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283 Cards in this Set
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1.)a decrease or loss in virulence 2.)the presence of microorganisms in the blood 3.)a dense, well-defined polysaccharide or protein layer closely surrounding a cell 4.)the growth of a microorganism after it has gained access to host tissues 5.)tooth decay resulting from bacterial infection |
attenuation bacteremia capsule colonization dental caries |
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1.)bacterial cells encased in a matrix or extracellular polymers and salivary products, found on the teeth 2.)an injury to a host organism, caused by a pathogen or other factor, that affects host function 3.)the lipopolysaccharide portion of the cell envelope of most gram-negative Bacteria, which is a toxin when solubilized |
dental plaque disease endotoxin
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1.)a protein released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows that produces immediate damage to the small intestine of the host 2.)a protein released extracellularly by a microorganism as it grows that produces immediate host cell damage 3.)an organism that can harbor a pathogen |
enterotoxin exotoxin host |
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1.)a microorganism not a member of the local flora is established and grows in a host, whether or not the host is harmed 2.)degree to which an organism is able to spread through the body from a focus of infection. 3.)the trachea, bronchi, and lungs 4.)layer of mucus-covered epithelial cells that interact with the external environment |
infection invasiveness lower respiratory tract mucous membrane |
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1.)a liquid secretion that contains water-soluble glycoproteins and proteins that retain moisture and aid in resistance to microbial invasion on mucosal surfaces 2.)microorganisms that are usually found associated with healthy body tissue 3.)Originating or taking place in a hospital, acquired in a hospital, especially in reference to an infection |
mucus norma microbial flora nosocomial infection |
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1.)an organism that causes disease in the absence of normal host resistance 2.)An organism that grows, feeds, and is sheltered on or in a different organism while contributing nothing to the survival of its host. 3.)an organism, usually a microorganism, that grows in or on a host and causes disease |
opportunistic pathogen parasite pathogen |
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1.)the ability of a pathogen to cause disease 2.)a live microorganism that, when administered to a host, may confer a health benefit 3.)a diffuse layer of polymer fibers, typically polysaccharides, that forms an outer surface layer on the cell |
pathogenicity probiotic slime layer |
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1.)the ability of an organism to cause disease by means of preformed toxin that inhibits host cell function or kills host cells 2.)the nasopharynx, oral cavity, and throat 3.)the relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease 4.)__are microorganisms usually found associated with human body tissue |
toxicity upper respiratory tract virulence normal microbial flora |
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1.)are humans colonized by bacteria at birth? 2.)what bacteria is found on the skin 3.)mammalian hosts are rich in organic nutrients and growth factors required by bacteria and provide conditions of controlled __, __and temperature that are favorable for the growth of microorganisms 4.)__cause diseases by infection, intoxication or allergy
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yes staphylococcus pH, osmotic pressure pathogens |
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1.)__is the ability to cause damage or disease 2.)__is the quantitative measure of pathogenicity 3.)__causes disease only in the absence of normal resistance 4.)what is an example of opportunistic pathogens 5.)scientific name for yeast 6.)with yeast infections, they kill off the __ in the intestines and yeast will grow causing yeast infections |
pathogenicity virulence opportunistic pathogen yeast infections Candida albicans bacteria |
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1.)__means to growth, it is a situation in which a microbe is established and growing in a host, whether or not the host is harmed 2.)__is damage or injury to the host that impairs host function 3.)infections frequently begin at sites in the animals __ 4.)the skin is generally a __, __environment that does not support the growth of most microorganisms |
infection disease mucous membrane dry, acid |
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1.)one distinct microenvironment includes moist skin areas such as the inside of the __, the __, and the __ 2.)another microenvironment consist of areas with high concentrations of sebaceous glands that produce oily substance called __ 3.)where are some sebaceous areas 4.)moist sites were colonized by what bacteria |
nostril, armpit, umbilicus sebum side of the nose, back of the scalp, upper chest staphylococcus, corynebacteria |
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1.)betaproteobacterua, corynebacteria, and flavobacteriales were found in what sites 2.)propionibacteria and staphylocci were found at what sites 3.)malassezia is what? 4.)in the absence of host resistance, as in patients with AIDS or whose normal microflora has been compromised, __and other fungi can colonize the skin and cause serious infections |
dry sebaceous most common fungi found on skin Candida |
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1.)can the weather effect normal skin flora? 2.)the age of host also has an effect on flora, young children have a more varied microflora and carry more potentially pathogenic gram __bacteria than do adults 3.)can personal hygiene effect micro flora growth 4.)other organisms cannot colonize the skin because of its low __content and __pH |
yes (increase in skin temp or moisture) negative yes (poor hygiene=more micro flora) moisture, acidic |
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1.)most areas(sweat glands) of the skin are readily colonized by gram __bacteria and other normal flora of the skin 2.)the oral cavity is a complex, __(diverse in character or content) microbial habitat 3.)saliva contain microbial nutrients, but it is a not good medium because the nutrients are present in __concentration and saliva contains antibacterial substances |
positive heterogeneous low |
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1.)saliva contains antimicrobial enzymes such as __, which is an enzyme that cleaves glycosidic linkages in peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell wall, weakening the wall and causing cell lysis 2.)another enzyme called __found in milk and saliva kills bacteria by a reaction in which singlet oxygen is generated |
lysozyme lactoperoxidase |
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1.)do high concentrations of nutrients near surfaces in the mouth promote localized microbial growth? 2.)the toot consist of a mineral matrix (__) and surrounding living tissue (__, __) 3.)bacteria found in the mouth during the first years of life (no teeth) are predominantly __such as streptococci and lactobacilli |
yes enamel, dentin, pulp aerotolerant anaerobes |
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1.)once the teeth appear, most bacteria in the mouth are __ 2.)when the teeth appear, the newly created surfaces are colonized by anaerobes and they grow on __ 3.)most abundant bacteria in the mouth 4.)what is streptococcus in reference to oxygen 5.)bacteria colonize tooth surfaces by first attaching to acidic __deposited there by saliva |
anaerobic biofilms streptococcus obligant anaerobe glycoproteins |
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1.)extensive growth of oral microorganisms, especially streptococci, results in a thick bacterial layer (___) 2.)so as plaque continues to develop, __bacterial species begin to grow 3.)metagenomic analysis of human microflora in the mouth show a complex microbial community, most microorganisms are ___ (a microorganism that lives and grows in the presence of free oxygen |
dental plaque anaerobic faculatively aerobic |
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1.)are some micro flora in the mouth obligately anerobic or obligately aerobic 2.)as dental plaque accumulates, the microorganisms produce high concentrations of __ 3.)what does the high acid result in? 4.)the lactic acid causes what? |
yes acid decalcification of the tooth enamel-dental carries enamel to breakdown
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1.)the lactic acid bacteria __and __are common agents in dental caries 2.)the human GI tract consist of what organs 3.)the __is responsible for food, absorption of nutrients, and production of nutrients by indigenous microbial flora 4.)the GI tract contains __to __microbial cells 5.)does the stomach usually have bacteria? why |
1.)streptococcus sobrinus and streptococcus mutans 2.)stomach, small intestines, large intestines 3.)GI Tract 4.)10 to the 13, 10 to the 14 5.)no too acidic |
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1.)microbial populations in different areas of the GI tract are influenced by __and the __conditions of the area 2.)the acidity of the __and __of the small intestines (ph about 2) prevents many organisms from colonizing the GI tract 3.)intestinal microorganisms carry out a variety of essential __reactions that produce various compounds |
diet, physical stomach, duodenum metabolic |
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1.)the type and amounts of compounds produced is influenced by the composition of the intestinal __and the __ 2.)the compounds produced include __, __, __, __ and __ 3.)Helicobacter pylori causes ulcers where? 4.)does the pH become less acidic from the duodenum to the ileum |
flora, diet vitamins, gas, organic acids, odor, enzymes stomach yes |
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1.)E. coli, found in the large intestines, is a __aerobe 2.)the facultative aerobes consume any remaining __, which makes the large intestine strictly anoxic 3.)anoxia promotes the growth of obligate anaerobes such as __and __species in the large intestines |
facultative oxygen Clostridium, Bacteroides
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1.)the products of microflora of the intestines is the vitamins __and __ which are essential vitamins not produced by humans 2.)do microflora modify bile acids 3.)when an antibiotic is taken orally it __the growth of normal flora as well as the targeted pathogen, leading to a loss of antibiotic susceptible bacteria in the intestinal tract, often signaled by voiding or loose feces |
b12, K yes inhibits |
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1.)in the absence of full complement of normal flora, ___ pathogens such as antibiotic resistance Staphylococcus, Proteus, clostridium difficle, or the yeast Candida albicans can become established and can affect digestive functions or actually cause disease 2.)example is antibiotic resistant treatment allows bacteria such as C. difficle that are less susceptible to antibiotics to grow with __from the normal flora, causing infection and colitis |
opportunistic competition |
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1.)when antibiotic therapy ends, does the normal flora quickly reestablish in adults 2.)to speed up the process, recolonization of the gut by desired species can be accomplished by the administration of __, which is live cultures of intestinal bacteria that, when administered to a host, may confer a health benefit |
yes probiotics |
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1.)rapid recolonization of the gut may reestablish a competitive local flora that can outcompete __and provide desirable microbial metabolic products 2.)in the upper respiratory tract, microorganisms live in areas bathed with secretions from the __membranes 3.)how do bacteria enter the upper respiratory tract |
pathogens mucous breathing in air, swallowed mucus |
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1.)staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus penumoniae, diptheroid bacilli, and gram negative cocci are part of the normal flora in the __of healthy individuals 2.)why don't strep and staph develop disease in the respiratory tract? 3.)are there typically microflora in the lower respiratory tract 4.)what disease would you expect to be caused in the lower respiratory tract |
nasopharynx other microorganisms compete successfully no pneumonia |
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1.)what is in the urogenital tract 2.)in healthy male and female urogenital tracts, are the kidneys and bladder sterile 3.) epithelial cells lining the distal urethra colonized by faculatively aerobic gram __ bacteria?
