employment discrimination against protected classes. Several state laws have expanded these classes to include sexual orientation or public assistance status, but this is not a condition of the federal law. The law does not mandate equal working conditions or specific training programs but does require that all employees have equal opportunity to participate in training.
According to ADEA, which of the following statements is true?
A. High-level managers have no mandatory requirements for retirement.
B. A company may discontinue pension accruals for employees over age 65.
C. Employers may fire an employee over age 40 for good cause.
D. Employers do not need to offer insurance to employees covered by Medicare.
C. Employers may fire an employee over age 40 for good cause.

The correct answer is C. Older workers, like other workers, may be fired for good cause, such as poor performance. A is incorrect because high-level managers can be required to retire at age 70 if they receive company-sponsored retirement benefits of at least $44,000 per year. B is incorrect because a company cannot limit or classify employees in any way that adversely affects their status. D is incorrect because employers must offer employees age 65 and older the same insurance they offer younger workers.
A qualified applicant who has performed a similar job in the past is refused employment by a company because of a history of nervous breakdowns. Under Title I of the ADA, the company should
A. hire the applicant but require a psychiatric exam.
B. hire the applicant since the applicant is qualified for the position.
C. refuse to hire the applicant because of the risk of negligent hiring.
D. refuse to hire the applicant for this position but find another position in the company.
B. hire the applicant since the applicant is qualified for the position.

The correct answer is B. The law forbids employment discrimination against qualified individuals with a physical or mental disability. Since the applicant has the skill and experience to do the job and can perform the essential functions of the job, the applicant should be hired.
The ADA applies to
A. employers with 15 or more employees.
B. employers with 25 or more employees.
C. employers who contract with the federal government.
D. all employers, regardless of the size of the company.
A. employers with 15 or more employees.

The correct answer is A. Employers with 15 or more employees must follow ADA provisions.
The ADA does NOT protect an employee who
A. uses illegal drugs.
B. has epilepsy.
C. has AIDS.
D. has serious psychological problems.
A. uses illegal drugs.

The correct answer is A. Illegal drug users are not protected by the ADA. The other disabilities listed are covered under the act.
Under the ADA, which of the following statements is true?
A. Preemployment medical examinations may be required before a job offer is extended.
B. Employers must set affirmative action plans for the disabled.
C. Employers do not need to accommodate a disability if it results in undue hardship.
D. Rehabilitated drug users are excluded by the law.
C. Employers do not need to accommodate a disability if it results in undue hardship.

The correct answer is C. Employers are not required to make accommodations that result in undue hardship. A is not correct because preemployment medical exams are prohibited except after an employment offer has been extended. B is incorrect because employers are not required to set affirmative action plans for the disabled. D is incorrect because the ADA's definition of disability includes rehabilitated drug users.
Identity and right to work can be verified by a
A. U.S. passport.
B. voter's registration card.
C. Social Security card.
D. U.S. citizen ID card
A. U.S. passport.

The correct answer is A. A voter's registration card demonstrates only identity. The Social Security card and U.S. citizen ID card demonstrate only the right to work.
The burden of verifying that a new employee is eligible to work in the U.S. lies with the
A. INS.
B. Social Security Administration.
C. employer.
D. employee.
C. employer.

The correct answer is C. The employer must fill out Form 1-9, which verifies the employee's identity and right to work in the U.S. The employer keeps the form on file for at least three years or one year after the person leaves the place of employment.
Which of the following procedurally assists employers in complying with federal regulations against discrimination?
A. Executive Order 11246
B. Congressional Accountability Act
C. Title VII, Civil Rights Act
D. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures
D. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

The correct answer is D. The Uniform Guidelines cover all aspects of the selection process, including recruiting, testing, interviewing, and performance appraisals. Their purpose is to assist employers in complying with federal regulations against discrimination. The other choices set forth the law but do not assist employers in complying with it.
Under the WARN Act, what type of notice must an employer provide?
A. 30 days notice if 500 full- and part-time employees at one site will be laid off
B. 60 days notice if 33% of full-time employees at one site will be laid off
C. 60 days notice if 500 full- and part-time employees will be laid off
D. 90 days notice if a layoff is considered permanent
B. 60 days notice if 33% of full-time employees at one site will be laid off

The correct answer is B. A mass layoff (33% of the full-time employees at a work site or 500 or more full-time employees requires 60 days notice.
Which of the following statements about the Privacy Act of 1974 is true?
A. It establishes the concept of just cause.
B. It gives federal employees access to their personnel files.
C. It establishes the concept of due process.
D. It lists all federal laws pertaining to record keeping.
B. It gives federal employees access to their personnel files.

The correct answer is B. The act gives federal-sector employees the right to know the type of information collected on them, review their files, have incorrect information removed, and restrict distribution of information.
An employer can require an individual to take a polygraph test when the
A. employer suspects that the employee is stealing from the company.
B. employer suspects that the employee is selling manufacturing information to a competitor.
C. employee has direct access to the manufacturing or distribution of controlled
substances.
D. employee will become a key member of the management group of the company.
C. employee has direct access to the manufacturing or distribution of controlled
substances.

