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41 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Describe the four types of mutations causing activities.
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1. tautomeric shift (TH: keto -> enol) (AD: amino -> imino)
2. ionizing radiation (xray, gamma ray -> one or two strand break) 3. uv radiation (pyrimidine dimers) 4. chemicals - base analogs (5BRU) - free radicals (O^3) - deamination (ADENINE -> hypoxanthine) - alkylation (methylbromide, ethylene oxide) - intercalating agents (proflavin) |
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Describe some of the DNA repair mechanisms.
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1. BER (incorrect base at a specific bp)
2. NER (lesions in the genome - could be small regions or entire chromosomes) 3. AP endonuclease (baseless / apurinic sites) 4. Post replication mismatch repair 5. 3' -> 5' exonculease activity (transcription - gene repair) 6. Repair of double-strand breaks - homologous (good) - non-homologous (bad, adds more mutations) |
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DNA glycosylase is specific for cleaving this mutation.
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C -> U deamination -- specifically cleaves the uracil base but leaves the glycosidic bond in place but this too must be removed
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If a base has been removed during the repair mechanism phase, what enzyme comes along and cleaves the glycosidic link?
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AP endonuclease
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How do the repair mechanisms distinguish an old strand from a new one?
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Bacteria: The old strand has either pyrimidine dimers or has certain bases methylated
Humans: The new strand is the one with the nick and therefore mismatched base |
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This base is a mutational hotspot.
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5-methyl-cytosine --- it is deaminated to thymine which causes an incorrect bp to form
C -> G [This no longer happens] T -> A [This now happens after several replications] |
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What are four DNA repair defects and their diseases?
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1. Xeroderma Pigmentosum
- autosomal recessive - defect of genome-wide NER 2. Cockayne Syndrome - autosomal recessive - defect of transcription-coupled NER 3. HNPCC (non-polyposis colon cancer) - autosomal dominant - defect post-replication mismatch repair 4. Ataxia-telangiectasia - autosomal recessive - defect in PK involved in (non)-homologous end joining |
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Most DNA is 5 - 7% _______________.
Why is this important? |
Negatively supertwised
This favors unwinding via Type I (swivelase) as it doesn't require ATP |
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Topoisomerase Type II is the target of _____________ and _______________.
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Antibiotics and chemotherapy
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What are some of the inhibitors of Type II Topoisomerase?
How do they work? |
Ciprofloxin (prokaryotes)
Doxorubicin (eukaryotes) The inhibitors cause strand breakage in the chromosome |
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What is the major functional difference between DNA polymerase I and III?
Why is this? |
DNA polymerase III starts from where RNA primer left off and finishes to the end
DNA polymerase I remove the RNA primer and lays down DNA in its place - It is the only one to have 5' -> 3' exonuclease activity |
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UV damage and repair is initiated by this complex.
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uvrABC
- Make nicks before and after the area of damage |
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What are snRNA and what is their function?
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snRAN are small RNA molecules found in the nucleus.
They are important in RNA splicing and telomere maintenance. They are referred to as SNRNP (snurps) = spliceosome complex |
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What are the components of the RNA polymerase holoenzyme?
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alpha, beta, beta prime, and sigma
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Which component of the RNA polymerase first bind to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
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Sigma subunit
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What are the two types of transcription terminal signals?
Which one is used in emergency situations (e.g. cell low on energy)? |
1. GC stem loop
2. Rho - This is used in emergency situations as Rho can race down the mRNA strand and create a hairpin loop |
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Name two elongation factors tin both prokaryotes and eukaryotes where energy is spent.
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EF-Tu (pro) & eEF-1A (euk) = bind all aminoacylated tRNAs, GTPase
EF-G (pro) & eEF-2 = translocation, GTPase |
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Achondroplasia (ACH) is a form of dwarifism. The mutation which causes this disease is a ______ which in turn causes this change to happen?
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Single nucleotide polymorphism
- The codon for glycine (GLY) becomes changed and instead codes for arginine (ARG) |
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Restriction enzymes can leave two different types of ends. What are they and which one is better for integrating with a genome?