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bladder and kidneys yes negative
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1.)can E. coli and Proteus mirabilis(both in small numbers) multiply in the urethra and cause disease if conditions (change in pH) occur 2.)the vagina of the adult female is weakly __ and contains significant amounts of __ 3.)__and __frequently cause urinary tract infections in women |
yes acidic, glycogen E. coli and P. mirabilis tissue |
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1.)__is a resident organism in the vagina and it ferments the polysaccharide glycogen, producing lactic acid that maintains a local acidic environment 2.)is it true that before puberty, L. acidophilus is absent and the vagina is neutral and does not produce glycogen? |
lactobacillus acidophilus yes |
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1.)is it true that the flora before puberty consist of predominantly staphylococci, streptococci, ditheroids, and E. coli? 2.)after menopause, __production ceases, the pH __, and the flora again resembles that found before puberty 3.)urine contains (__nitrogen source) is in the balder and it also contains __, its temperature is __, and it also consist of __and __ |
yes glycogen, rises urea, water, 37 (body temperature), sugar, salt |
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1.)normal flora for skin 2.)normal flora for mouth 3.)normal flora for bladder 4.)normal flora for vagina 5.)normal flora for cerebral spinal fluid 6.)normal flora for respiratory tract 7.)normal flora for colon |
staphlococcus streptococci nothing Lactobacillus nothing nothing E. coli (gram negative rods) |
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1.)lactobacillus acidophilus is a resident organism in the vagina and it ferments glycogen producing __, which maintains a local acidic environment 2.)microbial __is the process by which microorganisms cause disease 3.)__is the relative ability of a pathogen to cause disease 4.)etiological agent(pathogen) of strep throat |
lactic acid pathogenesis virulence streptococcus pyogenes |
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1.)how do you get strep throat and how does it enter the body 2.)virulence factors associated with strep throat 3.)how does the pathogen cause disease 4.)how does the body respond to strep |
1.)someone that has the infection, kiss, drink, eat, kids toys, enters through the mouth 2.)beta-hemolysins lyse RBC 3.)makes proteins which adhere factors, it adheres to the epithelial cells in the throat 4.)inflammation then fever. body makes antibodies against the pathogen but it takes a couple of weeks |
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1.)what is treatment for strep throat 2.)infection=__, while toxin=__ 3.)to diagnose strep throat, you would do a throat swab and culture it on __and you would see gram __chains 4.)you can also do a __test, which is a swab kit that has anti S. pyogenes antibodies 5.)S. pyogenes is the __ and a positive test means what? |
antibodies which kills strep growth, hemolysin blood agar (B-hemolysis), positive quick antigen, strep is present |
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1.)virulence can be measured in experimental studies of the __the number of cells of a pathogen that kills 50% of the animals in a test group 2.)highly virulent pathogens frequently show little difference in the number of cells required to kill __% of the test group as compared with the number required to kill 50% |
LD50 (lethal dose 50) 100 |
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1.)are only a few cells of S. pneumonia is required to establish a fatal infection and kill mice in a test population 2.)is it true that the LD50 for S. pneumonia in mice is not proportional to the number of cells delivered and is difficult to accurately determine 3.)does Salmonella enterica serovar Typhimurium require more cells and is 10,000 fold greater than the highly virulent S. pneumonia |
yes yes yes |
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1.)__is when an organism causes disease by means of a toxin that inhibits host cell function or kills host cells 2.)toxins can travel to sites within the host not inhabited by __ 3.)when pathogens are kept in lab cultures rather than isolated from diseased animals, is their virulence decreased or completely lost? |
toxicity pathogen yes |
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1.)attenuation probably occurs because nonvirulent or weakly virulent __grow faster than virulent strains in lab media (where virulence has no selective advantage) 2.)if attenuated culture is reinoculated into an animal, the organism may regain its original __, but in many cases a loss of virulence is permanent |
mutations virulence |
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1.)measles, mumps, rubella vaccines, and rabies vaccines for animals other than humans employ __strains of each virus 2.)__is the ability of a pathogen to grow in host tissue at densities that inhibit host function, which can cause damage without producing a toxin |
attenuated invasiveness |
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1.)many pathogens use a combination of toxins, invasiveness, and other virulence factors to enhance __ 2.)bacteria or viruses able to initiate infection often adhere to __cells 3.)pathogens often adhere to each other forming __ 4.)__is the enhanced ability of a microorganism to attach to a cell or surface |
pathogenicity epithelial biofilms adherence |
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1.)some macromolecules responsible for bacterial adherence are not covalently attached to the bacteria, these surface molecules are collectively known as a __, which is a polymer secreted by a bacterium that coats the surface of the bacterium 2.)a loose network of polymers extending outward from a cell is called a __ |
glycocalyx slime layer |
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1.)a coat consisting of a dense well defined polymer layer surrounding the cell is called a __ 2.)are slime layers and capsules important for adherence to other bacteria as well as host tissue 3.)influenza virus targets lung mucosal cells and attaches specifically to lung epithelial cells by way of the protein ___present on the virus surface |
capsule yes hemagglutinin |
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1.)do fimbriae and pili function in the attachment process 2.)are pili longer and have fewer on the cell surface 3.)for pathogen invasion, it starts at the site of __, and may spread throughout the host via the __or __systems 4.)a pathogen must usually gain access to host tissues and __before damage can be done |
yes yes adherence, circulatory, lymphatic multiply and colonize |
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1.)__is the ability of a pathogen to enter into host cells or tissues, spread, and cause disease 2.)if bacterial growth occurs, organisms may cause __, the presence of bacteria in the bloodstream, from where they can travel to distant parts of the body 3.)spread of the pathogen through the blood and lymph systems can also result in a bloodborne systemic infection called __, and the organism may spread to other tissue |
invasion bacteremia septicemia |
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1.)bacteria and viruses that initiate infection often adhere specifically to epithelial cells through __interactions(glcocalyx) on the surfaces of the pathogen and the host cell 2.)extracellular macromolecules that are not covalently attached to the bacterial cell like __and __ are facilitate bacterial adherence 3.)following colonization, a pathogen must usually invade __to initiate disease
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macromolecule slime layers and capsules tissue |
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1.)the availability of __is most important in affecting pathogen growth 2.)can pathogens grow locally at the site of invasion or may spread throughout the body? 3.)does growth of a microorganism on a host always cause host damage 4.)host proteins called __and __are very high affinity iron-binders and function to hide iron in the host, which limits infection |
nutrients yes no transferrin, lactoferrin |
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1.)many pathogens produce iron chelating compounds called __to counter host iron sequestration (hide away) 2.)plaque is basically what 3.)pathogens produce enzymes that enhance virulence by breaking down or altering host tissue to provide access to __ |
siderophores biofilm nutrients |
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1.)Streptococci, staphylococci, and certain clostridia produce __, which is an enzyme that promotes spreading of organisms in tissues by breaking down the polysaccharide hyaluronic acid 2.)pathogens also produce enzymes to protect the pathogen by interfering with normal host __mechanisms |
hyaluronidase defense |
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1.)clostridia that cause gas gangrene produce __, which destroys collagen and enables these organisms to spread through the body 2.)some pathogens produce enzymes that actually promote the formation of fibrin clots (insoluble blood protein that forms clots), these clots protect the pathogen from host __
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collagenase responses |
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1.)staphylococcus aureus produces __, which causes insoluble fibrin to be deposited on S. aureus cells protecting them from attack by host cells 2.)the fibrin matrix produced as a result of coagulase activity may account for the localized nature of many staphylococcal infections, as in boils and __ 3.)coagulase __S. aureus strains are usually more virulent than coagulase __strains |
coagulase pimples positive, negative |
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1.)__is the ability of an organism to cause disease by means of a preformed toxin that inhibits host cell function or kills host cells 2.)__are toxic proteins released from the pathogen as it grows 3.)exotoxins fall into 3 categories in terms of mechanisms, they include __toxins, __ toxins and __toxins |
toxicity exotoxins cytolytic, AB, superantigen |
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1.)__toxins work by degrading cytoplasmic membrane integrity, causing cell lysis and death 2.)in reference to cytolytic toxins, toxins that lyse red blood cells are called __ 3.)staphylococcal __ toxin kills nucleated cells and lyses erythrocytes 4.)__lyse white blood cells and may decrease the host immune response |
cytotoxins hemolysins alpha leukocidins |
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1.)AB toxins consist of __subunits, what are they 2.)AB toxins work by binding to host cell receptors (__subunit) and transferring damaging agent (__subunit) across the cell membrane 3.)name three AB toxins 4.)__and __produce potent AB exotoxins that affect nervous tissue
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2, A & B B, A diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, botulinum toxin Clostridium Tetani and Clostridium botulinum
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1.)__toxin consists of several related AB toxins that are the most potent biological toxins known 2.)is tetanus toxin also an AB protein neurotoxin 3.)__are exotoxins whose activity affects the small intestine 4.)enterotoxins generally cause massive secretion of fluid into intestinal lumen, resulting in __and __ |
Botulinum yes enterotoxins vomiting, diarrhea |
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1.)what is an example of enterotoxins 2.)__are the toxic lipopolysaccharides found in most gram negative bacteria 3.)__is the lipopolysaccharide portion of the cell envelope of gram negative bacteria, which is a toxin when solubilized 4.)endotoxins are less __than exotoxins 5.)are endotoxins soluble products of growing bacteria like exotoxins |
cholera toxin endotoxins endotoxins toxic no |
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1.)the __portion of Lipopolysaccharide is responsible for toxicity 2.)the presence of endotoxin can be detected by the __assay 3.)because endotoxins induce fever, pharmaceuticals such as antibiotics and intravenous solutions must be free of __ |
lipid A Limulus amoebocyte lysate (LAL) endotoxin |
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1.)an endotoxin assay of very high sensitivity has been developed using lysates of amoebocytes from the __, Limulus polyphemus 2.)if endotoxin is present in LAL, the amoebocyte extract forms a __and precipitates, causes a change in __ 3.)host have __(natural) resistance to most pathogens |
horseshoe crab gel, turbidity innate |
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1.)is the ability of a particular pathogen to cause disease in an individual animal species highly variable, like rabies predominantly in raccoons and skunks 2.)is tissue specificity important in resistance to pathogens, such as needing specific nutrients for the pathogen to infect the host |
yes yes |
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1.)does physical and chemical barriers such as tight epithelial junctions and lactic acid secretions (increases pH) help the host resist pathogens 2.)__host is one in whom one or more resistance mechanisms are inactive and in whom the probability of infection is therefore increased 3.)what age groups are more likely to get a disease |
yes compromised very old and very young |
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1.)can stress cause you to get a disease? 2.)___plays a role in host susceptibility to infection 3.)certain __conditions can compromise a host 4.)__are proteins excreted from bacteria and cause damage to the host or person 5.)cytolytic=___ 6.)beta hemolytic is what? |
yes diet genetic exotoxins hemolysins total lyse of RBC |
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1.)what is alpha hemolytic? 2.)leukocidins do what? 3.)what bacterium is diphtheria toxin caused by 4.)what kind of exotoxin is diptheria 5.)Diptheria is a gram __ that looks like what? 6.)does diphtheria have spores
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partial lysis lyse WBC Corynebacterium diptheriae AB positive, Chinese leters no |
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1.)Diptheria is an upper respiratory pathogen and it adheres to __cells of the throat, then it grows and causes infection 2.)As diphtheria grows, it produces __toxin(exotoxin) 3.)diphtheria toxin disrupts __synthesis with the epithelial cells, and causes cell death. and what toxin functions similarly to diptheria 4.)antibiotics do what |
epithelial diptheria protein, Exotoxin A of Pseudomonas aeruginosa kill bacteria, stop infection |
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1.)toxin=__ 2.)what does antitoxin do? 3.)antibodies bind to the __ 4.)antigens are __ 5.)antigens cause your body to make? 6.)antibodies are in __ 7.)does antiserum block toxins? 8.)Cholera is a what? |
protein antibodies against the diphtheria toxin toxin protein antibodies serum yes AB type enterotoxin |
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1.)what bacteria is Cholera caused by 2.)Cholera is a gram __rod 3.)is Cholera an infection? 4.)Cholera is characterized by what? 5.)what does Cholera like? 6.)Cholera toxin blocks __absorption which causes __to leave the body and go to the small intestines, which lead to __ |
