Military Requirements For Chief Petty Officer

Front 1

When was the first time Congress passed legislation to purchase and arm naval vessels?

Back 1

1. 10 May 1774
2. 4 July 1776
3. 13 October 1775
4. 10 November 1775

Front 2

Almost every U.S. Sailor has experienced some type of major deployment.

Back 2

1. True
2. False

Front 3

Which, if any, of the following factors defines naval presence?

Back 3

1. A major deployment.
2. Having a naval force in a specific location
3. Deploying to a hostile area to confront adversaries.
4. None of the above

Front 4

Deployments place naval forces in position for which of the following purposes?

Back 4

1. To provide protection and support to Allied Forces in time of war
2. To stop the advance of the enemy as soon as possible
3. To engage the enemy promptly at the start of hostilities
4. All of the above

Front 5

What is the maximum time U.S. naval forces can sustain operations in a crisis area?

Back 5

1. 30 days
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. I n d e f i n i t e l y

Front 6

What requirement must U.S. naval forces reflect to be effective in a presence role?

Back 6

1. Friendliness toward the host country and its allies
2. Ready combat capability to respond to any threat
3. Current U.S. policy
4. Current technology

Front 7

Which of the following responsibilities belongs to the Navy during wartime?

Back 7

1. Functioning in a hostile environment
2. Power projection
3. Sea control
4. All of the above

Front 8

Sea control means having simultaneous control over the world’s international waters.

Back 8

1. True
2. False

Front 9

What basic military function provides U.S. forces with the ability to conduct sustained operations abroad?

Back 9

1. Acquiring large amounts of the enemy’s territory
2. Large numbers of ground forces
3. Naval presence
4. Sea control

Front 10

Denying the enemy the ability to advance close enough to use weapons is called

Back 10

1. intermediate hostile interdiction
2. power projection
3. naval presence
4. sea control

Front 11

An essential element of power projection is identified by which of the following requirements?

Back 11

1. Amphibious ships
2. Counter insurgency warfare
3. Intermediate hostile interdiction
4. Forward deployed propositioning of ships

Front 12

The use of fleet ballistic missile submarines to provide a nuclear strike is an example of sea control.

Back 12

1. True
2. False

Front 13

The unrestricted global mobility of naval forces is based on which of the following items?

Back 13

1. Treaties
2. Tradition
3. International agreement
4. Difficulty of detection

Front 14

The Soviets restrict their naval power projection to the waters around the Soviet Union and the East Coast of the United States.

Back 14

1. True
2 . False

Front 15

The German navy has upgraded NATO’s air defense through the purchase of which of the following aircraft?

Back 15

1. F–14D
2. F–104
3. F/A–18
4. Tornado

Front 16

Who is responsible for NATO’s offensive and defensive capability in the Norwegian and Mediterranean Seas?

Back 16

1. CINCLANT
2. CINCMED
3. SACLANT
4. SACPAC

Front 17

Which of the following areas of responsibility belongs to NATO?

Back 17

1. Northwestern TVD
2. Western TVD
3. AFCENT
4. All of the above

Front 18

Which of the following areas of responsibility is a Soviet theater of operation?

Back 18

1. Northwestern TVD
2. Southern TVD
3. Western TVD
4. Each of the above

Front 19

Why are the Soviets conducting a long–range strategic nuclear modernization program?

Back 19

1. To prove they are the world leaders in arms technology and to provide third world countries with new weapons
2. To replace every out-of-date nuclear warhead with a newer more efficient warhead
3. To comply with expected future strategic arms reduction treaty constraints
4. To reduce the chance of accidental war

Front 20

Which of the following choke points is NOT applicable to Soviet ships deploying from Severodvinsk?

Back 20

1. Danish Straits
2. Barents Straits
3. Turkish Straits
4. Iceland-England gap

Front 21

The Soviet Black Sea Fleet could be contained by sinking a ship in which of the following choke points?

Back 21

1. Danish Straits
2. Barents Straits
3. Turkish Straits
4. Greenland–Iceland gap

Front 22

Which of the following cities is the home port of the Soviet Black Sea Fleet?

Back 22

1. Severodvinsk
2. Sevastopol
3. T r i p o l i
4. Ur

Front 23

What is the primary mission of the Soviet navy?

Back 23

1. World–wide power projection
2. To provide security for Soviet shipping
3. To provide security for third world allies
4. To provide support for Soviet land–based forces

Front 24

The bulk of Soviet naval air power is derived by which of the following methods of providing air power?

Back 24

1. Land–based aircraft
2. Aircraft carriers
3. Helo carriers
4. Destroyers

Front 25

Which of the following Soviet fleets contain aircraft carriers?

Back 25

1. Pacific Ocean Fleet
2. Black Sea Fleet
3. Caspian Fleet
4. Baltic Fleet

Front 26

Which of the following Soviet fleets does NOT contain fleet ballistic missile submarines?

Back 26

1. Pacific Ocean Fleet
2. Black Sea Fleet
3. Northern Fleet
4. Baltic Fleet

Front 27

Approximately 10 percent of the world’s sea trade passes through the Suez Canal at which of the following points?

Back 27

1. Hormuz
2. Hormel
3. Abul Nabul
4. Babel Mandeb

Front 28

Persian Gulf states are building overland oil–pipe routes to lessen the importance of the Israeli controlled Suez Canal.

Back 28

1. True
2. False

Front 29

USCENTCOM naval forces in the Middle East and Southwest Asia are under which of the following commands?

Back 29

1. Commander Sixth Fleet
2. Commander Seventh Fleet
3. Commander Middle East Forces
4. Supreme Allied Commander NATO

Front 30

Which, if any, of the following statements describes why Africa is strategically important to western nations?

Back 30

1. It is very suitable for weapons testing because large areas of land are uninhabited
2. It has port facilities suitable for naval bases
3. It has a wealth of natural resources
4. None of the above

Front 31

Operation El Dorado involved which of the following countries?

Back 31

1. United States and Mozambique
2. United States and Grenada
3. United States and Libya
4. United States and Iraq

Front 32

The U.S. could lose Philippine bases for which of the following reasons?

Back 32

1. The leases must be periodically renegotiated with the Philippine government
2. Recent base realignment has indicated the bases are not cost effective
3. The Philippine government has cut off aid
4. The U.S. refuses to pay rent

Front 33

Which of the following factors contribute(s) to deterrence in the Pacific and East Asian regions?

Back 33

1. Bilateral defense treaties
2. Weapons technology
3. PACOM forces
4. All of the above

Front 34

Which of the following countries is NOT working toward acquiring nuclear weapons capability?

Back 34

1. Saudi Arabia
2. France
3. Iraq
4. Iran

Front 35

Which of the following countries was a joint partner with Israel in developing nuclear weapons?

Back 35

1. United States
2. Soviet Union
3. France
4. Spain

Front 36

What country(ies) conducted preemptive strikes against an Iraqi nuclear reactor?

Back 36

1. United States
2. Israel
3. Iran
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 37

Which of the following arms reduction talks resulted in an antiballistic missile treaty between the U.S. and the Soviet Union?

Back 37

1. SALT
2. PEPPER
3. SALT IA
4. SALT II

Front 38

In arms reduction talks, the U.S. will try to limit which of the following items?

Back 38

1. American–Soviet competition in strategic nuclear forces
2. American treaty compliance
3. Soviet treaty compliance
4. Strategic deterrence

Front 39

In the event of a nuclear war between the U.S. and the Soviet Union, what is the primary mission of the Soviet navy?

Back 39

1. To sink as many U.S. submarines as possible
2. To disrupt sea lines of communication
3. To shoot down incoming U.S. planes and cruise missiles
4. To conduct nuclear strikes from SSBNs operating in protected waters

Front 40

How far from the Soviet mainland do the Soviet sea denial zones usually extend?

Back 40

1. 1,000 miles
2. 1,000 kilometers
3. 2,000 miles
4. 2,000 kilometers

Front 41

U.S national security is based on deterrence, propositioning of forces, and creating sea denial zones.

Back 41

1. True
2. False

Front 42

How many diesel submarines, if any, does the U.S. Navy maintain in active service?

Back 42

1. 1
2. 2
3. 10
4. None

Front 43

The U.S. submarine force includes which of the following attack submarine classes?

Back 43

1. Permit
2. Lafayette
3. James Madison
4. Benjamin Franklin

Front 44

Which of the following weapons platforms do the Soviets use as their primary platform for conducting naval warfare?

Back 44

1. Aircraft carriers
2. Submarines
3. Destroyers
4. Aircraft

Front 45

When compared to the U.S., the Soviet submarine force has what size and effectiveness?

Back 45

1. Smaller size, more effective
2. Larger size, less effective
3. Smaller size, less effective
4. Larger size, more effective

Front 46

Which of the following types of Soviet submarines carries cruise missiles as a primary weapon?

Back 46

1. SSGN
2. SSN
3. SS
4. ALL of the above

Front 47

What is the principle weakness of the Soviet navy?

Back 47

1. Lack of aircraft carriers
2. Lack of long–range aircraft
3. Dependence on submarines to counter U.S. surface forces
4. A very low priority in providing underway replenishment

Front 48

What is the newest class of Soviet aircraft carrier?

Back 48

1. T b i l i s i
2.Okhotsk
3. Nikolayev
4. Ouagadougou

Front 49

What stance does the U.S. take on chemical and biological weapons?

