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224 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is a coliphage?
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a bacteriophage that infects the bacterium Escherichia coli
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Of the three ways a virus enters a cell, when a virus envelope joins with the cell lipid bilayer, it is called ______.
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Membrane fusion.
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What part of the virus enters the cell via membrane fusion? List two components.
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The capsid and genetic material.
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In membrane fusion, the virus enters the cell and undergoes uncoding. What is this?
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When genetic material leaves the capsid and enters cell.
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In a another type of a virus entry, a virus is phagocytized leaving it in an ________ where it then releases ______ ______ into the cell.
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endosome; genetic material
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When a virus translocated it has its ________ _______ across the cell _______.
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genetic material; membrane.
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Two types of animal virus replication is ________ and _______.
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lysis; exocytosis (budding)
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In virus lysis, what happens to the cell membrane? What happens to the cell?
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The cell membrane tears apart. The cell dies.
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In virus exocytosis, the excretes a part of its ______. Describe how the cell dies.
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membrane; The cell dies by an eventual removing of its membrane until it can no longer live.
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A virus with its genetic material produces +mRNA. What is the orginal genetic material?
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dsDNA or - RNA ssRNA
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What types of genetic material in viruses are translated to complementary ds RNA?
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Viruses with - RNA and + RNA produced +/-RNA (or dsRNA)
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What type of virus directly translates into proteins?
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+ RNA
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If you have measles or influenza, you have what type virus genetic material?
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- RNA
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Viral ds DNA is taken by the host and what two processes happens to it>
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1. mRNA production
2. Viral dsDNA production |
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Retrovirus + RNA from a virus is turned into what form?
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+ RNA/ - DNA.
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In a retrovirus, + RNA/ - DNA is turned into ______ by a ribonuclease.
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-DNA.
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What happens to the - DNA from a + RNA retrovirus?
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The complementary (+ DNA) strand is made. Thus creating (+DNA/-DNA or dsDNA).
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What two purposes is + DNA/-DNA made for in a + RNA retrovirus.
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It is used to make + RNA and + mRNA.
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What enzyme causes the - DNA to become - DNA/+ DNA (dsDNA?
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reverse transcriptase
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What is proviral DNA from a retrovirus known as?
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dsDNA
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In - RNA and + RNA, the replicative form (-RNA/+RNA) comes from the virus RNA. What does the -RNA/+RNA do?
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It is used to reproduce copies of the orginal RNA creating virions.
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A general term for a long lasting infection from a virus.
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persistent virus
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I am a long lasting peristent virus and always detectable virus.
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chronic infection
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This persistant virus is long lasting and dormant.
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latent infection (latency)
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You have HIV. Classify by genetic material and by type of persistance.
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+ RNA retrovirus; chronic
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You notice you have hepatitis. It never seems you leave you. It is a _____ infection.
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chronic
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Epstein-Barr is a type of _____ virus (general class of virus it is). The type of persistance is _____.
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Herpes; latent
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What is a neoplasm?
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a tumor
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How does a virus cause cancer?
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It viral nucleic acid is incorporated into its genome.
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True or false - Cancer attacks certain people populations over others.
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True
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Give evidence of cancer attacking by population type.
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High incidence rates have been found in sub tropical Africa.
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Epstein-Barr virus cause which type of cancer?
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Burkitt's lymphoma
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Cervical cancer is from what virus?
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human papillomavirus
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Prion are notorious for causing what agricultural disease?
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Mad cow disease or BSE (Bovine spongiform encephalopathy)
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Prion is a _______ ______ _______.
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Infectious protein particle
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How do prions replicate?
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Self-replication (note, this is not clearly understood)
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Which of the following diseases could you get? Scapie, Creutzfelt-Jacob disease, BSE, Kuru
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Only Creutzfelt-Jacob disease and Kuru. Scrapie is sheep, BSE bovine (cows).
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An infectius RNA particle is a ______.
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viroid
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A cow has red eyes, it may have a ______.
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prion
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A plant shows distorted growth from something interacting with its RNA polymerase II. It is a _____.
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viroid
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If you have hepatitis D, you probably have prion/ viroid / bad choice in a partner.
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viroid
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Viroid have capsids. True/false
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False. (though they may use the capsids of other viruses such as hepatitis B to cause hepatitis D)
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What is a close association between two species of organisms?
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symbiosis
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Symbiosis is good for both organisms involved? true or false
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false
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Mutualism is good for both organisms involved. True or false
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true
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When one species benefies and the other does not, it is called _______.
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commenalism
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The type of symbiosis that involves a mosquito is called _____.