Vibrio cholera negative no, just an intoxication massive fluid loss in the intestines (diarrhea) brackish water, oyster (filter feeds) sodium, water, diarrhea |
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1.)what is the stools called? 2.)what is rice water stools 3.)what is the important thing with Cholera 4.)Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani are __forming bacteria 5.)where are the two types of bacteria stated in the above question found |
rice water epithelial cells from the intestines hydrate spore soil |
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1.)the bacteria in the above question occasionally cause disease in animals from highly poisonous AB exotoxins that function as ___ 2.)are C. botulinum and C, tetani very invasive? 3.)botulinum toxin and tetanus toxin both block the release of __ 4.)what neurotransmitter causes muscles to contract |
neurotoxins no, pathogenicity is due to neurotoxins neurotransmitters acetylcholine |
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1.)botulinum and tetnas toxins act on __ 2.)all clostridium are gram __, which makes __, and they are __ 3.)Tetanus=continue release of __ which leads to __ 4.)what is a specific condition of tetanus 5.)C. Tetani grows in the body where? |
nerves positive (rods), endospores, anaerobic acetylcholine, continual muscle contraction lock jaw deep wounds that become anoxic (punctures) |
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1.)when you step on a nail it causes a puncture wound, it doesn't bleed much so it is an __environment 2.)the spores germinate __to make toxin, then it goes to the blood and then out the body 3.)the treatment for Tetanus is the __vaccine 4.)the vaccine is basically what 5.)DPT vaccine is a __vaccine, meaning it is a weaker form of the toxin |
anaerobic vegetable cells DPT antibodies against the toxin toxoid |
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1.)your body then makes anti-toxin antibodies, which binds to the tetanus toxin to __it, which then binds to the nerve cells 2.)Botulism causes what? 3.)what does Botulism do to acetylcholine 4.)so basically, if botulism works on the diaphragm(smooth muscle), what will happen? |
neutralize flaccid (unresponsive muscles) paralysis stops the release of it it doesn't contract so you cant breath |
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1.)how can a doctor test for botulism? 2.)endotoxins are associated with gram __bacteria 3.)endotoxins are released when cell lysis, causing what? 4.)a soluble protein produced by B cells and plasma cells that interacts with antigen; also called immunoglobulin |
see if pupils dilate, Iris is smooth muscle negative drop in blood pressure and fever antibody |
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1.)the acquired ability to recognize and destroy a particular pathogen or its products, dependent on previous exposure to the pathogen or its products, also called specific immunity and antigen specific immunity 2.)a harmful immune reaction, usually caused by a foreign antigen in food, pollen, or chemicals, which results in immediate type or delayed type hypersensitivity |
adaptive immunity allergy |
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1.)immunity conferred to an individual through the activity of B cells and their progeny, which produce circulating antibodies in response to the presence of a foreign substance and recognize the substance upon renewed exposure. 2.)a molecule that interacts with specific components of the immune system |
antibody mediated immunity (humoral immunity antigen
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1.)the structural component of an antigen molecule responsible for its specific interaction with antibody molecules elicited by the same or related antigen 2.)The surface portion of an antigen capable of eliciting an immune response and of combining with the antibody produced to counter that response. |
antigen determinant (epitope) epitope |
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1.)a macrophage, dendrite cell, or B cell that takes up and processes antigen and presents it to T-helper cells 2.)a harmful immune reaction directed against self antigens 3.)a lymphocyte that has immunoglobulin surface receptors, produces immunoglobulin, and may present antigens to T cells |
antigen presenting cell (APC) autoimmunity B cell |
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1.)the primary lymphoid organ containing the pluripotent precursor cells for all blood and immune cells 2.)an immune response generated by interactions with antigen-specific T cells 3.)a soluble protein produced by a leukocyte that modulates an immune response 4.)an immune response leading to damage to host tissues |
bone marrow cell mediated-immunity cytokine hypersensitivity |
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1.)the capacity to respond more quickly and vigorously to second and subsequent exposures to an eliciting antigen 2.)the ability of an organism to resist infection 3.)a soluble protein produced by B cells and plasma cells that interacts with antigen, also called an antibody |
immune memory immunity immunoglobulin |
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1.)a nonspecific reaction to noxious stimuli such as toxins and pathogens, characterized by redness (fever), usually localized at the site of infection 2.)the noninducible ability to recognize and destroy an individual pathogen or its products that does not rely on previous exposure to a pathogen or its products; also called non specific immunity |
inflammation innate immunity |
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1.)soluble cytokine or chemokine mediator secreted by leukocytes 2.)a nucleated cell found in the blood, a white blood cell 3.)a subset of leukocytes in the blood that are involved in the adaptive immune response 4.)a large leukocyte found in tissues that has phagocytic and antigen-presenting capabilities |
interleukin leukocyte lymphocyte macrophage |
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1.)a genetic region that encodes several proteins important for antigen presentation and host defense function 2.)MHC __proteins are expressed on all cells while MHC __proteins are expressed only on antigen-presenting cells 3.)a long lived B cell responsive to an individual antigen |
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) I, II memory B cell |
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1.)a type of leukocyte exhibiting phagocytic properties, a granular cytoplasm (ganulocyte), and a multilobed nucleus 2.)motile white blood cells containing many lysosomes and specializing in phagocytosis, characterized by a distinct segmented nucleus 3.)one of a group of cells that recognizes, ingests, and degrades pathogens and pathogen products |
neutrophil polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) phagocyte |
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1.)the liquid portion of the blood containing proteins and other solutes 2.)a large, differentiated, short lived B lymphocyte specializing in abundant (but short term) antibody production 3.)etiological agent of AIDS 4.)how do you contact it and how does it enter the body |
1.)plasma 2.)plasma cell 3.)HIV 4.)contact from infected person or blood, breaks into skin (needle stick), infects T-helper cells (provirus) buds out and infects more T-helper cells |
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1.)virulence factors of HIV is it targets a white blood cell known as __ 2.)when the t-cell count gets below __, you have aids 3.)people that have aids are immunocompromised therefore they get __infections |
CD4 T helper cells 200 opportunistic |
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1.)how does the body respond to AIDS 2.)are people with AIDS more succeptible to cancer and other infections 3.)what is the treatment for AIDS 4.)etiological agent for Botulism 5.)how does a person get botulism |
1.)try to get rid of it by making antibodies 2.)yes 3.)no cure but drugs help 4.)Clostridium botulinum 5.) eating improperly canned or preserved foods that contain the botulinum toxin, through a wound, colonization in the digestive tract by Clostridium Botulism in adults and kids |
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1.)toxin of botulism 2.)virulence factor of botulism 3.)how does C. botulinum cause botulism 4.)how does the body respond to botulism 5.)treatment for botulism 6.)tissue infected by botulism |
1.)botulinum neurotoxin 2.)botulinum toxin 3.)secretes neurotoxin which block acetylcholine from motor nerve ends (paralysis) 4.)blurred vision, weakness, drooping eyelids 5.)with an antitoxin that blocks the neurotoxin 6.)motor end plates |
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1.)etiological agent of cholera 2.)tissue infected by cholera 3.)how do you get cholera 4.)virulence factor of cholera |
1.)Vibrio cholerae 2.)small intestine epithelium 3.)drinking or eating contaminated with Cholera bacterium 4.)enterotoxin and it inhibits Na and Cl absorption which causes diarrhea. toxin coregulated pilus (TCP) and cholera toxin |
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1.)how does vibrio cholera cause disease 2.)how does the body respond to Cholera 3.)treatments for Cholera 4.)etiological agent for dental carries 5.)tissue infected by dental carries |
1.)toxin causes NA and Cl absorption, also causes epithelium so secrete excessive water and ions 2.)vomiting, diarrhea, speed up HR, low BP 3.)rehydration with oral rehydration salts, there are vaccines but not in the US 4.)streptococcus mutans, S. sobrinus 5.)oral epithelium |
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1.)how do we come in contact with streptococcus mutans 2.)main virulence factor of dental carries 3.)how does S. mutans cause dental carries 4.)how does the body respond to dental carries 5.)treatment for dental caries |
1.)its already in body 2.)production of acid as part of the bacterial biofilm that constitutes dental plaque. when you eat sugar it causes streptococcus to bind and produce acid 3.)acidity causes tooth decay 4.)cavities 5.)drill out the decay |
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1.)etiological agent for diptheria 2.)tissue infected by diptheria 3.)how do we get C. diphtheria? |
1.)Corynebacterium diptheriae 2.)throat epithelium 3.)close contacts via airborne respiratory droplets, direct contact with nasopharyngeal secretions or skin lesions |
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1.)virulence factor of diptheria 2.)how does C. diphtheria cause disease 3.)signs and symptoms of diphtheria 4.)treatment for diphtheria |
1.)diperthria toxin 2.)caused by the bacterium's ability to cause a localized inflammatory reaction of the cells lining the upper respiratory tract. 3.)sore throat, fever, difficulty swallowing 4.)diphtheria antitoxin and antibodies |
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1.)etiological agent of gonorrhea 2.)tissue infected by gonorrhea 3.)how do you get gonorrhea 4.)virulence factors of gonorrhea
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1.)Neisseria gonorrhoeae 2.)mucosal epitherlium, urethra, rectum 3.)by sexual contact 4.)pili-essential for adhesion to mucosal surfaces and inhibit neutrophil killing. outer membrane has proteins for adhering and invasion |
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1.)how does Neisseria gonorroheae cause disease 2.)how does the body respond to gonorrhea 3.)treatment for gonorrhea 4.)etiological agent of influenza 5.)tissue infected by influence |
1.)attached to non ciliated epithelial cells 2.)vaginal discharge, burning and pain when urinating. 3.)antibodies 4.)influenza A and influenza B virus 5.)respiratory epithelium |
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1.)how do you get influenza 2.)what are the virulence factors of influenza 3.)how does the pathogen of influenza cause disease |
1.)being around sick people, it travels through the air in liquid drops from coughs and sneezes 2.)genetic mutations that can enhance various aspects of the viral life cycle. Different influenza proteins such as the HA protein (plays a role in adaptation to certain host) 3.)virus kills host cell, can have mutations which cause antigen shifts (H1N1) and drifts |
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1.)how does the body respond to influenza 2.)treatments for influenza 3.)etiological agent of malaria 4.)tissue infected by malaria 5.)how does a person get malaria |
1.)fever, chills, headache, cough, runny nose 2.)vaccines, increase liquid intake 3.)Plasmodium spp. 4.)blood (erythrocytes) 5.)bit my a mosquito containing Plasmodium parasite |
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1.)virulence factors of malaria 2.)how does the pathogen cause malaria |
1.)genes that encode pathogenicity, ability to invade RBCs adhere(have to have the right receptors-Duffy blood group antigen) onto cells and cause an immune response 2.)parasite enters bloodstream and goes to liver, infection develops in liver then reenters bloodstream, invades RBCs and multiplies |
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1.)how does the body respond to malaria 2.)treatment for malaria 3.)etiological agent of pyelonephritis 4.)tissue infected when you have pyelonephritis 5.)how do you get pyelonephritis |
1.)fever, chills, muscle aches, headache 2.)drug treatment if mild, iv and other drugs in hospital if severe 3.)Proteus spp. 4.)kidney medulla 5.)can have to do with also having bladder infections and it travels up to the kidney, also kidney stones can cause this, also people who have catheters. Naturally found in body |
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1.)virulence factors of pyelonephritis 2.)how does the pathogen cause pyelonephritis 3.)how does the body respond to pyelonephritis 4.)treatment for pyelonephritis |
1.)E.coli is the most common cause, it has the ability to adhere and colonize the urinary tract. P fimbriae plays a huge role in adhesion 2.)can occur when bacteria migrates from the lower urinary tract and colonize in kidney 3.)back pain, fever, nausea 4.)antibiotics |
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1.)etiological agent for spontaneous abortion (cattle) 2.)tissue infected by spontaneous abortion 3.)how do people get brucella abortus |
1.)Brucella abortus 2.)placenta 3.)vaginal discharge of infected cow or from an aborted fetus |
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1.)virulence factors of brucella abortus |
Its virulence depends on survival and replication properites in different cell types in which brucella controls the maturation of its vacuole to avoid innate immune responses and to reach its replicative niche associated with the endoplasmic reticulum. (can make endospores) |
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1.)how does brucella abortus cause spontaneous abortion? 2.)how do cattle respond to spontaneous abortion 3.)treatment for spontaneous abortion in cattle 4.)etiological agent of tetanus 5.)tissue infected by tetanus |
1.)enters phagocytes and attaches to endoplasmic recticulum, then goes in blood stream and attaches to placenta 2.)miscarriages 3.)antibiotics 4.)Clostridium tetani 5.)inhibitory interneuron |
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1.)how do you get tetanus 2.)virulence factors of C. tetani 3.)how does C. tetani affect the body |
1.)enter the body through puncture wounds, usually found in soil or manure 2.)exotoxins (neurotoxins) which continues the release of acetylcholine 3.)affects the site of interaction between the nerve and muscle, causes continuous release of ACH leading to twitching paralysis |
