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160 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
functions of blood?
-transport
-stabilization of pH and electrolyte conc. in interstitial fluids
-body temp. regulation
-pathway for migration of WBCs btwn. various connective tissue compartments
materials transported via blood?
O2, CO2, hormones, waste, nutrients, enzymes
amount of blood in adult?
5-6 liters
(~7% total body weight)
3 components of blood?
-RBCs (erythrocytes)
-WBCs (leukocytes)
-platelets (thrombocytes)
functions of...
RBCs?
WBCs?
platelets?
-RBCs=oxygen transport
-WBCs=defense against microorganisms
-platelets=blood clotting
the 3 components of blood are suspended in a yellowish clear liquid composed of water, proteins, and other solutes called...
plasma
plasma is composed of...
water (90%)
proteins (7%)
electrolytes
nutrients (2%)
gases
hormones, enzymes, vitamins, wastes
plasma is _?_% of total blood volume.
55%
cellular components make up _?_% of total blood volume
45%

-buffy coat = WBCs and platelets
-RBCs
the clear fluid that remains after blood coagulation is ___.

anticoagulants and centrifugation yield___.
serum

plasma
blood smear is stained with ___.
Wright's stain
hemoglobin results in RBCs characteristic ___ staining property.
acidophilic
what type of dye is methylene blue and what color does it stain structures?
-basic/positively charged dye
-it stains acidic (neg. charged)
-blue
what cell strucures are neg. charged and thus stain w/ methylene blue?
DNA (in nucleus), RNA (in cyto), specific granules of basophils.

these structures are said to be basophilic.
what type of dye is eosin and what color does it stain structures?
-acidic/neg charged dye
-it stains basic (pos. charged)
-pink
what structures stain pink w/ eosin?
hemoglobin, specific granules of eosinophils.

these structures are said to be acidophilic or eosinophilic.
substances formed as a result of oxidation of methylene blue are called ___.
azures

compounds are colored a reddish blue by binding to azures.
primary function of RBCs
transport of O2 and CO2.
RBCs make up __% of all blood cells.

