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80 Cards in this Set

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An atom has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic weight of 23. the number of neutrons in its nucleus is:
11
select the incorrect association.
choices:
covalent bonds/ions
dna/molecule
phosphorus/atom
proton/positive
covalent bond/ions
select the correct association.
choices;
anion/positive
cation/negative
chloride/positive
hydrogen bond/weak
hydrogen bond/weak
an atom has an atomic number of nine. the number of electrons in its outer energy shell is five.T/F
false
Matter identified by.
identified by their atomic #
Which of the following is an example of a compound?
a. Cl2.

b. O2.

c. C6H12O6.

d. H2.
c. C6H12O6.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2 Choose the smallest molecule
a. H2.

b. O2.

c. DNA.

d. HCl.
a. H2.
The ability of an atom to bond is determined by
a. the atomic mass.

b. the number of electrons in the outer shell.

c. the number of neutrons.

d. the number of protons in the inner shell.
b. the number of electrons in the outer shell.Valence electrons
Ions play important roles in living systems such as
a. denaturing proteins.

b. sharing electrons.

c. activating certain enzymes.

d. lowering activation energy.
c. activating certain enzymes.
The strongest type of bond is
a. ionic.

b. iron.

c. hydrogen.

d. covalent.
d. covalent. may be classified as polar or non-polar
Hydrogen bonds are important because
a. they are very strong.

b. share electrons with another atom.

c. occur in the glucose molecule.

d. they stabilize the structure of large molecules such as DNA.
d. they stabilize the structure of large molecules such as DNA.
Choose the carbohydrate that is properly matched with its function
a. polysaccharides - form protective capsule around many bacterial cells.

b. cellulose - storage form of glucose in animals.

c. glycogen - storage form of glucose in plants.

d. starch - principal component of plant cell walls.
a. polysaccharides - form protective capsule around many bacterial cells.
DNA
a. is a single-stranded molecule.

b. contains uracil.

c. is composed of building blocks called amino acids.

d. encodes a cell's genetic information
d. encodes a cell's genetic information.
Macromolecules are formed by a process called _______ and are broken down by _______ reactions.
a. exchange, hydrolysis.

b. hydrolysis, synthesis.

c. decomposition, condensation.

d. polymerization, hydrolysis
d. polymerization, hydrolysis.
Lipids are defined by their
a. chemical structure.

b. solubility.

c. taste.

d. molecular weight.
b. solubility.
Chemical reaction rates are determined by
a. predetermined values.

b. concentration of reactants.

c. The American Chemical Society.

d. the length of time you have to perform the experiment.
b. concentration of reactants.
Which characteristic do DNA and RNA share?
a. Both contain a six-carbon sugar called ribulose.

b. Both are made up of nucleotide building blocks joined by phosphodiester bonds.

c. Both are double-stranded molecules.

d. Both contain identical nitrogen-containing bases.
b. Both are made up of nucleotide building blocks joined by phosphodiester bonds.
Hydrophobic molecules
a. dissolve in water.

b. are polar molecules.

c. have charged regions that interact with water molecules.

d. do not dissolve in water.
d. do not dissolve in water.
Buffers are important because
a. they always denature proteins .

b. they polish the interior of the cell.

c. they form colloids.

d. they enable a cell to maintain a suitable pH range for optimum cellular activity.
d. they enable a cell to maintain a suitable pH range for optimum cellular activity.
The carbon atom has great bonding versatility because
a. it can form four covalent bonds with other atoms.

b. it can form four ionic bonds with other atoms.

c. it always bonds with hydrogen.

d. it is very heavy.
a. it can form four covalent bonds with other atoms.
The methyl functional group -CH3
a. gives sugar its sweet taste.

b. is part of the ATP molecule.

c. occurs in fats, oils, and waxes.

d. indicates that a molecule is an acid.
c. occurs in fats, oils, and waxes.
L- and D- isomers
a. have different molecular formulas.

b. only occur in lipids.

c. are mirror images of each other.

d. are isolated from culture media contaminants.
c. are mirror images of each other.
The primary structure of a protein
a. is determined genetically.

b. consists of more than one polypeptide chain.

c. is determined by interactions among the R groups of its various amino acids.

d. forms an alpha helix or pleated sheet.
a. is determined genetically.
Enzymes in a cell
a. increase the activation energy required to start a reaction.

b. are not affected by high temperatures.

c. function as catalysts.

d. are not specific in their actions.
function as catalysts.
The study of the organic compounds found in organisms is termed
a. biochemistry.

b. microbiology.

c. organology.