The correct answer is C. Employees working with controlled substances can be required to take a polygraph test. A and B are not correct because employers may not require the employee to take the test. If the employee does voluntarily agree to take the test, the employee may terminate the test at any time. D is not correct since polygraph tests cannot be used to make employment decisions.
According to the Fair Credit Reporting Act, if an employer uses a credit report to deny a job promotion, the employee must
A. receive a pre-adverse action disclosure.
B. agree not to sue the company.
C. provide verbal authorization for the report.
D. agree that the information in the report is accurate.
A. receive a pre-adverse action disclosure.

The correct answer is A. When denying a promotion based on the credit report findings, an employer must provide a pre-adverse action disclosure that includes a copy of the report and a summary of employee rights prepared by the Federal Trade Commission.
Which of the following is an example of disparate treatment?
A. Members of a protected group are subject to stricter attendance rules.
B. A neutral staffing practice results in discrimination against protected groups.
C. Height restrictions are set for all security guards.
D. All employees are required to take an intelligence test.
A. Members of a protected group are subject to stricter attendance rules.

The correct answer is A. Disparate treatment occurs when an employee who is a member of a protected group is treated differently from other employees; disparate impact occurs when a neutral practice results in unintentional discrimination for a protected group.
An organization that gives preference to applicants referred by current employees could be guilty of
A. disparate treatment.
B. a historically discriminatory practice.
C. reverse discrimination.
D. intentional discrimination.
B. a historically discriminatory practice.

The correct answer is B. Giving preference to applicants referred by current employees may perpetuate past policies that were discriminatory. It may serve to maintain the current racial or ethnic mix, making it hard for members of some groups to get hired. The organization is not guilty of intentional discrimination because it does not intentionally treat or evaluate protected groups differently from other employees.
Which of the following court cases established the criteria for disparate impact?
A. Washington v. Davis
B. Griggs v. Duke Power
C. Albemarle Paper v. Moody
D. McDonnell Douglas Corp. v. Green
B. Griggs v. Duke Power

The correct answer is B. The case of Griggs v. Duke Power recognized disparate impact and established that it is not necessarily enough to show a lack of discriminatory intent. Washington v. Davis recognized that even if a selection tool had an adverse impact, as long as it was a valid prediction of job-related success, it could be used. Albemarle Paper v. Moody ruled that tests used for promotion or selection must be valid predictors of job success. McDonnell Douglas Corp. v. Green established the four criteria necessary for a prima facie case for disparate treatment.
The 2000 revision of regulations governing AAPs (Affirmative Action Plans) allows employers to
A. omit employees located at sites employing less than 50 employees.
B. substitute an organizational profile for the traditional workforce analysis.
C. eliminate the eight-factor analysis.
D. exclude written AAPs for women.
B. substitute an organizational profile for the traditional workforce analysis.

The correct answer is B. According to the new regulations, employers may use an organizational profile that provides a graphical representation of the organizational units and their relationships. An organizational unit is any discrete component at which there is a supervisor responsible for selection, management, and compensation of employees within the unit. The new regulations do not eliminate the eight-factor analysis, but they reduce the analysis to two factors. In addition, the new regulations require employees at all sites to be included in an AAP. While the obligation to create written AAPs for women has been reduced, it has not been eliminated.
Underutilization refers to a situation in which an organization
A. employs a smaller number of women or minorities than is indicated by their availability.
B. assigns women or minorities to jobs that are not challenging.
C. is unable to determine the ethnicity of its applicants.
D. must set quotas to meet AA goals.
A. employs a smaller number of women or minorities than is indicated by their availability.

The correct answer is A. Underutilization is a situation where an organization employs fewer members of a protected class than their availability indicates. For example, if 35% of the paramedics in a labor market are women and a hospital's paramedics are only 10% female, underutilization exists.
A federal contractor is visited by a compliance officer who checks the accuracy of all data supplied and verified EEO postings. What kind of audit is being conducted?
A. Compliance review
B. Off-site review
C. Compliance check
D. Focused review
C. Compliance check

The correct answer is C. A compliance check takes place at the contractor's site, and the compliance officer checks for EEO postings, verifies all AA data supplied, and may even interview employees. A focused review is also done on site, but, as implied by the name, it usually focuses on only a few components of the AAP. The compliance review and the off-site review are done at the office of the compliance officer.
When a qualified white male is denied an opportunity because preference is given to a member of a protected group, it is known as
A. reasonable accommodation.
B. reverse discrimination.
C. quota system.
D. undue hardship.
B. reverse discrimination.

The correct answer is B. Reverse discrimination occurs when a qualified person in a non protected class (e.g. a white male) is denied an opportunity in favor of a member of the protected class (e.g., a minority applicant) who may be less qualified. Quota systems set aside a specific share of openings (e.g., 15%) for minorities or women. The Supreme Court has ruled against strict quota systems in a number of cases.
Which of the following explains why employers are responsible for the discriminatory acts of their supervisors?
A. Vicarious liability
B. Hostile environment
C. Quid pro quo
D. Reverse discrimination
A. Vicarious liability

The correct answer is A. Vicarious liability is the legal doctrine that holds that an organization is liable for the actions of its supervisors. It requires employers to promptly and irrevocably end harassment through the appropriate intervention.
In trend and ratio analysis, the key to accurately projecting past figures into the future depends on the
A. relationships between two variables and whether they will stay the same.
B. length of time it takes to complete the analysis.
C. acceptance of the analysis by the organization.
D. support of senior management.
A. relationships between two variables and whether they will stay the same.