Back 49

1. The U.S. encourages their use by our allies because they are less expensive than nuclear weapons
2. Nuclear weapons are more efficient so we don’t stock chemical weapons
3. We will do all we can to prevent their use
4. We will retaliate in kind

Front 50

Which of the following nerve agents is most likely to be produced by a third world country?

Back 50

1. GD
2. GB
3. GA
4. VX

Front 51

Countries with known or suspected chemical weapons capabilities include which of the following Middle Eastern countries?

Back 51

1. Israel, Egypt, Lebanon, Syria, Iraq, and Iran
2. Egypt, Iran, Syria, Libya, Israel, and Iraq
3. Saudi Arabia, Egypt, Israel, Iran, Iraq. and Libya
4. Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Egypt, I s r a e l , Libya, Lebanon

Front 52

The United States supported Iraq during the Iran-Iraq War.

Back 52

1. True
2. False

Front 53

The job of the U.S. Navy in the Persian Gulf, from 1987 to 1988, is best described by which of the following statements?

Back 53

1. The primary mission was in support of the Iraqi navy
2. The mission of the U.S. Navy was to seek out and destroy Iranian naval units
3. The primary mission was to ensure freedom of passage to oil tankers
4. The primary mission was to act as decoys while elements of the British and French navies attacked terrorist camps

Front 54

Which of the following countries could be the United States most formidable opponent in the Middle East?

Back 54

1. Iraq
2. Iran
3. Syria
4. Libya

Front 55

Which of the following countries claims to be the victim of numerous Iraqi chemical attacks?

Back 55

1. Iran
2. Libya
3. Syria
4. I s r a e l

Front 56

Which of the following countries is known to have stockpiles of Soviet SS-1 missiles?

Back 56

1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. Syria
4. All of the above

Front 57

The chemical agent distilled mustard, HD, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

Back 57

1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Front 58

The chemical agent diphosgene, DP, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

Back 58

1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Front 59

The chemical agent cyanogen chloride, CK, belongs to which of the following families of agents?

Back 59

1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Front 60

The chemical agent VX belongs to which of the following families of agents?

Back 60

1. Choking
2. B l i s t e r
3. Nerve
4. Blood

Front 61

Which of the following chemical agents has a dark yellow appearance?

Back 61

1. Soman, GD
2. Nitrogen,
3. Mustard–Lewisite, HL
4. Cyanogen Chloride, CK

Front 62

Any country capable of producing organophosphorus pesticides can produce which of the following chemical agents?

Back 62

1. Tabun
2. Chlorine
3. Lewisite
4. Phosgene

Front 63

The Oghab is a version of which of the following weapons?

Back 63

1. Soviet SS-1
2. Chinese M-9
3. Soviet SS-12
4. Chinese Type 53 artillery rocket

Front 64

Which of the following countries is thought to have nuclear weapons in its arsenal?

Back 64

1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. I s r a e l
4. Lebanon

Front 65

The Jerico 2 missile is a (a) type with a (b) range.

Back 65

1. (a) Mobile (b) 1,000 kilometer
2. (a) Mobile (b) 1,500 kilometer
3. (a) Fixed (b) 1,000 kilometer
4. (a) Fixed (b) 1,500 kilometer

Front 66

When assigned as the preliminary inquiry officer, you will usually investigate which of the following offenses?

Back 66

1. Offenses under investigation by a fact finding body
2. Offenses under investigation by NIS
3. Major offenses
4. Minor offenses

Front 67

The legal officer uses what part of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984 in preparing a report chit?

Back 67

1. Part I
2. Part III
3. Part IV
4. Part VI

Front 68

The accused is informed of his or her rights under which of the following articles?

Back 68

1. Article 31(a) of the Manual for Courts–Martial, 1984
2. Article 31 (b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Article 30(a) of the Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. Article 30(b) of the Uniform Code of Military Justice

Front 69

When serving as the preliminary investigation officer, you should remain impartial.

Back 69

1. True
2 . False

Front 70

What source of information provides the best facts about the accused?

Back 70

1. Service record of the accused
2. An informal interview with the witnesses
3. The person who initiated the report chit
4. Supervisors and peers of the accused

Front 71

Who has the greatest motive for lying or distorting the truth?

Back 71

1. The witnesses
2. The accused, if guilty
3. The accused, if innocent
4. The person who initiated the report chit

Front 72

A copy of the Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual is considered to be what type of evidence?

Back 72

1. Documentary evidence
2. Regulatory evidence
3. Physical evidence
4. Real evidence

Front 73

The preliminary investigation officer should conduct an interview with the accused at which of the following times?

Back 73

1. As soon as the report chit is filled out
2. After examining the real and documentary evidence
3. After the accused has been advised of article 31(b) of the UCMJ and makes a waiver of rights
4. After advising the accused on the legal technicalities of the case

Front 74

The United States Coast Guard is assigned to the Navy at which of the following times?

Back 74

1. Upon declaration of war
2. When directed by the president
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. When requested by the Chief of Naval Operations

Front 75

What is the primary regulatory document of the Navy?

Back 75

1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Manual for Courts-Martial, 1984
4. U.S. Navy Regulations

Front 76

Chapter 8 of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, applies to which of the following people?

Back 76

1. Commanding officers
2 . Prospective commanding officers
3. Petty officers detailed as officer in charge or command duty officer
4. All of the above

Front 77

Which of the following chapters of U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, outlines the actions of U.S. naval forces when in the vicinity of other armed forces?

Back 77

1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

Front 78

Which chapter in U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990, provides information on detailing officers and enlisted persons?

Back 78

1. The Senior Officer Present
2 . Precedence, Authority and Command
3. Commanders in Chief and Other Commanders
4. Statutory Authority for United States Navy Regulations

Front 79

The articles specifically enumerated in article 137 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice should be explained to each enlisted person at which of the following times?

Back 79

1. After completion of six months active duty
2. At the time of each PCS move
3. Before each deployment
4. Three months before separation from the Navy

Front 80

Which of the following publications is NOT required to be made available to any person on active duty?

Back 80

1. Navy Regulations
2. Uniform Code of Military Justice
3. Pay and Personnel Procedures Manual
4. Navy Military Personnel Manual

Front 81

Which of the following statements concerning the exercise of authority is true?

Back 81

1. A retired Navy captain may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel
2. A master chief petty officer in the Fleet Reserve may exercise authority over all subordinates
3. A commander on the sick list may exercise authority over all subordinates
4. A second class petty officer on active duty, capable of discharging all duties may exercise authority over all subordinate personnel

Front 82

When an enlisted person receives an order that conflicts with a previously received order, which of the following actions should that person take?

Back 82

1. Obey the first Order
2. Obey the last order
3. Obey neither order
4. Obey both orders

Front 83

Which of the following officers would have authority over all persons embarked in a boat?

Back 83

1. A chaplain who is a captain
2. A Supply Corps commander
3. A naval aviator who is a lieutenant commander
4. A Chief Warrant Boatswain

Front 84

The department head assigns a job to a chief. The chief is busy and assigns the job to the leading petty officer (LPO). The LPO forgets about the job and goes on liberty. Who was responsible for completing the job?

Back 84

1. The LPO only
2. The chief only
3. The LPO, chief, and division officer
4. The LPO, chief, and department head

Front 85

A sentry would NOT have authority over which, if any, of the following persons on his or her post?

Back 85

1. A line officer
2 . A staff officer
3. The command master chief
4. None of the above

Front 86

When, if ever , may a junior person give an order to an officer who is senior to him or her?

Back 86

1. When the junior is the petty officer of the watch
2 . When the junior is serving on the staff of a rear admiral
3. When the junior is an executive officer executing an order of the commanding officer
4. Never

Front 87

When may an officer accept money from an enlisted person?

Back 87

1. When the officer has sold an item of personal property to the enlisted person
2 . Only when on liberty
3. As a birthday gift
4. Only as a loan

Front 88

A chief petty officer loans money to another chief petty officer. What, if any, is the maximum interest rate that can be charged?

Back 88

1. 10 percent
2. 14 percent
3. 18 percent
4. None

Front 89

Which of the following persons may inspect your record held by the Chief of Naval Personnel?

Back 89

1. You
2. Your designated agent
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Your division officer

Front 90

Which of the following Navy personnel are required to report all offenses to proper authority?

Back 90

1. Officers
2 . Petty officers
3. Nonrated personnel
4. All of the above

Front 91

If you believe one of your personnel has a communicable disease, who should you report it to?

Back 91

1. The command's medical representative
2 . The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The division officer

Front 92

Which, if any, of the following statements concerning exchange of duty is correct?

Back 92

1. You and another person only need to show up for each other’s watch
2. You only need to notify the officer of the deck
3. You and the other person should prepare a special request chit requesting an exchange of duty and route it throuqh proper authority
4. None of the above

Front 93

Which of the following statements concerning Navy examinations is correct?

Back 93

1. Members may use old examinations as study guides for future examinations
2. Members taking examinations may discuss questions among themselves prior to answering them
3. Members may develop study guides from prior examinations to use in preparing for future examinations
4. None of the above

Front 94

Normally, a person in the Navy may communicate with a member of Congress with no restrictions. However, should the service member, in an official capacity, desire congressional action of any type, he or she must

Back 94

1. receive prior approval from the Chief of Naval Operations
2. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and receive the former’s consent to proceed
3. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intent to communicate and the former must get the consent of the Secretary of Defense to proceed
4. inform the Secretary of the Navy of the intention to communicate and then proceed with the application

Front 95

A person may be denied the right to communicate with a member of Congress under which, if any, of the following conditions?