d. ecology.
a. biochemistry.
reolution means that a mircoscope
magnifies an image.
visible wavelenght of light are in the range of nanometers
400 to 700
which kind of sterilization procedure takes advantage of the size of mircoorganisms?
filtration
the maximum magification of one typical compound mircoscope is 1000x. the objects lens used for this magnification is probably.
100x
which subtance is the mordant of the Gram stain
iodine
blood agar is a growth medium
complex
a bacterium retains safranin after the decolorizing agent removes the previously applied Gentian violet of the Gram stain. the bacterium is:
Gram-negative only.
The wavelenght of light used by a given mircoscope is 500nm. If the NA of the object lens used is .5 the seloving power of the mircoscope is nm.
50
the purpose of serial dilution is to
reduce the number of bacteria for counting purposes.
the purpose of the streak plate method is to increase the concentra4tion of colonies growing on a surface of nutrient agar. T/F
False
Light that passes through an object is
a. transmitted.

b. diffracted.

c. reflected.

d. absorbed.
a. transmitted.
All microscopes depend on magnification, contrast and _______ to produce a clear image.
a. lyophilization.

b. resolution.

c. diffraction.

d. ventilation.
b. resolution.
Resolution is
a. determined by the specimen being viewed.

b. a method for settling a dispute.

c. created by light absorption.

d. the ability to distinguish detail within an image.
d. the ability to distinguish detail within an image.
A corrected lens
a. consists of several lenses bonded together to correct for defects present in the lenses.

b. doubles the magnification of the microscope.

c. is concave in shape.

d. causes halos around the specimen.
a. consists of several lenses bonded together to correct for defects present in the lenses.
When viewing living microorganisms under the brightfield microscope
a. it is necessary to increase the contrast.

b. one should kill the cells so they will stop moving.

c. one must wear protective goggles.

d. it is necessary to decrease the contrast.
a. it is necessary to increase the contrast.
The simplest way to prepare a specimen for microscopic examination is a
a. fixed, stained smear.

b. wet mount.

c. Gram stain.

d. negative stain.
b. wet mount.
A mordant
a. decreases a cell's ability to accept the primary stain.

b. increases a cell's affinity for a dye.

c. is used as a counterstain.

d. is always a basic dye.
b. increases a cell's affinity for a dye.
The acid-fast stain
a. uses iodine for decolorization.

b. colors only mycobacteria and some actinomycetes.

c. was developed by Christian Gram.

d. uses carbolfuchsin as the counterstain.
b. colors only mycobacteria and some actinomycetes.
The flagella stain
a. is a type of differential stain.

b. does not require much skill to perform.

c. requires a decolorizer.

d. uses a mixture of tannic acid and rosaniline dye to thicken and color flagella.
. uses a mixture of tannic acid and rosaniline dye to thicken and color flagella.
The major advantage of phase contrast microscopy is
a. it allows one to view ultrastructure.

b. the image fluoresces.

c. it frequently reveals artifacts.

d. specimens do not require fixing and staining.
d. specimens do not require fixing and staining.
Fluorescent microscopy
a. uses electromagnetic lenses.

b. is commonly used to detect Treponema pallidum.

c. achieves contrast by light scattering.

d. depends on a property of the specimen, not the microscope.
d. depends on a property of the specimen, not the microscope.
Scanning Tunneling microscopy is used to
a. determine pathogenicity of Streptococcus pyogenes.

b. detect shapes of DNA molecules.

c. view cells prepared by shadow-casting.

d. examine surfaces of metals and silicone.
d. examine surfaces of metals and silicone.
The type of microscope used to examine shapes of molecules such as DNA is the ________ microscope.
a. Confocal.

b. Darkfield.

c. Nomarsky.

d. Atomic Force.
d. Atomic Force.
Filtration
a. is used to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids or solutions.

b. easily removes most viruses.

c. kills all microorganisms that touch the filter.

d. is a quick sterilization method.
a. is used to sterilize heat-sensitive liquids or solutions.
The chemical that is commonly added to cultures after experiments are completed is
a. Lysol.

b. ethylene oxide.

c. Listerine.

d. sodium hypochlorite (household bleach).
d. sodium hypochlorite (household bleach).
In the _______ method, a diluted sample is added to melted agar that is then poured into a petri dish.
a. spread plate.

b. pour plate.

c. streak plate.

d. filtration.
b. pour plate.
The exact chemical composition of _______ media is known.
a. blood agar.

b. defined.

c. complex.

d. skim milk agar.
b. defined.
The type of media used to isolate microorganisms from natural populations is _______ media.
a. enrichment.

b. differential.

c. selective.

d. defined.
a. enrichment.
Most bacteria
a. grow best at refrigerator temperatures.

b. grow best near the top of their temperature range.

c. are strict anaerobes.

d. prefer a very acidic pH.
grow best near the top of their temperature range.
Choose the true statement:
a. Mycobaaacterium leprae is cultured in armadillos.

b. Treponema pallidum is cultured in turtles.

c. Chlamydia are only grown on nutrient agar.

d. E. coli can only be grown in the intestines of vertebrates.
a. Mycobaaacterium leprae is cultured in armadillos.
Choose the correct statement:
a. Prokaryotic cells have a greater surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.

b. Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

c. Eukaryotic cell walls contain peptiddoglycan.

d. Eukaryotic cells grow faster than prokaryotic cells.
a. Prokaryotic cells have a greater surface-to-volume ratio than eukaryotic cells.
2 The type of appendage found on spirchetes is
a. an axial filament.