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1.)how does the body respond to C. tetani 2.)treatment for tetanus 3.)adaptive immunity is also called __ 4.): Immunity acquired by infection or vaccination (active immunity) or by the transfer of antibody or lymphocytes from an immune donor (passive immunity |
1.)difficulty swallowing, stiffness of neck and jaw 2.)stopping the toxin production, may have to be put on a respirator machine and sedated 3.)acquired immunity 4.)acquired immunity |
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1.)acquired immunity is in contrast to __immunity 2.) Immunity produced by the body in response to stimulation by a disease-causing organism or other agent. 3.) Immunity produced by the transfer to one person of antibodies that were produced by another person |
innate active immunity passive immunity |
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1.)acquired immunity in which the role of circulating antibodies is predominant. 2.)cellular immunity acquired immunity in which the role of T lymphocytes is predominant. 3.)__immunity is the resistance of the normal animal to infection. |
humoral immunity cell-mediated immunity natural immunity |
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1.)acquired (active or passive) immunity produced by deliberate exposure to an antigen, as in vaccination. 2.)__immunity is the body's built in ability to recognize and destroy pathogens or their products 3.)innate immunity is largely a function of __, which are cells that can ingest, kill, and digest most microbial pathogens |
artificial immunity innate phagocytes |
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1.)adaptive responses (adaptive immunity) are directed at unique pathogen molecules called __, which is a molecule that interacts with specific components of the immune system 2.)phagocytes present antigen molecules to __ 3.)the antigens binds specific receptors on the lymphocyte, triggering genes that promote lymphocyte multiplication and production of __proteins that interact with the pathogen, making it for destruction |
antigen lymphocytes pathogen specific |
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1.)__% of blood cells are leukocytes (WBCs) 2.)the cells active in innate and adaptive immunity develop common precursors called __ 3.)immunity results from the actions of cells that circulate throughout the body, primarily through blood and __, a fluid similar to blood that contains nucleated cells and proteins but lacks RBCs |
0.1 stem cells lymph |
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1.)stem cells grow in ___ 2.)stem cells differentiate into a variety of mature cells under the influence of soluble ___(soluble protein produced by a lymphocyte that modulates an immune response) and ___(soluble protein that modulates an immune response) |
bone marrow cytokines, chemokines |
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1.)leukocytes include the phagocytes of the innate immune system and __, the cells active in adaptive response 2.)whole blood is composed of suspended cells and __, a liquid containing proteins and other solutes 3.)fluid in blood that contains no cells or clotting proteins |
lymphocytes plasma serum |
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1.)serum contains a high concentration of other proteins, including the soluble immune proteins called __that bind pathogen antigens 2.)do RBC have a nucleus? WBC? 3.)A large, circulating, phagocytic white blood cell 4.)so leukocytes include what? 5.)__influence the development of stem cells 6.)thymus is in the neck and as you age, it gets __ |
antibodies no, yes monocyte lymphocytes and monocytes cytokines smaller |
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1.)the __system is a separate circulatory system that drains lymph fluid from extravascular tissues 2.)blood is pumped through arteries and __and returns from the body through veins 3.)in capillary beds, __and __pass from blood into the lymphatic system 4.)lymph nodes contain high concentrations of __and __ arranged to encounter microorg. and antigens |
lymphatic capillaries leukocytes, solutes lymphocytes, phagocytes |
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1.)The __is another part of the lymphatic system that interacts with antigens and microorg. that enter the body through mucous membranes, they contain lymphocytes and phagocytes 2.)MALT interacts with antigens and microorg. from the __, the respiratory tract, and other __membranes |
mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) gut, mucous |
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1.)the spleen consist of __pulp which is rich in RBCs and __pulp, which consist or lymphocytes and phagocytes arranged to filter blood 2.)primary lymphatic organs 3.)Secondary lymphatic organs 4.)__are nucleated WBCs 5.)__are specialized leukocytes involved exclusively in adaptive immune response |
red, white thymus, bone marrow MALT, spleen, lymph nodes leukocytes lymphocytes |
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1.)two types of lymphocytes 2.)__cells originate and mature in bone marrow 3.)__cells originate in bone marrow but mature in thymus 4.)__cells, active in innate immunity, are derived from myeloid precursors 5.)mature myeloid cells can be divided into what 2 lineages |
B and T cells B T myeloid monocytes and granulocytes |
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1.)the monocyte lineage develops into specialized phagocytic cells, the __ 2.)__engulf, process, and present antibodies to lymphocytes 3.)__are the first defense cells that interact with a pathogen 4.)__are phagocytes that specialize in presenting antigen to lymphocytes |
antigen-presenting cells (APCs) antigen presenting cells macrophages dendrite cells |
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1.)so antigen presenting cells consist of what 3 cells 2.)___contain toxins or enzymes that are released to kill target cells, they are the second lineage of cells derived from myeloid precursors 3.)__is a leukocyte exhibiting phagocytic properties, a granular cytoplasm(granulocyte), and a multilobed nucleus |
macrophages, dendrite cells, monocytes granulocytes neutrophil |
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1.)release of granules, a process called __, from a granulocyte called a mast cell can cause allergy symptoms and inflammation 2.)what 3 cells do granulocytes consist of 3.)is it true that lymphocytes circulate throughout the blood and lymph systems but are concentrated in the lymph nodes and spleen where they interact with antigens |
degranulation neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils yes |
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1.)B cells are APCs and the precursors of antibody producing __cells 2.)__, also called immunoglobulins, are soluble proteins produced by B cells and plasma cells 3.)antibodies interact with particular __ 4.)T cells which interact with the antigen, begin their development in the bone marrow but travel to the __to mature |
plasma antibodies antigen thymus |
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1.)primary lymphoid organs are sites where the lymphoid __cells develop into functional antigen-reactive lymphocytes 2.)does innate immunity require previous exposure to a pathogen or its products 3.)__is the non-inducible ability to recognize and destroy an individual pathogen or its products 4.)innate immunity is mediated by __ 5.)innate immunity can also be called ___ |
stem no innate immunity phagocytes nonspecific immunity |
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1.)phagocytes such as __And __are the first line of defense against pathogens that the body has never before encountered 2.)the phagocytes for innate immunity often trigger __immunity 3.)adaptive immunity can also be called __ 4.)__immunity is the acquired ability to recognize and destroy a particular pathogen or its products |
macrophages, neutrophils adaptive specific immunity adaptive immunity |
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1.)adaptive immunity is dependent on __to the pathogen or its products 2.)adaptive immunity is directed toward a molecular component of the pathogen called an __ 3.)monocytes are found in __while macrophages are found in __ 4.)with adaptive immunity, first exposure to an antigen generates a __ |
previous exposure antigen blood, tissue primary adaptive immune response |
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1.)antigen reactive lymphocytes are divided into __and __cells 2.)each cell type (B and T cells) produce a unique __that interacts with a single antigen 3.)the antigen binding proteins of T-cells are the __, while the cell surface antibodies on a B cell are the __ |
T cells, B cells proteins T cell receptors, B cell receptors |
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1.)following the primary immune response, there is stimulation of specialized antigen reactive immune leukocytes which are the __ 2.)the adaptive response is inducible only when triggered by a unique __ on a pathogen 3.)a second exposure to the same antigen activates the clones of antigen reactive cells and generates a faster, strong __ |
B and T cells antigen secondary adaptive immune response |
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1.)the rapid increase in adaptive immunity after second antigen exposure is called __ 2.)finally, the adaptive immune system exhibits __, which is the acquired inability to generate an immune response against self antigens 3.)adaptive immunity begins with the interactions of immune __lymphocytes with peptide antigens on infected cells |
memory tolerance T |
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1.)the T cell with its TCR can recognize peptide only when the peptides are complexed with self proteins called __proteins, found on host cell surfaces 2.)all host cells display __proteins that present peptides from viruses and other intracellular pathogens for immune recognition 3.)APCs (macrophages, B cells, etc) also present an antigen presenting protein called __ |
major histocompatibility complex (MHC) MHC 1 MHC II |
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1.)in reference to T lymphocyte subsets, __cells recognize antigen presents by MHC I protein on an infected cell 2.)T-cytotoxic cells kill antigen bearing target cells __ 3.)in reference to T lymphocyte subsets, __cells interact with peptide MHC II complexes on the surface of antigen presenting cells |
T-cytotoxic (Tc) directly T-helper (Th) |
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1.)T-helper cells act through __to promote immune reactions 2.)T-helper cells help __cells make antibodies and __cells kill infected cells 3.)in reference to T lymphocyte subsets, __cells initiate inflammation and immunity by activating macrophages
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cytokines B, cytotoxin Th1 |
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1.)in reference to T lymphocyte subsets, __cells stimulate antigen reactive B cells to produce antibodies 2.)rhinovirus causes __ 3.)with regards to the rhinovirus, you breath in and __cells engulfs the virus and presents it to the __cell(just the antigen part) 4.)__cells make the antibodies
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Th2 colds dendrite, T-helper B |
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1.)__cells (B cell subtype) remembers the antigen and makes antibiotics faster 2.)__are B cells that make antibodies 3.)the antibody binds to the __ 4.)cytotoxic t cells also called ___lyse virally infected cells 5.)__is the portion of an antigen that is recognized by an antibody or a T cell receptor |
memory plasma cells antigen CD8 epitope |
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1.)three main innate (first line defenses) defenses 2.)second line of defenses(adaptive) 3.)__immunity is when B cells make antibody 4.)__cells help B cells make antibodies 5.)__cells lyse infected cells 6.)T-helper cells are also called __ |
1.)intact skin, lysozyme, decrease in pH in stomach 2.)phagocytosis (macrophages), neutrophils, dendritic cell, B & T cells 3.)humoral 4.)t-helper 5.)cytotoxin T-cells 6.)CD4
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1.)__are soluble proteins made by b cells in response to exposure to nonself antigens 2.)B cells have antibodies where? 3.)to make antibodies, B cells must first bind to antigens through interactions with the __ 4.)the antibodies on their surfaces directly interact with antigens to cause B cells to ingest the pathogen via __ |
antibodies on their surface BCR (B-cell receptors) phagocytosis |
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1.)after phagocytosis, B cells produce many pathogen derived peptide antigens that are presented to antigen specific __cells 2.)the Th2 cell does not interact directly with the pathogen but stimulates other cells such as the antigen presenting __cells, in this case, on which it recognized the MHC-pepide |
T-h2 B-cell |
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1.)activated B cells differentiate into plasma cells that produce soluble __ 2.)the production of antibodies in the above question is classified as the __response 3.)subsequent exposure to the same antigen induces ___ 4.)memory cells are a __antibody response |
antibodies primary antibody memory cells secondary |
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1.)in summary of antibodies, __phagocytize the antigen and the antigen is presented on its __, next the antigen is presented to the __cell and this cell secretes __to tell the B-cell to make more antibodies 2.)once the antibody is formed, __B cells are formed and __cells (5 classes) 3.)several different classes of antibodies exist and are distinguished from on another by? |
1.)(macrophages, dendrite cells, monocytes), surface, T-helper, cytokines 2.)memory, plasma 3.)amino acid sequence |
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1.)does each antibody have a specific function? 2.)Ig_ and Ig__are found in the blood 3.)Ig__ is found in secretions from mucous membranes 4.)Ig_ is involved in parasite immunity and allergies 5.)Ig__is found on surface of B cell 6.)Ig_ is a secondary response and is the longest response |
yes M, G A E D G |
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1.)IgA is found where 2.)IgE is found where 3.)IgG is found where 4.)IgM is found where 5.)__is a tissue cell of the immune system that mediate inflammatory responses such as hypersensitivity and allergic reactions 6.)Ig_ is the primary antibody response |
serum and mucus secretions mast cell serum serum mast cells M |
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1.)do most antibody interactions kill the pathogen 2.)many antibodies instead do what with the pathogen and host cells 3.)an example is Ig_ antibodies present in mucosal secretions and directed against influenza virus may interact with influenza virus antigens that bind to host cells, blocking attachment of the influenza virus to the host |
no just block interactions A |
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1.)specific serum antibodies can also bind toxin such as tetanus toxin, blocking the binding of toxin to host cell receptors; this is called __ 2.)in many cases, antibodies mark the pathogen for destruction by __ 3.)phagocytes have general antibody receptors called __receptors that bind any antibody attached to an antigen |
neutralization phagocytosis Fc (FcR) |