Back 95

1. When the communication is critical of Navy policy
2. When the communication alleges misconduct of a superior
3. When the communication would violate security regulations
4. None of the above

Front 96

When a request is not approved or recommended, you should state the reason on the request.

Back 96

1. True
2. False

Front 97

Meals served in the general mess are sampled regularly by an officer detailed by the commanding officer. What course of action should the officer take if discrepancies are discovered?

Back 97

1. Notify the food service officer
2 . Notify the supply officer
3. Notify the commanding officer
4. Advise personnel not to eat in the general mess

Front 98

In which of the following publications would you find the definition for unity of command?

Back 98

1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Navy Regulations, 1990
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Uniform Code of Military Justice

Front 99

Which of the following statements concerning extra military instruction (EMI) is true?

Back 99

1. Only the commanding officer has the authority to assign EMI
2. EMI will normally be assigned for more than 2 hours per day
3. EMI may not be assigned at a reasonable hour outside of normal working hours
4. EMI will be conducted over a period that is longer than necessary to correct the performance discrepancy

Front 100

Which, if any, of the following privileges can you, as a chief petty officer, withhold from your subordinates?

Back 100

1. Special liberty
2 . Exchange of duty
3. Special services events
4. None of the above

Front 101

You are required to have your ship ready to get underway in the morning. I t is nearing liberty call and most of the work has not been accomplished. Which of the following administrative actions should you apply?

Back 101

1. Withholding of privileges
2. Extra military instruction
3. Extension of working hours
4. Control through recognition of performance

Front 102

You have a basic responsibility to recognize initiative and exemplary performance of your subordinates.

Back 102

1. True
2 . False

Front 103

Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN contain organizational requirements for aviation units?

Back 103

1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above

Front 104

You are a work center supervisor and would like to find out what your LCPO responsibilities consist of. Which, if any, of the following chapters in the SORN would provide guidance?

Back 104

1. Standard unit organization
2. The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. None of the above

Front 105

Which of the following chapters in the SORN should the departmental duty officer review?

Back 105

1. Standard unit organization
2 . The unit organization
3. Watch organization
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 106

A person departing on leave must possess which of the following documents?

Back 106

1. Properly validated leave papers and ID card
2. Armed forces liberty pass
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Geneva Convention card

Front 107

Without proper authority, a person shall not remove which of the following items from the regular place of stowage or location?

Back 107

1. First–aid equipment
2. Stores and foodstuffs
3. Hull and damage control fittings
4. Each of the above

Front 108

Which of following statements is NOT true concerning berthing?

Back 108

1. You may be placed on report for failing to get up at reveille
2. You may sleep or lie on your bunk in working clothes
3. You may not sleep in your work spaces unless authorized
4. You may turn on white lights in berthing any time you want between reveille and taps

Front 109

You pass the ship’s library after taps and notice some Sailors playing monopoly. Which of the following actions should you take?

Back 109

1. Ask the Sailors to follow you to the chief’s quarters and have them wait while you fill out a report chit for violating article 510.01 of the SORN
2 . Stop and watch the Sailors play the game
3. Remind the Sailors it is against regulations to engage in games of any type after taps and ensure they quit
4. Continue on to the chief’s quarters without stopping

Front 110

While in a liberty status aboard ship, you may wear civilian clothes while dining in the crew’s mess.

Back 110

1. True
2. False

Front 111

Aboard ship mess gear is often found in the work center. By regulation, which of the following persons is/are charged with ensuring the mess gear is immediately returned to the mess decks?

Back 111

1. The division officer
2. The person who took the mess gear
3. The senior petty officer in charge of the space
4. All of the above

Front 112

Which of the following statements concerning uniforms and clothing is true?

Back 112

1. You may wear frayed or dirty uniforms
2. You may wear an article that is not prescribed as part of the uniform of the day
3. You may wear the uniform in a manner that would bring discredit to the Navy
4. No names or marks may be placed on foul weather clothing except the number prescribed for official designation

Front 113

Each person is responsible for keeping his or her locker locked at all times.

Back 113

1. True
2. False

Front 114

You may bring your personal camera aboard ship without first obtaining permission.

Back 114

1. True
2. False

Front 115

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to the plan of the day?

Back 115

1. It will be posted on division bulletin boards
2. In port, it will be read at quarters
3. It will be published daily by the XO
4. All of the above

Front 116

The use of profane, obscene, or vulgar words or gestures aboard naval units is an accepted practice and doesn’t violate any regulations.

Back 116

1. True
2. False

Front 117

Chapter 7 of the SORN covers which of the following topics?

Back 117

1. Safety
2. Training
3. Unit Bills
4. Unit directives system

Front 118

What chapter in the SORN covers guidelines for establishing operational bills?

Back 118

1. Unit Bills
2. Watch Organization
3. The Unit Organization
4. Standard Unit Organization

Front 119

What is the equal right of jurisdiction called?

Back 119

1. Jurisprudence jurisdiction
2. Equilateral jurisdiction
3. Concurrent jurisdiction
4. Disparate jurisdiction

Front 120

When a military member is tried in a U.S. court, the military will pay the attorney fees and court cost.

Back 120

1. True
2. False

Front 121

American troops are stationed in Europe for which of the following reasons?

Back 121

1. To benefit our allies
2. To recognize the need for collective strength
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Europe pays the U.S. for stationing the troops in NATO countries

Front 122

Status of Forces Agreements only apply to active duty military personnel.

Back 122

1. True
2 . False

Front 123

Status of Forces Agreements are a package of which of the following agreements?

Back 123

1. Treaties
2 . Protocol agreements
3. Executive agreements
4. All of the above

Front 124

What is the primary purpose of the Status of Forces Agreements?

Back 124

1. To define the status of one’s military forces stationed in another country
2 . To allow the host country jurisdiction over foreign personnel
3. To provide for the common defense against communist aggressors
4. To give NATO forces the right to operate anywhere in Europe

Front 125

You are stationed aboard a ship in a foreign port. When are you exempt from prosecution by local authorities?

Back 125

1. When you come back aboard after going on liberty
2 . When ashore on official business
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Naval personnel enjoy diplomatic immunity because of SOFA and are always exempt from prosecution

Front 126

Experience has shown that sentences imposed by foreign courts on U.S. service members are unusually harsh.

Back 126

1. True
2 . False

Front 127

Which of the following privileges are allowed. under SOFA, by special consent of the host country?

Back 127

1. Use of a U.S. driver’s license
2. Waiver of taxes or import duty on household goods
3. Entering and leaving the country on military orders
4. All of the above

Front 128

Which of the following topics are generally covered by SOFAs?

Back 128

1. Freedom of troop movement
2 . Exchange privileges
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Marriage licenses

Front 129

When did countries first recognize the need to develop Status of Forces Agreements?

Back 129

1. Before World War I
2. During peacetime, 1919 to 1939
3. During World War II
4. After countries had recovered from World War II

Front 130

Our Allies want us to remove our troops from Europe.

Back 130

1. True
2. False

Front 131

Which, if any, of the following levels of management contains chief petty officers?

Back 131

1. Top
2. Middle
3. Operating
4. None of the above

Front 132

In which of the following types of planning are chiefs normally
involved?

Back 132

1. Single–use
2. Standing
3. Strategic
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 133

What type of planning involves activities that will occur in 2 to 5 years?

Back 133

1. Strategic
2. Standing
3. Procedures
4. Single-use

Front 134

Which of the following plans gives broad general statements of expected behavior?

Back 134

1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives

Front 135

Which of the following plans are detailed standing plans?

Back 135

1. Policies
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives

Front 136

What type of organizational document should you use to help avoid crisis management?

Back 136

1. The command policies
2. The command procedures
3. The command organizational objectives
4. The command’s rules and regulations

Front 137

Which of the following statements concerning rules and regulations is true?

Back 137

1. They are standing plans
2. They state what you may or may not do in a given situation
3. Commands use them to ensure personnel comply with command policy
4. Each of the above

Front 138

Which of the following types of control is expressed in numerical terms, usually by category and a period of time?

Back 138

1. Budget
2. Policy
3. Program
4. Project

Front 139

Single-use plans are developed from which of the following plans?

Back 139

1. Strategic
2. Programs
3. Projects
4. Budgets

Front 140

Which of the following statements defines management by objectives (MBO)?

Back 140

1. MBO states a specific goal and gives the major steps, the timing of the steps, and the resources required
2. Supervisors set the goals and subordinates have no input to the planning process
3. Supervisors and subordinates set overall goals for the organization together
4. MBO states the amount of time, money, personnel, and other resources to be used

Front 141

The purpose of MBO is to set clearly defined goals everyone can understand.

Back 141

1. True
2. False

Front 142

What principle is MBO based on?

Back 142

1. People are more willing to work toward a goal they are committed to
2. People will do everything possible to meet the goals they set
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Supervisors should set all the goals because workers are basically lazy

Front 143

Which of the following items is NOT a disadvantage of management by objectives?

