Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
691 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
|
List the AIDS-defining opportunistic infections (6)
|
pneumocystis pneumonia
toxoplasmosis, CMV retinitis Mycobacterium avium complex progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy cryptococcal meningitis |
|
|
|
fever, weight loss, cachexia, and night sweats are direct complications of what infection?
|
HIV
|
|
|
|
What 5 factors allow an AIDS diagnosis?
|
1) + HIV test
2) <200 CD4 T cells/uL 3) AIDS-defining opportunistic infections 4) AIDS-associated malignancies 5) HIV-complicating infections |
|
|
|
What are the two modes of clot formation iin the human body?
|
1) platelet activation and aggregation
2) clotting cascade activation |
|
|
|
a PTT tests which pathways?
|
intrinsic and the common pathway
|
|
|
|
a PT tests which pathways?
|
extrinsic and common pathway
|
|
|
|
a TT tests which pathway?
|
common pathway
|
|
|
|
VWF deficiency also causes a functional deficiency of which factor?
|
VIII
|
VWD - Von Willebrand Disease
AD |
|
|
Lack of factor VIII
|
Hemophilia A
XLR increased PTT, normal PT and bleeding time |
an Ape ate(8) nine(9) Bananas
|
|
|
Lack of factor IX
|
Hemophilia B
XLR increased PTT, normal PT and bleeding time |
|
|
|
Viamin K deficiency results in which factors becoming non-functional?
|
X, IX, VII, II
(1972) |
May be due to:
fat malabsorption antibiotics newborns coumadin warfarin) therapy |
|
|
Which vitamin does not cross the placenta and is not found in mothers milk?
|
Vitamin K - fat soluble vitamin, primarily provided by gut flora
|
|
|
|
A disorder of spontaneous activation of the coagulation cascade with resulting intravascular coagulation and organ ischemia, and consumption of clotting factors to yield mucosal bleeding?
|
DIC - Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
may be fatal |
|
|
|
ITP (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura) in children is due to what?
|
acute (post viral infection); usually self-limited
|
In adults often is chronic and due to anti-structural platelet Ab
|
|
|
A disorder marked by spontaneous platelet aggregation with resulting systemic platelet clot formation and consumption of platelets - if let untreated it is FATAL!!
|
Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)
|
TX: plasmapheresis
severe thrombocytopenia schistocytes evidence of hemolysis fever ischemic organ damage |
|
|
hemolytic anemia due to a deficiency in spectrin?
|
spherocytosis -
chronic disease characterized by hemolysis of speroidal RBCs anemia and splenomegaly |
|
|
|
THE most common enzymopathy
|
G6PD deficiency
|
|
|
|
What is the single amino acid substitution responsible for sickle cell anemia?
|
substitution of VALINE for GLUTAMATE in the beta globin chain at the 6th amino acid position
|
|
|
|
List 3 states that promote sickling?
|
hypoxia, acidosis, and dehydration
|
|
|
|
In what case is alpha-Thalassemia lethal?
|
homozygosity
get 2 alpha thalassemia alleles from each parent |
characterized by microcytic anemia & splenomegaly
|
|
|
Major Beta Thalassemia
|
Cooley's Anemia = severe microcytic anemia
|
|
|
|
List the 3 characteristics of Beta-Thalassemia
|
jaundice, leg ulcers, and splenomegaly
|
|
|
|
What are the two types of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
|
warm agglutinin disease and cold agglutinin disease
|
|
|
|
Risk factors for Warm agglutinin Disease?
|
drugs, malignancies, and SLE
|
|
|
|
Risk factors for Cold Agglutinin Disease?
|
mycoplasma pneumonia, mononucleosis, Lymphoma
50% are idiopathic |
|
|
|
Coombs Test that identifies antibodies directly bond to RBCs?
|
Direct Coombs Test
|
|
|
|
Coombs Test that identify free floating antibodies directed against RBCs?
|
Indirect Coombs Test
Test of choice for isoimmunization in Rh(-) females |
|
|
|
Anemia due to decreased DNA synthesis ability (due to vit B12 or folate deficiency)
|
Megaloblastic anemia
|
|
|
|
Does B12 or folate deficiency result in neurologic symptoms?
|
Vitamin B12
|
|
|
|
List 3 causes of B12 or folate deficiency?
|
Diphyllobothrium latum (B12)
Poor Diet (B12 &/or folate) Type A gastritis (B12) |
|
|
|
Marked by anemia that is due to low grade long-term iron-deficiency; results in esophageal webs
|
Plummer-Vinson
|
|
|
|
Clinical findings of Fanconi anemia; high risk of what?
|
microcephaly
cafe-au-lait spots small or absent thumbs deformed or absent radius bones recurrent aplastic anemia HIGH risk of leukemia or lymphoma |
|
|
|
characteristic RBCs of G6PD deficiency?
|
Heinz bodies
|
|
|
|
Howell-Jolly bodies indicate what?
|
That RBCs are leaving bone marrow while still immature
|
|
|
|
Basophilic stippling is indicative of what?
|
Lead poisoning
|
|
|
|
RBCs that are a result of iron overload secondary to deranged bone marrow function?
|
siderocytes
|
|
|
|
Immature RBCs - released early in response to hemorrhage
|
reticulocyte
|
|
|
|
causes of neutropenia due to decreased production? (5)
|
bone marrow disease
chemo HIV-1 other drugs Vit B12 or folate deficiency |
|
|
|
causes of neutropenia due to increased destruction? (1)
|
Felty's syndrome - variant of RA that also includes immune-mediated destruction of neutrophils via anti-neutrophil antibodies
|
|
|
|
Eosinocytosis is due to what?
|
Type I hypersensitivites
Helminthic infections |
|
|
|
Lymphocytosis is due to what (3)?
|
granulomatous diseases
viral infections pertussis |
|
|
|
Monocytosis is due to what? (2)
|
granulomatous diseases
infectious mononucleosis |
|
|
|
MOST common malignancy of children?
|
ALL - acute myelogenous leukemia
|
|
|
|
Auer rods are found in which Leukemia?
|
AML - acute myelogenous leukemia
|
|
|
|
acute vs. chronic
lymphocytic vs. myelogenous In Leukemias |
acute vs. chronic - referring to the maturity of the cancer cell
lymphocytic - free floating myelogenous - lineage other than lymphocytes |
|
|
|
CML is associated with what chromosome?
|
Philadelphia Chromosome (9:22; translocation that bcr-abl fusion)
|
|
|
|
Splenomegaly with (+) TRAP and CD25 indicates what leukemia?
|
Hairy Cell Leukemia
involves only B cells |
|
|
|
Reed Sternberg cells are found in Hodgkin's of Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma?
|
Hodgkin's Disease
contiguous spread leukocytosis of PMNs nodal involvement |
|
|
|
4 subtypes of Hodgkin's Disease?
|
1) lymphocyte predominance
2) nodular sclerosis 3) mixed cellularity 4) lymphocyte depletion |
|
|
|
Lymphoma associated with bcl-2, hypercalcemia and hepatosplenomegaly?
|
Non-Hodgkin's Lymnphomas
|
|
|
|
All DNA viruses have a couble stranded genome; what is the one exception?
|
PARVOVIRUSES
|
|
|
|
All DNA viruses have an icosahedral nucleocapside; what is the one exception?
|
POXVIRUSES
|
|
|
|
Erythema infectiosum and 5th disease are caused by which virus?
|
PARVO B19
|
|
|
|
Papilloma virus causes what?
|
genital warts which may lead to cervix carcinoma
|
|
|
|
Respiratory infections and atypical pneumonia are caused by which family of viruses?
|
Adeno
|
|
|
|
Pox variola causes what disease?
|
smallpox
|
|
|
|
What family does HBV belong to and what disease does it cause?
|
Hepadna family and causes serum hepatitis B
|
|
|
|
Small pink warts of the skin from the Pox family are caused by what virus?
|
molluscum contagiosum
|
|
|
|
Herpes viruses produce an overt infection followed by a period of what?
|
latency
|
|
|
|
Which HSV virus mainly causes oral herpes and which one mainly causes genital herpes?
|
oral - HSV1
genital - HSV2 |
|
|
|
Chickenpox and shingles are caused by what virus?
|
VZV
|
|
|
|
During latency the EBV rests in what?
|
B lymphocytes
|
|
|
|
Roseola (6th disease) is caused by what virus?
|
HHV-6
|
|
|
|
HHV-8 causes what disease?
|
Kaposi sarcoma
|
|
|
|
Lesions appear in different stages of evolution in chickenpox or smallpox?
What are the stages of evolution? |
chickenpos
vesicular to pustular to crusts |
|
|
|
80% of respiratory tract infections are caused by bacteria or viruses?
|
VIRUSES
|
|
|
|
Hand/foot/mouth disease is caused by what virus?
|
Coxsackie A
|
|
|
|
Rhino virus causes the common cold and is what type of virus; RNA or DNA?
|
RNA
|
|
|
|
The measles are caused by what virus?
