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375 Cards in this Set

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When was the first time Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm naval vessels?
1. 10 May 1774
2. 4 July 1776
3. 13 October 1775
4. 10 November 1775
Almost every U.S. Sailor has experienced some type of major deployment.
1. True
2. False
Which, if any, of the following factors defines naval presence?
1. A major deployment.
2. Having a naval force in a specific location
3. Deploying to a hostile area to confront adversaries.
4. None of the above
Deployments place naval forces in position for which of the following purposes?
1. To provide protection and support to Allied Forces in time of war
2. To stop the advance of the enemy as soon as possible
3. To engage the enemy promptly at the start of hostilities
4. All of the above
What is the maximum time U.S. naval forces can sustain operations in a crisis area?
1. 30 days
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. I n d e f i n i t e l y
What requirement must U.S. naval forces reflect to be effective in a presence role?
1. Friendliness toward the host country and its allies
2. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat
3. Current U.S. policy
4. Current technology
Which of the following responsibilities belongs to the Navy during wartime?
1. Functioning in a hostile environment
2. Power projection
3. Sea control
4. All of the above
Sea control means having simultaneous control over the world’s international waters.
1. True
2. False
What basic military function provides U.S. forces with the ability to conduct sustained operations abroad?
1. Acquiring large amounts of the enemy’s territory
2. Large numbers of ground forces
3. Naval presence
4. Sea control
Denying the enemy the ability to advance close enough to use weapons is called
1. intermediate hostile interdiction
2. power projection
3. naval presence
4. sea control
An essential element of power projection is identified by which of the following requirements?
1. Amphibious ships
2. Counter insurgency warfare
3. Intermediate hostile interdiction
4. Forward deployed propositioning of ships
The use of fleet ballistic missile submarines to provide a nuclear strike is an example of sea control.
1. True
2. False
The unrestricted global mobility of naval forces is based on which of the following items?
1. Treaties
2. Tradition
3. International agreement
4. Difficulty of detection
The Soviets restrict their naval power projection to the waters around the Soviet Union and the East Coast of the United States.
1. True
2 . False
The German navy has upgraded NATO’s air defense through the purchase of which of the following aircraft?
1. F–14D
2. F–104
3. F/A–18
4. Tornado
Who is responsible for NATO’s offensive and defensive capability in the Norwegian and Mediterranean Seas?
1. CINCLANT
2. CINCMED
3. SACLANT
4. SACPAC
Which of the following areas of responsibility belongs to NATO?
1. Northwestern TVD
2. Western TVD
3. AFCENT
4. All of the above
Which of the following areas of responsibility is a Soviet theater of operation?
1. Northwestern TVD
2. Southern TVD
3. Western TVD
4. Each of the above
Why are the Soviets conducting a long–range strategic nuclear modernization program?
1. To prove they are the world leaders in arms technology and to provide third world countries with new weapons
2. To replace every out-of-date nuclear warhead with a newer more efficient warhead
3. To comply with expected future strategic arms reduction treaty constraints
4. To reduce the chance of accidental war
Which of the following choke points is NOT applicable to Soviet ships deploying from Severodvinsk?
1. Danish Straits
2. Barents Straits
3. Turkish Straits
4. Iceland-England gap
The Soviet Black Sea Fleet could be contained by sinking a ship in which of the following choke points?
1. Danish Straits
2. Barents Straits
3. Turkish Straits
4. Greenland–Iceland gap
Which of the following cities is the home port of the Soviet Black Sea Fleet?
1. Severodvinsk
2. Sevastopol
3. T r i p o l i
4. Ur
What is the primary mission of the Soviet navy?
1. World–wide power projection
2. To provide security for Soviet shipping
3. To provide security for third world allies
4. To provide support for Soviet land–based forces
The bulk of Soviet naval air power is derived by which of the following methods of providing air power?
1. Land–based aircraft
2. Aircraft carriers
3. Helo carriers
4. Destroyers
Which of the following Soviet fleets contain aircraft carriers?
1. Pacific Ocean Fleet
2. Black Sea Fleet
3. Caspian Fleet
4. Baltic Fleet
Which of the following Soviet fleets does NOT contain fleet ballistic missile submarines?
1. Pacific Ocean Fleet
2. Black Sea Fleet
3. Northern Fleet
4. Baltic Fleet
Approximately 10 percent of the world’s sea trade passes through the Suez Canal at which of the following points?
1. Hormuz
2. Hormel
3. Abul Nabul
4. Babel Mandeb
Persian Gulf states are building overland oil–pipe routes to lessen the importance of the Israeli controlled Suez Canal.
1. True
2. False
USCENTCOM naval forces in the Middle East and Southwest Asia are under which of the following commands?
1. Commander Sixth Fleet
2. Commander Seventh Fleet
3. Commander Middle East Forces
4. Supreme Allied Commander NATO
Which, if any, of the following statements describes why Africa is strategically important to western nations?
1. It is very suitable for weapons testing because large areas of land are uninhabited
2. It has port facilities suitable for naval bases
3. It has a wealth of natural resources
4. None of the above
Operation El Dorado involved which of the following countries?
1. United States and Mozambique
2. United States and Grenada
3. United States and Libya
4. United States and Iraq
The U.S. could lose Philippine bases for which of the following reasons?
1. The leases must be periodically renegotiated with the Philippine government
2. Recent base realignment has indicated the bases are not cost effective
3. The Philippine government has cut off aid
4. The U.S. refuses to pay rent
Which of the following factors contribute(s) to deterrence in the Pacific and East Asian regions?
1. Bilateral defense treaties
2. Weapons technology
3. PACOM forces
4. All of the above
Which of the following countries is NOT working toward acquiring nuclear weapons capability?
1. Saudi Arabia
2. France
3. Iraq
4. Iran
Which of the following countries was a joint partner with Israel in developing nuclear weapons?
1. United States
2. Soviet Union
3. France
4. Spain
What country(ies) conducted preemptive strikes against an Iraqi nuclear reactor?
1. United States
2. Israel
3. Iran
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Which of the following arms reduction talks resulted in an antiballistic missile treaty between the U.S. and the Soviet Union?
1. SALT
2. PEPPER
3. SALT IA
4. SALT II
In arms reduction talks, the U.S. will try to limit which of the following items?
1. American–Soviet competition in strategic nuclear forces
2. American treaty compliance
3. Soviet treaty compliance
4. Strategic deterrence
In the event of a nuclear war between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, what is the primary mission of the Soviet navy?
1. To sink as many U.S. submarines as possible
2. To disrupt sea lines of communication
3. To shoot down incoming U.S. planes and cruise missiles
4. To conduct nuclear strikes from SSBNs operating in protected waters
How far from the Soviet mainland do the Soviet sea denial zones usually extend?
1. 1,000 miles
2. 1,000 kilometers
3. 2,000 miles
4. 2,000 kilometers
U.S national security is based on deterrence, propositioning of forces, and creating sea denial zones.
1. True
2. False
How many diesel submarines, if any, does the U.S. Navy maintain in active service?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 10
4. None
The U.S. submarine force includes which of the following attack submarine classes?
1. Permit
2. Lafayette
3. James Madison
4. Benjamin Franklin
Which of the following weapons platforms do the Soviets use as their primary platform for conducting naval warfare?
1. Aircraft carriers
2. Submarines
3. Destroyers
4. Aircraft
When compared to the U.S., the Soviet submarine force has what size and effectiveness?
1. Smaller size, more effective
2. Larger size, less effective
3. Smaller size, less effective
4. Larger size, more effective
Which of the following types of Soviet submarines carries cruise missiles as a primary weapon?
1. SSGN
2. SSN
3. SS
4. ALL of the above
What is the principle weakness of the Soviet navy?