Back 143

1. It may cause leaders to overlook objectives that cannot be measured
2. It forces leaders to focus on important objectives
3. It requires more time to use
4. It increases paperwork

Front 144

You will find the work requirements for your division in which of the following divisional documents?

Back 144

1. Strategic plans
2. Single-use plans
3. Rules and regulations
4. All of the above

Front 145

What is the first step in setting goals for work requirements?

Back 145

1. Identify the difference between the real and ideal situation
2. Develop a single–use plan to implement the change
3. Recognize the real situation in your division
4. Make a commitment to change

Front 146

Which of the following statement defines the goal setting criteria of being behavior specific?

Back 146

1. Specifies the necessary action to take
2. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
3. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
4. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained

Front 147

The goal setting criteria of being measurable is defined by which of the following statements?

Back 147

1. The goal tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2 . The goal specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. The goal provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. The goal specifies the necessary action to take

Front 148

Which of the following statements defines realistic but challenging goal setting criteria?

Back 148

1. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2 . Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take

Front 149

Which of the following statements defines time-phased goal setting criteria?

Back 149

1. Tests your ability, but has at least a 50 percent chance of being attained
2. Specifies criteria or check points for accomplishing the goal
3. Provides a time schedule or deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action to take

Front 150

If a task does not fit into the priority of urgent, important, or important/urgent, when should you do the task?

Back 150

1. Whenever you find time
2. Before the urgent task
3. Before the important task
4. Before the urgent/important task

Front 151

Why should you use strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis?

Back 151

1. To determine where the division needs improvement
2. To determine opportunities available to the division
3. To determine if there are any obstacles the division must overcome
4. All of the above

Front 152

What would an available school quota be classified as during a SWOT analysis?

Back 152

1. Strength
2. Weakness
3. Opportunity
4. Threat

Front 153

You must assign a person to a billet that requires completion of a personnel qualification standard. When, if ever, is the person considered qualified to fill the billet?

Back 153

1. When the assignment is made
2. When the person completes the personnel qualification standard
3. When the service record entry documenting completion of the personnel qualification standard is made
4. Never

Front 154

Trying to anticipate problems and making corrections before problems occur requires which of the following types of control?

Back 154

1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feedforward

Front 155

Which of the following types of control involves making corrections after an event happens?

Back 155

1. Feedforward
2. Concurrent
3. Feedback
4. Quality

Front 156

Which of the following types of control involves making changes as an event occurs?

Back 156

1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feed forward

Front 157

An inspection of the raw input for defects is what type of quality control?

Back 157

1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Front 158

Which of the following types of quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?

Back 158

1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Front 159

Which of the following types of control is measurable?

Back 159

1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above

Front 160

Which of the following types of control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?

Back 160

1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT

Front 161

When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?

Back 161

1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the project
4. Define the order needed to complete the component task

Front 162

Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?

Back 162

1. CPM requires only one time estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
4. Each of the above

Front 163

As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it to a set standard.

Back 163

1. True
2 . False

Front 164

Which of the following types of quality control is based on doing the job right the first time?

Back 164

1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback

Front 165

Which of the following types of control is measurable?

Back 165

1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above

Front 166

Which of the following types of control was developed by the Navy while constructing the Polaris missile?

Back 166

1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT

Front 167

When constructing a PERT network, what is the fourth step?

Back 167

1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the project
4. Define the order needed to complete the component task

Front 168

Which of the following statements identifies the basic difference between PERT and CPM?

Back 168

1. CPM requires only one time estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some experience in performing each component task
4. Each of the above

Front 169

As an element of effective control, your subordinates expect you to control their work by comparing it to a set standard.

Back 169

1. True
2 . False

Front 170

When you evaluate your control system to eliminate unnecessary costs, you are using which of the following elements of effective control?

Back 170

1. Effectiveness
2. Acceptance
3. Timeliness
4. Accuracy

Front 171

A person who gives advice to the commanding officer would belong to which, i f any, of the following types of organization?

Back 171

1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. None of the above

Front 172

A major department responsible for accomplishing the mission of the command belongs to which of the following types of organization?

Back 172

1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. Each of the above

Front 173

A functional organization is defined by which of the following statements?

Back 173

1. Does not have authority over line departments
2. Is responsible for accomplishing the command mission
3. Has authority over all parts of the command in ensuring its special function is met
4. Gives advice to line departments

Front 174

The division of work is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?

Back 174

1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Front 175

The order of control within an organization is defined by which of the following terms?

Back 175

1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Front 176

How many people can one person effectively supervise?

Back 176

1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13

Front 177

The order of authority within an organization is explained by which of the following organizational concepts?

Back 177

1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization

Front 178

Delegating your authority is an outstanding way to train subordinates for positions of greater authority.

Back 178

1. True
2. False

Front 179

Which of the following statements concerning authority is correct?

Back 179

1. Most authority in the Navy is delegated
2. Subordinates usually accept authority readily
3. Subordinates must recognize you have authority over them before your authority exist
4. Each of the above

Front 180

When you tell a junior enlisted person in another division or work center to get a haircut, you are exercising which, if any, of the following types of authority?

Back 180

1. Line
2. Staff
3. Functional
4. None of the above

Front 181

The use of threats or negative rewards is the use of which of the following types of power?

Back 181

1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Front 182

When you influence others through the use of your specialized knowledge, you are exercising which of the following types of power?

Back 182

1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Front 183

Which of the following types of power do you have simply because people identify with you being a chief?

Back 183

1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational

Front 184

Which of the following statements concerning leadership is true?

Back 184

1. It is the motivating force that leads to coordinated action and unity of effort
2. Leaders must encourage, inspire, teach, stimulate, and motivate all individuals of the organization
3. You should never let a subordinate be criticized or penalized by anyone but yourself
4. Each of the above

Front 185

A leader who believes people must be coerced, controlled, directed, or threatened is using which of the following leadership theories?

Back 185

1. W
2. X
3. Y
4. Z

Front 186

Immediate compliance to orders, tight job control, and numerous detailed reports on jobs are characteristics of which of the following leadership styles?

Back 186

1. Coach
2. Coercer
3. Affiliatior
4. Pacesetter

Front 187

Which of the following definitions identifies the authoritarian style of leadership?

Back 187

1. Negative feedback is given and name calling is frequent
2 . Motivation is generated through threats of discipline or punishment
3. Rewards are given for personal characteristics and punishment is rare
4. Clear direction is given with no doubt about who makes the final decisions

Front 188

Leaders who would rather do the job themselves, set high standards, expect self–direction, and have trouble delegating authority, exercise which of the following leadership styles?

Back 188

1. Affiliator
2. Pacesetter
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Front 189

A democratic leadership style would be particularly harmful in a drill or battle condition for which of the following reasons?

Back 189

1. It requires time for meetings
2. The leader lacks control of the group
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. It takes authority away from subordinates

Front 190

What leadership style is well suitedto a counselor but would have a negative effect on a work center operating on a tight schedule?

Back 190

1. Authoritarian
2. Affiliator
3. Democratic
4. Coach

Front 191

When you prepare your work center for inspection by incorporating preparation for inspection into the daily routine, you are demonstrating which of the following management skills?

Back 191

1. Concern for standards
2 . Concern for efficiency
3. Planning and organizing
4. Supervising for effective performance

Front 192

You would exhibit the leadership skill commitment to the command's mission by taking which of the following actions?

Back 192

1. Seeing yourself as a leader
2. Making yourself available to answer questions
3. Using threats or your authority to influence others
4. Acting with the best interest of the command in mind

Front 193

Which of the following statements describes the action you should take in developing others?

Back 193

1. Use the proper setting and timing for optimum impact
2. See yourself as someone who makes things happen
3. Provide constructive feedback to subordinates
4. See yourself as a leader

Front 194

Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as confronting issues directly and insisting others recognize your place in the chain of command?

Back 194

1. Concern for achievement
2. Analytical problem solving
3. Persistence
4. Assertiveness

Front 195

Which of the following personal characteristics is defined as being a self–starter, seeing problems, and taking action to correct the problems without being told?

Back 195

1. Interpersonal awareness
2. Assertiveness
3. Persistence
4. Initiative

Front 196

Which of the following is a benefit of Total Quality Management?

Back 196

1. Increased pride of workmanship among individual workers
2 . Improved sustainability caused by extended time between equipment failures
3. Streamlined maintenance and production processes
4. Each of the above

Front 197

Preparing and submitting a budget request is what form of planning?

Back 197

1. Long-range
2. Medium-range
3. Short-range
4. Micro

Front 198

Who develops the budget resolution each year?

Back 198

1. The President
2. Congress
3. The General Accounting Office
4. The Office of Management and Budget

Front 199

When forecasting your yearly budget, the period of 1 October to 30 September can be viewed with a great deal of uncertainty.

Back 199

1. True
2 . False

Front 200

When purchasing a ship, the Navy uses what type of budgeting to figure the cost?

Back 200

1. Incremental
2. Zero-based
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Additional

Front 201

Supply facilities established to support public works departments or ground electronics shops are called

Back 201

1. stock control branches
2. self-service stores
3. shop stores
4. rapid communication and delivery

Front 202

Which of the following supply establishments is responsible for
expediting material from outside sources?

Back 202

1. Rapid communication and delivery systems
2. Retail issue organizations
3. Material division
4. Receipt control branch

Front 203

Which of the following items is considered equipage?