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parasitism
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A marine nematode and sulfide oxidizing bacteria is an example of ________
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mutualism
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Why is gut commensalism sometimes considered mutualism?
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Because the gut bacteria may actually benefit the organism by preventing other more harmful bacteria from colonizing the gut.
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What type of symbiosis is normally found on the surface of the human body?
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mutualists or commensals
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Bacteria that is living permanent on your body is called ______.
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resident
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Bacteria not so permanent are ______.
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transient
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Which of the following places would you expect to find a large diversity of microflora?
skin, urethra track, mouth, veins, large intestine |
skin, mouth, large intestine
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Clostridium difficile normally resides in the ___________
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large intestine
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Clostridium difficile is causing you to produce watery diarrhea. Why?
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Antibiotics has killed the normal bacteria, causing the C. difficle to flourish and produce a toxin.
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E. coli from the colon, can easily cause a infectin problem in the urinary tract. Why?
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The urinary tract is sterile. E. coli grows easily there.
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The lower repiratory tract is sterile. T/F
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True
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An IV picks up mircroflora from the skin and enters the blood. Explain what happens next and why.
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An infection occurs in the blood because it is sterile.
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An indigenous pathogen might reproduce rapidy in a low competitive area, in a sterile area, or when what system shuts down?
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the immune system
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What is spread of disease from one host to another by close interaction?
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contact transmission
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If you catch a diease from a non-living substance transporting the pathogen, you would assume ______ transmission occured.
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vehicle
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What is spread of disease from host to host by means of a living organism acting to transport the pathogen?
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vector transmission
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A communicable disease is a a type of ______ transmisiion in which you get a disease from ______ to _______.
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contact; human to human
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You notice you have bloody diaherra. You assume you have shigellosis. You probably caught it from which of the following: touching poop, having sex with a shigellosis victim, born with it, eating food with shigellosis fly poop
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touching poop (fecal matter) or eating food with fly poop (oral transmission)
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Syphilis is conidered to be a communicable/zoonotic disease and transfered sexually/ oral-fecal/ vertical and is an example of direct/ indirect.
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communicable
sexually and vertical |
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If you catch meascles, it means you caught a direct/ indirect diease by means by _______ traveling through the air.
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indirect
droplets |
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You catch a disease from fomites, this is a form of ______ transmission
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vehicle (also considered a form of indirect contact)
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A communicable is a type of ____ transmission. It has two types of categories. What are they are how are they different.
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Contact;
Direct and indirect. Direct is from one human to another human. indirect is human, to inanimate object to other human |
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High fever in addition to a blood urine test shows you have leptospirosis. You probably caught that disease from:
1.contaminated water from your pet Fifi's urine 2. From your buddy "bubba" 3. a parasite seeking revenge |
contaminated urine water from your pet fifi (zoonitc disease)
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When an infected organism sheds a pathogen on an object, that ojbect becomes a ______.
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vehicle
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You notice your lungs bleeding and pneumonia due to fungal spores. You notice it started in the office on a hot day. You caught it from air conditioning/a coworker and presume it to be ________ transmission. bonus: the disease is _______
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air conditioning; vehicle; stachybotrys
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You catch giardia by means of _____ transmission in the ______.
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vehicle; water
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Giardia and rotavirus infect the throat. true / false
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False, they are gastrointestinal diseases
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Salmonella is caught by what activity?
water/ air/ food |
food
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Tuberculosis, influenza, fungal infections are respiratory diseases that travel through the _______.
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air
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What is a invertebrate animal that parasitizes a vertebrate animal?
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a vector
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Typhoid mary is an example of a mechanic/biological vector.
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mechanical. She carried the pathogen only to bring it to a new host.
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A pathogen uses a vector as part of its life cycle. It is considered a _______ vector.
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biological.
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A human body louse transmits a disease. A mosquito transmits malaria. This is called a mechanical/biological vector type.
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mechanical
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A vector disease in which a human originates the diease is called non-communicable / zoonotic diseae.
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non-communicable disease
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You have murine typhus disease, you realize you have a non-communicable / zoonotic disease.
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zoonotic (comes from a flea)
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Name 2 host factors that affect disease transmission.
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1. number of hosts
2. host immune system |
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What is ID(sub)50.
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50 refers to the amount of pathogens needed so that 50 percent of test subjects come down with disease
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Three main factors affect disease transmission abbreviated by HEP. What are they?
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host, environment, pathogens
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A ______ is a place where pathogens exist when not causing disease.
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reservoir
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Name three reservoir types.
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Animal, human, non-living
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An animal acting as a reservoir can only transfer it if it is not infected. t/f
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False
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Another name for a human reservoir is a ________.