1. Lack of aircraft carriers
2. Lack of long–range aircraft
3. Dependence on submarines to counter U.S. surface forces
4. A very low priority in providing underway replenishment
What is the newest class of Soviet aircraft carrier?
1. T b i l i s i
2.Okhotsk
3. Nikolayev
4. Ouagadougou
What stance does the U.S. take on chemical and biological weapons?
1. The U.S. encourages their use by our allies because they are less expensive than nuclear weapons
2. Nuclear weapons are more efficient so we don’t stock chemical weapons
3. We will do all we can to prevent their use
4. We will retaliate in kind
Which of the following nerve agents is most likely to be produced by a third world country?
1. GD
2. GB
3. GA
4. VX
Countries with known or suspected chemical weapons capabilities include which of the following Middle Eastern countries?
1. Israel, Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Iraq, and Iran
2. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel, and Iraq
3. Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel, Iran, Iraq. and Libya
4. Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, I s r a e l , Libya, Lebanon
The United States supported Iraq during the Iran-Iraq War.
1. True
2. False
The job of the U.S. Navy in the Persian Gulf, from 1987 to 1988, is best described by which of the following statements?
1. The primary mission was in support of the Iraqi navy
2. The mission of the U.S. Navy was to seek out and destroy Iranian naval units
3. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers
4. The primary mission was to act as decoys while elements of the British and French navies attacked terrorist camps
Which of the following countries could be the United States most formidable opponent in the Middle East?
1. Iraq
2. Iran
3. Syria
4. Libya
Which of the following countries claims to be the victim of numerous Iraqi chemical attacks?
1. Iran
2. Libya
3. Syria
4. I s r a e l
Which of the following countries is known to have stockpiles of Soviet SS-1 missiles?
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. Syria
4. All of the above
The chemical agent distilled mustard, HD, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood
The chemical agent diphosgene, DP, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood
The chemical agent cyanogen chloride, CK, belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood
The chemical agent VX belongs to which of the following families of agents?
1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood
Which of the following chemical agents has a dark yellow appearance?
1. Soman, GD
2. Nitrogen,
3. Mustard–Lewisite, HL
4. Cyanogen Chloride, CK
Any country capable of producing organophosphorus pesticides can produce which of the following chemical agents?
1. Tabun
2. Chlorine
3. Lewisite
4. Phosgene
The Oghab is a version of which of the following weapons?
1. Soviet SS-1
2. Chinese M-9
3. Soviet SS-12
4. Chinese Type 53 artillery rocket
Which of the following countries is thought to have nuclear weapons in its arsenal?
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. I s r a e l
4. Lebanon
The Jerico 2 missile is a (a) type with a (b) range.
1. (a) Mobile (b) 1,000 kilometer
2. (a) Mobile (b) 1,500 kilometer
3. (a) Fixed (b) 1,000 kilometer
4. (a) Fixed (b) 1,500 kilometer
When assigned as the preliminary inquiry officer, you will usually investigate which of the following offenses?
1. Offenses under investigation by a fact finding body
2. Offenses under investigation by NIS
3. Major offenses
4. Minor offenses
The legal officer uses what part of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984 in preparing a report chit?
1. Part I
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part VI
The accused is informed of his or her rights under which of the following articles?
1. Article 31(a) of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984
2. Article 31 (b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Article 30(a) of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. Article 30(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
When serving as the preliminary investigation officer, you should remain impartial.
1. True
2 . False
What source of information provides the best facts about the accused?
1. Service record of the accused
2. An informal interview with the witnesses
3. The person who initiated the report chit
4. Supervisors and peers of the accused
Who has the greatest motive for lying or distorting the truth?
1. The witnesses
2. The accused, if guilty
3. The accused, if innocent
4. The person who initiated the report chit
A copy of the Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual is considered to be what type of evidence?
1. Documentary evidence
2. Regulatory evidence
3. Physical evidence
4. Real evidence
The preliminary investigation officer should conduct an interview with the accused at which of the following times?
1. As soon as the report chit is filled out
2. After examining the real and documentary evidence
3. After the accused has been advised of article 31(b) of the UCMJ and makes a waiver of rights
4. After advising the accused on the legal technicalities of the case
The United States Coast Guard is assigned to the Navy at which of the following times?
1. Upon declaration of war
2. When directed by the president
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. When requested by the Chief of Naval Operations
What is the primary regulatory document of the Navy?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. U.S. Navy Regulations
Chapter 8 of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, applies to which of the following people?
1. Commanding officers
2 . Prospective commanding officers
3. Petty officers detailed as officer in charge or command duty officer
4. All of the above
Which of the following chapters of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, outlines the actions of U.S. naval forces when in the vicinity of other armed forces?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations
Which chapter in U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, provides information on detailing officers and enlisted persons?
1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations
The articles specifically enumerated in article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice should be explained to each enlisted person at which of the following times?
1. After completion of six months active duty
2. At the time of each PCS move
3. Before each deployment
4. Three months before separation from the Navy
Which of the following publications is NOT required to be made available to any person on active duty?
1. Navy Regulations
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual
4. Navy Military Personnel Manual
Which of the following statements concerning the exercise of authority is true?
1. A retired Navy captain may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel
2. A master chief petty officer in the Fleet Reserve may exercise authority over all subordinates
3. A commander on the sick list may exercise authority over all subordinates
4. A second class petty officer on active duty, capable of discharging all duties may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel
When an enlisted person receives an order that conflicts with a previously received order, which of the following actions should that person take?
1. Obey the first Order
2. Obey the last order
3. Obey neither order
4. Obey both orders
Which of the following officers would have authority over all persons embarked in a boat?
1. A chaplain who is a captain
2. A Supply Corps commander
3. A naval aviator who is a lieutenant commander
4. A Chief Warrant Boatswain
The department head assigns a job to a chief. The chief is busy and assigns the job to the leading petty officer (LPO). The LPO forgets about the job and goes on liberty. Who was responsible for completing the job?
1. The LPO only
2. The chief only
3. The LPO, chief, and division officer
4. The LPO, chief, and department head
A sentry would NOT have authority over which, if any, of the following persons on his or her post?
1. A line officer
2 . A staff officer
3. The command master chief
4. None of the above
When, if ever , may a junior person give an order to an officer who is senior to him or her?
1. When the junior is the petty officer of the watch
2 . When the junior is serving on the staff of a rear admiral
3. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer
4. Never
When may an officer accept money from an enlisted person?
1. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person
2 . Only when on liberty
3. As a birthday gift
4. Only as a loan
A chief petty officer loans money to another chief petty officer. What, if any, is the maximum interest rate that can be charged?
1. 10 percent
2. 14 percent
3. 18 percent
4. None
Which of the following persons may inspect your record held by the Chief of Naval Personnel?
1. You
2. Your designated agent
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Your division officer
Which of the following Navy personnel are required to report all offenses to proper authority?
1. Officers
2 . Petty officers
3. Nonrated personnel
4. All of the above
If you believe one of your personnel has a communicable disease, who should you report it to?
1. The command's medical representative
2 . The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The division officer
Which, if any, of the following statements concerning exchange of duty is correct?
1. You and another person only need to show up for each other’s watch
2. You only need to notify the officer of the deck
3. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it throuqh proper authority
4. None of the above
Which of the following statements concerning Navy examinations is correct?
1. Members may use old examinations as study guides for future examinations
2. Members taking examinations may discuss questions among themselves prior to answering them
3. Members may develop study guides from prior examinations to use in preparing for future examinations
4. None of the above
Normally, a person in the Navy may communicate with a member of Congress with no restrictions. However, should the service member, in an official capacity, desire congressional action of any type, he or she must
1. receive prior approval from the Chief of Naval Operations
2. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and receive the former’s consent to proceed
3. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intent to communicate and the former must get the consent of the Secretary of Defense to proceed
4. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and then proceed with the application
A person may be denied the right to communicate with a member of Congress under which, if any, of the following conditions?