The correct answer is A. The key to accurate projections is whether the relationships will continue to hold. The length of time it takes to complete the analysis could affect the relationships, but it is the relationship, not the time, that is the key factor. The acceptance and support of key management has nothing to do with the relationships.
A shipping company uses information provided by experts to predict future industry trends. The form of judgmental forecasting where experts take turns presenting their assumptions and refining a composite but never meet is called
A. managerial estimates.
B. the nominal group technique.
C. trend analysis.
D. the Delphi technique.
D. the Delphi technique.

The correct answer is D. The Delphi technique is the only technique in which members work as a group without ever meeting. Managerial estimates and trend analysis are generally completed by individuals and presented to management. The nominal group technique requires face-to-face meetings.
A job function is usually considered essential if it
A. can be performed by many employees.
B. requires highly specialized skills.
C. is performed infrequently.
D. is at least 5% to 10% of the job.
B. requires highly specialized skills.

The correct answer is B. An essential job function is one that is performed regularly and makes up at least 20% of the job. An essential function requires highly specialized skills or expertise, and, in many cases, the reason the job exists is to perform the function. Nonessential functions are less than 10% of the job and can be performed by many people in a department. If not completed, there are often minimal consequences.
The three key elements included in a job analysis are
A. responsibilities, tasks, reporting structure.
B. knowledge, skills, abilities.
C. competencies, qualifications, procedures.
D. reporting structure, pay range, essential job functions.
B. knowledge, skills, abilities.

The correct answer is B. Job analysis focuses on the key human requirements necessary to perform the job. It does not deal with organizational structures, pay ranges, or procedural issues.
Which of the following is a written description of the work to be done?
A. Job description
B. Job specification
C. Job context
D. Job ranking
A. Job description

The correct answer is A. A job description is a written description of the job and its requirements. A job specification is a written statement of the necessary qualifications of the job incumbent.
Which of' the following statements about job specifications is true?
A. They summarize the most important features of a job.
B. They describe the working conditions.
C. They list the qualifications necessary to perform the job.
D. They list all of the essential functions of the job.
C. They list the qualifications necessary to perform the job.

The correct answer is C. A job description is a written description of the job and its requirements. A job specification is a written statement of the necessary qualifications of the job incumbent. The job specification can be a section of the job description or a separate document.
Employees are given a chance to indicate an interest in an announced position through
A. job posting.
B. skill tracking.
C. succession planning.
D. job analysis.
A.. job posting.

The correct answer is A. Job posting gives employees the chance to respond to announcements of positions. Skill tracking, succession planning, and job analysis are human resource activities that are not based upon an employee's stated interest in a position.
Which of the following recruitment methods usually results in lower employee turnover?
A. College placement offices
B. Advertisements
C. Employee referrals
D. Walk-ins
C. Employee referrals

The correct answer is C. Because employees know the corporate culture and job specifications, they usually recommend people who will fit in well. Therefore, these people may be more likely to remain
with the organization and have the highest one-year survival rates.
Which of the following is the best way for an organization to determine recruiting effectiveness?
A. Analyze yield ratios.
B. Conduct a needs assessment.
C. Conduct employment surveys.
D. Review industry data.
A. Analyze yield ratios.

The correct answer is A. Organizations need to evaluate recruitment strategies against objective criteria. Field ratios produce actual data that can be used to determine which source, method, or recruiter produces the greatest yield.
A small company does not have the time or personnel to administer benefits, payroll, or personnel records programs. Which of the following flexible staffing alternatives might be an option for them?
A. Hiring independent contractors instead of employees
B. Leasing employees from a professional employer organization
C. Using in-house temporary employees
D. Instituting a temp-to-hire program
B. Leasing employees from a professional employer organization

The correct answer is B. The most practical option is leasing. The company will transfer all of its employees to the professional employer organization (PEO), which assumes all of the HR functions and leases the employees back to the company. This arrangement is invisible to employees and
eliminates the administrative burden for the company.
Which of the following companies might benefit most from a temp-to-hire program?
A. A company that has had difficulty in finding and keeping a receptionist
B. A company that does not have sufficient HR staff to administer payroll and benefits
programs
C. A company whose business fluctuates from season to season
D. A company that needs highly technical workers for one to two-year assignments
A. A company that has had difficulty in finding and keeping a receptionist

The correct answer is A. A company that has difficulty finding staff might benefit most from a temp-to-hire program. In this case, the company can try out an employee, offering a position only when there is a good match between employee and job. A company that does not have sufficient staff to administer HR programs might try leasing or outsourcing arrangements, while companies whose business fluctuates from season to season is probably best off hiring "'casual" workers who will work only during the peak season.
Selection is the process of
A. hiring the most suitable candidate for a position.
B. identifying the top applicants for a position.
C. hiring the best-qualified candidate for the position.
D. finding additional minority applicants.
A. hiring the most suitable candidate for a position.