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Blunt and sticky ends
- Sticky ends aid in genome integration because they have 1 or more bases protruding from each end |
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What are the steps and raw supplies needed for PCR?
Discuss what is needed at each step of the way. |
* Require double stranded DNA
* Require two different RNA primers, one for each strand Step 1: Heat solution to denature/de-anneal DNA strands Step 2: Add RNA primer to the solution Step 3: Cool down the solution to allow annealing of primer to DNA Step 4: Increase temperature to allow thermo-stable polymerase to operate efficiently & optimally; don't forget the dNTPs [REPEAT] |
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Which of the electrophoresis gels has a loose mesh and which one has a tight mesh?
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Loose mesh: Agarose
Tight mesh: Polyacrylamide/bis-acrylamide |
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What is the major difference between gel electrophoresis and pulsed field electrophoresis?
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Pulsed field electrophoresis can resolve a much larger size molecule.
This has definite uses in a hospital where it can be uses to track down different strains of illnesses. |
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High stringency of hybridization is made possibly by
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* Increased temperature
* Decreased salt For short probes: * Decreased GC content * Decreased length |
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What are the different kind of blots and what do they target?
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SNOW
DROP Southern: DNA Northern: RNA Western: Protein Dot Blot: DNA or RNA |
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True or false.
A Northern blot can use DNA or an oligo as a probe. |
True
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A cancer cell is reacting differently to a newly designed drug. You want to measure the level of transcription of a gene encoding a multidrug resistance transporter.
Which blotting method would you choose? |
Northern
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A cloning a glycoprotein will require the use of this cell line.
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Eukaryotic
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What is the difference between polygenic and multifactorial genetic disorders?
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Multifactorial genetic disorders also include environmental causes into their understanding of the disease
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General transcription factors are the sites of ____________
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Promoters (CAAT, TATA, ...)
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What are three ways that genomics aids in medical practice?
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1. Identifying optimal patient-centered therapeutic dosages
2. Identifying optimal-patient centered therapies 3. Improvement of patient-centered long-term risk assessment |
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Are ALU repeats SINEs or LINEs?
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SINEs
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How are minisatellites and microsatellites used in the world?
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Minisatellites: DNA fingerpriting
Microsatellites: Tracking individual polymorphisms in individuals of a family -- establish kinship/parentage |
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Chromatin is made active by?
Chromatin is made inactive by? |
* HAT (histone acetyl transferase) adds acetyl groups to lysine and thus 'opening up' DNA
* Histones can have methyl groups added to lysine and arginine * Histones can phosphorylate serine, threonine, and lysine - This increases rates of transcription and replication ----- Histones can be deactivated by HDAC (histone de-acetylation complex) - This decreases transcription and replication rates |
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What are four types of DNA binding proteins?
Where do they bind to on the chromosome? |
1. Helix Turn Helix
2. Helix Loop Helix 3. Leucine Zippers 4. Zinc Fingers *** They all bind to the major groove of the chromosome |
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The toll-like receptor found on human immune cells senses this on bacterial cells.
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LPS
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What are three ways by which prokaryotes transfer genetic information?
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1. Conjugation (F Plasmid)
2. Transduction (Viral infection) 3. Transformation (Pick up DNA from environment) |
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What is transcriptional silencing?
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The hypermethylation of promoter CG islands by some cancers.
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Which of the following mutations occurs at the promoter region and which acts farther away?
Cis-acting Trans-acting |
Cis-acting mutations occur at the promoter region
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On a eukaryotic mRNA strand, what is the sequence of protein bindings and ribosome activation?
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* TFIID binds to TATA
- TBD is a subunit of TFIID * IIA, IIB, and IIH bind to TFIID * IIH phosphorylates RNA Polymerase II * RNA Polymerase II begins transcription |
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Translation initiation is dependent on these factors.
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elongation factors (eEF-2, eEF-1a)
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What toxin directly effects elongation factor 2 and disables protein translation?
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Diphtheria toxin
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