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1.)the binding of the antibodies to the phagocytes enhances phagocytosis of the antibody-coated cells and this is called __ 2.)so can antibodies bind to antigens and toxins? 3.)the bottom line is antibodies bind to the specific __they were made in response to
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opsonization yes antigens |
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1.)antibodies provide targets for interactions with proteins of the complement system, resulting in destruction of antigens through lysis or __ 3.)the complement proteins attach to pathogen surfaces, attracted by __or __antibodies bound to the pathogen |
opsonization complement IgM, IgG |
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1.)the complement proteins bound to the cell surface by the antibody have 2 possible effects on the pathogen, first the complement can form a pore in the pathogen cytoplasmic membrane directly __the pathogen cell, this complement-antibody interaction affects only those pathogen cells with bound antibodies |
lysing |
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1.)the second effect of complement binding is the stimulation of __ 2.)pathogen bound complement proteins are recognized by complement receptors called __receptors found on the surface of phagocytes such as neutrophils and macrophages 3.)this interaction results in __and phagocytosis of the cells sensitized by antibody and complement |
phagocytosis C3 opsonization |
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1.)__is a nonspecific reaction to noxious stimuli such as toxins and pathogens 2.)inflammation is characterized by __, __, pain, and __localized at site of infection 3.)them molecular activators of inflammation are a group of cell activators and chemoattractants, including __and __ |
inflammation redness, swelling, heat cytokines, chemokines |
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1.)the most important chemokines and cytokines are termed __because of their inflammation inducing abilities, they are produced in high concentrations by phagocytes and lymphocytes 2.)can both innate and adaptive immune responses to infection cause inflammation 3.)both immune recognition systems induce the activators that recruit and activate effector cells such as __ |
proinflammatory yes neutrophils |
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1.)an immune response normally activates inflammation to isolate and limit __damage by destroying pathogen invaders and removing damaged cells 2.)can inflammation result in considerable damage to healthy tissue 3.)for primary antibody response, __first binds to the antigen and then __binds to lyse pathogen |
tissue yes IgM, complement |
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1.)__are the first to arrive at infection 2.)neutrophils are attracted to the site by __ 3.)activated neutrophils release __to recruit macrophages by guiding them along a chemokine gradient 4.)usual outcome of inflammation is a rapid localization and destruction of the __ |
neutrophils interleukins chemokines pathogen |
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1.)in some cases inflammation fails to localize the pathogen and the reaction becomes widespread, this can lead to __, a life threatening condition 2.)systematic inflammatory reactions may have serious consequences such as uncontrolled __ and death in up to __% of individuals 3.)can septic shock be more dangerous than the initial infection |
septic shock fever, 30 yes |
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1.)people who lack __immunity because they fail to produce phagocytes develop recurrent infections and die at an early age 2.)can people who lack just adaptive immunity live longer than those without innate immunity 3.)immunity may be naturally occurring or artificially induced by exposure to antigens such as __ |
innate yes vaccines |
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1.)we acquire immunity either __ , for example when we generate an immune response through exposure to antigen, or __ , for example when we receive antibodies or immune cells from an immune individual 2.)two types of adaptive immunity 3.)__immunity includes B-cells making antibodies and __immunity includes T-helper cells helping B cells make antibody |
actively, passively humoral and cell mediated humoral, cell-mediated |
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1.)__immunity is done by acquiring an infection that initiates an adaptive immune response 2.)__immunity is through antibody transfer across the placenta or in breast milk 3.)an example of this immunity is an adult having acquired the immunity to many strains of influenza and cold viruses 4.)natural immunity requires that an __has occured |
natural active natural passive natural active infection |
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1.)__induction of immunity to individual infectious diseases is a major weapon in the treatment and prevention of diseases 2.)__immunity is exposure to a controlled dose of a harmless antigen to induce formation of antibodies 3.)__immunity is the injection of an antiserum derived from an immune individual |
artificial artificial active immunity (vaccine) artificial passive |
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1.)artificial passive immunity is used to prevent or treat acute infectious diseases such as __ or __ 2.)if the antibodies are directed against a toxin they are called __and if they are directed against a venom they are called __ 3.)__is the purposeful artificial induction of active immunity, and is a major weapon for the prevention and treatment of many infectious diseases |
tetanus, bites by snakes antitoxin, anti-venom vaccination (immunization) |
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1.)is immunization with live cells/viruses or with dead/inactivated material more effective 2.)most agents used for immunization are either attenuated or __pathogens or inactivated forms of microbial products such as __ 3.)is the importance of immunizations in controlling infectious diseases well established? |
live cells/viruses inactivated, toxins yes |
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1.)immunizations usually involve a series of secondary or "__" immunizations to produce a secondary response and a higher antibody titer 2.)with __immunity, your body makes the toxin while with __immunity, you are given the antibody 3.)example of natural passive immunity 4.)example of natural active immunity 5.)example of artificial active immunity |
booster active, passive mom-->baby (antibody in breast milk) get sick, get well vaccine |
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1.)example of artificial passive 2.)does active or passive immunity have immune memory? 3.)for active immunity, immunity develops how fast? what about for passive immunity? 4.)basically what is an antibody 5.)the amount of antibody in serum is called ____ |
anti-toxin, anti-venom active takes weeks, immediately protein antibody titer |
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1.)exposure to a pathogen (antigen), your body makes __ 2.)the primary response is by Ig_ followed by the secondary response which is Ig_ 3.)__cells (B cells) remember the antigen 4.)Ig_ gives you long term immunity and cross the placenta (baby will have it) 5.)__cause vasodilation 6.)pus is basically what |
antibodies (plasma cells) M, G memory G histones dead WBC and bacteria |
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1.)the antigen or antigen mixture used to induce artificial active immunity is known as a __ 2.)many vaccines consist of pathogens killed by chemical agents such as __ or __ or __ 3.)formaldehyde is used to __viruses for vaccines such as inactivated (Salk) polio vaccine 4.)can the active form of an exotoxin be used as an immunogen |
vaccine phenol or formaldehyde, heat inactivate no |
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1.)a modified (chemically) exotoxin is called __ 2.)it is possible to isolate a mutant strain of a pathogen that has lost its virulence buts till retains the immunizing antigens; strains of this type are called __strains 3.)because the attenuated strains are still viable, some individuals especially those immunocompromised may acquire what? |
toxoid attenuated the disease |
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1.)attenuated vaccines tend to provide long lasting __cell mediated immunity, as well as vigorous antibody immunity and a strong secondary response 2.)have alternative approaches for preparation of immunizations that eliminate exposure to microbes and even protein antigens been developed? |
T yes |
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1.)does a single exposure to antigen lead to a high antibody titer? 2.)how do you accomplish a high antibody titer? 3.)the simplest alternate approach to vaccine development is to make use of genetic engineering tools to produce __ 4.)to make a vaccine, a genetic engineer can synthesize a __that corresponds to an antigen of infectious disease |
not necessarily give booster (secondary re-immunizations) synthetic pretides peptide |
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1.)synthetic peptides can be used to treat what disease 2.)is the foot mouth disease vaccine a conjugate one 3.)inoculation with the antigen producing vaccine virus can induce immunity to the product of the cloned gene, these types are called __vaccines |
1.)foot and mouth virus (20 amino acid chain and protein carrier makes vaccine) 2.)yes 20 AA chain and carrier 3.)recombinant-vector |
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1.)example of a recombinant-vector vaccine 2.)when a pathogen gene is clone in a host that expresses the protein encoded by the cloned gene, it is a __vaccine 3.)example of a recombinant-antigen vaccine 4.)__vaccines are bacterial plasmids that contain cloned DNA with the antigen of interest, its based on expression of cloned genes in host cells |
rabies recombinant-antigen vaccine hepatitis B vaccine DNA |
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1.)inappropriate immune response that results in host damage 2.)hypersensitivity diseases are categorized according to __ and effector mechanisms that produce disease 3.)antibody mediated immediate hypersensitivity is commonly called __ 4.)cell-mediated hypersensitivity are called __ |
hypersensitivity antigen allergy delayed-type hypersensitivity |
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1.)immediate hypersensitivity is also called type __hypersensitivity 2.)type 1 hypersensitivity is caused by the release of vasoactive products from __cells coated with Ig_ 3.)type 1 hypersensitivity reactions occur within __after exposure to antigen 4.)__is a severe whole body allergic reaction that can be caused by type 1 hypersensitivity |
1 mast, E minutes anaphylaxis |
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1.)what are some immediate hypersensitivity allergies common in people 2.)initial exposure to allergens stimulates mucosa associated Th2 cells to produce cytokines that induce B cells to make __ 3.)the allergen specific IgE antibodies binds to? 4.)__are nomotile granulocytes associated with the CT adjacent to capillaries in the body |
pollens, molds, dust IgE IgE receptors on mast cell mast cells |
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1.)the mast cell bound IgE molecules bind to the __ 2.)cross-linking of IgEs by an antigen triggers the release of soluble allergic mediators(cause symptoms within minutes) from the mast cells, a process called __ |
antigen degranulation
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1.)the principle chemical mediators released from mast cells are __and __, which are modified AA that cause rapid dilation of blood vessels and contraction of smooth muscle, can cause discomfort of even anaphylactic shock 2.)anaphylactic shock may include __and cause a __in blood pressure 3.)sever anaphylaxis is treated with __ |
histamine, serotonin vasodilation, drop epinephrine |
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1.)epinephrine counters smooth muscle __, __blood pressure, and promotes __. 2.)less serious allergic reactions can be treated with __, drugs that neutralize histamine 3.)Ig_ and Ig_ can interact with allergens and block the binding to the IgE 3.)__is cell-mediated hypersensitivity characterized by tissue damage due to inflammation produced by TH1 cells |
contraction, increases, breathing antihistamine A, G delayed type hypersensitivity |
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1.)delayed type hypersensitivity is also called type __hypersensitivity 2.)with delayed type hypersensitivity, symptoms appear when? 3.)delayed type hypersensitivities typical antigens include __, __antigens, and __that covalently bind to skin, creating new antigens |
1.)IV 2.)several hours following secondary exposure to eliciting antigens or even days 3.)microbes, self, chemicals |
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1.)hypersensitivity to these newly created antigens is known as __and results in for example, poison ivy or rash from jewelry or even tuberculin test(tuberculosis) 2.)type III hypersensitivity also called __ and is IgG interaction with soluble or circulating antigen 3.)type II hypersensitivity also called __ is IgG interaction with cell surface antigen 4.)example of type II hypersensitivity |
contact dermatitis immune complex cytotoxic drug reactions (penicillin) |
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1.)example of type III hypersensitivity 2.)__diseases occur when T and B cells are activated to produce immune reactions against self-proteins 3.)autoimmune diseases result in host __damage 4.)many autoimmune diseases are by __, which are antibodies that interact with self antigens |
systemic lupus erthematosus (SLE) autoimmune diseases tissue autoantibodies |
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1.)this is when antibodies IgG are against cell surface antigens, it is found in children with juvenile diabetes 2.)an example of this is systemic lupus erthematosus and it is when antibodies (IgG) against soluble or circulating antigen, a type of autoantibodies |
type II hypersensitivity or cytotoxic hypersen. type III hypersensitivity or immune complex hyp. |
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1.)__are proteins capable of eliciting a very strong response because they activate more T cells than a normal immune response 2.)superantigens are produced by many viruses and bacteria that interact with __ 3.)superantigen-activated T-cells may produce systemic diseases characterized by __reactions |
superantigens t-cell receptors systemic inflammatory |
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1.)a soluble protein produced by B lymphocytes and plasma cells that interacts specifically with antigen, also called immunoglobulin 2.)a molecule capable of interacting with specific components of the immune system 3.)the portion of an antigen that reacts with a specific antibody or T-cell receptor 4.)what else is an epitope called |
antibody antigen epitope antigenic determinant |
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1.)programmed cell death 2.)a series of proteins that react in sequential manner with antibody-antigen complexes, mannonse-binding lichen, or alternative activation pathway proteins to potentiate or amplify target cell destruction 3.)Proteases with serine esterase activities that represent most of the granule content of T cytotoxic cells.