The correct answer is A. Selection does not necessarily mean hiring the best-qualified candidate for a position because that may prelude exercising alternative action (i.e., hiring a qualified candidate from a protected class).
Why should candidates who supply resumes also complete application forms?
A. It is an EEOC requirement.
B. The resume may provide facts the employer is prohibited from requesting.
C. The forms require applicants to verify that the content is correct.
D. The forms provide information on fair employment practices.
C. The forms require applicants to verify that the content is correct.

The correct answer is C. The application form asks the employee to sign and verify that the information is correct. It also states consequences, such as termination, if the information is found to be false. A. is not correct because an application form is not an EEOC requirement. B is not correct because according to the EEOC and the courts, applications should not be constructed in such a way that they elicit discriminatory information. D is not correct because legally a form does not need to include information on fair employment practices.
An employment application may include sections dealing with
A. arrest records.
B. credit ratings.
C. authorization of information.
D. family status.
C. authorization of information

The correct answer is C. An application form should ask applicants to verify that the information they have provided is correct. Asking for information related to arrest records, credit ratings, or family status may be discriminatory and should be avoided.
In which of the following types of interviews is each applicant asked the same questions?
A. Patterned
B. Non directive
C. Structured
D. Behavioral
C. Structured

The correct answer is C. In structured interviews (also called repetitive interviews) the interviewer asks every applicant the same questions.
Which of the following types of interviews focuses on how the applicant handled previous situations?
A. Stress
B. Directive
C. Structured
D. Behavioral
D. Behavioral

The correct answer is D. Behavioral interviews operate under the premise that past behavior predicts future performance. An interviewer focuses on how the applicant previously handled real situations and looks for three key elements - a description of the situation, the action taken, and the outcome.
A form of interview bias in vvhich an interviewer allows one strong point to overshadow all other information is known as
A. cultural noise.
B. negative emphasis.
C. contrast effect.
D. halo or horn effect.
D. halo or horn effect.

The correct answer is D. The halo effect occurs when one strong point that the interviewer values highly overshadows all other information. When this works in the applicants favor, it is called the halo effect. When it works against the applicant, it is called the horn effect.
A form of interview bias in which an interviewer allows candidates to give responses that are politically correct but not very revealing is known as
A. cultural noise.
B. negative emphasis.
C. contrast effect.
D. halo effect.
A. cultural noise

The correct answer is A. Cultural noise is the failure to recognize that an applicant's comments are socially acceptable but do not divulge personal information. For example, the candidate might claim to have no problems reporting to a female manager when this is not the case.
Which of the following tests measures the capacity to learn or acquire new skills?
A. Achievement
B. Aptitude
C. Psycho motor
D. Personality
B. Aptitude

The correct answer is B. Aptitude tests measure a person's capacity to learn or acquire new skills. Achievement tests measure vvhat a person knows or can do.
Content validity is the extent to which a selection device measures
A. differences between good performers and poor performers.
B. personality traits that are related to job performance.
C. knowledge, skills, and abilities used on the job.
D. experience as a predictor of job success.
C. knowledge, skills, and abilities used on the job.

The correct answer is C. Content validity involves testing that determines if employees can complete tasks that are part of the job. For example, a math test for a cashier tests the skills and knowledge
needed to perform the job.
Which of the following is an example of construct validity?
A.. Assistants with college degrees are evaluated against those with no degrees.
B. Flight controllers are tested for leadership and critical-thinking skills.
C. Computer programmers are asked to debug a section of code.
D. New hires are tested, and their job performances are later compared to the test results.
B. Flight controllers are tested for leadership and critical-thinking skills.

The correct answer is B. Construct validity is used to measure traits that are directly related to job performance. For flight controllers, the ability to think critically and lead others is key to performing effectively. It takes complex statistical analyses to determine that a test actually measures the job related traits.
A company has high turnover in its collections department. Part of the reason for the turnover is that employees deal with stressful situations and difficult people. Which of the following would provide the MOST realistic job preview?
A. Giving applicants a walking tour of the workplace
B. Allowing applicants to talk with other collections representatives
C. Allowing applicants to listen in on actual telemarketing calls
D. Watching videos of how to deal with angry customers
C. Allowing applicants to listen in on actual telemarketing calls

The correct answer is C. While all of the activities here have merit, the best job preview is the one that most closely mirrors the actual job. In this case, allowing the applicant to hear actual calls and see how a representative handles them provides the most realistic look at what the position entails
Which of the following should be avoided in an offer letter?
A. Requiring a signature on a duplicate copy of an offer letter
B. Mailing employee's informational brochures before they start work
C. Clarifying contingencies such as a medical exam
D. Quoting salary terms in an annual format
D. Quoting salary terms in an annual format

The Correct answer is D. In an offer letter, state salary terms in hourly or monthly figures. If an employee is terminated, the annual figure could become binding. The other practices listed are sound employment practices and should be a part of the offer process.
Which of the following is true of severance packages?
A. They are not required by federal law.
B. They ensure that employees will not file suit against the company.
C. They require employees to sign a waiver that they will not sue the company.
D. They will increase an employer's unemployment tax contributions.
A. They are not required by federal law.