Back 203

1. Electronic computer
2 . Missile launcher
3. Diesel engine
4. Anchor

Front 204

You could figure the three-month usage rate for fast-moving items by
using which of the following formulas?

Back 204

1. Multiplying last month’s usage by 2.
2. Dividing last month’s usage by 2
3. Multiplying last month’s usage by 3
4. Dividing last month’s usage by 3

Front 205

Which of the following terms applies to specific repair parts intended to be used when troubleshooting electronic equipment?

Back 205

1. Ready service spares
2. Maintenance assist modules
3. Maintenance repair modules
4. Operating space repair spares

Front 206

What officer assigns the force activity designator?

Back 206

1. Supply officer
2. Department head
3. Fleet commander
4. Commanding officer

Front 207

Who is responsible for assigning the correct urgency–of–need designator to a material request?

Back 207

1. Material officer
2. Executive officer
3. Department head
4. Supply officer

Front 208

An authorized coordinated shipboard allowance list reactor part would
have which of the following urgency of need designators assigned?

Back 208

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Front 209

Who is responsible for inspecting items purchased from a commercial source prior to payment being made?

Back 209

1. Division chief
2. Supply officer
3. Division officer
4. Department head

Front 210

What person must sign the copy of the purchase document stamped “received, inspected, and accepted”?

Back 210

1. Division officer
2. Department head
3. Division chief
4. Supply officer

Front 211

The supply officer has which of the following types of control over
consumables and repair parts that are

Back 211

1. Stock record control
2. Inventory control
3. Stowage control
4. Use control

Front 212

The recordinq of receipts, expenditures, and inventories of spare parts and consumables within a department is the direct responsibility of which of the following persons?

Back 212

1. Senior CPO of the department
2. Division officer
3. Designated custodian
4. Department head

Front 213

What is the purpose of using dunnage under material being stowed on deck?

Back 213

1. To protect against excessive shock
2. To provide more economical use of space
3. To protect against moisture
4. To aid in handling

Front 214

In the physical arrangement of material for stowage, which of the following factors should you give primary consideration?

Back 214

1. Suitability for issue and inventory
2. Size and weight distribution
3. Stock number sequence
4. Orderliness

Front 215

Which of the following precautions should be observed when handling and stowing hazardous materials?

Back 215

1. Ventilate adequately
2. Provide separate stowage areas to prevent mixing of materials
3. Allow only authorized personnel in stowage area
4. Each of the above

Front 216

Who generally has custodial responsibility for binoculars?

Back 216

1. The leading Quartermaster
2. The senior Signalman
3. The operations department head
4. The executive officer

Front 217

For signature-required items of controlled equipage in the custody of a department, which of the following persons should sign (a) the custody records and (b) the duplicate custody records?

Back 217

1. (a) Commanding officer
(b) Department head
2. (a) Department head
(b) Actual custodian
3. (a) Department head
(b) Division officer
4. (a) Commanding officer
(b) Supply officer

Front 218

Which of the following persons is/are authorized to convert nonsignature-required items to signature-required items?

Back 218

1. The actual custodian
2. The type commander only
3. The commanding officer only
4. The commanding officer and the type commander

Front 219

Which of the following circumstances requires the use of the DD Form 200 (Report of Survey)?

Back 219

1. When circumstances warrant
2. When gross negligence is evident
3. When criminal activity is indicated
4. Each of the above

Front 220

Who is responsible for ensuring proper tests and inspections are completed before the acceptance of work by outside activities?

Back 220

1. The work center supervisor
2. The division officer
3. The department head
4. The 3–M coordinator

Front 221

Counseling is an important responsibility. Which of the following statements best describes the most important aspect of supervisor counseling?

Back 221

1. To provide guidance to your average performer
2 . To provide support to a person having problems
3. To provide professional guidance to a superior performer
4. To provide professional assistance to a personal problem

Front 222

Counseling is divided into which of the following types?

Back 222

1. Situational and conditional
2. Directive and nondirective
3. Military and paramilitary
4. Personal and clandestine

Front 223

The process of listening to a person’s problems, then encouraging and motivating that person to solve them, accomplishes which of the following counseling functions?

Back 223

1. Reorientation
2. Reassurance
3. Advice
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 224

Trying to change the person rather than dealing with the immediate problem is an example of which of the following types of counseling?

Back 224

1. Nondirective
2. Professional
3. Military
4. Directive

Front 225

The major objective in interviewing your subordinates is to accomplish which of the following results?

Back 225

1. To discover special characteristics, aptitudes, or skills
2 . To show a personal interest in the subordinate
3. To establish your position of leadership
4. All of the above

Front 226

The primary purpose of the military briefing is to accomplish which of the following functions?

Back 226

1. To teach
2. To inform
3. To entertain
4. To allow the person presenting the brief to express his or her opinion

Front 227

Which of the following persons is in the best position to notice if the SORM needs updating?

Back 227

1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The department head
4. The leading chief petty officer

Front 228

You should conduct career information interviews with junior personnel for which of the following purposes?

Back 228

1. To inform them about the Navy
2. To inform them of their benefits
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. To meet the requirements of the career retention program

Front 229

Which of the following types of reenlistment applies to personnel who desire to convert to a critically undermanned rating?

Back 229

1. Regular
2. Guard III
3. STAR
4. SCORE

Front 230

Which of the following reenlistments offers career designation to first term personnel?

Back 230

1. Regular
2. Guard III
3. STAR
4. SCORE

Front 231

Which of the following types of reenlistment offers guaranteed advancement to petty officer second completion of class C school?

Back 231

1. STAR
2. SCORE
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Guard III

Front 232

When, if ever, does SGLI coverage terminate after separation from active duty?

Back 232

1. 120 days
2. 180 days
3. 360 days
4. Never

Front 233

Which of the following organizations offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the Navy?

Back 233

1. American Red Cross
2. Navy Mutual Aid Society
3. Navy League
4. Navy Relief Society

Front 234

When, if ever, are you allowed MALT payments?

Back 234

1. When you use government transportation
2. When you travel by privately owed vehicle during a PCS move
3. When you travel by privately owned vehicle while on TAD orders
4. Never

Front 235

If you die on active duty, your spouse would receive a lump sum payment of up to $3,000 in which of the following payments?

Back 235

1. Death gratuity
2. SGLI
3. DIC
4. Social security

Front 236

A person who has 5 years and 11 months of active military service, reenlists for a period of six years. This person could reenlist for an SRB zone B bonus at the end of his or her obligated service.

Back 236

1. True
2. False

Front 237

Which of the following educational programs provides seventy–five percent of the tuition cost for active–duty personnel regardless of rank, paygrade, or length of service?

Back 237

1. SOC
2. SOCNAV
3. DANTES
4. TA

Front 238

Which of the following programs enables personnel to achieve journeyman status in recognized civilian trades?

Back 238

1. National Apprenticeship Program
2. Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
3. Servicemembers Opportunity College
4. Program for Afloat College Education

Front 239

A chief petty officer serving on active duty with 17 years of service is eligible for which of the following officer programs?

Back 239

1. Limited Duty Officer Program
2. Chief Warrant Officer Program
3. Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training Program
4. All of the above

Front 240

A married 20-year-old petty officer second class, with 12 years of education, is eligible for which of the following officer programs?

Back 240

1. Direct commission
2. U.S. Naval Academy
3. Broadened Opportunity for Officer Selection and Training Program
4. Limited Duty Officer Program

Front 241

A dependent parent of an active–duty Sailor qualifies for CHAMPUS benefits.

Back 241

1. True
2. False

Front 242

A dependent parent–in-law of an active-duty service member qualifies for treatment under the Uniformed Services Health Benefits Program.

Back 242

1. True
2. False

Front 243

The maximum CHAMPUS deductible a service member with a wife and 6 children would have to pay is which of the following amounts?

Back 243

1. $150 per person
2. $300 per person
3. $150 per family
4. $300 per family

Front 244

Which of the following amounts is the CHAMPUS catastrophic cap for retired service members?

Back 244

1. $150
2. $300
3. $1,000
4. $10,000

Front 245

Which of the following levels of chief petty officer is considered to be the senior technical supervisor within a rating?

Back 245

1. Chief
2. Senior chief
3. Master chief
4. Command master-chief

Front 246

Which of the following personnel would have performance evaluations filmed into their microform records?

Back 246

1. E-3 and below
2. E-4 and below
3. E-5 and above
4. Each of the above

Front 247

Which of the following categories of retirement is applicable to Reserve personnel who have completed 20 years of active military service?

Back 247

1. Fleet Reserve
2. Retired Reserve
3. Regular Navy Retired List
4. Naval Reserve Retired List

Front 248

Service members who have a permanent physical disability and are temporarily unable to perform their duties are transferred to which of the following retired lists?

Back 248

1. Regular Navy Retired List
2. Naval Reserve Retired List
3. Temporary Disability Retired List
4. Permanent Disability Retired List

Front 249

The Survivor Benefit Plan allows you to designate your permanently disabled children to receive a portion of your retirement for life provided the child’s disability occurs before age 18 or age 22 if attending school full time.

Back 249

1. True
2. False

Front 250

You may select only one beneficiary option under the Survivor Benefit Plan.

Back 250

1. True
2. False

Front 251

To transfer to the Fleet Reserve, you must complete which of the following requirements?