What about the German measles? |
Rubeola
Rubella - German |
|
|
|
Parainfluenza causes what disease?
|
Croup
|
|
|
|
Mutations within H1N1 caused by point mutations of viral RNA
|
ANTIGENIC DRIFT
|
|
|
|
H1N2 shsift to H1N1 caused by gene recombination
|
ANTIGENIC SHIFT
|
|
|
|
These viruses cause seasonal dz transmitted by insects
|
ARBOVIRUSES
|
|
|
|
What is the Flavirirus vector
|
mosquito
|
|
|
|
St. Louis encephalitis, yellow fever and Dengue fever are caused by what virus?
|
Flavivirus
|
|
|
|
Virus that causes California encephalitis and has a mosquito vector?
|
Bunyavirus
|
|
|
|
Which arbovirus is the exception and has no arthropod vector?
|
Hantavirus
|
|
|
|
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is caused by what virus?
|
JC virus
|
|
|
|
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is caused by what virus?
|
measles virus
|
|
|
|
What is the name for infectious proteins that can be transmitted to other species by inoculation of infected brain tissue?
|
PRIONS
|
|
|
|
Are prions transmitted by body secretions and inactivated by formalin?
|
NO
|
|
|
|
Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jakob, Scrapie, and BSE (mad cow disease) are all what?
|
PRIONS
|
|
|
|
What are the two main groups of retroviruses?
|
oncoviruses and lentiviruses
|
|
|
|
The oncovirus HTLV-1 leads to what?
|
adult T-cell leukemia
|
|
|
|
Name the two lentiviruses?
|
HIV-1 and HIV-2
|
|
|
|
T or F:
HIV-1 is much less common and less virulent? |
FALSE;
HIV- 1 is the most common and HIV - 2 is least common and occurs in W. Africa |
|
|
|
What are the 3 major genes in the genome of HIV?
|
env, gag and pol
|
|
|
|
This glycoprotein in the env gene mediates cell fusion
|
gp41
|
|
|
|
This glycoprotein in the env gene bind to CD4 receptor
|
gp120
|
|
|
|
gag core capsid protein
|
p24 (serologic marker)
|
|
|
|
2 Tests for HIV antibodies
|
ELISA
Western Blot |
|
|
|
These rxns occur in what location:
Krebs cycle; FFA oxidation; formation of Acetyl CoA Part of urea cycle, gluconeogenesis, and heme sythesis |
Mitochondria
|
|
|
|
These rxns occur in what location:
synthesis and packaging of glycolipids, glycoproteins, and lipoproteins |
Golgi apparatus
|
|
|
|
These rxns occur in what location:
Glycolysis, hmp shunt, protein synthesis, FA syn., part of urea cycle, part of gluconeogenesis and part of heme synthesis |
Cytosol
|
|
|
|
DNA and RNA synthesis occurs in what organelle?
|
nucleus
|
|
|
|
In what organ and in what cells does fatty acid sythesis occur
|
liver, fat cells
|
|
|
|
in what organs do gluconeogenesis occur?
|
liver and kidneys
|
|
|
|
where does heme sythesis occur?
|
bone marrow
|
|
|
|
what organ do AA, urea, and cholesterol synthesis take place?
|
liver
|
|
|
|
what kind of inhibitor binds at same site as substrate?
|
competitive inhibitor
|
|
|
|
What does the Lineweaver-Burke plot show the relaitonship between?
|
substrate conc. [S] and rate of reaction [V]
|
|
|
|
What type of inhibitor binds at a different site from the substrate?
|
noncompetitive
|
|
|
|
High Km = ?
|
LOW affinity
|
|
|
|
Low Km = ?
|
HIGH affinity
|
|
|
|
What is the Km?
|
substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half of its max value
|
|
|
|
The maximal rate of rxn when enzyme is saturated with substrate?
|
Vmax
|
|
|
|
What are the acidic AAs? (2)
|
aspartate, glutamate
|
|
|
|
What are the basic AA's? (3)
|
histidine, lysine, arginine
|
|
|
|
What two groups make up and AAs?
|
carboxyl group and amino group, forming peptide bonds with each other
|
|
|
|
An amino acid is ketogenic if the carbon skeleton can be converted to what?
|
Acetyl CoA
|
|
|
|
dopa and dopamine; norepi and epi are products of what AA?
|
tyrosine
|
|
|
|
melanin and T3, T4 are products of what AA?
|
tyrosine
|
|
|
|
glutamate forms what product?
|
GABA
|
|
|
|
histamine is the product of what AA?
|
histidine
|
|
|
|
5-HT, melatonin, and niacin are products of what AA?
|
tryptophan
|
|
|
|
porphyrin, heme are products of what AA?
|
glycine
|
|
|
|
what is the other name for sickle cells?
|
drepanocytes
|
|
|
|
albinism is a defect of which enzyme?
|
tyrosinase
|
|
|
|
A defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase results in what disorder?
|
phenylketonuria
|
|
|
|
hyperreflexia, and urine with a sweet odor are signs of what disorder
|
maple syrup
defect in branched chain decaroxylase |
|
|
|
mental retardation, hypopigmentation, and a musty odor are signs of what?
|
phenylketonuria
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 D's of pellagra?
|
dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea
|
|
|
|
What is Pellagra?
|
Hartnup disease or dietary niacin deficiency
|
|
|
|
Defective tyrosinase in melanocytes inhibits tyrosine from becoming what?
|
dopa and ultimately melanin
|
|
|
|
What AA becomes essential in patients with phenylketonuria (PKU)?
|
Tyrosine
|
|
|
|
phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency inhibits phenylalanie from becoming what?
|
tyrosine and ultimately dopa/dopamine/NE and E
|
|
|
|
Defective homogentisate oxidase results in what AA disorder?
|
ALKAPTONURIA
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 branched chain AA's?
|
valine, isoleucine and leucine
|
|
|
|
which branched chain AA is glucogenic?
|
Valine
|
|
|
|
Defective cystathione synthase results in what AA disorder?
|
Homocystinuria
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 epimers of glucose?
|
alphaD-glucose
mannose galactose |
|
|
|
What is the structure of mannose?
|
OH-2
OH-3 4-OH |
|
|
|
What is the structure of galactose?
|
2-OH
OH-3 OH-4 |
|
|
|
ring with 5 carbons + 1 oxygen
|
pyranose
ex: glucose |
|
|
|
ring with 4 carbons + 1 oxygen
|
furanose
ex: fructose |
|
|
|
C atom that has 4 different ligands
|
anomeric carbon
|
|
|
|
isomers that differ in only ONE carbon
|
epimers
|
|
|
|
mirror image (flipped at all anomeric C atoms)
|
enantiomers
|
|
|
|
Is sucrose a reducing or non-reducing sugar?
|
NON-REDUCING
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 reducing sugars?
|
glucose, galactose and fructose
|
|
|
|
These enzymes phosphorylate glucose to gluc-6-P
|
hexose kinases
|
|
|
|
what organ is hexokinase found in?
|
MUSCLE
|
|
|
|
what organ is glucokinase found in?
|
LIVER
|
|
|
|
Is the affinity of hexokinase high or low?
|
HIGH
|
|
|
|
Is the affinity of glucokinase high or low?
|
LOW
|
|
|
|
is the Vmax of glucokinase high of low?
|
HIGH
|
|
|
|
Is hexokinase or glucokinase inhibited by gluc-6-phosphate?
|
Hexokinase
|
|
|
|
In an alpha-bond which carbon is in the alpha position and is it up or down?
|
Carbon 1; down
|
|
|
|
In a beta-bond which carbon is in the betal position and is it up or down?
|
carbon 1; up
|
|
|
|
disaccharide found in beer?
|
maltose
|
|
|
|
composition of maltose?
|
glucose + glucose
|
|
|
|
composition of lactose?
|
galactose + glucose
|
|
|
|
which disaccharide is composed of glucose + fructose?
|
sucrose
|
|
|
|
what is the bond of maltose
|
alpha1 - 4
|
|
|
|
which disaccharide has a beta 1 - 4 bond?
|
lactose
|
|
|
|
what is the bond of sucrose
|
alpha1 - beta2
|
|
|
|
glycogen,starch, and cellulose are what type of saccharides?
|
polysaccharides
|
|
|
|
which bond cannot be hydrolyzed, therefore making this polysaccharide indigestible?
|
beta 1 - 4; cellulose
|
|
|
|
saccharide disorder with fructokinase defect that is benign/asymptomatic
|
fructosuria
|
|
|
|
what is the enzyme defect in fructose intolerance?
|
Aldolase B
|
|
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms of fructose intolerance?
|
hypoglycemia and liver failure
|
|
|
|
Saccharide disorder with uridyltransferase defect; cataracts and mental retardation?
|
galactosemia
|
|
|
|
what enzyme is defective in lactose intolerance and what is the sign/symptom of the disorder?
|
lactase
diarrhea |
|
|
|
Should you drink milk if you have diarrhea?
|
NO; any diarrhea can result in temporary lactase deficiency
|
|
|
|
General fructose intolerance can be to a defect in either of these two enzymes?