The correct answer is A. Severance packages are offered at the discretion of the employer. Federal law does not require them, although some states may have laws regarding severance. While they may diminish the chance that an employee will file suit, there is no guarantee. Offering severance packages does not increase an employer's unemployment taxes; this is an outcome of laying off
workers whether or not severance packages are added.
When an employer makes conditions for an employee so intolerable that the employee resigns, it is known as
A. disparate treatment.
B. negligent hiring.
C. employment-at-will.
D. constructive discharge.
D. constructive discharge.

The correct answer is D. Constructive discharge is considered an exception to the employment-at-will concept. Constructive discharge may fall into the category of retaliation and could play a part in civil rights cases or could involve legal issues in the areas of health and safety.
An employee files a discrimination charge and is laid off a short time later due to a downturn in the company's business. In this situation, the employer could be accused of
A. sexual harassment.
B. retaliatory discharge.
C. involuntary retirement.
D. constructive discharge.
B. retaliatory discharge.

The correct answer is B. A discharge is retaliatory if an employer punishes an employee for engaging in a protected activity such as filing a discrimination charge or whistle blowing. A case could be made that the employee's discharge was a result of filing a discrimination charge.
The Equal Pay Act of 1963 prohibits pay discrimination based on:
a. Race
b. Gender
c. Religion
d. Age
b. Gender
Under the Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, “protected classes” include:
a. Race, gender, religion, age and national origin
b. Race, religion, sex, age and color
c. Race, religion, gender, color and national origin
d. Race, sex, color, age and national origi
c. Race, religion, gender, color and national origin
Exceptions to ADEA include all of the following except:
a. Teachers
b. Pilots
c. Top Executives
d. Police
a. Teachers
The agency established to enforce the provisions of the CRA and other discrimination
acts is the:
a. Department of Labor (DOL)
b. Equal Rights Compliance Agency (ECA)
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
d. Federal Mediation and Conciliation Service (FMCS)
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
The Act that prohibits pre-employment offer medical exams is the:
a. Equal Rights Act
b. Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
c. Americans With Disabilities Act
d. Equal Employment Opportunity Act
c. Americans With Disabilities Act
Under the Uniform Guidelines, the 4/5th rule is used to determine if:
a. Illegal discrimination has occurred
b. Disparate impact has occurred
c. Disparate treatment has occurred
d. Adverse treatment has occurred
b. Disparate impact has occurred
The Immigration and Reform Act:
a. Requires employers to examine identification documents before a person is
hired
b. Permits employers to hire only U.S. citizens
c. Requires that employers not discriminate based on national origin
d. Permits employers to have English-only requirements in the workplace
c. Requires that employers not discriminate based on national origin
An affirmative action plan is required when:
a. An employer is required to fill minority quotas due to past discrimination
b. An employer has 50 employees and a federal contract exceeding $50,000.
c. Protected class members feel they are suffering discrimination
d. An employer has over 50 employees and federal contracts exceeding
$100,000.
b. An employer has 50 employees and a federal contract exceeding $50,000.
The WARN Act requires employers to give:
a. Severance pay to workers who lose their jobs due to a plant closing
b. 60 days notice to workers before a mass layoff
c. 60 days notice and severance pay to workers who are about to lose their jobs
due to a plant closing
d. Severance pay to employees who lose their jobs due to a natural disaster
b. 60 days notice to workers before a mass layoff
Disparate treatment refers to:
a. Unemployment complaints
b. Purposeful discrimination
c. Affirmative action abuses
d. Immigration complaints
b. Purposeful discrimination
An individual is alleging ___________ when pursuing an adverse impact claim.
a. Intentional discrimination
b. Unintentional discrimination
c. An unfair labor practice
d. Illegal harassment
b. Unintentional discrimination
Permitting the work environment to be sexually intimidating or offensive is a form
of:
a. Hostile environment harassment
b. Discriminatory environment harassment
c. On-the-job harassment
d. Quid Pro Quo harassment
a. Hostile environment harassment
The process of anticipating the movement of people into, within, and out of the
organization is:
a. Strategic planning
b. SWOT analysis
c. Forecasting
d. Human resource planning
d. Human resource planning
__________ refers to workers who are not traditional employees.
a. Flexible staffing
b. Flextime
c. Part-time staffing
d. Non-exempt
a. Flexible staffing
Job bidding is a(n):
a. Internal system to notify employees of job openings within the organization
b. System that allows employees to formally express interest in a job that may be
open in the future
c. System that encourages and rewards employees for referring family and
friends
d. Data base of employee skills
b. System that allows employees to formally express interest in a job that may be
open in the future
Executive search firms:
a. Reach a large number of applicants
b. Charge employers a fee only after placing a candidate
c. Help job seekers find the right job
d. Help employers find the right person for the job
d. Help employers find the right person for the job
The best definition of a weighted application form is that:
a. It obtains a variety of information about an applicant
b. It compares the application form to the resume
c. Responses can be scored, totaled, and compared to other applicants
d. Questions are specifically tailored for a job
c. Responses can be scored, totaled, and compared to other applicants
_________ occurs when applicants give socially acceptable, but not necessarily
accurate, responses to interview questions.
a. Contrast
b. Cultural noise
c. Stereotyping
d. Halo effect
b. Cultural noise
In a patterned interview all applicants for a job:
a. Answer questions from the same skills area, not necessarily the same
questions
b. Are asked the same questions
c. Are required to provide specific examples of how they handled a task or job
situation in the past.
d. Area asked questions created from previously answered questions
a. Answer questions from the same skills area, not necessarily the same
questions
An employment test that measures dexterity and hand-eye coordination is a:
a. Work sample test
b. Psychomotor test
c. Physical abilities test
d. Cognitive abilities test
b. Psychomotor test
_________ is the consistency with which test measures an item; ________ is the
extent to which a test measures what is says it measures:
a. Validity; Reliability
b. Reliability; Validity
c. Standardization; Predictability
d. Correlation; Utility
b. Reliability; Validity
A personality test is an example of ________
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Concurrent validity
a. Construct validity
An employee who is a citizen of the country in which is a U.S. company is doing
business is a(n)
a. Expatriate
b. Host-country national
c. Third-country national
d. Head-quarter national
b. Host-country national
All of the following are downsizing approaches except:
a. Just-cause discharge
b. Attrition
c. Hiring freeze
d. Early retirement
a. Just-cause discharge
Cost-per-hire is the _________
a. Total recruiting costs divided by the total compensation of new hires
b. Total recruiting costs divided by the number of new hires
c. Employment agency fees divided by total compensation of new hires
d. Employment agency (search firm) fees divided by the number of new hires
b. Total recruiting costs divided by the number of new hires
Affirmative Actions Plans are defined as:

a. Part of EEOC requirements
b. Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females
c. Staffing plans for use with government contracts
d. Quota systems
b. Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females
Employment-at-will involves:

a. An agreement by both parties to an employment contract
b. Protection by collective bargaining
c. Termination provisions for just cause dismissals
d. The ability of either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time
d. The ability of either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time
A job analysis is:

a. Part of an Affirmative Action Plan
b. Produces a job description or a job specification
c. Required by the EEOC
d. Produced by a job description or a job specification
b. Produces a job description or a job specification
Which of the following describes an example of an alternative work schedule?

a. Job sharing
b. Self-directed work teams
c. Job rotation
d. Task forces
a. Job sharing
Which of the following is the typical method of measuring employee adherence to performance standards?

a. Lack of quality problems
b. Goal fulfillment
c. Participative management
d. Performance appraisal
d. Performance appraisal
A validity study, either predictive or concurrent, in which the predictor data are statistically correlated with the criteria of performance:

a. Criterion-related validity
b. Content validity
c. Concurrent validity
d. Construct validity
a. Criterion-related validity
Sex discrimination, sexual harassment, racial/ethic discrimination, and age discrimination are all:

a. Offenses for which employers may be sanctioned under the Taft-Hartley Act
b. Examples of employment discrimination
c. Violations of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor
d. Policies required to be included in an employer personnel policy and procedure manual
b. Examples of employment discrimination
A job analysis includes:

a. Obligations to perform certain tasks
b. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions
c. A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
d. A larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual
c. A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
Performance appraisal is another name for

a. 360 degree feedback
b. Employee evaluation
c. Human resources management
d. Job design
b. Employee evaluation
Which of the following is an issue addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1991?

a. race norming
b. international employees
c. seniority system
d. consent decrees
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
The 4/5ths rule states that:

a. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
b. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
c. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
c. discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
An index number giving the relationship between a predictor and a criterion variable is:

a. correlation coefficient
b. concurrent validity
c. content validity
d. predictive validity
a. correlation coefficient
The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:

a. age
b. disability
c. gender
d. national origin
b. disability
A manager always hires young women as receptionists. This is an example of:

a. intentional discrimination
b. disparate treatment
c. disparate impact
d. sexual harassment
b. disparate treatment
FMLA requires employers having ___ employees within a ___ mile radius provide 12 weeks of protection for qualified employees.

a. 50, 50
b. 50, 75
c. 100, 50
d. 100, 75
b. 50, 75
A job is:

a. A group of similar positions having common tasks, duties, and responsibilities.
b. A task performed by one person.
c. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
d. A person’s title at a company
a. A group of similar positions having common tasks, duties, and responsibilities.
A situation that exists when protected-class members are treated differently from others is known as:

a. Disparate Impact
b. BFOQ
c. Business Necessity
d. Disparate Treatment
d. Disparate Treatment
What type of rule states that discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the groups representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group?

a. 3/4ths rule
b. 5/6ths rule
c. 1/4ths rule
d. 4/5ths rule
d. 4/5ths rule
A person with in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of HR:

a. HR generalist
b. HR manager
c. HR specialist
d. All of the above
c. HR specialist
An employee who is a citizen of one country, working in a second country and employed by an organization headquarted in a third country:

a. Third country national
b. Host country national
c. Expatriate
d. None of the above
a. Third country national
Which prohibits discrimination in employment on basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin:

a. Executive Order 11246
b. Executive Order 11478
c. Civil Right Act of 1991
d. Civil Rights Act of 1964
d. Civil Rights Act of 1964
Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits which of the following in the workplace?

a. Discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, or gender.
b. Discrimination based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related conditions.
c. Sexual harassment.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
What does the Family and Medical Leave Act allow employees to do?

a. To take an extra week of paid vacation.
b. To take a two-year leave of absence to care for an ill family member.
c. To take up to twelve weeks of unpaid leave during any twelve-month period in order to care for a family member, or to care for self due to a serious health condition.
d. To buy additional medical benefits.
c. To take up to twelve weeks of unpaid leave during any twelve-month period in order to care for a family member, or to care for self due to a serious health condition.
Which of the following are exceptions to the definition of discrimination in the workplace?

a. Work-related requirements and BFOQ’s.
b. Seniority systems.
c. Preferential quota systems
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
What is disparate treatment?

a. When protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other employees.
b. Employees who are evaluated by different standards.
c. Favoritism based on a person’s hair color.
d. A and B
d. A and B
Individuals can prove a prima facia case of disparate treatment if they can demonstrate that they:

a. Belong to a minority group or are in a protected class.
b. Applied for a job for which the employer was seeking applicants.
c. Were rejected, despite being qualified.
d. Were rejected and the employer kept looking for people with their qualifications.
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
What does the EEO Program require that employers do?

a. Keep employee medical files separate from employee personal files.
b. Maintain detailed records on their work force (including applicant flow).
c. Adjust staffing policies to fit demographic needs.
d. B and C.
d. B and C.
What is an affirmative action program?

a. When an employer provides a mentoring program for minorities.
b. A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce, and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
c. An effort by the employer to donate money to inner-city schools.
d. A program in which the employers provides tuition reimbursements for their minority employees.
b. A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce, and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
According to the ADA, the essential job functions in a job description should be listed

a. In order of importance
b. In order of time spent on the task.
c. In alphabetical order
d. In no order at all, the ADA requires no particular order.
a. In order of importance
Which of the following is an example of listing all employees from highest to lowest in performance?

a. Forced distribution
b. Paired Comparison
c. Ranking
d. Structuring
c. Ranking
Assuming no willful violation, what is the statute of limitations for recovery of back pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act?

a. Two years
b. Three years
c. Four years
d. Five years
a. Two years
Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act:

a. Prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender and national origin.
b. Applies only to government agencies
c. Prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation
d. Prohibits employers from giving temporary preference to any underrepresented protective group
a. Prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender and national origin.
What agency is in charge of enforcing Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act?

a. NLRB
b. ADA Board
c. EEOC
d. Department of Justice
c. EEOC
Which law regulates minimum wages, work hours for children and overtime compensation?

a. Norris LaGuardia Act
b. Taft Hartley Act
c. Fair Labor Standards Act
d. Wage Discrimination Act
c. Fair Labor Standards Act
Which document Identifies and Gives the right to work to an individual?

a. U.S. passport
b. Government I.D.
c. Social Security Card
d. U.S. Birth Certificate
a. U.S. passport
The FLSA provides for unpaid rest breaks if the break is_____ minutes or over?

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
d. 30
If the federal minimum wage is $ 5.15 an hour, but the state you live in pays $5.50 an hour. What is the minimum wage that you follow?

a. $ 5.15
b. $ 5.25
c. $ 5.50
d. You are free to decide.
c. $ 5.50
If an employee terminates their employment, how long is the employer required to make insurance under COBRA available to the employee?

a. 18 months
b. 24 months
c. 12 months
d. 16 months
a. 18 months
If a trainer develops a training program for their employer, who owns the copyright to it?

a. The person who prints it.
b. The trainer who wrote it.
c. The trainer and the employer.
d. The employer of the trainer who wrote it.
d. The employer of the trainer who wrote it.
Which one is not a characteristic of an independent contractor?

a. They have a continuous relationship with the employer
b. Working off site
c. Flexibility to set their own work schedules
d. Furnish their own tools and training.
a. They have a continuous relationship with the employer
The FLSA regulates all of the following except?

a. Overtime pay
b. Employee status
c. Employee Retirements Plan
d. Record keeping and other administrative concerns
c. Employee Retirements Plan
The Railway Labor Act covers which of the following employees?

a. Railroad employees only
b. Railroad employees and trucking employees
c. Railroad employees and airline employees
d. Railroad employees and maritime employees
c. Railroad employees and airline employees
A closed shop is a shop that

a. Employers refuse to hire employees who are members of a union.
b. Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
c. Employers establish company-sponsored unions
d. Is the most frequent type of union environment in the US
b. Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
The OSHA "general duty clause" means:

a. That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
b. The employer has the right to choose what OSHA regulations to follow as long as they use good judgment.
c. The employer must establish more strict health and safety guidelines than established by OSHA.
d. The employer has the option of following state health and safety regulations or OSHA standards.
a. That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
What is not required to be listed on the OSHA Form 200?

a. Date of the injury
b. Employee Name
c. Occupation/ Department
d. Age of the employee
d. Age of the employee
At how many employees must a company comply with OSHA record keeping?

a. 25
b. 10
c. 11
d. 32
c. 11
Which situation has the highest priority for an OSHA inspection?

a. An employee complaint of extremely long hours at work.
b. An employee that is exposed to loud noises.
c. A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
d. An employee who complains about not enough lighting at their workstation.
c. A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
What is the maximum penalty for a willful or repeat EEO violation?