1. When the communication is critical of Navy policy
2. When the communication alleges misconduct of a superior
3. When the communication would violate security regulations
4. None of the above
When a request is not approved or recommended, you should state the reason on the request.
1. True
2. False
Meals served in the general mess are sampled regularly by an officer detailed by the commanding officer. What course of action should the officer take if discrepancies are discovered?
1. Notify the food service officer
2 . Notify the supply officer
3. Notify the commanding officer
4. Advise personnel not to eat in the general mess
In which of the following publications would you find the definition for unity of command?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Uniform Code of Military Justice
Which of the following statements concerning extra military instruction (EMI) is true?
1. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI
2. EMI will normally be assigned for more than 2 hours per day
3. EMI may not be assigned at a reasonable hour outside of normal working hours
4. EMI will be conducted over a period that is longer than necessary to correct the performance discrepancy
Which, if any, of the following privileges can you, as a chief petty officer, withhold from your subordinates?
1. Special liberty
2 . Exchange of duty
3. Special services events
4. None of the above
You are required to have your ship ready to get underway in the morning. I t is nearing liberty call and most of the work has not been accomplished. Which of the following administrative actions should you apply?
1. Withholding of privileges
2. Extra military instruction
3. Extension of working hours
4. Control through recognition of performance
You have a basic responsibility to recognize initiative and exemplary performance of your subordinates.
1. True
2 . False
Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN contain organizational requirements for aviation units?
1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above
You are a work center supervisor and would like to find out what your LCPO responsibilities consist of. Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN would provide guidance?
1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above
Which of the following chapters in the SORN should the departmental duty officer review?
1. Standard unit organization
2 . The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. Both 2 and 3 above
A person departing on leave must possess which of the following documents?
1. Properly validated leave papers and ID card
2. Armed forces liberty pass
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Geneva Convention card
Without proper authority, a person shall not remove which of the following items from the regular place of stowage or location?
1. First–aid equipment
2. Stores and foodstuffs
3. Hull and damage control fittings
4. Each of the above
Which of following statements is NOT true concerning berthing?
1. You may be placed on report for failing to get up at reveille
2. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes
3. You may not sleep in your work spaces unless authorized
4. You may turn on white lights in berthing any time you want between reveille and taps
You pass the ship’s library after taps and notice some Sailors playing monopoly. Which of the following actions should you take?
1. Ask the Sailors to follow you to the chief’s quarters and have them wait while you fill out a report chit for violating article 510.01 of the SORN
2 . Stop and watch the Sailors play the game
3. Remind the Sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit
4. Continue on to the chief’s quarters without stopping
While in a liberty status aboard ship, you may wear civilian clothes while dining in the crew’s mess.
1. True
2. False
Aboard ship mess gear is often found in the work center. By regulation, which of the following persons is/are charged with ensuring the mess gear is immediately returned to the mess decks?
1. The division officer
2. The person who took the mess gear
3. The senior petty officer in charge of the space
4. All of the above
Which of the following statements concerning uniforms and clothing is true?
1. You may wear frayed or dirty uniforms
2. You may wear an article that is not prescribed as part of the uniform of the day
3. You may wear the uniform in a manner that would bring discredit to the Navy
4. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation
Each person is responsible for keeping his or her locker locked at all times.
1. True
2. False
You may bring your personal camera aboard ship without first obtaining permission.
1. True
2. False
Which of the following statements is/are applicable to the plan of the day?
1. It will be posted on division bulletin boards
2. In port, it will be read at quarters
3. It will be published daily by the XO
4. All of the above
The use of profane, obscene, or vulgar words or gestures aboard naval units is an accepted practice and doesn’t violate any regulations.
1. True
2. False
Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which of the following topics?
1. Safety
2. Training
3. Unit Bills
4. Unit directives system
What chapter in the SORN covers guidelines for establishing operational bills?
1. Unit Bills
2. Watch Organization
3. The Unit Organization
4. Standard Unit Organization
What is the equal right of jurisdiction called?
1. Jurisprudence jurisdiction
2. Equilateral jurisdiction
3. Concurrent jurisdiction
4. Disparate jurisdiction
When a military member is tried in a U.S. court, the military will pay the attorney fees and court cost.
1. True
2. False
American troops are stationed in Europe for which of the following reasons?
1. To benefit our allies
2. To recognize the need for collective strength
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Europe pays the U.S. for stationing the troops in NATO countries
Status of Forces Agreements only apply to active duty military personnel.
1. True
2 . False
Status of Forces Agreements are a package of which of the following agreements?
1. Treaties
2 . Protocol agreements
3. Executive agreements
4. All of the above
What is the primary purpose of the Status of Forces Agreements?
1. To define the status of one’s military forces stationed in another country
2 . To allow the host country jurisdiction over foreign personnel
3. To provide for the common defense against communist aggressors
4. To give NATO forces the right to operate anywhere in Europe
You are stationed aboard a ship in a foreign port. When are you exempt from prosecution by local authorities?
1. When you come back aboard after going on liberty
2 . When ashore on official business
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Naval personnel enjoy diplomatic immunity because of SOFA and are always exempt from prosecution
Experience has shown that sentences imposed by foreign courts on U.S. service members are unusually harsh.
1. True
2 . False
Which of the following privileges are allowed. under SOFA, by special consent of the host country?
1. Use of a U.S. driver’s license
2. Waiver of taxes or import duty on household goods
3. Entering and leaving the country on military orders
4. All of the above
Which of the following topics are generally covered by SOFAs?
1. Freedom of troop movement
2 . Exchange privileges
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Marriage licenses
When did countries first recognize the need to develop Status of Forces Agreements?
1. Before World War I
2. During peacetime, 1919 to 1939
3. During World War II
4. After countries had recovered from World War II
Our Allies want us to remove our troops from Europe.
1. True
2. False
Which, if any, of the following levels of management contains chief petty officers?
1. Top
2. Middle
3. Operating
4. None of the above
In which of the following types of planning are chiefs normally
involved?
1. Single–use
2. Standing
3. Strategic
4. Both 2 and 3 above
What type of planning involves activities that will occur in 2 to 5 years?
1. Strategic
2. Standing
3. Procedures
4. Single-use
Which of the following plans gives broad general statements of expected behavior?
1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives
Which of the following plans are detailed standing plans?
1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives
What type of organizational document should you use to help avoid crisis management?
1. The command policies
2. The command procedures
3. The command organizational objectives
4. The command’s rules and regulations
Which of the following statements concerning rules and regulations is true?
1. They are standing plans
2. They state what you may or may not do in a given situation
3. Commands use them to ensure personnel comply with command policy
4. Each of the above
Which of the following types of control is expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and a period of time?
1. Budget
2. Policy
3. Program
4. Project
Single-use plans are developed from which of the following plans?
1. Strategic
2. Programs
3. Projects
4. Budgets
Which of the following statements defines management by objectives (MBO)?
1. MBO states a specific goal and gives the major steps, the timing of the steps, and the resources required
2. Supervisors set the goals and subordinates have no input to the planning process
3. Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together
4. MBO states the amount of time, money, personnel, and other resources to be used
The purpose of MBO is to set clearly defined goals everyone can understand.
1. True
2. False
What principle is MBO based on?
1. People are more willing to work toward a goal they are committed to
2. People will do everything possible to meet the goals they set
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Supervisors should set all the goals because workers are basically lazy
Which of the following items is NOT a disadvantage of management by objectives?
1. It may cause leaders to overlook objectives that cannot be measured
2. It forces leaders to focus on important objectives
3. It requires more time to use
4. It increases paperwork
You will find the work requirements for your division in which of the following divisional documents?
1. Strategic plans
2. Single-use plans
3. Rules and regulations
4. All of the above
What is the first step in setting goals for work requirements?