|
fructokinase and aldolase B
|
|
|
|
In which disorder is fructose harmless? Fructosuria or fructose intolerance?
|
Fructosuria
|
|
|
|
fructokinase defect/deficiency inhibits fructose from becoming what?
|
fructose-1-P
|
|
|
|
Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are not not made if this enzyme is defective?
|
aldolase B
|
|
|
|
Failure to treat this disorder results in early mental retardation there for newborn screening for this disease is mandatory?
|
Galactosemia
|
|
|
|
galactose-1-P cannot become what in galactosemia?
|
UDP-galactose
|
|
|
|
Can glucose-6-P cross cell membranes?
|
NO
|
|
|
|
Deficiency of what enzyme results in glycogen accumulation in ALL organs?
|
alpha-glucosidase
|
|
|
|
Glucose -6-phosphatase is defective in which glycogen storage disease?
|
Von Fierke
|
|
|
|
liver and kidneys enlarged, fasting hypoglycemia, acidosis, and failure to thrive are signs of which glycogen storage disease?
|
Von Gierke
|
|
|
|
Muscle hypotonia, cardiac failure and death before age 2 occur in which glycogen storage disease?
|
Type II - Pompe
|
|
|
|
Skeletal muscle glycogen phosphorylase is defective in which glycogen storage disease?
|
Type V - McArdle
|
|
|
|
which glycogen storage disease involves a lysosomal enzyme of an alternate pathway of glycogen breakdown?
|
Type II - Pompe
|
|
|
|
what is the typical progression of glycogen breakdown?
|
glycogen to
glucose-1-P to glucose-6-P to glucose |
|
|
|
enzyme responsible for glycogen to glucose-1-P
|
phosphorylase
McArdle disease |
|
|
|
enzyme responsible for glucose-6-P to glucose
|
glucose-6 phosphatase
Von Gierke |
|
|
|
List the 5 glycosaminoglycans?
|
hyaluronic acid
heparin keratan sulfate chondroitin sulfate dermatan sulfate |
|
|
|
These bind large amounts of water and provide lubrication?
|
glycosaminoglycans
|
|
|
|
What are the signs and symptoms or Hurler
|
cornea clouding and mental retardation
|
|
|
|
Which mucopolysaccharidosis just has cornea clouding?
|
Scheie
|
|
|
|
Which mucopolysaccharidosis just has mental retardation?
|
Hunter
|
|
|
|
alpha-L Iduronidase is the defective enzyme in which two mucopolysaccharidoses?
|
Hurler and Scheie
|
|
|
|
These have a protein core to which numerous side chains of glycosaminoglycans attach and their major functions are lubrication, extracellular matrix, and molecular "sieve"
|
proteoglycans
|
|
|
|
List the two "essential" fatty acids
|
Linoleic and arachidonic acid
|
|
|
|
What is the structure of palmitic acid?
|
16:0
|
|
|
|
What is the structure of stearic acid?
|
18:0
|
|
|
|
18:1(9) is the structure of what monounsaturated fatty acid?
|
Oleic acid
|
|
|
|
16:1(9) is the structure of what monounsaturated fatty acid?
|
palmitoleic acid
|
|
|
|
What are the two polyunsaturated plant oils?
|
linoleic and linolenic acid
|
|
|
|
18:2(9,12) is the structure of which plant oil? &
18:2(9,13,15) is the structure of which plant oil? |
Linoleic
Linolenic |
|
|
|
20:4(5,8,11,14) is the structure of this polyunsaturated fatty acid
|
arachidonic acid
|
|
|
|
What does this mean 18:1(9), in terms of fatty acid structure?
|
18 carbons, 1 double bond at position 9
|
|
|
|
Are saturated fatty acids and trans fatty acids good for you?
|
No; saturated fat intake correlates with peripheral atherosclerosis and trans fatty acids are similarly harmful
|
|
|
|
What does amphipathic mean?
|
has both polar and unpolar parts
|
|
|
|
Where are >95% of bile salts reabsorbed?
|
In the ileum
|
|
|
|
cholic acid and chonodeoxychoic acid are primary or secondary bile acids?
|
PRIMARY
|
|
|
|
What are the two secondary bile acids?
|
deoxychoic acid and lithocholic acid
|
|
|
|
what are primary bile acids derived from?
|
cholesterol
|
|
|
|
Are primary or secondary bile acids produced from primary conjugated bile salts by intestinal bacteria?
|
SECONDARY
|
|
|
|
Glycocholic acid is made of cholic acid and what?
|
glycine
|
|
|
|
Taurocholic acid is made of choic acid and what?
|
taurine
|
|
|
|
With dietary fats, conjugate bile acids form what?
|
micelles
|
|
|
|
What is the bad cholesterol?
What is the good cholesterol? |
LDL - "bad"
HDL - "good" |
|
|
|
what is the order of lipoproteins in ultracentrifuge from top to bottom?
|
chylomicrons
VLDL LDL HDL Free fatty acids and albumin |
|
|
|
What is the order of lipoproteins on electrophoresis from top (-) to bottom (+)?
|
chylomicrons
LDL VLDL HDL |
|
|
|
What has a glycerol backbone with 3 FA's attached?
|
Triglycerides
|
|
|
|
When one of the fatty acids in removed and a phosphate is added what is the product?
|
glycero-phospholipids
|
|
|
|
a sphingosine plus one fatty acid is what?
|
ceramide
|
|
|
|
a sphingosine, fatty acid, and phosphate ish what?
|
sphingophospholipids
|
|
|
|
sphingosine plus a fatty acid and sugar is what?
|
cerebrosides
|
|
|
|
a sphingosine plus a fatty acid and 3 sugars (one with NANA attached) is what?
|
gangliosides
|
|
|
|
phosphatidyl choline is also known as what?
|
lecithin
|
|
|
|
what are the components of lecithin?
|
phophatidic acid + choline
|
|
|
|
what is cardiolipin made up of?
|
2x phosphatidic acid + glycerine
|
|
|
|
what makes up sphingomyelin?
|
ceramide + choline
|
|
|
|
what makes up cerebroside?
|
ceramide + mono saccharide
|
|
|
|
what makes up globoside?
|
ceremide + oligosaccharide
|
|
|
|
What makes up ganglioside?
|
ceramide + oligosaccharide + NANA
|
|
|
|
Which spingolipidosis is X-linked recessive?
|
Fabry
|
|
|
|
Sphingolipidosis with blindness, deafness, convulsions, and globoid cells?
|
Krabbe
|
|
|
|
Sphingolipidosis with reddish purple skin rash, kidney and heart failure?
|
Fabry
|
|
|
|
Sphingolipidosis with blindness, cherry red macula and in Ashkenazi Jews?
|
Tay-Sachs
|
|
|
|
Which spingolipidosis does sphingomyelin accumulate?
|
Niemann-Pick
|
|
|
|
Which sphingolipidosis accumulates sulfatides and causes progressive paralysis?
|
metachromatic leukodystrophy
|
|
|
|
what enzyme is defective in Krabbe?
|
beta-galactosidase
|
|
|
|
what enzyme is defective in Gaucher?
|
beta-glucosidase
|
|
|
|
What sphingolipidosis results in liver and spleen enlargement, osteoporosis, and is in Ashkenazi Jews?
|
Gaucher
|
|
|
|
Which enzyme is defective in metachromatic leukodystrophy?
|
arylsulfatase
|
|
|
|
These disorders are due to defects in heme biosynthesis and as a result precursors of heme accumulate?
|
Porphyrias
|
|
|
|
Which two prophyrias cause abdominal pain?
|
acute intermittent and coproporphyria
|
|
|
|
What heme precursor accumulates in lead poisoning?
|
delta-ALA and protoporphyrin
|
|
|
|
Which two porphyrias have a photosensitivity?
|
cutanea tarda and coproporphyria
|
|
|
|
What type of anemia is associated with lead poisoning?
|
microcytic, hypochromic
basophilic stippling |
|
|
|
Lead can cause delta-aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin accumulate due to stopping which steps in heme production?
|
FIRST and LAST
|
|
|
|
what is heme synthesized from?
|
delta-aminolevulinic acid (glycine + succinyl CoA)
|
|
|
|
What is the normal nutrient of the brain?
|
glucose
|
|
|
|
what is the normal nutrient of erythrocytes?
|
glucose
|
|
|
|
Which organ "takes anything" as it's normal and prolonged fasting nutrients?
|
HEART
FA's, ketone bodies, lactate, glucose |
|
|
|
during rest what is the normal nutrient of muscle?
|
fatty acids
|
|
|
|
what is the normal nutrient of muscle during exercise?
|
glucose
|
|
|
|
What are the substrates for liver gluconeogenesis from muscle and RBC's ?
|
lactate
|
|
|
|
what is the substrate for liver gluconeogenesis from fat cells?
|
triglycerides -->glycerol
|
|
|
|
Steps (3) of production of ketones by the liver ?
|
TG's --> fatty acids --> ketones
|
|
|
|
night blindness, and growth retardation are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
|
A
|
|
|
|
scurvy is due to deficiency of what vitamin?