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apoptosis complement granzyme |
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1.)a type of leukocyte having phagocytic and antigen presenting properties, found in various body tissues, transports antigen to lymph nodes and spleen 2.)a low-molecular-weight substance not inducing antibody formation itself but still able to combine with a specific antibody 3.)a substance able to destroy phagocytes |
dendritic cell hapten leukocidin |
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1.)a long lived cell responsive to a specific antigen 2.)__is an antigen-presenting molecule found on all nucleated vertebrate cells 3.)__is an antigen-presenting molecule found on macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells 4.)circulating WBCs that contain many lysosomes and can differentiate into macrophages |
memory cells MHC class I protein MHC class II protein monocytes |
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1.)a large leukocyte found in tissues that has phagocytic and antigen-presenting capabilities 2.)a type of leukocyte exhibiting phagocytic properties, a granular cytoplasm (granulocyte), and a multiobed nucleus, also known as a polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN) 3.)the enhancement of phagocytosis due to the deposition of antibody or complement on the surface of a pathogen or other antigen |
macrophage neutrophil opsonization |
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1.)a mechanism for ingesting particulate food in which a portion of the cytoplasmic membrane surrounds the particle and brings it into the cell 2.)the ability of the immune response to interact with individual antigens 3.)the antigen specific receptor protein on the surface of T lymphocytes 4.)the required inability to produce an immune response to a specific antigen (self antigens) |
phagocytosis specificity T cell receptor tolerance |
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1.)__is the active ability of an organism to resist infection 2.)__is the body's built in ability to recognize and destroy pathogens or their products 3.)__is the acquired ability to recognize and destroy pathogens 4.)innate immunity is primarily a function of __ 5.)__immune response is the first line of defense(critical for about 4 days after infection) |
immunity innate immunity adaptive immunity phagocytosis innate |
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1.)innate immune response begins when __encounters a pathogen or pathogen product 2.)when the phagocyte encounters the pathogen, __can result 3.)name some phagocytes 4.)most phagocytes have inclusions called __ 5.)phagocytes trap pathogens on __ such as blood vessel walls or fibrin clots |
1.)phagocyte 2.)inflammation 3.)macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, dendritic cells 4.)lysosome 5.)surfaces |
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1.)the membrane surrounding the pathogen pinches off and forms a __ 2.)the phagosome, vacuole containing the engulfed pathogen, then moves into the cytoplasm and fuses with a lysosome to form a __ 3.)the toxic substances and enzymes inside the phagolysosome usually do what |
phagosome phagolysosome kill and digest engulfed microbial cell |
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1.)phagocytes move by __action(crawling) 2.)__are intracellular vacuoles containing bacteriocidal substances such as hydrogen peroxide, lysozyme, proteases, etc. 3.)__are actively mobile granulocytes 4.)neutrophils are derived from __cells 5.)__are precursors of macrophages |
amoeboid lysosomes neutrophil stem monocytes
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1.)__are large cells found in tissues such as lymph nodes and spleen 2.)__have the dual function of phagocytosis and antigen presentation 3.)are dendritic cells derived from the same monocyte progenitors as macrophages 4.)when dendritic cells ingest an antigen, they move to the lymph node to present the antigen to __cells |
macrophages dendritic cells yes T |
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1.)the activation of certain __in phagocytes enhances their phagocytic and pathogen killing abilities 2.)phagocytic cells use toxic __to kill ingested bacterial cells 3.)the toxic oxygen kills ingested bacterial cells by __key cellular constituents 4.)the killing occurs within the phagocytic cell, so is it damaged by the toxic oxygen products? |
genes oxygen oxidizing no |
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1.)genes that control the production of oxygen compounds toxic to pathogens are highly transcribed in __phagocytes 2.)the __conditions in the phagolysosome favor the production of the high reactive compounds 3.)__is a nonspecific reaction to noxious stimuli 4.)molecular mediators of inflammation are proteins called __and __ |
activated acidic inflammation cytokines, chemokines |
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1.)effective inflammatory response isolates and limits ___, destroying damaged cells and pathogens 2.)can inflammation result in considerable damage to healthy tissue 3.)have some pathogens developed mechanisms for neutralizing toxic phagocytic products |
tissue damage yes yes |
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1.)Staphylococcus aureus produces pigmented compounds called __that neutralize singlet oxygen and prevent killing 2.)Mycobacterium tuberculosis grow and persist within phagocytic cells, it uses its cell wall __to absorb hydroxyl radicals and superoxide anions, the most lethal toxic oxygen species produced by phagocytes |
carotenoids glycolipids |
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1.)some intracellular pathogens produce __(a substance able to destroy phagocytes) to kill phagocytes 2.)dead phagocytes make up much of the ___ 3.)streptococcus pyogenes and S. aureus are major leukocidin producers and are called __(pus forming) pathogens, these localized infections can form boils or abscesses |
leukocidins pus pyogenic |
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1.)some bacteria produce a __resistant to phagocytosis, it prevents adherence of the phagocyte to the bacterial cell 2.)name a bacteria with a capsule that resist phagocytosis 3.)antibodies interact with capsules or other cell surface molecules can reverse the protective effect of bacterial defense mechanisms and enhance phagocytosis, this is called __ |
capsule Streptococcus pneumonia opsonization |
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1.)effective adaptive immunity requires activation by __exposure 2.)__lymphocytes produce antibodies, which protect against extracellular antigens 3.)__lymphocytes, through their antigen-specific T cell receptors (TCR), protect against intracellular pathogens such as viruses and certain bacteria |
pathogen B T |
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1.)in__mediated immunity, pathogen-infected host cells are killed after they are recognized via pathogen antigens found on their surface 2.)___mediated immunity is effective against extracellular pathogens such as bacteria and soluble pathogen products 3.)__are substances that react with antibodies or TCR's |
cell antibody antigens |
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1.)__are substances that induce an immune response 2.)are all antigens immunogens? 3.)innate immunity is directed against features common to pathogens such as __of all gram positive bacteria or __ of all gram negative 4.)adaptive immunity is directed to interactions with particular pathogen specific macromolecules such as __ |
immunogens no peptidoglycan, LPS M-protein |
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1.)__are not immunogens although they are antigens 2.)haptens cannot induce an immune response but can be bound by __ 3.)example of a hapten 4.)haptens become effective immunogens only when they are coupled to a larger __ 5.)complex __and __are immunogens |
haptens antibodies penicillin protein proteins, carbohydrates |
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1.)large complex macromolecules in insoluble or aggregated form (proteins precipitated by heating) are usually excellent __ 2.)the insoluble material is readily taken up by a __, leading to an adaptive immune response, it is in contrast with a soluble material |
immunogens phagocyte |
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1.)antibody or TCR does not interact with whole antigenic macromolecules, but only with a distinct portion of the molecule called an __ 2.)epitopes include __, amino acids, and other organic molecules 3.)Antibodies interact with a sequence of __to __amino acids, the optimal size for an epitope |
epitope or antigenic determiant sugars 4, 6 |
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1.)antibodies recognize __epitopes composed of amino acids from two portions of the molecule that are distant in term of their primary structure but are brought together by folding into secondary, tertiary, etc. of a molecule 2.)TCRs recognize __epitopes only after immogens have been partially degraded |
conformational proteins |
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1.)TCRs recognize only __epitopes in the primary protein structure 2.)__is a membrane spanning protein 3.)does each T-cell have thousands of copies of the same TCR on its surface 4.)a __TCR consist of 2 polypeptides 5.)the two polypeptides are __and __ |
linear TCR (T-cell receptor) yes functional alpha chain, beta chain |
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1.)__is a linked set of genes that initially identified as being responsible for immune-mediated organ transplant rejection 2.)MHC is a group of proteins important in what? 3.)what is the MHC in humans called |
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigen presentation human leukocyte antigens HLA |
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1.)there are two classes of MHC proteins, MHC class __ proteins are found on the surfaces of all nucleated cells, while MHC class __proteins are found only on the surface of B lymphocytes, macrophages, and dendritic cell, all of which are APCs 2.)MHC proteins expressed on the cell surface reflect the composition f the __inside the cell |
I, II proteins |
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1.)cells that have ingested foreign proteins or pathogens and cells infected with virus produce ___that interact with MHC proteins 2.)TCRs of a given T cell bind only to MCH molecules having foreign __embedded in the MHC structure 3.)T cells do not interact with a foreign antigen unless it is presented in the context of a __protein |
peptides antigens MHC |
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1.)in addition to TCR, each T cell expresses a unique cell surface protein that functions as a __ 2.)Th cells express a ___protein coreceptor 3.)Tc cells express a __protein coreceptor 4.)when the TCR binds to the peptide-MHC complex, the coreceptor on the T cell also binds to the MHC protein on the antigen resenting cell, do what do it? |
coreceptor CD4 CD8 strengthening the molecular interactions |
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1.)CD4 binds only to the MHC__protein while CD8 only binds to the MHC __protein 2.)__are T cells that directly kill cells that display surface foreign antigen 3.)contact between Tc cells and target cell is required for what to happen 4.)on contact, __in T cell migrate to contact site |
II, I t-cytotoxic cells cell death granules |
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1.)when the granules migrate, __occurs and causes pores (perforin) in target cell membrane 2.)the granules contain __and __called granzymes 3.)__enters the membrane of target cells and forms a pore, through which granzymes enter the target cell |
degranulation perforin, proteases perforin |
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1.)granzymes are cytotoxins that cause __, or programmed cell death characterized by death and degradation of the cell from within 2.)__are cytotoxic lymphocytes that are distinct from T cells and B cells 3.)NK cells destroy __cells and cells infected with intracellular pathogens |
apoptosis Natural Killer cells cancer |
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1.)NK cells use __and __to kill their targets 2.)so basicallyfor NK cells, they kill in the absence of a specific protein, the lack of normal __result in killing 3.)does NK cells require prior exposure to foreign cells |
perforin, gramzymes MHC no |
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1.)since Normal MHC I expression is reduced or eliminated by tumor cells, do the normal of NK cells increase and do they exhibit memory 2.)Th__subset activates macrophages 3.)Th1 secrete __which promotes growth and activation of other T cells, and activate macrophages |
no 1 cytokines |
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1.)macrophages play what role and what do they do for the Th1 2.)Th1 cells activate the macrophage through the cytonkines ___ 3.)in regards to transplanted organ rejection, Th1 cells recognize the non-self MHC proteins of the transplant, triggering macrophage activation and transplant __ |
engulf, process, present antigen to Th1 gamma interferon destruction |
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1.)do the Th1 activated macrophages take up and kill foreign cells more efficiently than resting macrophages 2.)Th__subset plats a crucial role in B cell activation and antibody production 3.)for antibody production, antigen binds to the__ cell antigen receptors but the B cell does not immediately produce soluble antibodies |
yes 2 B |
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1.)the antibody bound antigen is taken into the B cell by ___, then the peptides from the degraded antigen are then presented on the B cells MHC __protein 2.)B cells serves a dual role, first as an __, and second as an __producer 3.)the B cell then presents the MHC II peptide to the __cell |
endocytosis, II APC, antibody TH2 |
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1.)the TH2 cell responds by producing __and __, cytokines that activate the B cell 2.)the activated B cell differentiates into a __cell that produces and secretes antibodies 3.)antigen presentation by dendritic cells play a role in the development of __and __cells |