1. Identify the difference between the real and ideal situation
2. Develop a single–use plan to implement the change
3. Recognize the real situation in your division
4. Make a commitment to change
Which of the following statement defines the goal setting criteria of being behavior specific?
1. Specifies the necessary action to take
2. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
3. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
4. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
The goal setting criteria of being measurable is defined by which of the following statements?
1. The goal tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2 . The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. The goal provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. The goal specifies the necessary action to take
Which of the following statements defines realistic but challenging goal setting criteria?
1. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2 . Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take
Which of the following statements defines time-phased goal setting criteria?
1. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take
If a task does not fit into the priority of urgent, important, or important/urgent, when should you do the task?
1. Whenever you find time
2. Before the urgent task
3. Before the important task
4. Before the urgent/important task
Why should you use strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis?
1. To determine where the division needs improvement
2. To determine opportunities available to the division
3. To determine if there are any obstacles the division must overcome
4. All of the above
What would an available school quota be classified as during a SWOT analysis?
1. Strength
2. Weakness
3. Opportunity
4. Threat
You must assign a person to a billet that requires completion of a personnel qualification standard. When, if ever, is the person considered qualified to fill the billet?
1. When the assignment is made
2. When the person completes the personnel qualification standard
3. When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made
4. Never
Trying to anticipate problems and making corrections before problems occur requires which of the following types of control?
1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feedforward
Which of the following types of control involves making corrections after an event happens?
1. Feedforward
2. Concurrent
3. Feedback
4. Quality
Which of the following types of control involves making changes as an event occurs?
1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feed forward
An inspection of the raw input for defects is what type of quality control?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback
Which of the following types of quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback
Which of the following types of control is measurable?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above
Which of the following types of control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT
When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?
1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the project
4. Define the order needed to complete the component task
Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?
1. CPM requires only one time estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
4. Each of the above
As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it to a set standard.
1. True
2 . False
Which of the following types of quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback
Which of the following types of control is measurable?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above
Which of the following types of control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT
When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?
1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the project
4. Define the order needed to complete the component task
Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?
1. CPM requires only one time estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
4. Each of the above
As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it to a set standard.
1. True
2 . False
When you evaluate your control system to eliminate unnecessary costs, you are using which of the following elements of effective control?
1. Effectiveness
2. Acceptance
3. Timeliness
4. Accuracy
A person who gives advice to the commanding officer would belong to which, i f any, of the following types of organization?
1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. None of the above
A major department responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command belongs to which of the following types of organization?
1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. Each of the above
A functional organization is defined by which of the following statements?
1. Does not have authority over line departments
2. Is responsible for accomplishing the command mission
3. Has authority over all parts of the command in ensuring its special function is met
4. Gives advice to line departments
The division of work is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
The order of control within an organization is defined by which of the following terms?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
How many people can one person effectively supervise?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13
The order of authority within an organization is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
Delegating your authority is an outstanding way to train subordinates for positions of greater authority.
1. True
2. False
Which of the following statements concerning authority is correct?
1. Most authority in the Navy is delegated
2. Subordinates usually accept authority readily
3. Subordinates must recognize you have authority over them before your authority exist
4. Each of the above
When you tell a junior enlisted person in another division or work center to get a haircut, you are exercising which, if any, of the following types of authority?
1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. None of the above
The use of threats or negative rewards is the use of which of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
When you influence others through the use of your specialized knowledge, you are exercising which of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
Which of the following types of power do you have simply because people identify with you being a chief?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
Which of the following statements concerning leadership is true?
1. It is the motivating force that leads to coordinated action and unity of effort
2. Leaders must encourage, inspire, teach, stimulate, and motivate all individuals of the organization
3. You should never let a subordinate be criticized or penalized by anyone but yourself
4. Each of the above
A leader who believes people must be coerced, controlled, directed, or threatened is using which of the following leadership theories?
1. W
2. X
3. Y
4. Z
Immediate compliance to orders, tight job control, and numerous detailed reports on jobs are characteristics of which of the following leadership styles?
1. Coach
2. Coercer
3. Affiliatior
4. Pacesetter
Which of the following definitions identifies the authoritarian style of leadership?
1. Negative feedback is given and name calling is frequent
2 . Motivation is generated through threats of discipline or punishment
3. Rewards are given for personal characteristics and punishment is rare
4. Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions
Leaders who would rather do the job themselves, set high standards, expect self–direction, and have trouble delegating authority, exercise which of the following leadership styles?
1. Affiliator
2. Pacesetter
3. Democratic
4. Coach
A democratic leadership style would be particularly harmful in a drill or battle condition for which of the following reasons?
1. It requires time for meetings
2. The leader lacks control of the group
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. It takes authority away from subordinates
What leadership style is well suitedto a counselor but would have a negative effect on a work center operating on a tight schedule?
1. Authoritarian
2. Affiliator
3. Democratic
4. Coach
When you prepare your work center for inspection by incorporating preparation for inspection into the daily routine, you are demonstrating which of the following management skills?
1. Concern for standards
2 . Concern for efficiency
3. Planning and organizing
4. Supervising for effective performance
You would exhibit the leadership skill commitment to the command's mission by taking which of the following actions?
1. Seeing yourself as a leader
2. Making yourself available to answer questions
3. Using threats or your authority to influence others
4. Acting with the best interest of the command in mind
Which of the following statements describes the action you should take in developing others?
1. Use the proper setting and timing for optimum impact
2. See yourself as someone who makes things happen
3. Provide constructive feedback to subordinates
4. See yourself as a leader
Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as confronting issues directly and insisting others recognize your place in the chain of command?
1. Concern for achievement
2. Analytical problem solving
3. Persistence
4. Assertiveness
Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as being a self–starter, seeing problems, and taking action to correct the problems without being told?
1. Interpersonal awareness
2. Assertiveness
3. Persistence
4. Initiative
Which of the following is a benefit of Total Quality Management?
1. Increased pride of workmanship among individual workers
2 . Improved sustainability caused by extended time between equipment failures
3. Streamlined maintenance and production processes
4. Each of the above
Preparing and submitting a budget request is what form of planning?
1. Long-range
2. Medium-range
3. Short-range
4. Micro
Who develops the budget resolution each year?
1. The President
2. Congress
3. The General Accounting Office
4. The Office of Management and Budget
When forecasting your yearly budget, the period of 1 October to 30 September can be viewed with a great deal of uncertainty.
1. True
2 . False
When purchasing a ship, the Navy uses what type of budgeting to figure the cost?
1. Incremental
2. Zero-based
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Additional
Supply facilities established to support public works departments or ground electronics shops are called
1. stock control branches
2. self-service stores
3. shop stores
4. rapid communication and delivery
Which of the following supply establishments is responsible for
expediting material from outside sources?
1. Rapid communication and delivery systems
2. Retail issue organizations
3. Material division
4. Receipt control branch
Which of the following items is considered equipage?
1. Electronic computer
2 . Missile launcher
3. Diesel engine
4. Anchor
You could figure the three-month usage rate for fast-moving items by
using which of the following formulas?
1. Multiplying last month’s usage by 2.
2. Dividing last month’s usage by 2
3. Multiplying last month’s usage by 3
4. Dividing last month’s usage by 3
Which of the following terms applies to specific repair parts intended to be used when troubleshooting electronic equipment?
1. Ready service spares
2. Maintenance assist modules
3. Maintenance repair modules
4. Operating space repair spares
What officer assigns the force activity designator?
1. Supply officer
2. Department head
3. Fleet commander
4. Commanding officer
Who is responsible for assigning the correct urgency–of–need designator to a material request?
1. Material officer
2. Executive officer
3. Department head
4. Supply officer
An authorized coordinated shipboard allowance list reactor part would
have which of the following urgency of need designators assigned?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Who is responsible for inspecting items purchased from a commercial source prior to payment being made?