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carrier
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What reservoir is vibrio cholerae found in?
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water
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West nile virus, it comes from _____ reservoir.
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animal
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Tenatus can be found in the water/soil/ an animal.
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soil
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The three events to bacteria causing disease is gaining access, multiplying, then overcoming host defense. How does tetanus differ at step 2, multiplying?
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Tetanus works by
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If a small area of skin is found to have a staph infection, then it is described as a ______ pattern of damage.
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localized
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This is a method of tissue damage. One bacteria, Clostridium botulinum, specilizes this. What is the tissue damage?
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toxins
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The second tissue damage involves is seen to break peptide bonds. This category is ______.
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enzymes
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Host defense mechanism does not cause tissue damange. True of false
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false, (it can harm the body and is the third type of tissue damage)
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A disease spreads to multiple organs. It is _______.
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systemic
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A typical infection starts in incubation and moves into what phase?
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prodromal stage
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What characterizes the prodromal phase?
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Symptoms which seem like weakness and fatigue.
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After prodromal phase, the infection enters _______.
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the period of invasion
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Period of invasion is intensified by ________.
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an increase in symptoms which go up and are more specific.
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The last stage of infection is _________ period.
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convalescent
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The convalescent period is marked by what?
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the treatment or immune system decreasing the number of microbes
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What is the degree or intensity of a pathogen ability to cause disease called?
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virulence
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A category of virulence. It describes how deep a pathogen goes into the flesh.
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invasiveness
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Describe the difference between sign and symptom.
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symptom- something the patient verbally reports
signs - something the physician can gather from examining the patient |
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What is the difference between ID50 and LD50.
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ID50 is the dose needed to infect half the population. LD50 is dose required to kill half the members of a tested population.
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What is a specific characteristic or aspect of a pathogen that is responsible (either in whole or in part) for the pathogens ability to cause disease?
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virulence factors
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This virulence factor that refers to cell parts such as fimbraie is _________.
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external structure
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The virulence factor that refers to proteins that can break down the structures of other cells is ________.
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enzymes
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This virulence factor causes one to show very violenct symptoms due to the nature of its particles. It is ________.
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Toxins
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This virulence factor includes lipotechoic acids and mycolic acids. It is ______ /_______
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cell wall/ membrane components
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What external cell structure is used for the attachment of bacteria to surface of host cells?
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fimbraie
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If N. gonorrhoeae has its fimbraie removed, what major result happens?
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It can't attach to the membranes of epithelial cells and cause disease.
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How does Streptococcus pneumoniae prevent phagocytosis?
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It has a capsule and has techoic and lipotechoic acids.
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Where are techoic and lipotechoic acids found?
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the cell wall components
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What two functions do techoic and lipotechoic acids?
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1. prevents destruction by certain host immune system chemicals
2. aids in attachment to host cells |
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What does LPS stand for?
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lipopolysaccharide
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Though LPS is a normal cell wall component, to mammals it acts as an _______.
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toxin
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Is LPS found normally in gram + or gram - cells?
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Gram -
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae attaches to what type of cell?
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epithelial cell
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LPS acts as a toxin causes which effects. (choose 3)
-depression/ fever / abnormal growth / inflammation / blood loss / cardiovascular shock / diarrhea |
fever, inflammation, and cardiovascular shock
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Mycobacteria are notorious for having what lipid?
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mycolic acid
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What are synthesized in the bacteria and purposely secreted outside for particular tasks?
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Exoenzymes
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Exoenzymes help the host gain _______ and _______ to the host.
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nutrients; access
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What does hyaluronidase break down?
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hyaluronidase acids
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What is the purpose of hyaluronidase acid?
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they hold cells together
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Exotoxins and endotoxins are different. Which one are primarly lipid, and which one primarily proteins.
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exotoxins - proteins
endotoxins - protein |
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Vaccines target which best, endotoxins or exotoxins?
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exotoxins
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AB toxin is an endo or exo toxin?
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exo
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What are the two components in the AB toxin?
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A unit- toxic enzymatic unit
B unit- binding unit |
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What are the two types of membrane-disrupting toxins?
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pore-forming toxins; phospholipase toxin
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Pore toxins enlarge pores in membrane. What effect does this have?
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The cell loses its ability to have selective transport.
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The _______ toxin enzymatically disupts cell membrane lipids.
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phospholipase
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The phospholipase clips off the polar head group. How does this disrupt the membrane?
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The phospholipids are stable only with a polar and non polar tail. Clipping the head causes the lipid to leave the membrane or sink into the non polar portions of the membrane.