|
C
|
|
|
|
rickets and osteomalacia is deficiency of what vitamin?
|
D
|
|
|
|
beri beri is due to deficiency of which vitamin?
|
B1 (thiamin)
|
|
|
|
ataxia is a sign of deficiency of which vitamin?
|
E
|
|
|
|
pellagra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis) is a sign of deficiency of which vitamin?
|
niacin
|
|
|
|
seborrheic dermatitis and nervous disorders are signs of what vitamin deficiency?
|
biotin
|
|
|
|
glossitis and cheilosis are signs of deficiency of which vitamin?
|
B2 (riboflavin)
|
|
|
|
9 kcal/g
|
FAT
|
|
|
|
4 kcal/g
|
PROTEIN and sugar
|
|
|
|
glucose --> lactate
|
anaerobis glycolysis
|
|
|
|
glucose --> pyruvate
|
aerobic glycolysis
|
|
|
|
glucose --> 6 CO2
|
glucose (complete oxidation)
|
|
|
|
How many ATP does FADH2 yield?
|
2
|
|
|
|
How many ATP does NADH yield?
|
3
|
|
|
|
How many ATP do you yield per NADH in the glycerophosphate shuttle?
|
2 ATP
|
|
|
|
How many ATP do you yield per NADH in the malate shuttle?
|
3 ATP
|
|
|
|
"key enzymes" of glycolysis
|
phosphofructokinase-1 and 2
|
|
|
|
"key enzymes" of gluconeogenesis
|
fuctosediphosphatase-1 and 2
|
|
|
|
What effect does phosphorylation have on phosphofructokinase-2?
|
inhibits
|
|
|
|
What effect does phosphorylation have on fuctosediphosphatase-2?
|
activates
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of pentose phosophate shunt?
|
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of glycogen sythesis?
|
glycogen synthetase
|
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme of lipolysis ?
|
carnitine acyltransferase
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of lipid synthesis ?
|
acetyl-CoA carboxylase
|
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
|
HMG CoA reductase
|
|
|
|
what is the allosteric inhibitor of lipolysis ?
|
malonyl CoA
|
|
|
|
Does phosphorylation activate or inhibit acetyl-CoA carboxylase and HMG CoA reductase?
|
INHIBITS
|
|
|
|
What are the two key enzymes of the citric acid cycle?
|
pyruvate dehydrogenase and citrate synthase
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme in purine synthesis?
|
amidotransferase
|
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme of ketone body synthesis?
|
HMB CoA synthase
|
|
|
|
What is the most potent estrogen? most potent androgen?
|
ESTRADIOL
TESTOSTERONE |
|
|
|
How many C-atoms does cholesterol have?
|
27
|
|
|
|
bile acids have how many c-atoms?
|
24
|
|
|
|
cortisol, aldosterone and progesterone have how many c-atoms?
|
21
|
|
|
|
17-hydroxysteroids (cortisol metabolites) increase in what two instances?
(one deficiency and one syndrome) |
11-hydroxylase deficiency and Cushing's syndrome
|
|
|
|
11-hydroxylase deficiency, 21-hydroxylase deficiency, Cushing's syndrome, and androgen producing adrenal or gonadal tumors cause and increase in what?
|
17-ketosteroids (dehydroandrosterone and androstenedione)
|
|
|
|
Zona glomerulosa produces what?
|
Mineralocorticoids
|
|
|
|
zona fasciculata produces what?
|
glucocorticoids
|
|
|
|
zona reticularis produces what?
|
androgens
|
|
|
|
Deficiency of what enzyme results in ambiguous genitalia in the male and primary amenorrhea at puberty in the female?
|
17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency
|
|
|
|
What cannot be produced in 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency?
|
glucocorticoids, androgens and estrogens
|
|
|
|
what deficiency results in increased DHEA in both male and female and also precocoious puberty in the male and ambiguous genitalia in the female?
|
21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency
|
|
|
|
What is the most common defect of corticoid synthesis (95%)?
|
21-alpha-hydroxylast deficiency
|
|
|
|
50-60% of patients with 21-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency will also have this due to a lack of aldosterone?
|
salt wasting
|
|
|
|
Enzyme deficiency that causes precocious puberty in the male and ambiguous genitalia in the female and increased androgens in both sexes
|
11-beta-hydroxylase
|
|
|
|
With which enzyme deficiency do you see salt retention (hypertension and hypokalemia)?
|
11-beta-hydroxylase
|
|
|
|
What affect does insulin have on fat, sugar and protein synthesis?
|
ANABOLIC
|
|
|
|
"key enzymes" of gluconeogenesis
|
fuctosediphosphatase-1 and 2
|
|
|
|
What effect does phosphorylation have on phosphofructokinase-2?
|
inhibits
|
|
|
|
What effect does phosphorylation have on fuctosediphosphatase-2?
|
activates
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of pentose phosophate shunt?
|
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of glycogen sythesis?
|
glycogen synthetase
|
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme of lipolysis ?
|
carnitine acyltransferase
|
|
|
|
what is the key enzyme of lipid synthesis ?
|
acetyl-CoA carboxylase
|
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis?
|
HMG CoA reductase
|
|
|
|
what is the allosteric inhibitor of lipolysis ?
|
malonyl CoA
|
|
|
|
Does phosphorylation activate or inhibit acetyl-CoA carboxylase and HMG CoA reductase?
|
INHIBITS
|
|
|
|
Glucagon plays a catabolic role in which two processes in the liver?
|
gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
|
|
|
|
GH plays a role in what process in the liver?
|
gluconeogenesis
|
|
|
|
cortisol inhibits or increases uptake of sugar in the muscle and fat?
|
INHIBITS
|
|
|
|
The purines?
|
adenine and guanine
|
|
|
|
the pyrimidines ?
|
cytosine
uracil thymine |
|
|
|
purines or pyrimidines linked to a pentose sugar?
|
nucleosides
|
|
|
|
phosphates of the nucleoside?
|
nucleotides
|
|
|
|
AZT has the same structure except the 3'-OH group, as which pyrimidine?
|
Thymidine
|
|
|
|
nucleosides as well as the bases end in -INE; what do the nucleotides end in?
|
-YLATE
|
|
|
|
where does de novo synthesis of purines occur?
|
LIVER
|
|
|
|
what does hypoxanthing, guanine, and adenine become in salvage of purine bases?
|
hypoxanthine --> IMP
guanine --> GMP adenine --> AMP |
|
|
|
What disease has defective phosphoribosyl transferase; therefore purine bases cannot be salvaged and are degraded to uric acid --> gout, severe neurological signs
|
Lesch-Nyhan
|
|
|
|
degradation of adenosine?
|
adenosine --> inosine --> hypoxanthine --> xanthine
|
|
|
|
degradation of guanosine?
|
guanosine --> guanine --> xanthine
|
|
|
|
What drug inhibits conversion of xanthine to uric acid and is used for TX of gout?
|
Allopurinol
|
|
|
|
De novo synthesis of glutamine?
|
glutamine --> carbamoylphosphate --> OMP --> UMP
|
|
|
|
UTP --> ?
dUMP --> ? |
UTP --> CTP
dUMP --> dTMP |
|
|
|
salvage of pyrimidine bases turns uracil into what? and cytosine into what?
|
uracil into UMP
cytosine into CMP |
|
|
|
what is the pyrimidine base cytosine degraded into? (3)
|
CO2, NH4+, and Beta-alanine
|
|
|
|
What is the pyrimidine base thymine degraded into? (3)
|
CO2, NH4+, and beta-amino-isobutyrate
|
|
|
|
Do prokaryotes or eukaryotes have an operon?
|
PROKARYOTES
|
|
|
|
What does the operon consist of? (3)
|
promoter, operator, and one or more structural genes
|
|
|
|
If the repressor binds to operator, is the operon ON or OFF?
|
OFF (polymerase can't proceed)
|
|
|
|
what does the regular gene code for?
|
repressor
|
|
|
|
what is the gene products of the lac-OPERON?
|
beta-galactosidase plus two other proteins
|
|
|
|
what three things do humans (eukaryotes) have that prokaryotes do not for gene expression?
|
transcription factors, inducers, and enhancers
|
|
|
|
What are the binding sites for regulatory proteins in eukaryotes called?
|
response elements
|
|
|
|
region of bacterial DNA that endcodes a single protein?
|
cistron
|
|
|
|
prokaryotic mRNA encodes multiple proteins - what is the term for this?
|
polycistronic
|
|
|
|
which eukaryotic polymerase makes rRNA
|
polymerase I
|
|
|
|
which eukaryotic polymerase makes mRNA ?
|
polymerase II
|
|
|
|
What are the 3 steps of processing eukaryotic mRNA in the nucleus?
|
1) 5'-cap
2) poly A tail added to 3' end 3) introns are removed and exons spliced together |
|
|
|
what does it mean when we say replication of eukaryotic DNA is semiconservative?
|
parental strands separate and each serves as a template for a newly synthesized one
|
|
|
|
How is the parental strand read?