RBCs form __%-__% of the volume of whole blood.
99%

35-45%
hematocrit is...
percentage by volume of packed RBCs in a given sample of blood after centrifugation.
erythropoietin is...
-a hormone that adjusts RBC production to match O2 demand.
-secreted mainly by kidneys in adults and by the liver in the fetus.
how does the shape of RBCs help its function?
the biconcave shape of RBCs maximizes their SA/volume ratio, thus, maximizing O2 exchange.
how do RBCs get energy once they are formed?
-get energy through glucose in plasma (via cytoplasmic glycolysis, since they don't have mitochondria)
-during formation, RBCs lose nucleus and organelles, only keeping the cytoskeleton.
life span of RBCs?
-120 days
-cell mb. ruptures or aged cell is phagocytosed in spleen, liver, and bone marrow.
-1% RBCs replaced daily (new ones = reticulocytes)
hemoglobin makes up __% of RBCs protein content.
95% (30% weight of RBC)
RBC membranes are organized with what 2 integral membrane proteins?
-glycophorins
-band 3 proteins (ion transporter that transports bicarbonate out of the RBC)
hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
-somatic dominant trait
-defective spectrin or ankyrin, leads to abnormal spectrin lattice binding to band 4.1 protein or the absence of ankyrin and spectrin binding.
-RBCs in HS do not form their normal biconcave shape (they are round and convex)
-RBCs are abnormally fragie, rapidly break down, and transport less O2.
anemia (hemoglobin disorder)
-most common blood disorder
-inadequate Hb supply
-causes weakness, pallor, and breathlessness.
-increased destruction
-decreased production, iron, Vit. B12
sickle cell disease (Hb disease)
-single pt. mutation (GAA->GUA, valine substitutes glutamic acid)
-occurs in gene that encodes the beta chain of Hb A.
-sickled blood cells are more rigid and more readily adhere to endothelium, creating obstruction of blood vessels -> severe O2 shortage in tissues.
WBCs/leukocytes are made in...
bone marrow
WBCs are active in...
tissues
diapedesis
WBCs leave the bloodstream by migrating btwn. endothelial cells of the blood vessels
classification of WBCs is based on presence or absence of specific granules
-granulocytes(myeloid cells): have specific granules (includes neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils)
-agranulocytes: have no specific granules but do have nonspecific azurophilic granules (lymphocytes and monocytes)
granulocytes
-have specific functions
-are nondividing terminal cells w/ a life span of a few days
-die by apoptosis in connective tissue
-include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
non-specific (azurophilic) granules found in both granulocytes and agranulocytes are known as ____.
lysosomes
neutrophils
-most numerous of WBCs (60-70%)
-short-lived (half-life=6-7 hrs, lifespan=1-4 days)
-lobes of their multilobed nucleus are connected to each other by slender chromatin threads
-in females, nucleus has a small appendage (Barr body) but this is not evident in every neutrophil.
-first cells to appear in acute bacterial infections
-inactive and spherical while circulating
-they are active phagocytes of bacteria
-select bacteria/particles to be phagocytosed by opsonization or chemoattractant
-able to survive in anaerobic env't. -> can kill bacteria and help clean up debris in poorly oxygenated regions (inflamed or necrotic tissue)
azurophilic granules
-aka primary granules
-in all WBCs
-are lysosomes (contain myeloperoxidase)
specific granules
-aka secondary granules
-smallest granules w/ various enzymes and antimicrobic agents (lysozyme, lactoferrin)
chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)
-inherited disorder of phagocytic cells
-results from inability of phagocytes to produce bactericidal superoxide anions (O2-)
-leads to recurrent life-threatening bacterial and fungal infections
-caused by a defect in the NADPH oxidase of phagocytes
-refers to characteristic granulomas that develop in response to chronic inflammation.
-diagnostic test uses the dye nitroblue tratazolium (NBT)
eosinophils
-4% of WBCs
-sausage-shaped bilobed nucleus in which 2 lobes are connected by a thin chromatin strand and nuclear envelope
-function in parasitic infections and phagocytosing antigen-antibody complexes
-round cells containing large pink specific granules
-also contain non-specific granules (lysosomes)
major basic protein (MBP)
-50% of total granule protein
-highly basic nature contributes to its toxicity
eosinophilia
-increase in the number of eosinophils in blood
-assoc. w/ parasitic infection and allergic reactions
basophils
-less than 1% of WBCs
-round cells w/ S-shaped nucleus
-# of basophils increases during infection
-have several surface receptors on their plasmalemma (including IgE receptors)
-supplement the functions of mast cells in immediate hypersensitivity reactions (anaphylaxis)
-specific granules of basophils contain heparin and histamine.
lymphocytes
-20-25% of circulating WBCs
-round cells w/ slightly indented, dense, round nucleus that occupies most of the cell
-contains a few azurophilic granules but no specific granules
-subdivided into 1. B cells 2. T cells 3. null cells(circulating stem cells and natural killer cells)
-function in immune response
-only types of leukocytes that return from tissues back to blood after diapedesis
monocytes
-constitute 3-8% of WBCs
-largest circulating blood cells
-large, acentric, kidney-shaped nucleus
-precursor cells of macrophages (differentiate into macrophages after leaving blood vessels and entering CT)
-has numerous azurophilic granules (lysosomes)
-no specific granules
-has occasional vacuole-like spaces
-slightly basophilic cytoplasm
platelets
-aka thrombocytes
-nonnucleated, disklike cell fragments
-critical for blood clotting
-lifespan = 14 days
-originate from fragmentation of giant polyploid megakaryocytes that reside in bone marrow
-promote blood clotting and help repair gaps in blood vessel walls, preventing blood loss.
Skeletal muscle is innervated by this type of motor neurons.
Somatic motor neurons
Unlike cardiac and smooth muscle, skeletal muscle cell contain __________ of nuclei.
Hundreds
Hundred of nuclei within the skeletal muscle cell are an example of a _______________.
Syncytium
The relative strength of a skeletal muscle fiber depends on its _____________.