Back 251

1. 2 years at your current duty station
2 . Submit NAVPERS 1830/1
3. Submit NAVPERS 1070/621 or NAVPERS 1070/622
4. All of the above

Front 252

Which of the following is NOT an element of an effective training
program?

Back 252

1. Analysis
2. Advice
3. Instruction
4. Compatibility

Front 253

Correspondence courses, onboard training packages, and computer-aided training belong to which of the following training categories?

Back 253

1. Classroom
2. Self–study
3. Team training
4. On–the–job training

Front 254

Ensuring persons giving lectures and signing qualifications can communicate well with others is what element of an effective training program?

Back 254

1. Dynamic instruction
2. Positive leadership
3. Quality control
4. Personal interest

Front 255

Technical support is defined as testing individuals or having them demonstrate the knowledge they are credited with having?

Back 255

1. True
2. False

Front 256

Who should ensure a junior officer is trained to have a positive attitude toward the chief petty officer community?

Back 256

1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The department head
4. The chief

Front 257

Which of the following people must have a formalized dependent care plan?

Back 257

1. Single military parents
2. Married military couples who are parents
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. An unmarried chief with no dependents

Front 258

Single military parents should have which of the following documents on file to identify custodians for their dependents?

Back 258

1. Navy Single Sponsor, OPNAV Form 1740.4
2. Dental Care Form, OPNAV 1180
3. Dependent Care Certificate, OPNAV 1740/1
4. Custodian Assignment Form, OPNAV 1180/1

Front 259

Which of the following items of information concerning the Navy’s dependent care policy is contained in OPNAVINST 1740.4?

Back 259

1. A list of prohibited duty stations for single sponsors
2. Command and individual responsibilities
3. Counseling checklists
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 260

The Family Advocacy Program covers which of the following persons?

Back 260

1. Abused wives
2. Neglected children
3. Sexually assaulted wives
4. Each of the above

Front 261

The Family Service Center can provide information on which of the following programs?

Back 261

1. Family Advocacy
2. Command Sponsor
3. Command Ombudsman
4. Each of the above

Front 262

Who is responsible for appointing command ombudsman?

Back 262

1. The commanding officer
2. The executive officer
3. The wives club
4. Chief of Naval Personnel

Front 263

The command ombudsman determines priorities of the command ombudsman program.

Back 263

1. True
2. False

Front 264

The term DUSTWUN applies to which of the following categories of personnel?

Back 264

1. Unaccounted for––duty status– whereabouts unknown
2. Accounted for––duty status– whereabouts unknown
3. Reported missing
4. Reported dead

Front 265

Which of the following personnel may serve as a CACO?

Back 265

1. An ensign with 1 year of active duty
2. A chief petty officer
3. A first class petty officer
4. Each of the above

Front 266

The Morale, Welfare, and Recreation Program was designed to improve the quality of life for which of the following personnel?

Back 266

1. Active-duty military
2. Retired military
3. Personnel associated with the armed forces
4. Each of the above

Front 267

About what percent of military members experience financial difficulty during their career?

Back 267

1. 10 percent
2. 30 percent
3. 50 percent
4. 75 percent

Front 268

The Navy Personal Financial Management Program contains what major elements?

Back 268

1. Financial education, training, and counseling
2. Bankruptcy law, free loans, credit cards
3. Educational assistance and bankruptcy proceedings
4. Credit cards, low cost loans, free legal advice

Front 269

What is the goal of the Department of Defense Family Housing Program?

Back 269

1. To ensure all military members receive BAQ
2. To ensure enough military housing exists to house activeduty members
3. To provide suitable housing to military members and dependents
4. To provide free housing to reserve personnel

Front 270

The Navy Sponsor Program was implemented for which of the following reasons?

Back 270

1. To help overcome the difficulty of a PCS move
2. To provide a dependent care plan to single military parents
3. To define military dependent’s use of Navy medical facilities
4. To provide low cost housing to military members and dependents

Front 271

The Overseas Duty Support Program was designed to help which of the following personnel?

Back 271

1. Personnel on Embassy duty
2. Personnel aboard deploying ships
3. Personnel assigned to overseas shore duty
4. Each of the above

Front 272

The major goal(s) of the Overseas Duty Support Program include which of the following objectives?

Back 272

1. Providing free long distance telephone service
2 . Supplying information through publications, video tapes, and personal assistance
3. Providing cross-training in counter–cultural relations
4. Each of the above

Front 273

The Navy supports the Overseas Duty Support Program by meeting which of the following goals?

Back 273

1. Increasing command knowledge, readiness, and effectiveness in the ODSP
2. Improving individual and family experiences in the unique environment of the host country
3. Developing and maintaining positive relations between the Navy and the countries in which the Navy operates
4. Each of the above

Front 274

The Overseas Transfer Information Service will accept collect phone calls from within CONUS.

Back 274

1. True
2. False

Front 275

Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated Core Values to strengthen and reinforce the existing Pride and Professionalism programs?

Back 275

1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Front 276

Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated the Personal Excellence Program to emphasize Navy involvement in the civilian community?

Back 276

1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Front 277

Which of the following Chief of Naval Operations initiated a program to reemphasize and reenforce the past traditions and values of the Navy?

Back 277

1. Admiral Thomas B. Hayward
2. Admiral James D. Watkins
3. Admiral Carlisle A.H. Trost
4. Admiral Frank B. Kelso II

Front 278

Which of the following statements defines the term fraud?

Back 278

1. To mislead or deceive to defraud the government of its resources intentionally
2. Improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions that lead to careless or needless use of government resources
3. To misuse rank, position or authority
4. To manage incompetently or improperly

Front 279

Which of the following statements defines the term waste ?

Back 279

1. To mislead or deceive to defraud the government of its resources intentionally
2. Improper or deficient practices, systems, controls, or decisions that lead to careless or needless use of government resources
3. To misuse rank, position or authority
4. To mismanage incompetently or improperly

Front 280

If you are aware of fraud, waste or other improprieties within the Department of the Navy, what should be the first method used to resolve the problem?

Back 280

1. Inform your chain of command
2. Call the DOD Hot Line
3. Report the problem to NIS
4. Write your Congressman

Front 281

When the DOD Hot Line is used to report fraud, waste, abuse, or mismanagement, how long does the command have to investigate and take corrective action unless NAVINSGEN allows more time?

Back 281

1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 120 days
4. 180 days

Front 282

NIS only investigates crimes that carry a maximum penalty of 1 year or a $500 fine.

Back 282

1. True
2. False

Front 283

Military supervisors who interfere with a congressional investigation, before or after the fact, may be charged under the Uniform Code of Military Justice, article 92(a).

Back 283

1. True
2. False

Front 284

Which of the following services is offered by the Navy resale system?

Back 284

1. Bowling centers
2. Child development centers
3. Hobby shops
4. Pay telephones

Front 285

Which of the following items can be rented from the Navy resale system?

Back 285

1. Santa Claus suit
2. Rollaway bed
3. Hydraulic log splitter
4. Each of the above

Front 286

Items purchased through the Navy resale system are tax-free and the profits generated are contributed to the MWR program.

Back 286

1. True
2. False

Front 287

When should you check the divisional watch, quarter, and station bill?

Back 287

1. When a person from the division goes on leave
2. When a person from the division transfers
3. When a person from the division goes TAD
4. Each of the above

Front 288

Who maintains the ship’s master watch, quarter, and station bill?

Back 288

1. The watch bill coordinator
2. The security officer
3. The senior watch officer
4. The commanding officer

Front 289

When in drill and formation, an interval is normally what distance?

Back 289

1. 24 inches for women, 30 inches for men
2. The space between the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead
3. One arm’s length from shoulder to shoulder
4. 40 inches between ranks

Front 290

When presenting your division for inspection, you should position yourself so the inspecting party approaches from which, if any, of the following directions?

Back 290

1. From the right
2. From the left
3. From directly in front of the division
4. None of the above

Front 291

When you present a division for inspection, where should you fall in, relative to the inspecting officer, as the division is being inspected?

Back 291

1. Just ahead of the inspecting officer, on the side of the rank being inspected
2. Just behind the inspecting officer, on the side of the rank being inspected
3. Just ahead of the inspecting officer, opposite the rank being inspected
4. Just behind the inspecting officer, opposite the rank being inspected

Front 292

BMC Jane B. Doe is holding divisional quarters and the division is at ease. At the conclusion of quarters, what command(s) should be given?

Back 292

1. “Attention” then “Fall Out”
2. “Attention” then "Dismissed"
3. “Dismissed”
4. “Fall out”

Front 293

Which of the following people report directly to the officer of the deck in port?

Back 293

1. Executive officer
2. Command duty officer
3. Duty master–at–arms
4. Each of the above

Front 294

In carrying out the ship’s daily routine, who should the in–port officer of the deck report to?

Back 294

1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer

Front 295

Who should the officer of the deck in port report to for the general safety and duties of the command?

Back 295

1. Executive officer
2. Commanding officer
3. Command duty officer
4. Senior watch officer

Front 296

For which of the following duties is the officer of the deck in port responsible?

Back 296

1. Initiating and supervising the unit’s evolutions or operations as necessary
2. Ensuring all required entries are made in the deck log and signing the log at the conclusion of the watch
3. Displaying required absentee pennants, colors, and general information signals; and supervising the rendering of honors
4. Each of the above

Front 297

Which of the following duties is the responsibility of the division duty officer?