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Hemolysins are a class of phospholipase that breaks down what?
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red blood cells
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The popular anthrax toxin used in the mail is an example of what type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin |
AB toxin
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Leukocidins are what type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin |
pore forming
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The chlorea toxin, is found in Vibrio cholerae which is used in _______ transmission, specifically in ________.
It uses what toxin? pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin |
vehicle; water; AB toxin
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The genus streptolysins use which type of toxin?
pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin |
phospholipase
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Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a lethal toxin called diptheria toxin.
It uses what toxin? pore forming, phospholipase, AB toxin |
AB toxin (The lethal dose for humans is about 0.1 μg/kg)
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If you catch Vibrio cholera? The disease will occur in the heart/ small intestine / wound. It causes which major symptom?
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small intestine; hpersecretory diarrhea
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Disease mechanisms are divided into methods of tissue damage, patterns of damage, and time course of infection. What are the two categories of time course infection?
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acute and chronic
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How might a bacteria with mycolic acid grow undetected by WBCs in humans?
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The mycolic acid prevents it from being destroyed by lysosomes. The bacteria grows in the lysosomes undetected.
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The categories of exotoxins such as AB toxin and membrane disrupting toxins use what criteria to create the categories?
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general mechanism of action
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Besides from general mechanism of action, what is the other way to categorize exotoxins?
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Cell/tissue the toxin effects
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One category of exotoxins are hemolysins and leukocidins.
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They lyse cells by interfering with their membrane.
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Another category of exotoxins is the ____________. They affect the GI tract and are notorious for E. coli problems and food poisoning.
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enterotoxins.
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What toxin category includes products from Clostridium and damages the brain?
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neurotoxin (includes Clostridium botulinum and Clostridum tetani).
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What toxin category includes Corynebacterium diphtheriae's toxin, which effects heart, nerve and other cells?
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multiple effects toxin
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What immune defense category is present at birth?
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innate
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What immune defense category is mainly developed after birth?
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acquired
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What immune defense category la cks specificity?
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innate
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What immune defense category does not activate immediately?
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acquired
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The chemical pH in the stomach is considered the second line of defense. T/F
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False. first
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What is the first line of defense that pushes up mucous through the respiratory tract?
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cilia
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What is produced by the skin's sebaceous glands that act somewhat anti-bacterial?
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fatty acids
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What is a molecule that acts as a binding enhancer for the process of phagocytosis
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opsonin
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What immune defense category does not activate immediately?
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acquired
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The chemical pH in the stomach is considered the second line of defense. T/F
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False. first
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What is the first line of defense that pushes up mucous through the respiratory tract?
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cilia
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What is produced by the skin's sebaceous glands that act somewhat anti-bacterial?
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fatty acids
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What is a molecule that acts as a binding enhancer for the process of phagocytosis
|
opsonin
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Give an example of an opsonin
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An antibody or C3B.
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Antibodies come from the ______ immune system.
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acquired
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C3b proteins come from the ______ system.
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complement
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This is a biochemical cascade of the immune system to help clear pathogens from the human body.
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the complement system.
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What is the difference between antigen and antibody?
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Antigen is a substance, (usually foreign) that promotes the production of antibodies.
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A phagosome is created. If it fuses with a lysosome, it becomes a _________?
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phagolysosome
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Which of the following are reactive oxygen intermediates (ROI)?
superoxide radical hyperoxide radical (R),(-) oxide radical |
superoxide radical
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Hydrogen peroxide is a reactive osygen intermediate. T/F
|
true
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What is a rapid release of reactive oxygen species from different types of cells known as?
|
respiratory burst
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__________ is a response of tissue to injury
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Inflammation
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A man once said, the inflammation pathway is abbreviated by RCTD. What does that stand for?
|
Rubor
calor tumor dolor |
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Match the following stages with the symptom
rubor -swelling; calor -heat; tumor -pain; dolor -read; |
- rubor – red
- calor – heat - tumor – swelling - dolor – pain |
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The first response to nail puncturing is your skin turning pale. What phase is this?
|
vasocontriction
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Mast cells are involved in vasoconstriction. What are mast cells?
|
a cell that releases imflammatory mediators
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What step after a nail puncture procedes vasodilation?
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vasocontriction
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The third step is of nail puncture response is when ______ and _______ are attracted to the area and squeeze through the capillary wall to the damage.
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neutrophils; monocytes
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The ________ migrate in the fourth step to _____ the blood vessel wall.
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fibroblasts; repair
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In vasoconstriction, what family of cell adhesion molecules attract neutrophils?
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selectins
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In inflammation, mast cells release _________ in order to help the cell.