IL-4, IL5 plasma Th17, treg |
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1.)__cells are important in the first stages of the adaptive immune response, they are triggered by antigen interactions and they recruit neutrophils, which are innate cells important in inflammation 2.)dendritic cells first encounter a __ 3.)dendritic cells present the antigen secrete __(IL6 and transforming growth factor-B) which catalyze differentiation of Th to __cells |
Th17 pathogen cytokines, Th17 |
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1.)Th17 cells than produce IL-17, a cytokine that activates other tissue cells to produce cytokines and chemokines that attract __to the site of infection 2.)by recruiting neutrophils, th17 cells amplify innate immunity triggered by interaction of a pathogen with the __cell 3.)__cells are important in control of immunity |
neutrophils dendritic Treg |
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1.)in the absence of a pathogen, Th cells can interact with dendritic cells through MHC __peptide TCR 2.)since the dendritic cells did not interact with the pathogen, they cannot produce IL-6 to promote th17 differentiation, instead the absence of IL-6 pushes differentiation to __cells |
II Treg |
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1.)treg cells make IL-10a and TgF-B which are two cytokines that suppress __and __ 2.)treg cells basically shut down the __response and inhibit __ 3.)__are protein molecules that interact specifically with antigenic determinants 4.)where can antibodies be found 5.)does IgG cross the placenta |
immunity, inflammation immune, inflammation antibodies serum, milk, gastric secretions yes |
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1.)the heavy chains of a given antibody define its class based on __sequence 2.)do all 5 classes of antibodies have different structural characteristics, expression patterns, and functional roles 3.)__is the most common antibody circulating in the body 4.)in each IgG protein, two identical __chains are paired with two identical __chains |
amino acid yes IgG light, heavy |
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1.)each light chain has __amino acids and each heavy chain has __amino acids 2.)each heavy chain interacts with a light chain to form a functional ___ 3.)an IgG antibody is bivalent because it has two identical sites that bind two identical __ |
220, 440 antigen binding site epitopes |
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1.)are there billions of different antigen binding sites 2.)the variable domains of the two chains interacting forming a receptor that binds antigen strongly but __ 3.)a high affinity antibody binds tightly to __ 4.)antigen interaction with the antibodies on a B cell stimulates the B cell to produce and secrete copies of the performed __ |
yes non-covalently antigen antibody |
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1.)the heavy chain called __defines the IgG class, __defines IgA, __defines IgD, __defines IgM, and __defines IgE 2.)IgM is usually an aggregate of __ immunoglobulin molecules attached by at least one __chain 3.)IgM is made in a typical immune response to a __infection, and they usually have __affinity for antigen |
gamma, alpha, delta, mu, epsilon 5, J(joing) bacterial, low |
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1.)IgM monomers are the class of antibodies found on the surface of __cells 2.)the combined strength of antigen binding by the multiple antigen-binding sites of IgM is called ___ 3.)IgM has a __affinity but __avidity for antigens 4.)dimers of Ig__Are present in body fluidssu ch as saliva, tears, breast milk colostrum, and mucosal secretions |
B avidity low, high A |
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1.)what produces IgA 2.)the heavy chains of IgM and IgE have a __constant domain compared to IgG, IgA, and IgD that have __constant domains 3.)Ige can be found in serum and functions as an antibody that binds to __
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MALT 4, 3 eosinophils |
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1.).)binding f antigen to the variable antigen binding portions of IgE on mast cells cause release of the mast cell contents in a process called __ 2.)degranulation of mast cells triggers __ 3.)__is found in serum and has no function 4.)antibody production is a direct response to __exposure |
degranulation immediate-type hypersensitivities IgD antigen |
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1.)antibody production involves interactions b/w __and __cells 2.)each person can produce billions of different antibodies and TCRs and each receptor can interact with an __in our environment 3.)antibody production begins with antigen exposure and culminates in the production and secretion of an ___ |
B, T antigen antigen specific antibody |
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1.)antigen stimulated B cells multiply and differentiate to form antibody secreting plasma cells and memory cells, this is the __ 2.)memory B cells generated may live for years and quickly transform into antibody secreting cells, this is the __ 3.)__is composed of a group of sequentially interacting proteins |
primary antibody response secondary antibody response complement |
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1.)do complements have important roles in innate and adaptive immunity 2.)complement proteins react in a sequence after exposure to __complexes on a target cell 3.)complements can cause __ pathogens or mark them for recognition by __ 4.)most antigen bound __or __antibodies can bind complements |
antigen-antibody lysis, phagocytosis IgM, IgG |
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1.)are individual proteins of complement are called C1, C2, C3 2.)do complement proteins react in a defined sequence 3.)complements lyse many gram __bacteria 4.)membrane bound components of complement (____) insert into membrane to form a pore and therefore cause lysis |
yes yes negative membrane attack components (MAC) |
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1.)a __cell is more likely to be phagocytized if it has been bound to an antibody 2.)__is the enhancement of phagocytosis due to the deposition of antibody or complement on the surface of a pathogen or other antigen 3.)C3 can be deposited on membranes and the MAC can be activated by the __pathway and the alternative pathway |
bacteria opsonization mannose binding lectin (MBL) |
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1.)both the alternative pathway and the MBL pathway nonspecifically target bacterial invaders and lead to activation of the membrane attack complex and enhanced opsonization via formation of stable __convertases 2.)the phagolysosome presents the antigen on the surface and the t-helper cells release __ |
C3 cytokines |
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1.)cytokines activate __ and make antibodies which bind to the __ 2.)once the antigen binds to the antibody, __can occur and this helps phagocytosis 3.)capsules are virulence factors that allows the bacteria to avoid __ 4.)__(acid fast) have waxy cell walls so they are not killed by the enzymes inside the phagocyte, instead they grow |
B cells, antigen opsonization mycobacteria |
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1.)a reaction b/w antibody and particle-bound antigen resulting in visible clumping of the particles 2.)the presence of bacteria in blood 3.)growth media that allow identification of microorganism based on phenotypic properties 4.)media that allow metabolically fastidious organisms to grow because of the addition of specific growth factors |
agglutination bacteremia differential media enriched media |
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1.)the use of selective culture media and incubation conditions to isolate specific microorganisms from natural samples 2.)a sensitive immunoassay that uses an enzyme linked to an antibody or antigen as a marker for the detection of a specific protein, especially an antigen or antibody |
enrichment culture enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) |
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1.)an antibody molecule covalently modified with a fluorescent dye that makes the antibody visible under fluorescent light 2.)a growth medium that supports the growth of most aerobic and faculatively aerobic organisms 3.)agglutination of RBCs 4.)an interaction of antibody with antigen that reduces or blocks the biological activity of the antigen |
fluorescent antibody general purpose medium hemagglutination neutralization |
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1.)a reaction b/w antibody and soluble antigen resulting in visible antibody-antigen complexes 2.)__is a very sensitive in vitro assay technique used to measure concentrations of antigens (for example, hormone levels in the blood) by use of antibodies 3.)a growth medium that enhances the growth of certain organisms while inhibiting the growth of others due to an added media component |
precipitation radioimmunoassay (RIA) selective medium |
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1.)the lowest amount of antigen that can be detected by a diagnostic test 2.)a bloodborne systemic infection 3.)the study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro 4.)the ability of the immune response to interact with individual antigens, or the ability of a diagnostic or research test to identify a specific pathogen |
sensitivity septicemia serology specificity |
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1.)the quantity of antibody present in a solution 2.)clinical microbiology labs present significant biological __for workers 3.)standard lab practices for handling clinical samples are in place for what? 4.)labs are classified according to their containment potential or ___ 5.)standard BSL laboratories operate at what BSL? |
titer hazards to protect workers biosafety level (BSL), least to greatest (1-4) 2 |
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1.)universities for teaching and research are at what BSL 2.)fewer than __BSL 4 labs are operational worldwide 3.)__is a local or systemic infection acquired by a patient in a healthcare facility 4.)another name for HAI 5.)some HAI are acquired from __or __ |
1-2 50(CDC is one) healthcare-associated infection (HAI) nonsocomial infection patients, hospital personnel |
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1.)one of the most common and widespread HAI pathogens 2.)most common type of HAI are what? 3.)samples of tissues or fluids are collected for microbiological, immunological, and molecular biological analyses if what? 4.)samples may include __, urine, __, sputum, __, or pus |
1.)Stapylococcus aureus (causes pneumonia) 2.)urinary tract infections (catheters) 3.)a physician suspects a disease caused by an infectious agent 4.)blood, feces, CSF |
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1.)if a person is suspected of having meningitis, you do what? 2.)a specimen should be obtained from the site of infection and sample should be taken __, or free from the living germs of disease 3.)why must your sample size be large 4.)__requirements for the organism must be maintained during sampling, storage and transport |
cerebrospinal tap aseptically for growth metabolic |
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1.)can some pathogens be readily identified by microscopic examination of tissue samples 2.)one of several selective media used for primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is modified ___agar 3.)the reliability of any diagnostic test depends on the ___(ability of the test to recognize a single pathogen) and __(lowest #s of a pathogen that can be detected) |
yes Thayer-Martin (MTM) specificity, sensitivity |
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1.)tentative identification of an isolate is often achieved by observing colony characteristics on various __, which is then followed by more detailed tests to make a __identification 2.)__media support the growth of most aerobic and facultatively aerobic organisms 3.)example of a general purpose media |
media, positive general-purpose TSA or blood agar |
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1.)__media contain specific growth factors that enhance growth of certain fastidious pathogens 2.)example of a enriched media 3.)what enriched media enhances the growth of N. gonorrhoeae 4.)__media allow some organisms to grow while inhibiting others 5.)example of a selective media |
enriched media blood agar Thayer-Martin selective EMB, MSA |
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1.)__media allow identification of organisms based on their growth and appearance on the medium 2.)example of differential media 3.)eosin-methylene blue (EMB) agar is a selective medium that inhibits the growth of gram __bacteria while supporting the growth of gram __bacteria |
1.)differential 2.)EMB, MSA, biochemical test like fermentation media 3.)positive, negative |
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1.)EMB agar is differential because it distinguishes ___such as E.coli from ___organisms such as P. aeruginosa 2.)E. coli usually ferment what color 3.)nonfermenters ferment what color 4.)typhoid fever usually have __or blood in diarrhea 5.)staph infections can be placed on what? |
lactose fermenters, non-lactose fermenters green metallic sheen colorless desentery MSA |
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1.)S. aureus appears __on MSA 2.)does staph grow and ferment on mannitol 3.)staphylococcus __lives on skin 4.)__is the presence of bacteria in the blood and is uncommon in healthy individuals 5.)__is a blood infection 6.)__cultures are the only immediate way of isolating and identifying the causative agent of septicemia |
yellow yes epidermis bacteremia septicemia blood |
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1.)urinary tract infections are common especially in __ 2.)disease causing agents of urinary infections are often ___ 3.)__test for urinary tract infections can be used to identify infections 4.)general purpose media like __can be used for initial isolation |