1. Division chief
2. Supply officer
3. Division officer
4. Department head
What person must sign the copy of the purchase document stamped “received, inspected, and accepted”?
1. Division officer
2. Department head
3. Division chief
4. Supply officer
The supply officer has which of the following types of control over
consumables and repair parts that are
1. Stock record control
2. Inventory control
3. Stowage control
4. Use control
The recordinq of receipts, expenditures, and inventories of spare parts and consumables within a department is the direct responsibility of which of the following persons?
1. Senior CPO of the department
2. Division officer
3. Designated custodian
4. Department head
What is the purpose of using dunnage under material being stowed on deck?
1. To protect against excessive shock
2. To provide more economical use of space
3. To protect against moisture
4. To aid in handling
In the physical arrangement of material for stowage, which of the following factors should you give primary consideration?
1. Suitability for issue and inventory
2. Size and weight distribution
3. Stock number sequence
4. Orderliness
Which of the following precautions should be observed when handling and stowing hazardous materials?
1. Ventilate adequately
2. Provide separate stowage areas to prevent mixing of materials
3. Allow only authorized personnel in stowage area
4. Each of the above
Who generally has custodial responsibility for binoculars?
1. The leading Quartermaster
2. The senior Signalman
3. The operations department head
4. The executive officer
For signature-required items of controlled equipage in the custody of a department, which of the following persons should sign (a) the custody records and (b) the duplicate custody records?
1. (a) Commanding officer
(b) Department head
2. (a) Department head
(b) Actual custodian
3. (a) Department head
(b) Division officer
4. (a) Commanding officer
(b) Supply officer
Which of the following persons is/are authorized to convert nonsignature-required items to signature-required items?
1. The actual custodian
2. The type commander only
3. The commanding officer only
4. The commanding officer and the type commander
Which of the following circumstances requires the use of the DD Form 200 (Report of Survey)?
1. When circumstances warrant
2. When gross negligence is evident
3. When criminal activity is indicated
4. Each of the above
Who is responsible for ensuring proper tests and inspections are completed before the acceptance of work by outside activities?
1. The work center supervisor
2. The division officer
3. The department head
4. The 3–M coordinator
Counseling is an important responsibility. Which of the following statements best describes the most important aspect of supervisor counseling?
1. To provide guidance to your average performer
2 . To provide support to a person having problems
3. To provide professional guidance to a superior performer
4. To provide professional assistance to a personal problem
Counseling is divided into which of the following types?
1. Situational and conditional
2. Directive and nondirective
3. Military and paramilitary
4. Personal and clandestine
The process of listening to a person’s problems, then encouraging and motivating that person to solve them, accomplishes which of the following counseling functions?
1. Reorientation
2. Reassurance
3. Advice
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Trying to change the person rather than dealing with the immediate problem is an example of which of the following types of counseling?
1. Nondirective
2. Professional
3. Military
4. Directive
The major objective in interviewing your subordinates is to accomplish which of the following results?
1. To discover special characteristics, aptitudes, or skills
2 . To show a personal interest in the subordinate
3. To establish your position of leadership
4. All of the above
The primary purpose of the military briefing is to accomplish which of the following functions?
1. To teach
2. To inform
3. To entertain
4. To allow the person presenting the brief to express his or her opinion
Which of the following persons is in the best position to notice if the SORM needs updating?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The department head
4. The leading chief petty officer
You should conduct career information interviews with junior personnel for which of the following purposes?
1. To inform them about the Navy
2. To inform them of their benefits
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. To meet the requirements of the career retention program
Which of the following types of reenlistment applies to personnel who desire to convert to a critically undermanned rating?
1. Regular
2. Guard III
3. STAR
4. SCORE
Which of the following reenlistments offers career designation to first term personnel?
1. Regular
2. Guard III
3. STAR
4. SCORE
Which of the following types of reenlistment offers guaranteed advancement to petty officer second completion of class C school?
1. STAR
2. SCORE
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Guard III
When, if ever, does SGLI coverage terminate after separation from active duty?
1. 120 days
2. 180 days
3. 360 days
4. Never
Which of the following organizations offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the Navy?
1. American Red Cross
2. Navy Mutual Aid Society
3. Navy League
4. Navy Relief Society
When, if ever, are you allowed MALT payments?
1. When you use government transportation
2. When you travel by privately owed vehicle during a PCS move
3. When you travel by privately owned vehicle while on TAD orders
4. Never
If you die on active duty, your spouse would receive a lump sum payment of up to $3,000 in which of the following payments?
1. Death gratuity
2. SGLI
3. DIC
4. Social security
A person who has 5 years and 11 months of active military service, reenlists for a period of six years. This person could reenlist for an SRB zone B bonus at the end of his or her obligated service.
1. True
2. False
Which of the following educational programs provides seventy–five percent of the tuition cost for active–duty personnel regardless of rank, paygrade, or length of service?
1. SOC
2. SOCNAV
3. DANTES
4. TA
Which of the following programs enables personnel to achieve journeyman status in recognized civilian trades?
1. National Apprenticeship Program
2. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
3. Servicemembers Opportunity College
4. Program for Afloat College Education
A chief petty officer serving on active duty with 17 years of service is eligible for which of the following officer programs?
1. Limited Duty Officer Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training Program
4. All of the above
A married 20-year-old petty officer second class, with 12 years of education, is eligible for which of the following officer programs?
1. Direct commission
2. U.S. Naval Academy
3. Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training Program
4. Limited Duty Officer Program
A dependent parent of an active–duty Sailor qualifies for CHAMPUS benefits.
1. True
2. False
A dependent parent–in-law of an active-duty service member qualifies for treatment under the Uniformed Services Health Benefits Program.
1. True
2. False
The maximum CHAMPUS deductible a service member with a wife and 6 children would have to pay is which of the following amounts?
1. $150 per person
2. $300 per person
3. $150 per family
4. $300 per family
Which of the following amounts is the CHAMPUS catastrophic cap for retired service members?
1. $150
2. $300
3. $1,000
4. $10,000
Which of the following levels of chief petty officer is considered to be the senior technical supervisor within a rating?
1. Chief
2. Senior chief
3. Master chief
4. Command master-chief
Which of the following personnel would have performance evaluations filmed into their microform records?
1. E-3 and below
2. E-4 and below
3. E-5 and above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following categories of retirement is applicable to Reserve personnel who have completed 20 years of active military service?
1. Fleet Reserve
2. Retired Reserve
3. Regular Navy Retired List
4. Naval Reserve Retired List
Service members who have a permanent physical disability and are temporarily unable to perform their duties are transferred to which of the following retired lists?
1. Regular Navy Retired List
2. Naval Reserve Retired List
3. Temporary Disability Retired List
4. Permanent Disability Retired List
The Survivor Benefit Plan allows you to designate your permanently disabled children to receive a portion of your retirement for life provided the child’s disability occurs before age 18 or age 22 if attending school full time.
1. True
2. False
You may select only one beneficiary option under the Survivor Benefit Plan.
1. True
2. False
To transfer to the Fleet Reserve, you must complete which of the following requirements?
1. 2 years at your current duty station
2 . Submit NAVPERS 1830/1
3. Submit NAVPERS 1070/621 or NAVPERS 1070/622
4. All of the above
Which of the following is NOT an element of an effective training
program?
1. Analysis
2. Advice
3. Instruction
4. Compatibility
Correspondence courses, onboard training packages, and computer-aided training belong to which of the following training categories?
1. Classroom
2. Self–study
3. Team training
4. On–the–job training
Ensuring persons giving lectures and signing qualifications can communicate well with others is what element of an effective training program?
1. Dynamic instruction
2. Positive leadership
3. Quality control
4. Personal interest
Technical support is defined as testing individuals or having them demonstrate the knowledge they are credited with having?