|
3' to 5'
|
|
|
|
In what direction is the new strand of DNA produced?
|
5' to 3'
|
|
|
|
What is the RNA polymerase that copied parental strand and makes RNA primer?
|
primase
|
|
|
|
major DNA polymerase that replicated both parental strands and has proofreading ability?
|
polymerase III
|
|
|
|
yolk stalk becomes what?
|
meckel's diverticulum
|
|
|
|
Meckel's diverticulum: "2-2-2" means what?
|
persists in 2%
located at antimesenteric border of ileum within 2 feet iliocecal junction is about 2 cm long |
|
|
|
what bones are derived from the 1st arch?
|
malleus and incus
|
|
|
|
what bones are derived from the 2nd arch?
|
stapes, styloid and lesser horns of hyoid
|
|
|
|
what muscle is derived from the 3rd arch?
|
stylopharyngeal muscle
|
|
|
|
which arch makes up the internal carotid artery and which one makes up the external carotid artery?
|
Int. carotid art. - 3rd arch
ext. carotid art. - 2nd arch |
|
|
|
which pouch is the inferior parathyroids derived from?
|
III
|
|
|
|
which pouch are the superior parathyroids derived from?
|
IV
|
|
|
|
Which ducts make up the epidiymis and vas deferens in the male?
|
Wolff ducts (mesonephric duct)
|
|
|
|
Which ducts make up the fallopian tubes, uterus, and vagina down to hymen in the female?
|
Muller (paramesonephric duct)
|
|
|
|
What becomes the urinary bladder and urachus?
|
allantois
|
|
|
|
what becomes the bladder tigonum, ureter, collecting tubules?
|
ureteric bud
|
|
|
|
what becomes the kidneys?
|
metanephros
|
|
|
|
foramen ovale becomes what postnatally?
|
fossa ovalis
|
|
|
|
ductus arteriosus becomes what postnatally?
|
ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
|
|
optic canal contents?
|
optic nerve and opthalmic artery
|
|
|
|
superior orbital fissure contents?
|
CN III, IV, V (opthalmic), VI
sympathetic nerves opthalmic veins |
|
|
|
foramen rotundum contents?
|
CN V - maxillary
|
|
|
|
foramen ovale contents?
|
CN V - mandibular; accessory meningeal artery
|
|
|
|
foramen spinosum contents?
|
middle meningeal artery
|
|
|
|
foramen magnum contents?
|
spinal cord
accessory nerve vertebral arteries spinal arteries |
|
|
|
jugular foramen contents?
|
CN IX, X, XI
internal jugular vein |
|
|
|
hypoglossal canal contents?
|
CN XII
|
|
|
|
internal auditory meatus contents?
|
CN VII, VIII
labyrinthine artery |
|
|
|
Which EOM is innervated by CN VI (abducens)?
|
Lateral Rectus
|
|
|
|
Which EOM is innervated by CN IV (trochlear)?
|
Superior oblique
|
|
|
|
Which EOMs move the eye inferior and lateral?
|
superior oblique
|
|
|
|
which EOMs move the eys superior and medial?
|
superior rectus
|
|
|
|
which EOMs move the eys superior and lateral?
|
inferior oblique
|
|
|
|
dilator pupillae function?
innervation? |
mydriasis; sympathetic
|
|
|
|
sphincter pupillae function?
innervation? |
miosis; parasympathetic
|
|
|
|
Muscle responsible for accommodation, innervated by the parasympathetics?
|
ciliary muscle
|
|
|
|
lens shape when the ciliary muscle contracts?
|
this relaxes supensory ligaments and allows lens to turn into GLOBULAR shape for NEAR VISION
|
|
|
|
Muscle that raises the lid and innervation of it?
|
levator palpebrae sup.
III (oculomotor) & Muller's muscle - sympathetic |
|
|
|
This syndrome causes miosis, ptosis, and red/dry facial skin on the affected side?
|
Horner's syndrome
|
|
|
|
Which nerve innervated the 3 muscles that move the tongue?
|
CN XII (hypoglossal)
|
|
|
|
Which muscle pulls tongue out?
|
genioglossus
|
|
|
|
which muscle pulls tongue in and up?
|
styloglossus
|
|
|
|
Which muscle pulls the tongue down?
|
hypoglossus
|
|
|
|
If you damage the hypoglossal nerve will the tongue deviate towards or away from the damaged side?
|
deviate towards; because genioglossus on healthy side becomes dominant
|
|
|
|
Which nerve is responsible for anterior 2/3 taste?
& touch/temperature? |
VII - facial
V3 - touch and temp |
|
|
|
Which nerve is responsible for posterior 1/3 taste and touch/temperature?
|
IX - glossopharyngeal
|
|
|
|
The mandible and the muscles that move it are derived from which branchial arch?
|
1st
|
|
|
|
Lateral pterygoid, digastric, and geniohyoid muscles are responsible for what function?
|
OPEN MOUTH
|
|
|
|
masseter is responsible for what function?
|
CLOSE MOUTH
|
|
|
|
lateral pterygoid is responsible for what function?
|
protrudes mandible and lateral displacement
|
|
|
|
What muscle is responsible for retracting the mandible?
|
temporalis
|
|
|
|
What are the 4 cartilages of the larynx?
|
cricoid
thyroid pair of arytenoid cartilages |
|
|
|
Which nerve is responsible for the muscle that tightens the vocal chords?
|
superior laryngeal nerve
innervates cricothyroid |
|
|
|
THe arytenoid muscles are innervated by what nerve?
|
recurrent nerve
|
|
|
|
which muscle opens the glottis and which muscle closes it?
|
opens - post. cricoarytenoid
closes - lat. cricoarytenoid |
|
|
|
unilateral damage to the recurrent nerve causes what?
|
hoarseness
|
|
|
|
bilateral damage to the recurrent nerve causes what?
|
dyspnea
|
|
|
|
Left recurrent nerve wraps around WHAT artery?
|
aortic arch
|
|
|
|
Right recurrent nerve wraps around which artery?
|
right subclavian artery
|
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for adduction of the shoulder?
|
pectoralis major
|
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for abduction of the shoulder?
|
first 60 degrees - deltoid
then - serratus anterior |
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for outward rotation of the shoulder?
|
infraspinatus
|
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for inward rotation of the shoulder?
|
subscapular
|
|
|
|
Which nerve innervates the serratus anterior?
|
long thoracic nerve
|
|
|
|
damage to the long htoracic nerve causes what?
|
paralysis of ant. serratus muscle - Scapula winging
|
|
|
|
Muscles that make up the rotator cuff?
|
suprspinatus
infraspinatus teres minor subscapularis |
|
|
|
Muscles connecting scapula to trunk (6)?
|
trapezius
rhomboid major & minor pectoralis minor serratus anterior levator scapulae |
|
|
|
Muscles connecting humerus to scapula (7)?
|
deltoid
teres major & minor infraspinatus & supraspinatus subscapularis coracobrachialis |
|
|
|
What is the terminal nerve of C5-C6 of the brachial plexus
|
Musculocutaneous nerve
|
|
|
|
what are the terminal nerves of C7 of the brachial plexus?
|
axillary n. - posterior cord
radial n. - posterior cord median n. |
|
|
|
what is the terminal nerve of C8 - T1 of the brachial plexus?
|
ulnar nerve
|
|
|
|
"waiter's tip position" (arm hangs in medial rotation) indiates injury where?
|
upper brachial plexus
|
|
|
|
"wrist drop" indicates injur to what?
|
posterior cord
|
|
|
|
"claw hand" indicated injury to what?
|
lower brachial plexus
|
|
|
|
Sensory loss to the posterior arm, and dorsal hand indicate injury to which nerve?
|
radial nerve
|
|
|
|
sensory loss to radial 2 and a half fingers (palm and tips) indicated injury to which nerve?
|
median nerve
|
|
|
|
With humerus fracture there is a risk of injury to which nerve?
|
RADIAL NERVE
|
|
|
|
What nerve innervates the biceps and what nerve innervated the triceps?
|
biceps - MC nerve
triceps - radial nerve |
|
|
|
Main muscle responsible for flexion and supination?
|
biceps brachii
|
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for pronation and its innervation?
|
pronator teres
innervation: median nerve |
|
|
|
Extensor muscles of the forearm originate from which condyle ?
|
lateral epicondyle
|
|
|
|
superficial muscles flexing the wrist and fingers (4; lat to medial)?
|
flexor carpi radialis
palmaris longus flexor digitorum superficialis flexor carpi ulnaris |
|
|
|
deep muscles flexing wrist and fingers?
|
flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus
|
|
|
|
Main muscle of outward rotation and extension of the hip?
|
gluteus maximus
|
|
|
|
innervation of gluteus maximus?
|
inferior gluteal nerve
|
|
|
|
main muscles for inward rotation of the hip and their innervation?
|
gluteus medium /minimus
superior gluteal nerve |
|
|
|
Medial thigh muscles? (5)
|
pectineus
adductor brevis adductor longus adductor magnus gracilis |
|
|
|
anterior thigh muscles? (5)
|
sartorius
vastus medialis vastus intermedius rectus femoris vastus lateralis |
|
|
|
main muscle responsible for leg extension?