The strength of an ENTIRE MUSCLE is a function of the _____________ and ___________ of its component fibers.
Number, thickness
Damage to skeletal tissue can be overcome if two properties of the muscle fiber are intact.

Name them.
External lamina and satellite cells
What is the function of satellite cells?
They are the resident precursor cells and as a result can divide to form new muscle cells after tissue damage
Name the three types of skeletal muscle fibers and their properties.
Type I (red):

* Smallest diameter
* Slow, repetitive, not easily fatigued
* Rich in myoglobin, mitochondria

Type IIa:

* Intermediate

Type IIb (white):

* Largest diameter
* Fast, not repetitive, easily fatigued
* Poor in myoglobin, mitochondria
Name the three coverings of muscle fibers.

Which of the coverings has connective tissue and capillaries associated with it?
Endomysium, Perimysium, Epimysium

Only the perimysium is associated with connective tissue and capillaries
A myofibril is composed of _________ and _______ filaments.
Thick (myosin)
Thin (actin)
Together with accessory proteins, actin and myosin form this functional unit.
Sarcomere
The striations within skeletal muscle fibers can be easily summed up into dark and light bands.

Given A, H, and I bands, which directly associates with dark and which with light?
Light bands: I band
Dark bands: A band
This intermediate filament holds skeletal muscle fibers together.
Desmin
The heads of the myosin II molecules are pointing [away | towards] the center of the sarcomere
Away
These two protein mask the myosin binding site on actin filaments.
Troponin and tropomyosin
In order to open the myosin binding site on the actin filament, Ca++ is released and bind to this protein.
Troponin C
The myosin molecule can have its head and mid-section hinged ready for the "stroke" motion.

What two proteases help in this regard? Their action creates these regions.
Papain:

* Creates a hinge between the head (S1) and mid-section of the myosin (S2)
* The head contain two heavy chains and two pairs of light chains


Trypsin:

* Creates a hinge in the mid-section (heavy meromyosin and light meromyosin)
These two proteins are associated with the actin and myosin filaments.

HINT: They help to regulate stretching and lengthening.
Nebulin - actin
Titin - myosin
This protein binds to the end of the actin filament and prevents it from growing.
Tropomodulin
This enzyme provides a ready supply of ATP at the M line.
Creatine kinase
This protein binds to actin and aids in the transmission of contraction to the epimysium.
Dystrophin
Skeletal muscles fibers are depolarized through this triad of components.
2 terminal cisternae
1 T-tubule
What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
Store intracellular calcium and release it when the voltage-gated Ca++ channels are depolarized
Impulses from the nerve fiber are transmitted to the muscle cell through _______________.
Neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
At what angle is the myosin head bound to the action filament?
60 degrees
Explain Huxley's sliding filament theory.
During contraction, the lengths of the individual myofilaments do not change.

The two Z lines are brought closer together as the thick and thin filaments slide past each other.

A band remains the same
I and H bands diminish in width
CLINICAL CORRELATION:

What does Botulism Toxin do?
It interferes with the release of acetylcholine leading to muscle paralysis
CLINICAL CORRELATION:

What is Myasthenia Gravis?
It is an autoimmune disorder where self antibodies bind to the acetylcholine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane
What is the function of muscle spindles and golgi tendon organs?
They both detect change in the length of the tendon/muscle, degree of tension.