1. True
2. False
Who should ensure a junior officer is trained to have a positive attitude toward the chief petty officer community?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The department head
4. The chief
Which of the following people must have a formalized dependent care plan?
1. Single military parents
2. Married military couples who are parents
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. An unmarried chief with no dependents
Single military parents should have which of the following documents on file to identify custodians for their dependents?
1. Navy Single Sponsor, OPNAV Form 1740.4
2. Dental Care Form, OPNAV 1180
3. Dependent Care Certificate, OPNAV 1740/1
4. Custodian Assignment Form, OPNAV 1180/1
Which of the following items of information concerning the Navy’s dependent care policy is contained in OPNAVINST 1740.4?
1. A list of prohibited duty stations for single sponsors
2. Command and individual responsibilities
3. Counseling checklists
4. Both 2 and 3 above
The Family Advocacy Program covers which of the following persons?
1. Abused wives
2. Neglected children
3. Sexually assaulted wives
4. Each of the above
The Family Service Center can provide information on which of the following programs?
1. Family Advocacy
2. Command Sponsor
3. Command Ombudsman
4. Each of the above
Who is responsible for appointing command ombudsman?
1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The wives club
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
The command ombudsman determines priorities of the command ombudsman program.
1. True
2. False
The term DUSTWUN applies to which of the following categories of personnel?
1. Unaccounted for––duty status– whereabouts unknown
2. Accounted for––duty status– whereabouts unknown
3. Reported missing
4. Reported dead
Which of the following personnel may serve as a CACO?
1. An ensign with 1 year of active duty
2. A chief petty officer
3. A first class petty officer
4. Each of the above
The Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Program was designed to improve the quality of life for which of the following personnel?
1. Active-duty military
2. Retired military
3. Personnel associated with the armed forces
4. Each of the above
About what percent of military members experience financial difficulty during their career?
1. 10 percent
2. 30 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 75 percent
The Navy Personal Financial Management Program contains what major elements?
1. Financial education, training, and counseling
2. Bankruptcy law, free loans, credit cards
3. Educational assistance and bankruptcy proceedings
4. Credit cards, low cost loans, free legal advice
What is the goal of the Department of Defense Family Housing Program?
1. To ensure all military members receive BAQ
2. To ensure enough military housing exists to house activeduty members
3. To provide suitable housing to military members and dependents
4. To provide free housing to reserve personnel
The Navy Sponsor Program was implemented for which of the following reasons?
1. To help overcome the difficulty of a PCS move
2. To provide a dependent care plan to single military parents
3. To define military dependent’s use of Navy medical facilities
4. To provide low cost housing to military members and dependents
The Overseas Duty Support Program was designed to help which of the following personnel?
1. Personnel on Embassy duty
2. Personnel aboard deploying ships
3. Personnel assigned to overseas shore duty
4. Each of the above
The major goal(s) of the Overseas Duty Support Program include which of the following objectives?
1. Providing free long distance telephone service
2 . Supplying information through publications, video tapes, and personal assistance
3. Providing cross-training in counter–cultural relations
4. Each of the above
The Navy supports the Overseas Duty Support Program by meeting which of the following goals?
1. Increasing command knowledge, readiness, and effectiveness in the ODSP
2. Improving individual and family experiences in the unique environment of the host country
3. Developing and maintaining positive relations between the Navy and the countries in which the Navy operates
4. Each of the above
The Overseas Transfer Information Service will accept collect phone calls from within CONUS.
1. True
2. False
Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated Core Values to strengthen and reinforce the existing Pride and Professionalism programs?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II
Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated the Personal Excellence Program to emphasize Navy involvement in the civilian community?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II
Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated a program to reemphasize and reenforce the past traditions and values of the Navy?
1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II
Which of the following statements defines the term fraud?
1. To mislead or deceive to defraud the government of its resources intentionally
2. Improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions that lead to careless or needless use of government resources
3. To misuse rank, position or authority
4. To manage incompetently or improperly
Which of the following statements defines the term waste ?
1. To mislead or deceive to defraud the government of its resources intentionally
2. Improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions that lead to careless or needless use of government resources
3. To misuse rank, position or authority
4. To mismanage incompetently or improperly
If you are aware of fraud, waste or other improprieties within the Department of the Navy, what should be the first method used to resolve the problem?
1. Inform your chain of command
2. Call the DOD Hot Line
3. Report the problem to NIS
4. Write your Congressman
When the DOD Hot Line is used to report fraud, waste, abuse, or mismanagement, how long does the command have to investigate and take corrective action unless NAVINSGEN allows more time?
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 120 days
4. 180 days
NIS only investigates crimes that carry a maximum penalty of 1 year or a $500 fine.
1. True
2. False
Military supervisors who interfere with a congressional investigation, before or after the fact, may be charged under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, article 92(a).
1. True
2. False
Which of the following services is offered by the Navy resale system?
1. Bowling centers
2. Child development centers
3. Hobby shops
4. Pay telephones
Which of the following items can be rented from the Navy resale system?
1. Santa Claus suit
2. Rollaway bed
3. Hydraulic log splitter
4. Each of the above
Items purchased through the Navy resale system are tax-free and the profits generated are contributed to the MWR program.
1. True
2. False
When should you check the divisional watch, quarter, and station bill?
1. When a person from the division goes on leave
2. When a person from the division transfers
3. When a person from the division goes TAD
4. Each of the above
Who maintains the ship’s master watch, quarter, and station bill?
1. The watch bill coordinator
2. The security officer
3. The senior watch officer
4. The commanding officer
When in drill and formation, an interval is normally what distance?
1. 24 inches for women, 30 inches for men
2. The space between the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead
3. One arm’s length from shoulder to shoulder
4. 40 inches between ranks
When presenting your division for inspection, you should position yourself so the inspecting party approaches from which, if any, of the following directions?
1. From the right
2. From the left
3. From directly in front of the division
4. None of the above
When you present a division for inspection, where should you fall in, relative to the inspecting officer, as the division is being inspected?
1. Just ahead of the inspecting officer, on the side of the rank being inspected
2. Just behind the inspecting officer, on the side of the rank being inspected
3. Just ahead of the inspecting officer, opposite the rank being inspected
4. Just behind the inspecting officer, opposite the rank being inspected
BMC Jane B. Doe is holding divisional quarters and the division is at ease. At the conclusion of quarters, what command(s) should be given?
1. “Attention” then “Fall Out”
2. “Attention” then "Dismissed"
3. “Dismissed”
4. “Fall out”
Which of the following people report directly to the officer of the deck in port?
1. Executive officer
2. Command duty officer
3. Duty master–at–arms
4. Each of the above
In carrying out the ship’s daily routine, who should the in–port officer of the deck report to?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer
Who should the officer of the deck in port report to for the general safety and duties of the command?
1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer
For which of the following duties is the officer of the deck in port responsible?
1. Initiating and supervising the unit’s evolutions or operations as necessary
2. Ensuring all required entries are made in the deck log and signing the log at the conclusion of the watch
3. Displaying required absentee pennants, colors, and general information signals; and supervising the rendering of honors
4. Each of the above
Which of the following duties is the responsibility of the division duty officer?
1. Making eight o’clock reports to the department head
2. Fulfilling the function of the division officer during his or her absence
3. Frequently inspecting division spaces to ensure physical security and good order and discipline
4. Each of the above
Who is the chairman of the general mess advisory board?
1. Command master chief
2. Food services officer
3. Disbursing officer
4. Executive officer
The mess audit board is responsible for auditing which of the following mess treasurers?
1. Wardroom
2. Chief petty officer’s mess
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Crew’s general mess
The first use of the term “chief petty officer ” was recorded in what year?
1. 1775
2. 1865
3. 1886
4. 1893
The term “chief petty officer” was first used in reference to what rating?