|
quadriceps femoris
|
|
|
|
what nerve innervates the quadriceps femoris?
|
femoral nerve
|
|
|
|
main muscle for flexion of the leg?
|
"hamstrings"
|
|
|
|
What 3 muscles make up the "hamstrings" ?
|
semimembranous muscle
semitendinous muscle biceps femoris |
|
|
|
What nerve innervates the "hamstrings"?
|
sciatic nerve
|
|
|
|
what muscle is responsible for inward rotation?
|
semimembranous muscle
|
|
|
|
what muscle is responsible for outward rotation?
|
biceps femoris
|
|
|
|
Patient with pain upon extension of flexed knee is a (+) ________ test?
|
McMurray's
|
|
|
|
What nerve branches from the femoral nerve and runs down the medial aspect of the leg and is sensory?
|
saphenous n.
|
|
|
|
At the back of the knee the sciatic n branches into what 2 nerves?
|
tibial n and common peroneal nerve.
|
|
|
|
What nerve branches from the common peroneal n at the knee and runs posteriolaterally down the leg with sensory?
|
sural n.
|
|
|
|
nerve with sensory innervation anteriomedial above the knee as well as medial shin?
|
femoral
|
|
|
|
nerve with sensory innervation of the bottom anterior portion of the foot?
|
tibial
|
|
|
|
What nerve is the most comonly injured of the lower limb?
|
the common peroneal nerve
|
|
|
|
what does injury to the common peroneal nerve result in?
|
loss of dorsiflesion --> foot drop
|
|
|
|
injury to this nerve results in the inability to plantarflex the foot and toes?
|
tibial nerve
|
|
|
|
What muscle dorsiflexes + inverts the foot?
|
t_I_bialis anterior
I for INVERT |
|
|
|
what muscle dorsiflexes + everts the foot?
|
p_E_roneus tertius
E for EVERT |
|
|
|
plantar flexes and everts the foot?
|
peroneous longus and brevis
|
|
|
|
plantar flexes and inverts the foot?
|
tibialis posterior
|
|
|
|
tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius are both innervated by what nerve?
|
deep peroneal nerve
|
|
|
|
What are the three plantar flexors?
|
gastrocnemius
soleus plantaris |
|
|
|
What are the (4) toe movers?
|
flexor hallicus longus, flexor digitorum longus, extensor hallicus longus, and extensor digitorum longus
|
|
|
|
What are the contents of the superior mediastinum?
|
thymus, great vessels of the heart, trachea and esophagus
|
|
|
|
What are the contents of the middle mediastinum?
|
heart
|
|
|
|
Contents of the posterior mediastinum?
|
esophagus and descending aorta
|
|
|
|
contents of the anterior mediastinum?
|
large during infancy (filled by thymus)
|
|
|
|
When is blood flow highest through coronary arteries?
|
diastole
|
|
|
|
What two arteries branch from the L. coronary artery?
|
circumflex and anterior interventricular
|
|
|
|
What artery supplies most of the LV, LA and anterior portion of septum?
|
L. coronary artery
|
|
|
|
which artery supplies the RA, RV, variable amounts of the LA and LV?
|
Right coronary artery
|
|
|
|
Which artery supplies the SA and AV node?
|
Right coronary artery
|
|
|
|
Infarction of the bowels is usually d/t interruption of arterial or venous drainage?
|
VENOUS
|
|
|
|
This abdominal arterial trunk supplies the stomach, spleen, liver, and proximal duodenum?
|
CELIAC
|
|
|
|
This abdominal artery supplies the distal duodenum, sm. int, cecum, ascending and transverse colon?
|
SUP. MESENTERIC ART.
|
|
|
|
What area of the bowel does the INF. MESENTERIC ART. supply?
|
descending colon
sigmoid colon rectum |
|
|
|
List the 3 portocaval shunts?
|
gastric/esophageal veins
anorectal veins paraumbilical veins |
|
|
|
THe peritoenum is a closed sac in men but it is pierced by what in women?
|
The uterine tubes
|
|
|
|
What organs are intraperitoneal?
|
stomach
small bowel transverse colon spleen part of the liver |
|
|
|
What is the deepest layer of the spermatic cord?
|
loose CT
|
|
|
|
what are the layers of the spermatic cord from deep to superficial?
|
loose CT
internal spermatic fascia cremaster muscle and fascia external spermatic fascia superficial fascia |
|
|
|
What muscle is contained in the superficial fascia of the spermatic cord?
|
dartos muscle
|
|
|
|
what two arteries supply the ovary?
|
ovarian artery and the uterine artery
|
|
|
|
what 3 arteries supply the testis?
|
testicular artery
artery of ductus deferens cremasteric artery |
|
|
|
What 3 muscles play a role in forming the inguinal canal?
|
transversus abdominis, internal oblique and external oblique
|
|
|
|
When bowel herniates above the inferior epigastric artery through the internal inguinal ring is this a direct or indirect hernia?
|
INDIRECT
|
|
|
|
when bowel herniates through th hesselbach's triangle below the inferior epigastric artery is this a direct or indirect hernia?
|
DIRECT
|
|
|
|
language, mathematics, sequential, and analytical capabilities all come from which hemisphere?
|
LEFT
|
|
|
|
non-verbal, musical, geometrical and spatial comprehension come from which hemisphere?
|
RIGHT
|
|
|
|
vision comes from which lobe?
|
occipital
|
|
|
|
taste comes from which lobe?
|
insula, below postcentral gyrus
|
|
|
|
Primary motor cortex is where?
|
precentral gyrus
|
|
|
|
Primary sensory cortex is where?
|
postcentral gyrus
|
|
|
|
Nonfluent speech, good comprehension is what aphasia?
|
BROCA
|
|
|
|
fluent but nonsensical speech, poor comprehension is what aphasia?
|
Wernicke
|
|
|
|
80% of strokes are ischemic or hemorrhagic?
|
ISCHEMIC
|
|
|
|
THe circle of Willis gives rise to what 3 pairs of cerebral arteries?
|
anterior
middle posterior |
|
|
|
What cerebral artery supplies the medial cortex?
|
anterior cerebral artery
|
|
|
|
occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in motor and sensory loss of what area of the body?
|
CONTRALATERAL upper body
|
|
|
|
occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery results in motor and sensory loss of what area of the body?
|
CONTRALATERAL legs and feet
|
|
|
|
the basal ganglia, hypothalamus, posterior limb of the internal capsule are supplied by what artery?
|
anterior choroidal artery
|
|
|
|
vertigo, diplopia, ataxia, facial numbness/weakness, and nausea are symptoms of an transient ischemic attack of what artery?
|
vertebrobasilar artery
|
|
|
|
Coma, small reactive pupils and quadriplegia is a result of hemorrhage into what ?
|
PONS
|
|
|
|
unsteady gait, clumsiness, N/V is a result of hemorrhage into what?
|
CEREBELLUM
|
|
|
|
contralateral weakness and hemianopsis is a result of hemorrhage into what?
|
putamen
|
|
|
|
contralateral hemiparesis, sensory changes, and homonymous hemianopsia is a result of hemorrhage into what?
|
THALAMUS
|
|
|
|
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter Most
|
the sensory and motor elements of the cranial nerves
|
|
|
|
What 4 CN carry parasympathetic fibers?
|
CN III, VII, IX, and X
|
|
|
|
What CN has PNS innervation to the parotid and what is its ganglion?
|
CN 9, Otic Ganglion, Parotid Gland
|
|
|
|
the caudate, putamen and globus pallidus comprise what?
|
striatum
|
|
|
|
The caudate and putamen comprise what?
|
neostriatum
|
|
|
|
the globus pallidus comprises what basal ganglia?
|
paleostriatum
|
|
|
|
the lentiform nucleus is composed of what?
|
putamen and globus pallidus
|
|
|
|
Loss of dopaminergic unput from what results in Parkinson's disease?
|
Substantia nigra
|
|
|
|
atrophy of what results in huntington's disease?
|
caudate nucleus
|
|
|
|
copper accumulates where in the brain in Wilson's disease?
|
lentiform nucleus
|
|
|
|
VPL is involves in proprioception and touch OR taste?
|
proprioception and touch
|
|
|
|
VPM is involves in TASTE?