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histamine, (move chemicals and a completion of the immune response follows)
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When an injury occurs, mast cells undergo an influx of _______ causing _________, messenger molecule, levels to rise.
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calcium, cAMP
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Where do selectins, neutrophil recruiting molecules, come from?
|
within the capillaries
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You notice a wound on someone, you assume that it is lower/higher than normal
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low
|
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Histamine released from mast cells causes what effect on capillaries?
|
vasodilation (increased blood flow)
|
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A low pH releases _________ from the wound, which cause mast cells to release histamine from its granule pouches.
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bradykinins
|
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fill in blank
wound infection --> release selectins --> ______ attracted --> |
neutrophils
|
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wound infection --> low pH --> formation of bradykinin ---> mast cell activation --> capilaries widen --> increased plasma _________ --> more inflammatory chemicals --> neutralized _______ and waste
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permeability; infection
|
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What is some waste found toward the end of an infection?
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dead cells and a fibrin clot
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In addition to neutrophils, the neutralized infection by have also been attacked by _________.
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leukocytes
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This structure is used to wall off bacteria from the rest of the body. What is it?
|
granuloma
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The alternative, classical, and lectin pathway are all part of the __________ system.
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complement
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The proteins in the complement system are found primarily in what?
|
the plasma membrane and other body fluids
|
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Normally proteins in the plasma membrane are in what state?
|
inactivation
|
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The alternative path way begins with the cleavage of a protein called ______?
|
c3
|
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The alternative pathway is always cleaving protein c3 into protein c3a and c3b, yet it does not complete its pathway. Why does the pathway not complete?
|
The pathway does not complete because c3a and c3b fragments are quickly deactivated.
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The alternative pathway is always cleaving protein c3 into protein c3a and c3b, yet it does not complete its pathway. What causes it to complete its pathway?
|
The pathway completes when c3b binds to a pathogen with lipopolysaccharides (LPS) of gram - bacteria.
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The alternative pathway cascades into an event called membrane attack complex. What happens during this phase?
|
The complex "punches a hole" through the membrane, leading to cell lysis.
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The alternative pathway puts holes in gram ______ bacteria.
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negative
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All three pathways, alternative, classical, and lectin differ in their ________ but are similar that that they reach the similar product of _____________.
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initiation; c3 convertase
|
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What is lectin?
|
It is a protein thit binds to certain carbohydrates.
|
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How is the lectin pathway activated?
|
Mannan-binding lectin (aka mannose-binding protein) MBP binds to mannose found on a pathogen surface.
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The classical pathway is considered specific because it requires ________ to initiate it.
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specific
|
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What makes lectin and laternative pathways innate?
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They react to hosts without using specificity.
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Alternative pathway leads to __________by coating gram + bacteria with c3b protein.
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opsoninization
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In the common c3 convertase pathway, like the initial part of the alternative pathway, the c3 protein break up into ____ and ___.
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c3a and c3b
|
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What protein from the complement pathway causes inflammation response due to histamine release?
|
c3a
|
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How does c3b aid in phagocytosis?
|
Pathogens with c3b attached are recognized by phagocytes.
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C3b is used as a catalyse in breaking down what?
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c5
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The protein _____ breaks c5 into ____ and _____.`
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c3b; c5a; c5b
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What does c5 assist in creating?
|
membrane attack complex (it punches a hole in the membrane of pathogen)
|
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The membrane makes of doughnut hole in the image of what protein?
|
the c9 protein
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I am a ______ pathogen because I am a parasite that can live and reproduce with or without a host organism.
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facultative
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I am a _________ pathogen because I am a parasite that must associate with a host in order to live and reproduce
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obligate
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I am a ______ pathogen because I am a parasite that needs a "normal" healthy host to live.
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strict
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I am a ______ pathogen because I require the host to have a special characteristic or predisposing host factor to cause disease.
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opportunistic
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What immune system defense line includes these of interferons and phagocytosis?
|
second defense
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What is the third line of defense?
|
It is the host creating specific defenses for each microbe through specialized WBCs.
|
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Immune serum is _______ immunity. It is considered active/ passive.
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artificial/ passive
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Maternal antibodies is ______ immunity. It is considered active/ passive.
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natural; passive
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The cholera toxin has a B subunit. The subunit is described as ________.
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5; it is decribed as p
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The cholera toxin increases Cl- secretion by doing what?
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Permanetly activating adenylate cyclase, causing a conversion of ATP --> cAMP
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What should be studied after all these flashcards?
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figures from the internet. A a document summary can be obtained from zaid, sean, kevin, mike, liza, and possibly others.
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