b. a Golgi apparatus.

c. a flagellum.

d. cilia.
a. an axial filament.
Pili
a. are found mainly on Gram-positive bacteria.

b. contain protein molecules called adhesions that are used for attachment.

c. are made up of protein molecules called tubulin.

d. function in motility.
b. contain protein molecules called adhesions that are used for attachment.
The prokaryotic flagellum
a. has a 9+2 arrangement of microtubules.

b. is longer than a eukaryotic flagellum.

c. moves by flexing in an undulating pattern.

d. is composed of the filament, hook, and basal body.
d. is composed of the filament, hook, and basal body.
A lophotrichous bacterial cell has
a. a single flagellum at each pole.

b. flagella all over the surface.

c. a single flagellum at one pole.

d. two or more flagella at one or both poles.
d. two or more flagella at one or both poles.
Which of the following is properly matched:
a. chemotaxis - movement away from the pull of gravity.

b. magnetotaxis - movement away from toxins.

c. aerotaxis - movement toward a more favorable carbon monoxide level.

d. phototaxis - movement toward optimum light.
d. phototaxis - movement toward optimum light.
The corkscrew motion of the axial filament allows the spirochete to
a. cause more diseases.

b. be more easily engulfed.

c. swim better in water.

d. swim better in viscous fluids.
d. swim better in viscous fluids.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
8 Gram-positive bacteria lack
a. cytoplasm.

b. a cell wall.

c. an outer membrane.

d. a cytoplasmic membrane.
c. an outer membrane.
In addition to peptidoglycan, the cell wall of a Gram-positive bacterium contains
a. lysozyme.

b. dipicolinic acid.

c. actin.

d. teichoic acid.
d. teichoic acid.
The two major functions of the prokaryotic cell wall are
a. movement and protection.

b. increase virulence and aid in identification.

c. provide nutrients and oxygen.

d. give the cell shape and withstand turgor pressure.
d. give the cell shape and withstand turgor pressure.
The specific kind of peptidoglycan that occurs in bacterial cell walls is
a. murein.

b. tubulin.

c. porins.

d. actin.
a. murein.
Choose the correct statement:
a. Cocci can only divide in 2 planes.

b. Spiral bacteria always occur in pairs.

c. All bacteria can divide in 4 planes.

d. Bacilli always divide in just 1 plane.
d. Bacilli always divide in just 1 plane.
Lysozyme is an enzyme that
a. breaks down flagella.

b. causes a thicker capsule to form.

c. destroys peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.

d. increases active transport.
c. destroys peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls.
Choose the correct statement:
a. Protoplasts and spheroplasts can grow and multiply.

b. Spheroplasts lack all traces of a cell wall.

c. L-forms are unable to form a cell wall.

d. Protoplasts lack most of a cell wall.
L-forms are unable to form a cell wall.
Permeases
a. play an active part in simple diffusion.

b. are a type of carrier protein.

c. function in endocytosis.

d. help flagella rotate.
b. are a type of carrier protein.
Antibiotics that target prokaryotic cell ribosomes generally do not damage the eukaryotic host cell ribosomes because
a. eukaryotic ribosomes are the same size as prokaryotic ribosomes.

b. antibiotics never have an effect on ribosomes.

c. eukaryotic ribosomes are larger than prokaryotic ribosomes.

d. eukaryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryotic ribosomes.
c. eukaryotic ribosomes are larger than prokaryotic ribosomes.
The small circular molecules of DNA found in bacteria are called
a. permeases.

b. plasmids.

c. proteins.

d. peptidoglycans.
b. plasmids.
The most abundant inclusion bodies in bacteria are
a. storage granules.

b. ribosomes.

c. chloroplasts.

d. lysosomes.
a. storage granules.
Which of the following is not an inclusion found in bacterial cells?
a. chlorosome.

b. volutin.

c. magnetosome.

d. lysosome.
d. lysosome.
The main function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton is
a. to serve as a nutrient reserve.

b. to allow the cytoplasm to move in an orderly way.

c. to keep the cell in a fixed position.

d. to provide a place for chemical reactions to occur.
b. to allow the cytoplasm to move in an orderly way.
Eukaryotic DNA is
a. associated with histone proteins.

b. single-stranded.

c. found in a lysosome.

d. found only in the nucleus.
a. associated with histone proteins.
The cell replicates its DNA during
a. metaphase.

b. anaphase.

c. interphase.

d. prophase.
c. interphase.
The type of cellular reproduction that occurs only in reproductive cells is
a. binary fission.

b. conjugation.

c. meiosis.

d. mitosis.
c. meiosis.
The major site for phospholipid synthesis in a eukaryotic cell is
a. rough ER.

b. smooth ER.

c. the Golgi apparatus.

d. a lysosome.
b. smooth ER.
The presence of a cell wall does not allow _______ to occur.
a. active transport.

b. engulfment.

c. osmosis.

d. diffusion.
b. engulfment.