TRUE or FALSE? |
TRUE
|
|
|
|
auditory pathway is associated with the medial or lateral geniculate ?
|
Medial geniculate
Lateral geniculate - assoc. with optic tract |
|
|
|
What is the most famous brainstem syndrome with lateral medulla infarction d/t occlusion of post. inf. cerebellar art?
|
Wallenberg syndrome
|
|
|
|
What artery supplies blood to the medial aspect of the lower pons?
|
Basilar artery
|
|
|
|
What artery supplies blood to the lateral aspect of the lower pons?
|
Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
|
|
|
|
What artery supplies blood to the lateral medulla?
|
posterior inferior cerebellar artery
|
|
|
|
what artery supplies the lateral upper pons?
|
superior cerebellar artery
|
|
|
|
Damage to the reticular formation results in what?
|
ipsilateral Horner's syndrome
|
|
|
|
damage to the medial lemniscus in the medulla or lowers pons results in what?
|
CONTRALATERAL loss of position and vibration sense
|
|
|
|
damage to the spinothalamic tract in the upper pons results in what?
|
contralateral loss of pain and sensation
|
|
|
|
damage to the corticospinal tract in the pons result sin what?
|
contralateral spastic paralysis
|
|
|
|
fasciculus cuneatus crosses over immediately or crosses over at the medulla?
|
at the medulla
|
|
|
|
spinothalamic tract crosses over immediately or crosses over at the medulla?
|
immediately
|
|
|
|
fasciculus gracilis is upper or lower spinal cord?
|
LOWER
|
|
|
|
fasciculus cuneatus is upper or lower spinal cord?
|
UPPER
|
|
|
|
spinothalamic tract responsible for what?
|
pain and temperature
|
|
|
|
FC and FG are responsible for what?
|
proprioception and light touch
|
|
|
|
L4 is responsible for what reflex?
|
knee jerk
|
|
|
|
S1 is responsible for what reflex?
|
ankle jerk
|
|
|
|
S5 is the dermatome where?
|
anus
|
|
|
|
T10 is the dermatome where?
|
umbilicus
|
|
|
|
S3 is the dermatome where?
|
Penis
|
|
|
|
L4 is the dermatome where?
|
big toe
|
|
|
|
Norepinephrine increases or decreases total peripheral resistance?
|
INCREASES
|
|
|
|
Epinephrine increases or decreases total peripheral resistance?
|
DECREASES
|
|
|
|
What is Fick's principle?
|
pulm flow = O2 uptake/ (a-v oxygen difference)
|
|
|
|
What organs regulate HCO3-?
|
kidneys
|
|
|
|
What organs regulate CO2?
|
lungs
|
|
|
|
what is the log of 0.1 ?
|
-1
|
|
|
|
What is the log of 1 ?
|
0
|
|
|
|
what is the log of 10?
|
1
|
|
|
|
what is the log of 100?
|
2
|
|
|
|
recruitment and dilation of pulmonary capillaries will increase or decrease DL?
|
INCREASE
|
|
|
|
When action potentials cannot be generated bc of inactivation of the Na channels; what is this called?
|
absolute refractory period
|
|
|
|
Stong stimuli may generate APs with slow upstroke and low amplitude; what is this called?
|
Relative refractory period
|
|
|
|
These membrane transort proteins take advantage of concentration gradients?
|
carriers (facilitated transporters)
|
|
|
|
These membrane transport proteins derive their energy from ATP?
|
pumps (active transporters)
|
|
|
|
Can facilitated transporters transport against a gradient?
|
not unless they are coupled
|
|
|
|
nitric oxide, ANP, and Viagra are associated with an increase in what 2nd messenger?
|
cGMP
|
|
|
|
beta, H2 receptors and ACTH are associated with an increase or decrease in cAMP?
|
INCREASE
|
|
|
|
alph2 receptors, M2, and M4 receptors are associated with an increase or decrease in cAMP?
|
DECREASE
|
|
|
|
alpha 1, M1, M3, and H1 receptors are associated with what 2 2nd messengers?
|
IP3 and DAG
|
|
|
|
What activases ras-->raf-->MAP kinase cascade which modulates gene expression?
|
tyrosine kinase
|
|
|
|
Gi and Gs inhibit or stimulate what?
|
adenylate cyclase
|
|
|
|
Gq activates what?
|
phospholipase C
|
|
|
|
what is the EFFERENT nerve fibers that go to the muscle spindle?
|
A gamma
|
|
|
|
what is the AFFERENT fiber fom the muscle spindle and the EFFERENT fiber for skel. muscle?
|
A alpha
|
|
|
|
what is the AFFERENT nerve fiber for slow dull pain?
|
C
|
|
|
|
what is the AFFERENT fiver for touch and fast sharp pain?
|
A beta
A delta |
|
|
|
what is the efferent nerve fibers for autonomiac nerves?
|
B, C
|
|
|
|
Stimulus strength determines frequency but NOT ________ of APs?
|
amplitude
|
|
|
|
sensory fibers for pressure?
|
merkel cells
|
|
|
|
sensory fibers for light touch?
|
meissner's corpuscle and hair follicle sensors
|
|
|
|
sensory fibers for vibration?
|
Pacinian corpuscle
|
|
|
|
What sensory fibers travel in the dorsal columns?
|
merkel cells
meissner's corpuscle pacinian corpuscle |
|
|
|
what sensory fibers travel in spinothalamic tract?
|
pain and temperature
|
|
|
|
At temperatures >45C cold fibers begin to fire again, this sensation of pain and coolness is called what?
|
paradoxical cold
|
|
|
|
How do the ciliary m, zonula fibers, and lens act when accommodating a NEAR object?
|
ciliary contracted
zonula fibers relaxed lens rounded |
|
|
|
How do the ciliary m, zonula fibers, and lens act when accommodatin a FAR object?
|
ciliary relaxed
zonula fibers tense lens flat |
|
|
|
what is the term for nearsightedness?
|
myopia
|
|
|
|
what is the term for farsightedness?
|
hypermetropia
|
|
|
|
what is the term for change in vision associated with age?
|
presbyopia
|
|
|
|
how is myopia corrected?
|
negative lens (concave)
|
|
|
|
How is hypermetropia corrected?
|
positive lens (convex)
|
|
|
|
How is presbyopia corrected?
|
positive lens (convex)
|
|
|
|
nystagmus against mvmt of image?
|
optokinetic
|
|
|
|
nystagmus away from cold ear?
|
caloric nystagmus
|
|
|
|
pathologic horizontal nystagmus is d/t what?
|
vestibular dz
|
|
|
|
pathologic vertical nystagmus is d/t what?
|
brainstem dz
|
|
|
|
nystagmus against directin of prior rotation?
|
postrotational nystagmus
|
|
|
|
part of the cochlea that is Na rich and with perilymph?
|
scala vestibuli and scala tympani
|
|
|
|
part of the cochlea that is K rich and with endolymph?
|
scala media
|
|
|
|
10 dB is = to what change in sound intensity?
|
10 fold change
|
|
|
|
With the Weber test sound is lateralized to the sick ear with what kind of deafness?
|
CONDUCTION
|
|
|
|
With the Weber test sound is lateralized to the normal ear with what kind of deafness?
|
NERVE
|
|
|
|
With the Rinne test A>B conduction is what deafness?
|
NERVE
|
|
|
|
With the Rinne test B>A conduction is what deafness?
|
CONDUCTION
|
|
|
|
blood vessels with alpha receptors constrict or dilate with sympathetic innerv?
|
CONSTRICT
|
|
|
|
blood vessels with beta receptors constrict or dilate with sympathetic innerv?
|
DILATE
|
|
|
|
What are the 2 classes of cholinergic receptors?
|
nicotinic and muscarinic
|
|
|
|
what cholinergic receptor class is located at the autonomic ganglia, symp and parasymp ganglia, adrenal medulla and NMJ?
|
NICOTINIC
|
|
|
|
what cholinergic receptor class is located at postsyn. parasymp and sweat glands?
|
MUSCARINIC
|
|
|
|
What are the 2nd messengers of M1 and M3 receptors?
|
PLC --> IP3 and DAG
|
|
|
|
What are the 2nd messengers of M2, M4 receptor subtypes?
|
(-) adenylate cyclase --> decrease cAMP
|
|
|
|
atropine is an antagonists of what receptor?
|
muscarinic
|
|
|
|
what are the 2 classes of adrenergic receptors?
|
alpha receptors
beta receptors |
|
|
|
alpha receptros are excitatory except where?
|
GI tract
|
|
|
|
beta receptors are inhibitory except where?
|
heart
|
|
|
|
what adrenergic receptors are found on postsynaptic sympathetics?
|
alpha 1
|
|
|
|
what adrenergic receptors are found on presynaptic sympathetics and the CNS?
|
alpha 2
|
|
|
|
1) epi >> ne
2) epi=ne 3) epi >/= ne |
1) beta 2
2) beta 1 3) alpha |
|
|
|
What happens to vasc tone with an injection of NE?
|
stim. alpha receptors --> vasoconstriction --> increase in diastolic BP
|
|
|
|
what happens to vasc tone with an injection of Epi?
|
stim. beta and alpha but beta predominates --> vasodilation --> decrease in diastolic BP
|
|
|
|
does the right or left vagus n slow conduction?
|
LEFT
|
|
|
|
does the right or left vagus n slow frequency at the sinus node?
|
RIGHT
|
|
|
|
Is there a direct or indirect relationship between preload and SV?
|
DIRECT
|
|
|
|
muscle spindel measures muscle length or rension?
|
LENGTH
|
|
|
|
Golgi tendon organ measures muscle length or tension?
|
TENSION
|
|
|
|
muscle spindle activated or inhibits the alpha motor neuron?