a. Up to $100,000 for each violation.
b. Up to $15,000 for each violation.
c. Up to $70,000 for each violation.
d. Up to $ 60,000 for each violation
c. Up to $70,000 for each violation.
What is the best way to avoid negligent hiring charges?

a. To check all references
b. Use psychological testing on applicants
c. Require drug testing
d. Use disclaimers
a. To check all references
A job description should include all of the following except?

a. Essential functions of the job.
b. Who the position reports to.
c. The person who last held that job.
d. Minimum qualifications for that position.
c. The person who last held that job.
A good MBO has all of the following except:

a. Obtainable goals and objectives
b. Goals established by boss or supervisor
c. Periodic review of objectives
d. Goals are measurable
b. Goals established by boss or supervisor
In the action plan step of the performance management process, all take place except:

a. The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
b. Specific objectives are set for the next evaluation period
c. A plan is developed on how the employee will meet new objectives
d. A discussion on how follow up will take place
a. The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
A progressive discipline is a:

a. System that fires employees on the first offense
b. System that is based on co-workers deciding an employee's punishment
c. Series of disciplinary actions that results in more severe punishment
d. Where alternative dispute resolutions are used
c. Series of disciplinary actions that results in more severe punishment
Quid pro quo means:

a. Hostile work environment
b. This for that
c. Reasonable person
d. Whistle blowing
b. This for that
The Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title VII requires employers with ______ employees to comply with the provisions of the act:

a. 100
b. 75
c. 15
d. 50
c. 15
Employers should respond to sexual harassment complaints with which of the following:

a. Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
b. Investigation, discipline procedures, and written policies
c. Reprimand and dismissal
d. Sympathy for the victim
a. Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
The ADA states that individuals covered by the act:

a. Are responsible to inform the employer of their impairment
b. Must pay for their accommodation up to $500.00
c. Must be able to perform the duties of the job with accommodation
d. Must be able to perform the essential job functions
d. Must be able to perform the essential job functions
The duties, responsibilities, working conditions, and reporting relationships contained in a job can be found on a:

a. Job identification
b. Job posting
c. Job description
d. Job knowledge test
c. Job description
A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations relative to the job requirements.

a. Situational interview
b. Targeted-selection interview
c. Panel interview
d. Nondirective interview
b. Targeted-selection interview
Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment who might pose a security risk to the organization?

a. Polygraph test
b. Drug test using a blood test
c. Drug test using a urinalysis test
d. Background check with the candidate’s permission
d. Background check with the candidate’s permission
The purpose of EEO laws is

a. to see what can be done about "glass ceiling" concerns
b. to counterbalance what the Congress felt was a too "employer friendly" attitude by the Supreme Court
c. to notify age discrimination complainants that the agency is terminating action on their cases and the complainants are then free to file civil suits
d. protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender
d. protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender
Content validity refers to

a. a non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
b. validity showing a relationship between an abstract characteristic and job performance
c. validity measured when test results of applicants are compared with subsequent performance
d. the extension of the validity of tests to different groups, similar jobs, or other organizations
a. a non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
Appropriate responses by employers to sexual harassment complaints include:

a. having a sexual harassment policy
b. communications and training
c. investigation and action
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:

a. job
b. task
c. position
d. duty
b. task
Identification of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job is defined as:

a. job specification
b. skill inventory
c. job description
d. performance standard
c. job description
Which of the following is an observation method for conducting job analysis?

a. work sampling
b. interviewing
c. employee diary/log
d. a and c
d. a and c
Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without making a formal job application?

a. executive search firms
b. public employment agencies
c. employee referrals
d. career fairs
d. career fairs
A systematic investigation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities necessary to do a job is known as:

a. Job Analysis
b. Job Evaluation
c. Job Description
d. Job Specification
a. Job Analysis
Which source of recruiting is not an example of external recruiting?

a. School Recruiting
b. Media Sources
c. Employment Agencies
d. Promotion
d. Promotion
Which of the following is a condition that may exist when a person is denied an opportunity because of preferences given to protected-class individuals who may be less qualified?

a. Affirmative Action
b. Reverse Discrimination
c. Discrimination
d. Disparate Treatment
b. Reverse Discrimination
The best place to start a recruitment program is by conducting a ______ ?

a. Strategic analysis.
b. Demand Analysis.
c. Needs Analysis
d. Supply Analysis
c. Needs Analysis
What are the advantages to recruiting employees internally?

a. They bring new ideas into the organization.
b. It rewards good work of current employees and improves morale.
c. It is cost-effective.
d. It can result in succession of promotions.
e. B, C, and D
e. B, C, and D
Which of the following is not an example of Internal recruitment strategy?

a. Job rotation
b. Job posting
c. Skill banks
d. Employee referral
a. Job rotation
Which of the following is an example of asking each applicant similar questions about their same skills?

a. Structured
b. Patterned
c. Directive
d. Behavioral
b. Patterned
Which of the following is an example of asking applicants questions about their past behavior?

a. Behavioral interview
b. Stress interview
c. Non-directive
d. Directive
a. Behavioral interview