Back 297

1. Making eight o’clock reports to the department head
2. Fulfilling the function of the division officer during his or her absence
3. Frequently inspecting division spaces to ensure physical security and good order and discipline
4. Each of the above

Front 298

Who is the chairman of the general mess advisory board?

Back 298

1. Command master chief
2. Food services officer
3. Disbursing officer
4. Executive officer

Front 299

The mess audit board is responsible for auditing which of the following mess treasurers?

Back 299

1. Wardroom
2. Chief petty officer’s mess
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Crew’s general mess

Front 300

The first use of the term “chief petty officer ” was recorded in what year?

Back 300

1. 1775
2. 1865
3. 1886
4. 1893

Front 301

The term “chief petty officer” was first used in reference to what rating?

Back 301

1. Boatswain’s Mate
2. Master-at-arms
3. Gunner’s Mate
4. Quartermaster

Front 302

What official document(s) first listed the rate of chief petty officer as a separate rate?

Back 302

1. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #41
2. General Order #409 and U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #41
3. General Order #409 and U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #1
4. U.S. Navy Regulation Circular #1 and General Order #431

Front 303

What is the equivalent civilian attire to the dinner dress uniform?

Back 303

1. Black tie
2. White tie
3. Coat and tie
4. Coat and tails

Front 304

Which of the following types of uniforms would be appropriate for a ceremonial visit to a British man–of–war moored to Pier Lima Naval Station, Charleston, South Carolina?

Back 304

1. Full dress
2. Summer khaki
3. Service dress
4. Service undress

Front 305

What is the major difference between full dress and service dress uniforms?

Back 305

1. Large medals are worn with full dress miniature medals are worn with service dress
2. Miniature medals are worn with full dress ; large medals are worn with service dress
3. Ribbons are worn with full dress; large medals are worn with service dress
4. Large medals are worn with full dress; ribbons are worn with service dress

Front 306

On which of the following occasions would the wearing of working uniforms be appropriate?

Back 306

1. While on liberty in CONUS
2. When working in the engine room
3. When conducting business off base
4. While standing officer of the deck in port

Front 307

Which, if any, of the following chief petty officers is/are required to wear the aviation working green uniform?

Back 307

1. AVCM Jane B. Doe assigned to VAQ-122 as command master chief
2. All chief petty officers assigned to an aviation command
3. ABHC John A. Doe assigned to Naval Air Facility, Sigonella as senior enlisted advisor
4. None of the above

Front 308

When in uniform, which of the following circumstances would be considered inappropriate for the wearing of sunglasses?

Back 308

1. On watch
2. On liberty
3. When in formation
4. When conducting official business off base

Front 309

When wearing the combination cap, what is the correct position of the rivet on the chin strap?

Back 309

1. To the left side of the combination cap
2. To the right side of the combination cap
3. Centered in the front
4. Centered in the back

Front 310

The chevrons, rocker, service stripes, and specialty mark of the rating badge worn on the aviation working green uniform of a person with 12 years' continuous good conduct are what color?

Back 310

1. Gold
2. Blue
3. Silver
4. Scarlet

Front 311

Suppose an MACM serving at a command in a law enforcement billet receives orders to a command where she will be filling the billet as command master chief. What changes, if any, should be made to the rating badge to reflect the new position as command master chief?

Back 311

1. The specialty mark should be replaced by a silver star
2 . A third silver star should be added centered between the two already on her rating badge
3. The two silver stars on the rating badge should be replaced by one gold star centered above the eagle’s head
4. None of the above

Front 312

A master chief petty officer is serving as command master chief at Naval Station, Charleston, South Carolina. The person’s next assignment will be as master chief petty officer of the Navy (MCPON) at Washington, D.C. What changes, if any, should be made to the person’s rating badge and collar devices?

Back 312

1. A third silver star should be added to the rating badge and the collar device should remain unchanged
2. A gold star should be added between the two silver stars and the collar device should remain unchanged
3. The current stars above the eagle should be replaced with three gold stars and a third raised star should be added to the collar device
4. None of the above

Front 313

You are currently serving in the Navy and have just been awarded the Navy Commendation Medal. Ten years ago you were serving in the Air Force and received the Air Force Commendation Medal. What is the correct precedence for the wearing of the two medals?

Back 313

1. All medals are worn in the order received
2. The Air Force Commendation Medal is worn first, the Navy Commendation Medal is worn second
3. The Navy Commendation Medal is worn first, the Air Force Commendation Medal is worn second
4. Navy personnel are prohibited from wearing medals awarded by
other services, so only the Navy Commendation Medal may be worn

Front 314

Which of the following materials is recommended for cleaning gold bullion lace?

Back 314

1. Rubber
2. Kraft paper
3. Manila paper
4. Commercial nontoxic cleaner

Front 315

Of the following statements, which is NOT correct regarding the wearing of ribbons?

Back 315

1. You may wear all ribbons to which you are entitled
2. If entitled to more than three ribbons, you may wear any three
3. If entitled to wear more than three ribbons, you may wear the three most senior ribbons
4. If you are entitled to three non-U.S. awards but no U.S. decorations, you may wear no ribbons

Front 316

If you have any questions about the proper wearing of uniforms, you should refer to which of the following publications?

Back 316

1. OPNAVINST 5350.4A
2. OPNAVINST 3120.32B
3. NAVPERS 15665G
4. BUPERSINST 1430.16C

Front 317

The first priority of the investigator of a mishap is to determine who caused the mishap.

Back 317

1. True
2. False

Front 318

Which of the following investigations is an independent check based on the guidelines of a mishap investigation?

Back 318

1. Naval Safety Center investigation
2. JAG manual investigation
3. TYCOM inquiry
4. Each of the above

Front 319

Which of the following times after a mishap is ideal for beginning an investigation?

Back 319

1. 72 hours
2. 48 hours
3. 24 minutes
4. 12 minutes

Front 320

What evidence should you NOT try to obtain during a mishap investigation?

Back 320

1. Pieces of equipment or material
2. Sworn statements from witnesses
3. Color photographs of the scene
4. Photocopies of operating logs

Front 321

The Handbook for the Conduct of Forces Afloat Safety Investigations contains a checklist for common investigations in which of the following Appendixes?

Back 321

1. I
2. I I
3. I I I
4. IV

Front 322

Who is the division safety officer?

Back 322

1. The division officer
2. The leading petty officer
3. The work center supervisor
4. The leading chief petty officer

Front 323

Who is the senior member of the enlisted safety committee?

Back 323

1. The command master chief
2. The commanding officer
3. The executive officer
4. The safety officer

Front 324

Required survival training should include which of the following topics?

Back 324

1. Leaving assigned spaces
2. Fundamental first–aid
3. Survival equipment
4. Each of the above

Front 325

Within the Navy, who has ultimate responsibility for establishing and maintaining the Information and Personnel Security Program?

Back 325

1. Secretary of Defense
2. Secretary of the Navy
3. Director of Naval Intelligence
4. Commander Naval Security and Investigative Command

Front 326

The Navy Information and Personnel Security Program exists for which of the following reasons?

Back 326

1. To limit dissemination of official government information
2. To allow classified information access to selected members of the armed services
3. To safeguard official government information and materials in the possession of various agencies of the United States
4. Each of the above

Front 327

What Navy office serves as the liaison between the Departments of the Navy and the Secretary of the Defense regarding security matters?

Back 327

1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N) Chief of Naval Operations
2. (OP-062)
3. Director of Naval Administration
4. Chief of Naval Education and Training

Front 328

Standards for the safeguarding classified material in the Department of the Navy Information and Personnel Security Program Regulation meet which of the following criteria?

Back 328

1. The minimum acceptable standards
2. The maximum acceptable standards
3. Recommended standards
4. Joint-services standards

Front 329

Department of the Navy information and personnel security policies, procedures, and directives from higher authority are formulated by which of the following offices?

Back 329

1. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-009)
2. Director, Naval Data Automation Command
3. Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Commander
4. Chief of Naval Personnel

Front 330

Which of the following organizations provides overall policy guidance on information and personnel security?

Back 330

1. National Security Agency
2. National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service

Front 331

Which of the following organizations is the Department of the Navy’s sole liaison with the FBI on matters of internal security?

Back 331

1. National Security Agency
2. National Security Council
3. Naval Investigative Service
4. Defense Investigative Service

Front 332

Which of the following persons may be assigned the duty of security manager without being granted a waiver?

Back 332

1. A line officer, a master chief petty officer, and a civilian employee (GS-9)
2. A line officer, a master chief petty officer, and a civilian employee (GS-13)
3. A line officer, a medical services corps officer, and a civilian employee (GS-13)
4. A master chief petty officer, a cryptologic officer, and a marine gunnery sergeant

Front 333

Which of the following functions is/are the responsibility of the security manager?

Back 333

1. Ensuring that clearance status and access granted by the command are recorded
2. Ensuring security control of classified visits to and from the command
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Performing national agency checks on individuals who require security clearances

Front 334

In the organizational chain of command, the Top Secret control officer is responsible to what official for the control of Top Secret material in the command?

Back 334

1. The security manager
2. The security officer
3. The executive officer
4. The crypto security officer

Front 335

As a minimum, how often must the Top Secret control officer physically inventory the Top Secret materials in the command?