1. Boatswain’s Mate
2. Master-at-arms
3. Gunner’s Mate
4. Quartermaster
What official document(s) first listed the rate of chief petty officer as a separate rate?
1. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #41
2. General Order #409 and U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #41
3. General Order #409 and U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #1
4. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #1 and General Order #431
What is the equivalent civilian attire to the dinner dress uniform?
1. Black tie
2. White tie
3. Coat and tie
4. Coat and tails
Which of the following types of uniforms would be appropriate for a ceremonial visit to a British man–of–war moored to Pier Lima Naval Station, Charleston, South Carolina?
1. Full dress
2. Summer khaki
3. Service dress
4. Service undress
What is the major difference between full dress and service dress uniforms?
1. Large medals are worn with full dress miniature medals are worn with service dress
2. Miniature medals are worn with full dress ; large medals are worn with service dress
3. Ribbons are worn with full dress; large medals are worn with service dress
4. Large medals are worn with full dress; ribbons are worn with service dress
On which of the following occasions would the wearing of working uniforms be appropriate?
1. While on liberty in CONUS
2. When working in the engine room
3. When conducting business off base
4. While standing officer of the deck in port
Which, if any, of the following chief petty officers is/are required to wear the aviation working green uniform?
1. AVCM Jane B. Doe assigned to VAQ-122 as command master chief
2. All chief petty officers assigned to an aviation command
3. ABHC John A. Doe assigned to Naval Air Facility, Sigonella as senior enlisted advisor
4. None of the above
When in uniform, which of the following circumstances would be considered inappropriate for the wearing of sunglasses?
1. On watch
2. On liberty
3. When in formation
4. When conducting official business off base
When wearing the combination cap, what is the correct position of the rivet on the chin strap?
1. To the left side of the combination cap
2. To the right side of the combination cap
3. Centered in the front
4. Centered in the back
The chevrons, rocker, service stripes, and specialty mark of the rating badge worn on the aviation working green uniform of a person with 12 years' continuous good conduct are what color?
1. Gold
2. Blue
3. Silver
4. Scarlet
Suppose an MACM serving at a command in a law enforcement billet receives orders to a command where she will be filling the billet as command master chief. What changes, if any, should be made to the rating badge to reflect the new position as command master chief?
1. The specialty mark should be replaced by a silver star
2 . A third silver star should be added centered between the two already on her rating badge
3. The two silver stars on the rating badge should be replaced by one gold star centered above the eagle’s head
4. None of the above
A master chief petty officer is serving as command master chief at Naval Station, Charleston, South Carolina. The person’s next assignment will be as master chief petty officer of the Navy (MCPON) at Washington, D.C. What changes, if any, should be made to the person’s rating badge and collar devices?
1. A third silver star should be added to the rating badge and the collar device should remain unchanged
2. A gold star should be added between the two silver stars and the collar device should remain unchanged
3. The current stars above the eagle should be replaced with three gold stars and a third raised star should be added to the collar device
4. None of the above
You are currently serving in the Navy and have just been awarded the Navy Commendation Medal. Ten years ago you were serving in the Air Force and received the Air Force Commendation Medal. What is the correct precedence for the wearing of the two medals?
1. All medals are worn in the order received
2. The Air Force Commendation Medal is worn first, the Navy Commendation Medal is worn second
3. The Navy Commendation Medal is worn first, the Air Force Commendation Medal is worn second
4. Navy personnel are prohibited from wearing medals awarded by
other services, so only the Navy Commendation Medal may be worn
Which of the following materials is recommended for cleaning gold bullion lace?
1. Rubber
2. Kraft paper
3. Manila paper
4. Commercial nontoxic cleaner
Of the following statements, which is NOT correct regarding the wearing of ribbons?
1. You may wear all ribbons to which you are entitled
2. If entitled to more than three ribbons, you may wear any three
3. If entitled to wear more than three ribbons, you may wear the three most senior ribbons
4. If you are entitled to three non-U.S. awards but no U.S. decorations, you may wear no ribbons
If you have any questions about the proper wearing of uniforms, you should refer to which of the following publications?
1. OPNAVINST 5350.4A
2. OPNAVINST 3120.32B
3. NAVPERS 15665G
4. BUPERSINST 1430.16C
The first priority of the investigator of a mishap is to determine who caused the mishap.
1. True
2. False
Which of the following investigations is an independent check based on the guidelines of a mishap investigation?
1. Naval Safety Center investigation
2. JAG manual investigation
3. TYCOM inquiry
4. Each of the above
Which of the following times after a mishap is ideal for beginning an investigation?
1. 72 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 24 minutes
4. 12 minutes
What evidence should you NOT try to obtain during a mishap investigation?
1. Pieces of equipment or material
2. Sworn statements from witnesses
3. Color photographs of the scene
4. Photocopies of operating logs
The Handbook for the Conduct of Forces Afloat Safety Investigations contains a checklist for common investigations in which of the following Appendixes?
1. I
2. I I
3. I I I
4. IV
Who is the division safety officer?
1. The division officer
2. The leading petty officer
3. The work center supervisor
4. The leading chief petty officer
Who is the senior member of the enlisted safety committee?
1. The command master chief
2. The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The safety officer
Required survival training should include which of the following topics?
1. Leaving assigned spaces
2. Fundamental first–aid
3. Survival equipment
4. Each of the above
Within the Navy, who has ultimate responsibility for establishing and maintaining the Information and Personnel Security Program?
1. Secretary of Defense
2. Secretary of the Navy
3. Director of Naval Intelligence
4. Commander Naval Security and Investigative Command
The Navy Information and Personnel Security Program exists for which of the following reasons?
1. To limit dissemination of official government information
2. To allow classified information access to selected members of the armed services
3. To safeguard official government information and materials in the possession of various agencies of the United States
4. Each of the above
What Navy office serves as the liaison between the Departments of the Navy and the Secretary of the Defense regarding security matters?
1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) Chief of Naval Operations
2. (OP-062)
3. Director of Naval Administration
4. Chief of Naval Education and Training
Standards for the safeguarding classified material in the Department of the Navy Information and Personnel Security Program Regulation meet which of the following criteria?
1. The minimum acceptable standards
2. The maximum acceptable standards
3. Recommended standards
4. Joint-services standards
Department of the Navy information and personnel security policies, procedures, and directives from higher authority are formulated by which of the following offices?
1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-009)
2. Director, Naval Data Automation Command
3. Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Commander
4. Chief of Naval Personnel
Which of the following organizations provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security?
1. National Security Agency
2. National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service
Which of the following organizations is the Department of the Navy’s sole liaison with the FBI on matters of internal security?
1. National Security Agency
2. National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service
Which of the following persons may be assigned the duty of security manager without being granted a waiver?
1. A line officer, a master chief petty officer, and a civilian employee (GS-9)
2. A line officer, a master chief petty officer, and a civilian employee (GS-13)
3. A line officer, a medical services corps officer, and a civilian employee (GS-13)
4. A master chief petty officer, a cryptologic officer, and a marine gunnery sergeant
Which of the following functions is/are the responsibility of the security manager?
1. Ensuring that clearance status and access granted by the command are recorded
2. Ensuring security control of classified visits to and from the command
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Performing national agency checks on individuals who require security clearances
In the organizational chain of command, the Top Secret control officer is responsible to what official for the control of Top Secret material in the command?
1. The security manager
2. The security officer
3. The executive officer
4. The crypto security officer
As a minimum, how often must the Top Secret control officer physically inventory the Top Secret materials in the command?
1. Annually
2. Semiannually
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly
In addition to receiving and distributing Top Secret material, The command TSCO is responsible for which of the following functions?
1. Maintaining all Top Secret material in his/her personal possession at all times
2. Maintaining a system of accountability for all Top Secret material within the command
3. Granting access to classified spaces within the command
4. Granting security clearances within the command
When may a command assign a Top Secret control assistant?