Their main function is to keep the muscle fibers and tendons from tearing
Where are muscle spindles and golgi tendons located?
Within the muscle fibers
What are the two types of intrafusal fibers?
* Nuclear bag fiber
* Nuclear chain fiber
This disc is unique to cardiac muscle fibers.
Intercalated discs
What do intercalated discs represent?
Specialized cell junctions between cardiac muscle cells.
What kinds of junctions are in the transverse and the longitudinal portions of the intercalated disc?
Transverse: Desmosome, Adhering junction, gap junction

Longitudinal: Gap junction
Intercalated discs are analogous to _____________.
Z lines
What is the function of the transverse portion of the intercalated disc?
To anchor actin filaments and bind cells together
What is the function of the longitudinal portion of the intercalated disc?
To spread depolarization
What are lipofuscin granules?
It is considered one of the aging or "wear and tear" pigments.
What are TWO major differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle?
1. Cardiac muscle only have diads instead of triads (2 terminal cistarna and 1 T-tubule) -- diads are located within the vicinity of Z lines

2. Ca++ supply is transported into cardiac muscle cell from the extracellular fluid

This is called the "trigger calcium"
Heart beat is initiated, regulated, and coordinated by these types of cells
Cardiac conducting cells
Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers do this ______________.
Modify the rate of intrinsic cardiac muscle contraction
Smooth muscle fiber can be found in these types of organs.

List a few.
Hollow organs: GI tract, blood vessels, secretory ducts, uterus
Where are cardiac endocrine cells normally found?
Intraventricular septum and the walls of the atria
What is produced by cardiac endocrine cells?

What is its function?
Antrial natriuretic polypeptide

* It decreases the renal tubes ability to re-absorb Na+ and H2O

* Increase Na+ and H2O loss (natriuresis and diuresis)
Smooth muscles cells lack these elements of skeletal and cardiac muscles.
Sarcomeres, myofibrils, troponin
Do smooth muscles have thin and thick filaments?

What are they attached to?
Yes

Dense bodies
Dense bodies are composed of ___________ and resemeble the ___________ of striated muscles.
alpha-actinin, Z lines
What is the function of the Caveolae in smooth muscles?
Function in the sequestering and release of Ca++
In smooth muscle, the myosin molecule is in the inactive state. What enzyme helps to activate it?
MLCK
Explain how the contraction of smooth muscle.
1. Nerve signal activates release of Ca++ from caveolae.

2. Ca++ binds to calmodulin

3. Calmodulin-Ca++ complex activates MLCK

4. Conformational change occurs in myosin unmasking the myosin actin-binding site

5. Actin binds on the S1 of myosin

6. Contraction
Name the two nonneural factors involved in modulating the activity of MLCK.
Estrogen increases the concentration of cAMP -> activating MLCK

Progresterone decreases the concentration of cAMP -> deactivating MLCK
Name two types of smooth muscle and describe them.
1. Multiunit

* Richly innervated - every muscle cell receives individual innervation

* Specialized for precise, graded contraction

* Found in iris, vas deferens


2. Unitary

* Minimal innervation
* Impulse transmitted via nexus (gap junction)
* Regulated by oxytocin, stretching
* Found in the wall of hollow organs
Name the two types of contractile nonmuscle cells in smooth muscles.
1. Myoepithelial


2. Myofibroblasts
What is the function of myoepithelial cells?
To push secretions out of the cells and into ducts.

- Seen in mammary glands, lacrimal glands
What is the function of myofibroblasts?
To contract/close wounds by decreasing the size of the opening
The lateral plate mesoderm splits into two layers.

Name them and their function.
1. Somatic Mesoderm [BODY WALL]
- Forms the inner lining of the body wall, bones, and connective tissue
- Associated with ectoderm

2. Splanchnic Mesoderm [GUT WALL]
- Form the mesothelial covering of the viscera.
The musculoskeletal system develops from three sources.