Back 335

1. Annually
2. Semiannually
3. Quarterly
4. Monthly

Front 336

In addition to receiving and distributing Top Secret material, The command TSCO is responsible for which of the following functions?

Back 336

1. Maintaining all Top Secret material in his/her personal possession at all times
2. Maintaining a system of accountability for all Top Secret material within the command
3. Granting access to classified spaces within the command
4. Granting security clearances within the command

Front 337

When may a command assign a Top Secret control assistant?

Back 337

1. When the Top Secret control officer is absent from the command for more than 2 consecutive weeks
2. When preparation is being made for a change of command inspection
3. Upon receipt of Top Secret materials
4. As the need arises

Front 338

At a command with an automatic data processing (ADP) system, what officer is responsible to the security manager for the protection of classified information in the ADP system?

Back 338

1. The ADP security officer
2. The administrative officer
3. The assistant security officer
4. The Top Secret control officer

Front 339

A command that handles classified information is responsible for instructing which of its members in security policies and procedures?

Back 339

1. Only enlisted personnel E-6 and below
2 . All personnel regardless of their position, rank, or grade
3. Only military and civilian personnel having access to classified information
4. Only officers, enlisted personnel E-6 and above, and civilian employees GS-9 and above

Front 340

At the Department of the Navy level, who is responsible for providing policy guidance, educational requirements, and source support for the security education program?

Back 340

1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
3. The Director, Navy Program Planning
4. The Chief of Naval Education and Training

Front 341

A command security education program must be designed to accomplish which of the following requirements?

Back 341

1. To inform personnel of techniques used by foreign activities to obtain classified information
2. To advise personnel of their legal obligation to protect classified information in their possession
3. To familiarize personnel with specific security procedures
4. All of the above

Front 342

Personnel granted access to classified information shall be debriefed when a temporary separation exceeds what minimum amount of time?

Back 342

1. 30 days
2. 60 days
3. 90 days
4. 120 days

Front 343

Which of the following statements define(s) a security violation?

Back 343

1. The compromise or possible compromise of classified information
2. A violation of security regulations with no compromise occurring
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. A weak command security program

Front 344

If a preliminary inquiry determines that classified information has been compromised, who usually convenes a JAG Manual investigation?

Back 344

1. The command having custody
2 . The office of the Judge Advocate General
3. The command that first discovers the compromise
4. The next senior in the administrative chain of command that initiates the preliminary
inquiry

Front 345

When security regulations are violated without compromise of classified material, who is responsible for taking corrective action?

Back 345

1. The Naval Investigative Service
2. The commanding officer
3. The security manager
4. The senior person in the administrative chain of command

Front 346

When classified information is improperly handled by the sending activity, which of the following activities should be notified?

Back 346

1. The commanding officer of the sending activity
2. Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
3. The local NIS office
4. Each of the above

Front 347

If you are aware of a possible act of sabotage, to whom should you report this fact?

Back 347

1. Your commanding officer
2. The most readily available command
3. Either 1 or 2 above depending on who is most readily available
4. The command having responsibility for the material or equipment involved

Front 348

A report to the Commander, Naval Security and Investigative Command concerning an act of sabotage should be forwarded using which of the following types of messages?

Back 348

1. Classified ROUTINE
2. Classified IMMEDIATE
3. Unclassified IMMEDIATE
4. Unclassified ROUTINE

Front 349

A member of the Department of the Navy who has access to classified material commits suicide. To whom should you report the incident?

Back 349

1. The nearest NIS office
2. The nearest FBI office
3. The Chief of Naval Operations (OP-09N)
4. The Director, Naval Investigative Command

Front 350

A civilian employee of the Department of the Navy with access to classified material is absent from work for several days without explanation. Who is responsible for making the initial inquiry into the employee’s absence?

Back 350

1. The FBI
2 . The security officer
3. The nearest NIS office
4. The commanding officer of the activity

Front 351

Who is authorized to declassify and downgrade all classified information upon which the Department of the Navy exercises final classification authority?

Back 351

1. The Secretary of the Navy
2. The Chief of Naval Operations
3. The Archivist of the United States
4. The Director, Naval Historical Center

Front 352

When, if ever, is foreign government information declassified by the Department of the Navy?

Back 352

1. When agreed to by the foreign entity
2 . When approved by the Secretary of the Navy
3. When approved by the Secretary of State of the United States
4. Never

Front 353

Which of the following types of information is exempt from provisions in effect for a mandatory declassification review?

Back 353

1. Cryptologic information
2. Presidential papers
3. Restricted data
4. Intelligence

Front 354

Classified information may be upgraded if which of the following conditions exists?

Back 354

1. If the information can be retrieved from known holders not authorized access to the highest level of classification
2 . If all known holders of the information are authorized access to the higher level of classification
3. If all known holders can be promptly notified
4. Each of the above

Front 355

How should reproduction equipment authorized for reproducing classified material be marked?

Back 355

1. With the highest level of classification that may be reproduced
2. With the name of the official(s) designated to approve the reproduction of classified material
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. With the words “For Security Personnel Only”

Front 356

Areas within a command requiring varying degrees of restriction of access, control of movement, and type of protection required for classified material are known by what collective term?

Back 356

1. Sanitized areas
2. Sensitive areas
3. Restricted areas
4. Out of bounds areas

Front 357

Any weakness or deficiency found in security storage equipment should be reported to which of the following authorities?

Back 357

1. The Naval Investigative Service
2. The Naval Supply Systems Command
3. Chief of Naval Operation (OP-09N)
4. The Defense Contract Administration

Front 358

When, if ever, may money or jewelry be stored in security containers
used to store classified material?

Back 358

1. During emergency and combat
situations
2. When the articles are to be
used as evidence in a military
court
3. When space is available, with
classified material always having priority
4. Never

Front 359

When a security container used to store Top Secret material is not located in a building under U.S. government control, which of the following additional security precautions must be made?

Back 359

1. The container must be protected by an alarm system
2. The container must be guarded during nonworking hours by U.S. citizens
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. The container must be checked by military guard once each hour during nonworking hours

Front 360

The combination of a container used to store classified information must be changed on which of the following occasions?

Back 360

1. Every 12 months
2 . When evidence indicates the combination has been compromised
3. When any person having the combination no longer requires access
4. Each of the above

Front 361

Records of destruction of Secret material must be retained for what minimum period of time?

Back 361

1. 24 months
2. 30 months
3. 36 months
4. 48 months

Front 362

When a strip shredding machine is used to shred classified material, the material should be shredded into strips that are what maximum width?

Back 362

1. 1/64 inch
2. 1/32 inch
3. 3/64 inch
4. 1/16 inch

Front 363

Which of the following methods is/are NOT recommended for office use?

Back 363

1. Disintegrators
2. Pulverizers
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Shredders

Front 364

A wet-process pulper is suitable for destroying which of the following materials?

Back 364

1. Microform
2. Paper products
3. Typewriter ribbons
4. Each of the above

Front 365

An emergency plan for destruction classified material must be based on which of factors?

Back 365

1. The potential for aggressive activities by hostile forces
2. The level and sensitivity of classified material held
3. The proximity of hostile forces
4. Each of the above

Front 366

When you assign priorities for emergency destruction of classified material, what priority should you assign to the files containing Confidential technical material?

Back 366

1. Priority One
2. Priority Two
3. Priority Three
4. Priority Four

Front 367

Commanding officers should establish procedures for dissemination of classified material originated or received by their commands for which of the following reasons?

Back 367

1. To identify exceptions to the procedures in security regulations
2. To limit outside dissemination to those activities having a need to know
3. To reflect any restrictions imposed by the originator or higher authority
4. Both 2 and 3 above

Front 368

Classified material should be marked for which of the following reasons?

Back 368

1. To indicate the degree of protection required
2 . To inform you of the level of classification
3. To assist you in extracting, paraphrasing, downgrading, and declassifying actions
4. Each of the above

Front 369

How may the classification be indicated on classified material other than a document?

Back 369

1. By placing a tag, sticker. or decal on the material
2. Printed by a government printer
3. Written in blue with a red border
4. Stamped in indelible red or blue ink

Front 370

Where are the interior pages of a classified document marked to indicate the hiqhest overall classification level of the document?

Back 370

1. Top only
2. Bottom only
3. Center only
4. Top and bottom center

Front 371

Where would you find the proper location of the classified markings used to indicate the classification of the title of a document?

Back 371

1. Immediately preceding the title
2. Immediately following the title
3. Above the title
4. Below the title

Front 372

What should be the first item of information in the text of a classified message?

Back 372

1. The precedence of the message
2. The identity of the classifier
3. The overall classification of the message
4. The overall classification of the first page

Front 373

Personnel security investigations for the department of the Navy are normally conducted or controlled by which of the following organizations?

Back 373

1. Defense Investigative Service
2. Naval Investigative Service
3. Defense Intelligence Agency
4. National Security Agency

Front 374

What investigation of civilian applicants requires a check of federal agency files plus inquiries to former employers, supervisors law enforcement agencies references, and schools?

Back 374

1. National agency check
2. Background investigation
3. National agency check and inquiry
4. Special background investigation

Front 375

What type of investigation includes an NAC of the individual’s spouse?

Back 375

1. National agency check and inquiry
2. Special background investigation
3. Special investigative inquiry
4. Background investigation