1. When the Top Secret control officer is absent from the command for more than 2 consecutive weeks
2. When preparation is being made for a change of command inspection
3. Upon receipt of Top Secret materials
4. As the need arises
At a command with an automatic data processing (ADP) system, what officer is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information in the ADP system?
1. The ADP security officer
2. The administrative officer
3. The assistant security officer
4. The Top Secret control officer
A command that handles classified information is responsible for instructing which of its members in security policies and procedures?
1. Only enlisted personnel E-6 and below
2 . All personnel regardless of their position, rank, or grade
3. Only military and civilian personnel having access to classified information
4. Only officers, enlisted personnel E-6 and above, and civilian employees GS-9 and above
At the Department of the Navy level, who is responsible for providing policy guidance, educational requirements, and source support for the security education program?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
3. The Director, Navy Program Planning
4. The Chief of Naval Education and Training
A command security education program must be designed to accomplish which of the following requirements?
1. To inform personnel of techniques used by foreign activities to obtain classified information
2. To advise personnel of their legal obligation to protect classified information in their possession
3. To familiarize personnel with specific security procedures
4. All of the above
Personnel granted access to classified information shall be debriefed when a temporary separation exceeds what minimum amount of time?
1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 90 days
4. 120 days
Which of the following statements define(s) a security violation?
1. The compromise or possible compromise of classified information
2. A violation of security regulations with no compromise occurring
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. A weak command security program
If a preliminary inquiry determines that classified information has been compromised, who usually convenes a JAG Manual investigation?
1. The command having custody
2 . The office of the Judge Advocate General
3. The command that first discovers the compromise
4. The next senior in the administrative chain of command that initiates the preliminary
inquiry
When security regulations are violated without compromise of classified material, who is responsible for taking corrective action?
1. The Naval Investigative Service
2. The commanding officer
3. The security manager
4. The senior person in the administrative chain of command
When classified information is improperly handled by the sending activity, which of the following activities should be notified?
1. The commanding officer of the sending activity
2. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
3. The local NIS office
4. Each of the above
If you are aware of a possible act of sabotage, to whom should you report this fact?
1. Your commanding officer
2. The most readily available command
3. Either 1 or 2 above depending on who is most readily available
4. The command having responsibility for the material or equipment involved
A report to the Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Command concerning an act of sabotage should be forwarded using which of the following types of messages?
1. Classified ROUTINE
2. Classified IMMEDIATE
3. Unclassified IMMEDIATE
4. Unclassified ROUTINE
A member of the Department of the Navy who has access to classified material commits suicide. To whom should you report the incident?
1. The nearest NIS office
2. The nearest FBI office
3. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
4. The Director, Naval Investigative Command
A civilian employee of the Department of the Navy with access to classified material is absent from work for several days without explanation. Who is responsible for making the initial inquiry into the employee’s absence?
1. The FBI
2 . The security officer
3. The nearest NIS office
4. The commanding officer of the activity
Who is authorized to declassify and downgrade all classified information upon which the Department of the Navy exercises final classification authority?
1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations
3. The Archivist of the United States
4. The Director, Naval Historical Center
When, if ever, is foreign government information declassified by the Department of the Navy?
1. When agreed to by the foreign entity
2 . When approved by the Secretary of the Navy
3. When approved by the Secretary of State of the United States
4. Never
Which of the following types of information is exempt from provisions in effect for a mandatory declassification review?
1. Cryptologic information
2. Presidential papers
3. Restricted data
4. Intelligence
Classified information may be upgraded if which of the following conditions exists?
1. If the information can be retrieved from known holders not authorized access to the highest level of classification
2 . If all known holders of the information are authorized access to the higher level of classification
3. If all known holders can be promptly notified
4. Each of the above
How should reproduction equipment authorized for reproducing classified material be marked?
1. With the highest level of classification that may be reproduced
2. With the name of the official(s) designated to approve the reproduction of classified material
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. With the words “For Security Personnel Only”
Areas within a command requiring varying degrees of restriction of access, control of movement, and type of protection required for classified material are known by what collective term?
1. Sanitized areas
2. Sensitive areas
3. Restricted areas
4. Out of bounds areas
Any weakness or deficiency found in security storage equipment should be reported to which of the following authorities?
1. The Naval Investigative Service
2. The Naval Supply Systems Command
3. Chief of Naval Operation (OP-09N)
4. The Defense Contract Administration
When, if ever, may money or jewelry be stored in security containers
used to store classified material?
1. During emergency and combat
situations
2. When the articles are to be
used as evidence in a military
court
3. When space is available, with
classified material always having priority
4. Never
When a security container used to store Top Secret material is not located in a building under U.S. government control, which of the following additional security precautions must be made?
1. The container must be protected by an alarm system
2. The container must be guarded during nonworking hours by U.S. citizens
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The container must be checked by military guard once each hour during nonworking hours
The combination of a container used to store classified information must be changed on which of the following occasions?
1. Every 12 months
2 . When evidence indicates the combination has been compromised
3. When any person having the combination no longer requires access
4. Each of the above
Records of destruction of Secret material must be retained for what minimum period of time?
1. 24 months
2. 30 months
3. 36 months
4. 48 months
When a strip shredding machine is used to shred classified material, the material should be shredded into strips that are what maximum width?
1. 1/64 inch
2. 1/32 inch
3. 3/64 inch
4. 1/16 inch
Which of the following methods is/are NOT recommended for office use?
1. Disintegrators
2. Pulverizers
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Shredders
A wet-process pulper is suitable for destroying which of the following materials?
1. Microform
2. Paper products
3. Typewriter ribbons
4. Each of the above
An emergency plan for destruction classified material must be based on which of factors?
1. The potential for aggressive activities by hostile forces
2. The level and sensitivity of classified material held
3. The proximity of hostile forces
4. Each of the above
When you assign priorities for emergency destruction of classified material, what priority should you assign to the files containing Confidential technical material?
1. Priority One
2. Priority Two
3. Priority Three
4. Priority Four
Commanding officers should establish procedures for dissemination of classified material originated or received by their commands for which of the following reasons?
1. To identify exceptions to the procedures in security regulations
2. To limit outside dissemination to those activities having a need to know
3. To reflect any restrictions imposed by the originator or higher authority
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Classified material should be marked for which of the following reasons?
1. To indicate the degree of protection required
2 . To inform you of the level of classification
3. To assist you in extracting, paraphrasing, downgrading, and declassifying actions
4. Each of the above
How may the classification be indicated on classified material other than a document?
1. By placing a tag, sticker. or decal on the material
2. Printed by a government printer
3. Written in blue with a red border
4. Stamped in indelible red or blue ink
Where are the interior pages of a classified document marked to indicate the hiqhest overall classification level of the document?
1. Top only
2. Bottom only
3. Center only
4. Top and bottom center
Where would you find the proper location of the classified markings used to indicate the classification of the title of a document?
1. Immediately preceding the title
2. Immediately following the title
3. Above the title
4. Below the title
What should be the first item of information in the text of a classified message?
1. The precedence of the message
2. The identity of the classifier
3. The overall classification of the message
4. The overall classification of the first page
Personnel security investigations for the department of the Navy are normally conducted or controlled by which of the following organizations?
1. Defense Investigative Service
2. Naval Investigative Service
3. Defense Intelligence Agency
4. National Security Agency
What investigation of civilian applicants requires a check of federal agency files plus inquiries to former employers, supervisors law enforcement agencies references, and schools?
1. National agency check
2. Background investigation
3. National agency check and inquiry
4. Special background investigation
What type of investigation includes an NAC of the individual’s spouse?
1. National agency check and inquiry
2. Special background investigation
3. Special investigative inquiry
4. Background investigation