Name them.
1. Lateral plate mesoderm

2. Paraxial mesoderm

3. Neural crest cells
What are the two types of bone formation?

List the differences.
1. Intramembranous ossification

- Mesenchyme precursor ossifies directly into bone


2. Endochondral ossification

- Preformed hyaline cartilage directly ossifies into bone
The skull can be divided into two parts and those parts can be further subdivided into separate portions.

Name them.
1. Neurocranium

a. Membraneous neurocranium
b. Chondrocranium
- Prechordal neurocranium
- Chordal neurocranium

2. Viscerocranium
The membranous neurocranium is equally derived from ____________ and _____________.
Neural crest cells, paraxial mesoderm
The membranous neurocranium undergoes this type of ossification.
Membranous ossification
Define the following terms:

1. Cranioschisis
2. Cranial meningocele
3. Meningoencephalocele
1. Cranioschisis: Failure of the cranial neuropore to close; brain tissue exposed to amnion = anencephaly

2. Cranial meningocele: The meninges herniate through the defect

3. Meningoencephalocele: The meninges and brain tissue herniate through the defect
At birth, the skull bones are separated by __________.
Sutures
Name the three major sutures of the head.
Sagittal
Coronal
Lamboid
The sagittal suture is derived from this cell type.

The coronal suture is derived from this cell type.
Neural crest cells

Paraxial mesoderm
What is the term for an area where two or more bones meet and the sutures are wide?
Fontanelle
What is the most prominent fontanelle?
Anterior fontanelle
Define the following terms:

* Craniosynostosis
* Scaphocephaly
* Acrocephaly
* Brachycephaly
Craniosynostosis: The premature closure of sutures

Scaphocephaly: Closure of the sagittal suture

Acrocephaly: Closure of the coronal suture

Brachycephaly: Close of the coronal and lamboid suture
The chondocranium is made of the following two separate cartilages.

Name them.
Prechordal and chordal chondrocranium
What is the cellular origin of the prechordal and chordal chrondocranium?
Prechordal: neural crest cells

Chordal: paraxial mesoderm
What is the type of ossification that the chondocranium undergoes?
Endochondral ossification
What is the cellular origin of the viscerocranium?
Neural crest cells
What forms from the first and second pharyngeal arches?
First arch:

Dorsal portion: maxilla, zygomatic bone, temporal bone

Ventral portion: mandibular process, mandible


Second arch:

Ossicles - incus, stapes, malleus
Which portion of the mesoderm aids in the development of bone and connective tissue?
Lateral plate mesoderm - somatic layer
What is the function of the apical ectodermal ridge (AER)?
It is essential for limb growth
On the limb, where is the AER located?
At the most distal apex
The AER maintains this zone of highly proliferative cells.
Progress zone
What occurs as the AER moves distally?
The proximal edge of the limb begins to forms muscles and cartilage
When are handplates and footplates formed during the embryogenesis?
6th week - first constriction
What occurs at the 8th week of embryogenesis with respect to hand and footplates?
Second constriction - limb extremities recognized

Formation of separate digits on hands and feet
What occurs at the 7th week of embryogenesis with respect to the hands and feet?
ULL - Upper Limb Lateral rotation of 90 degrees

LLM - Lower Limb Medial rotation of 90 degrees
Define the following terms:

* Dactylys
* Brachydactyly
* Syndactyly
* Polydactyly
* Cleft hand foot
Dactylys: Limb defects affecting the digits

Brachydactyly: Shortening of the digits

Syndactyly: Fusion of two or more digits

Polydactyly: Extra digits on the upper or lower limb

Cleft hand foot: Lobster claw deformity
In the 1960s, this drug was given for resolving the symptoms of morning sickness.
Thalidomide
Thalidomide was found to cause limb defects in fetuses.

Define the terms associated with limb defects:

* Meromelia
* Amelia
* Phocomelia
* Sirenomelia
Meromelia: Partial absence of the limbs

Amelia: Complete absence of the limbs

Phocomelia: Rudimentary hands/feet on trunk

Sirenomelia: Mermaid syndrome
Cartilage differentiates from ___________ to form bones.