|
activates it when stretched
|
|
|
|
What posture is legs extended and arms flexed? whta is the injury?
|
Decorticate posture; cortex injury
|
|
|
|
What posture is legs and arms extended? and what is the injury?
|
Decerebrate posture; brainstem injury
|
|
|
|
Muslce that is slow with low glycolytic capacity and high oxidative capcity?
|
RED skel m
|
|
|
|
muscle that is fast with high glycolytic capacity and low oxidative capacity?
|
WHITE skel m
|
|
|
|
smooth muscle that is tonic?
|
vascular smooth muscle
|
|
|
|
smooth muscle that is phasic?
|
visceral smooth muscle
|
|
|
|
What is the TLC (in L)?
|
6.0L
|
|
|
|
How are the IRV, IV and ERV measured?
|
spirometer
|
|
|
|
How is dead space measured?
|
nitrogen exhalation
|
|
|
|
Where in the lung is ventilation (V) highest?
|
base
|
|
|
|
where in the lung is perfusion (Q) highest?
|
base
|
|
|
|
where is the V/Q ratio highest in the lung?
|
TIP
|
|
|
|
How do VC, FRC/RV, and TLC change with restrictive lung dz?
|
they all decrease
|
|
|
|
how does FRC/RV, and TLC change with obstructive lung dz?
|
increase
|
|
|
|
breating pattern described as waxing and waning?
|
cheyne-stokes
|
|
|
|
breathing pattern described as deep, fast inspirations and associated with compensation of metab. acidosis?
|
Kussmaul
|
|
|
|
breating pattern described as apneic episodes?
|
Biot
|
|
|
|
What happens to respirations if you cut below the medulla?
|
all respirations seize
|
|
|
|
This is a simple indicator of the metabolic status of a patient and depends on diet?
|
Respiratory Quotient (RQ)
|
|
|
|
A RQ of <0.7 indicates what?
|
hypoventilation
diabetes fasting |
|
|
|
A RQ >1.0 indicates what?
|
hyperventilation
|
|
|
|
sedation, sleep apnea, chest wall injuries, and COPD cause what acid-base disturbance?
|
respiratory acidosis
|
|
|
|
anxiety, thyrotoxicosis, and moutain climbing cause what acid-base disturbance?
|
respiratory alkalosis
|
|
|
|
loop diuretics, insulin, and vomiting cause what acid-base disturbance?
|
metabolic alkalosis
|
|
|
|
early salicylate intox. results in what acid-base disorders?
|
metab acidosis + resp alk
|
|
|
|
late salicylate intox. results in what acid-base disorders?
|
metab. ackidosis + resp. acidosis
|
|
|
|
How many protein subunit chains make up a hemoglobin?
|
4
|
|
|
|
What are the HbF chains and who has HbF?
|
alpha 2 gamma 2
fetus |
|
|
|
what are the chains that make up adult HbA?
|
alpha 2 and beta 2
|
|
|
|
what is the hemoglobin in sickle cell and what are the chains?
|
HbS - alpha 2 and Bs 2
|
|
|
|
what is the hemoglobin that makes up alpha -thalassemia and what are the chains?
|
HbH - beta 4
HbBart - gamma 4 |
|
|
|
Beta- thalassemia has what hemoglobins (2) and what are the chains that make them up?
|
HbF - alpha2delta2
HbA2 - alpha2gamma2 |
|
|
|
what does a right shift of the oxygen binding curve equal?
|
reduced binding of O2
|
|
|
|
what does a left shift of the oxygen binding curve equal?
|
tighter binding of O2
|
|
|
|
When is albumin decreased?
|
liver failure
pregnancy malnutrition |
|
|
|
when is alpha2 globulin decreased?
|
Wilson's disease
|
|
|
|
At rest where is perfusion the greatest?
|
kidney
|
|
|
|
Where is perfusion the greatest during exercise?
|
muscle
|
|
|
|
what vessel has the largest cross-sectional area?
|
capillaries
|
|
|
|
what vessel has the largest resistance?
|
arterioles
|
|
|
|
what does the ductus venosus in the fetus connect?
|
umbilical vein --> vena cava inferior
|
|
|
|
What keeps the ductus arteriosus open?
|
PGs
|
|
|
|
what helps with lung maturation?
|
glucocorticoids
|
|
|
|
what is the normal GFR?
|
125 ml/min
|
|
|
|
what is the normal RBF?
|
1200 ml/min
|
|
|
|
what does it mean if clearance > GFR?
|
filtration + net secrection
|
|
|
|
What is the most common cause of hyperosmolarity?
|
dehydration
|
|
|
|
Where are the receptors for osmoregulation located?
|
hypothalamus
|
|
|
|
What is the loss of NaCl loss like when compared to the loss of water in diarrhea and vomitin?
|
NaCL loss LARGE compared to H2O loss
|
|
|
|
what 3 major cell types form the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
|
macula densa cells
JG cells = granular cells mesangial cells |
|
|
|
what is the function of the macula densa cells?
of the JG cells? |
macula densa cells - measure NaCl conc
JG cells - release renin |
|
|
|
where are vit B12 and bile salts absorbed?
|
terminal ileum
|
|
|
|
where is iron absorbed?
|
duodenum
|
|
|
|
where are carbs and AAs absorbed?
|
duodenum and jejunum
|
|
|
|
defect in neutral AA transporter?
|
hartnup disease
|
|
|
|
defect in basic AA transporter?
|
Cystinuria
|
|
|
|
what cells mainly secret gastrin?
HCL/Intrinsic factor? pepsinogen? |
gastrin = G cells
HCL/IF = parietal cells pepsinogen = chief cells |
|
|
|
What hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?
|
oxytocin and ADH
|
|
|
|
Hyperaldosteronism is what syndrome?
|
CONN syndrome
|
|
|
|
hypoaldosteronisn is what syndrome?
|
ADDISON's
|
|
|
|
what hormones does the adrenal medulla release?
|
epi and NE
|
|
|
|
what innervates the adrenal medulla?
|
sympathetic nerves
|
|
|
|
what causes release of hormones from the adrenal cortex?
|
Angiotensin II (aldosterone) and ACTH (all 3)
|
|
|
|
The beta subunit of the insulin receptor has what activity ?
|
tyrosinase
|
|
|
|
What hormone suppresses FSH?
|
estrogen
|
|
|
|
what does FSH cause in the male testes?
|
spermatogenesis
|
|
|
|
what does LH cause in the male testes?
|
testosterone secretion (Leydig cells)
|
|
|
|
who has the major idea that unconscious mental processes are the driving force motivating our behavior?
|
Freu
|
|
|
|
Who had the major idea that the ego develops in stages over the entire lifetime?
|
Erikson
|
|
|
|
What is the IQ of someone with profound MR?
|
<25
|
|
|
|
what is the IQ of someone with mild MR?
|
55-70
|
|
|
|
Drug used to maintain a PDA in infants?
|
Alprostadil
|
|
|
|
drug used to induce closure of a PDA in infants?
|
Indomethacin
|
|
|
|
Use of Epoprostenol and Treprostinol?
|
Pulmonary hypertension
|
|
|
|
Use of Phentolamine?
|
pheochromocytoma diagnosis
|
|
|
|
Use of Phenoxybenzamine?
|
pheochromocytoma-related HTN
|
|
|
|
Use of Fluoxymesterone and Methyltestosterone?
|
inoperable breast cancer in women
|
|
|
|
Are Betamethasone and dexamethasone more or less potent than cortisone and hydrocortisone?
|
MORE potent
|
|
|
|
Medication used for thyroid storm?
|
propylthiouracil (PTU)
|
|
|
|
Agent used for hypothyroidism?
|
L-thyroxine (levothyroxine)
|
|
|
|
Medications (2) used for diabetes insipidus?
|
desmopressin and vasopressin
|
|
|
|
What agent is used for BP control during EtOH, nicotine, and opiod withdrawal?
|
Clonidine
|
|
|
|
Acamprosate, disulfiram, and naltrexone can be used in drug dependence therapy of what agent?
|
ALCOHOL
|
|
|
|
What is the treatment of extrapyramidal symptoms?
|
diphenhydramine
|
|
|
|
acute dystonias, tardive dyskineasia and drug-induced parkinsonian symptoms are known as what? and can be a result of what agents?
|
Extrapyramidal symptoms
antipsychotic medications increase the risk |
|
|
|
Dexmethylphenidate, methylphenidate, lisdexamfetamine, and adderal are used for what? What are the ADRs and how can you minimize them?
|
Used for ADHD
ADRs = may stunt growth, increase HR and BP Minimize by using drug holidays when possible |
|
|
|
NAION (non-arteritic ischemic optic neuropathy) is and ADRs associated with what agent(s)?
|
Sildenafil
Tadalafil Vardenafil |
|
|
|
What is the test of choice to detect isoimmunization in RH (-) females?
|
indirect coombs test
|
|
|
|
Which Coombs Test is used to detect immune-mediated hemolysis?
|
Direct Coombs Test
|
|