The process of bone formation is called ____________.
Mesenchyme, lateral plate mesoderm - somatic mesoderm
All long bones of the fetus are completed by the _______ week.
12th
Ossification of the fetal bones begins at the _____________ and progress to the ______________.
Diaphyses, Cartilage anlage
At birth, the ___________ is ossified and the _____________ is still cartilaginous.
Diaphyses, Epiphyses
Limb development is regulated along 3 axes.

Name them.
Anterior-posterior
Dorsal-ventral
Proximal-distal
Describe the patterning of the proximal-distal axis.
* Limb growth initiated by FGF10
* BMP in the ventral ectoderm induces the AER
* Radical fringe restrict the AER to the distal tip
* Engrained-1 in the ventral ectoderm represses the Radical fringe
* AER express FGF4 and FGF8 -- maintain progress zone
Describe the patterning of the anterior-posterior axis.
Regulated by the ZPA (zone of polarizing cells)

* ZPA produces retinoic acid (vit. a) and induces SHH
- Positioning of thumb on anterior side (radial)
What occurs if their is misexpression of the retinoic acid?
Mirror image duplication of limb structures
Describe the patterning of the dorsal ventral axis.
* Engrained-1 on the ventral side represses WNT7a -- restricting to the dorsal ectoderm

* WNT7a induces LMX1 in dorsal ectoderm
Vertebrae are formed from the ______________ of the ______________.
Sclerotome, paraxial mesoderm
Each vertebrae develops from the combination of ___ somites.

Give a number.
2
Sclerotome cells migrate around the spinal cord and notochord at the ____ week.
4th
The patterning and shape of vertebrae and the vertebral column is shaped by the ____ genes.
HOX
This portion of the paraxial mesoderm somites permits spinal movement.
Myotome
What is resegmentation?
The combination of the caudal and cranial half of the somite to form the vertebrae.
The intervertebral disc is composed of the ____________ and _____________.
Nucleus pulposus, nucleus fibrosis
What is the origin of the nucleus pulposus?
The notochord
What is the origin of the nucleus fibrosis?
The sclerotome
What is the Klippel-Feil sequence?
It is a vertebral defect where the person has fewer cervical vertebrae
What is spina bifida?

Define spina bifida occulta, spina bifida cystica
Spina bifida: imperfect fusion or alignment of vertebrae

Spina bifida occulta: The incomplete fusion of the vertebral spine -- bony defect [MINOR]

Spina bifida cystica: The incomplete fusion of the vertebrae where spine is open to the outside environment. [SEVERE]
Name the derivations of the different muscle type.

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac
Integumentary Glands
Skeletal: Paraxial mesoderm - myotome of somites

Smooth and Cardiac: Splanchnic mesoderm of the lateral plate

Integumentary Glands: Ectoderm
The somites of the paraxial mesoderm can differentiate into:
* Sclerotome
* Dermomoyotome
- dermotome
- myotome
The myotome itself can be split into the following regions:
VLL (ventrolateral lip)
DML (dorsomedial lip)
The ventral hypomere contains muscles for the ___________ and ____________
* Body wall of the thorax and abdomen
* Limbs
Muscles of the lateral and ventral body wall are called _____________
Hypaxial muscles
How many somites are there in the body wall?

Break down the somites per region.
42-44

4 occipital
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
8 coccygeal
Muscle patterns are regulated by _________________
Connective tissue
Muscles of the dorsomedial lip (dorsal epimere) are collectively called ___________
Epaxial muscles
The epaxial muscles are composed of the ____________ and _________
Erector spinae
Transversospinalis
The myogenic regulatory factors inducing development of the ventrolateral lip and dorsomedial lip are _________ and ___________ respectively
VLL: MYF4 and MYO-D
DML: MYF5 and MYO-D
What is the role of MYO-D?
It is an important regulator / inducer of muscle differentiation.