women normal microflora dipstick blood agar |
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1.)urine cultures can be done quantitatively by counting colonies on __agar or a ___agar medium(EMB, McConkey agar) 2.)is a culture medium designed to selectively grow Gram-negative bacteria and differentiate them for lactose fermentation
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blood, selective McConkey |
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1.)for a urine test, you want to disinfect genitalia then what is the procedure when urinating? 2.)you want to do what with the urine sample to prevent bacterial growth 3.)if you put it on EMB and you get gram negative rods, you know you have __(causes bladder inf) 4.)do pathogens usually have a higher number of colonies |
1.)let the first stream go into toilet, it flushes out the urethra (don't want normal microflora) 2.)refrigerate 3.)E. coli yes |
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1.)___is a lactose non-fermenter 2.)staph aureus would have a __MSA result 3.)Strep pyogenes is __hemolytic and a catalase 4.)__test are differential (+/- reactions) and you are looking for enzyme reactions 5.)to determine if something is a catalyst, you put bacteria in H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) and what indicates a positive test |
Salmonella positive beta biochemical bubbles |
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1.)phenol red is a __ 2.)in phenol red broth, you have ___in it 3.)fermentation of the carbohydrate in phenol broth results in what 4.)for the citrate test, __is the carbon source and __indicates a positive test 5.)can the isolation, growth, and identification of obligant anaerobes be complicated |
pH indicator carbohydrates(glucose) acid or gas production citrate, blue yes
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1.)anaerobic specimens must be placed in a tube containing oxygen free gas, usually a dilute solution containing a reducing agent such as __and a redox indicator such as __to monitor oxygen contamination 2.)for anoxic incubation, agar plates are placed in a sealed gar (___)filled with oxygen free gas such as __and __ |
thioglycolate, resazurin glove box, hydrogen or nitrogen |
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1.)are pathogens subject to several biochemical test for identification 2.)__media incorporate biochemical test to measure the presence or absence of enzymes involved in catabolism of specific substrates 3.)EMB is selective because it inhibits __growth and allows __growth 4.)EMB agar pH |
yes differential gram positive, gram negative 7.2 |
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1.)E. coli appears dark on EMB and bacteria that produce less acid(non-lactose ferm.) appear __ 2.)__is a procedure for antibiotic susceptibility testing employs an antibiotic dilution assay, it is the smallest amount of an agent needed to completely inhibit the growth of test organisms |
pink(Salmonella, Shigella, Psuedomonas) Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) |
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1.)for MIC, wells containing serial dilutions of antibiotics are inoculated with a standard amount of a test organism and you look for? 2.)__is a test that is a non-diffusion based technique that employs a preformed and predefined gradient of an antimicrobial agent immobilized on a plastic strip |
inhibited growth ETest |
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1.)__is a standard procedure for assessing antimicrobial activity (Kirby Bauer) test, the agar media is spread evenly with culture of bacteria 2.)a zone of __forms with the disc diffusion, growth is absent close to the disc 3.)__zones are used to determine an organisms susceptibility to an antimicrobial agent |
Disc diffusion test inhibition inhibition |
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1.)physicians can often identify an infection by measuring the patients antibody __against antigens produced by the pathogen 2.)__, __, and __are common test used to measure antibody titter 3.)the ___is the highest dilution (lowest concentration) of serum at which an antigen-antibody is observed |
titer agglutintiona, ELISA, radioimmunoassay titer
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1.)___test like the tuberculin test used tuberculosis is another method for determining exposure to a pathogen 2.)__is the study of antigen-antibody reactions in vitro 3.)can serological reactions be used for many diagnostic immunology test |
skin serology yes |
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1.)the usefulness of a serological test for diagnostic purposes is dependent on the tests __and __ 2.)__is the ability of an antibody preparation to recognize a single antigen while __defines the lowest amount of an antigen that can be detected |
specificity, sensitivity specificity, sensitivity |
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1.)__is the visible clumping of a particulate antigen when mixed with antibodies specific for the particulate antigens 2.)agglutination tests are typically more sensitive than __test 3.)the separation of an antigen from a solution by the formation of a large complex with its specific antibody. |
agglutination precipitation precipitation |
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1.)standardized agglutination tests are used to identify __group antigens and many pathogens 2.)__agglutination results when soluble antibody causes clumping due to interaction with an antigen that is an integral part of the surface of a cell or other insoluble particle 3.)direct agglutination is used for the classification of antigens found on the surface of? |
blood direct RBCs |
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1.)__agglutination is the agglutination of soluble antigens or antibodies that have been absorbed or chemically coupled to cells or insoluble particles such as latex beads or charcoal 2.)__agglutination can be up to five times more sensitive than __agglutination 3.)antibodies can be modified with fluorescent dyes to help detect __on intact cells |
passive passive, direct antigens
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1.)two common fluorescent dyes are __which fluoresces red or __which fluoresces yellow-green 2.)with immunoflorescence if the pathogen contains surface antigens reactive with the antibody, the pathogen will __ 3.)can fluorescent antibodies be applied directly to infected host tissues allowing for rapid diagnosis? |
rhodamine B, fluorescein isothiocyanate fluoresce yes |
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1.)are fluorescent antibody assays also used in the diagnosis of noninfectious diseases (malignant cells)? 2.)fluorescent antibodies can also be used to define the number of individual cell types in complex mixtures like __ 3.)with __fluoresce method, the antibody targeted against the surface antigen is covalently linked to the fluorescent dye |
yes blood direct |
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1.)with __fluoresce method, the presence of a nonfluorescent antibody n the surface of a cell is detected by use of a fluorescent antibody directed against the nonfluorescent antibody 2.)are ELISA and radioimmunoassay methods widely used in clinical diagnostic and research applications |
indirect yes |
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1.)__employs covalently bonded enzymes to label antibody molecules while __employs radioisotopes to label antibody molecules 2.)both ELISA and RIA allow detection of __complexes 3.)direct EIA is detection of a __, while indirect EIA is detection of __ |
EIA (ELISA), RIA(radioimmunoassay) antigen-antibody antigen, antibody |
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1.)__is the interaction of antibody with antigen to block or distort the antigen sufficiency to reduce or eliminate its biological activity, can be done in vitro or in vivo 2.)__results from interaction of a soluble antibody with a soluble antigen to form an insoluble complex 3.)are precipitation reactions very informative and easily observed in vitro |
neutralization precipitation yes |
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1.)antimicrobial drugs are classified on the basis of __structure, mechanism of __, and spectrum of __activity 2.)two categories of antimicrobial drugs 3.)__are structurally similar to growth factors but do not function in the cell 4.)analogs are similar to what? |
molecular, action, antimicrobial synthetic antimicrobial drugs, antibodies growth factor analogs vitamins, amino acids |
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1.)__were discovered by Gerhard Domagk in the 1930s and inhibit the growth of bacteria(sulfanilamide is the simplest) 2.)__is a growth analog effective only against Mycobacterium 3.)what does isoniazid do 4.)__are antibacterial compounds that interfere with DNA gyrase (ciprofloxacin) |
sulfa drugs isoniazid interferes with synthesis of mycolic acid quinolones |
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1.)__are naturally produced antimicrobial agents 2.)fewer than __% of known antibiotics are clinically useful 3.)antibodies can be modified to enhance efficacy, it is __ 4.)does the susceptibility of microbes to different antibiotics vary greatly |
antibiotics 1 semisynthetic yes |
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1.)do gram positive and negative bacteria vary in their sensitivity to antibiotics 2.)broad spectrum antibiotics are effective against what? 3.)name a broad spectrum antibiotic 4.)__are on of the most important groups of antibiotics of all time 5.)B-Lactam includes __and __ and are over half of all antibiotics used worldwide |
yes both gram + and - tetracycline B-Lactam penicillins, cephalosporins |
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1.)penicillins were discovered by __and are effective primarily against gram __bacteria 2.)are some synthetic forms of penicillin effective against some gram negative bacteria 3.)penicillin target __synthesis 4.)__are produced by the fungus cephalosporium, have the same mode of action as penicillin, and have a broader spectrum of activity then penicillin |
alexander fleming, positive yes cell wall cephalosporins |
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1.)cephalosporins are resistant to enzymes that destroy __ring 2.)cephalosporins are commonly used to treat __ 3.)most antiviral drugs also target host structures, resulting in ___ 4.)most successful and commonly used antivirals are the ___analogs 5.)nucleoside analogs block __transcriptase and production of viral DNA |
B-lactam gonorrhea toxicity nucleoside reverse |
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1.)nucleoside analgos are also called __ 2.)___bind directly to reverse transcriptase and inhibit reverse transcrption 3.)__inhibitors inhibit the processing of large viral proteins into individual components 4.)__inhibitors prevent viruses from successfully fusing with the host cell |
nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors protease fusion |
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1.)one category of drugs successfully limits influenza infection, what are they called 2.)__are small proteins that prevent viral multiplication by stimulating antiviral proteins in uninfected cells 3.)fungi pose special problems for chemotherapy because they are __ 4.)much of the cellular machinery of fungi is the same as that of animals and humans, as a result, many antifungals are used only for __ |
neuraminidase inhibitors (tamiflue, Relenza) interferons eukaryotico topical (surface) |
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1.)a few drugs are selectively toxic for fungi because they target unique fungal structures or __processes 2.)__inhibitors target the unique fungal plasma membrane component ergosterol 3.)__are ell wall inhibitors that block the activity of 1,3 B-D-glucan synthase, the enzyme that forms B-glucan polymers in the fungal cell wall |
metabolic ergosterol echinocandins |
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1.)echinocandins are used to treat what? 2.)are antifungal-resistant fungi emerging 3.)other drugs target __(cell wall component) biosynthesis, target folate synthesis, or disrupt __aggregation during mitosis 4.)__is the acquired ability of a microorganism to resist the effects of a chemotherapeutic agent to which it is normally sensitive |
Candida infections yes chitin, microtubule antimicrobial drug resistance |
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1.)5 reasons microorganisms are naturally resistant to certain antibiotics; the organism is __to the antibiotic, the organism can __the antibody, the organism may modify the __of the antibody, the organism may develop a resistant ___pathway, or the organism may be able to pump out the antibiotic which is called __ |
impermeable,inactivate, target, biochemical, efflux |
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1.)most drug resistant bacteria isolated from patients contain drug resistance genes located on __ 2.)evidence indicates the R plastid __the antibiotic era 3.)the use of antibiotics in medicine, veterinary medicine, and agriculture selects for the spread of __ |
R-plastids predate R plastids |
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1.)have almost all pathogenic microbes have acquired resistance to some chemotherapeutic agents 2.)a few pathogens have developed resistance to all known antimicrobial agents, name on 3.)resistance can be minimized by using antibiotics correctly and what? 4.)can resistance to a certain antibiotic be lost if the antibiotic is not used for several years |
yes methicillin-resistant S. aureus only when needed yes |
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1.)long term solution to antimicrobial resistance relies on the development of __compounds 2.)is modification of current antimicrobial compounds often productive 3.)automated chemistry methods (__chemistry) have sped up drug discovery 4.)how many compounds must be screened to find a single useful clinical drug |
new antimicrobial yes combinatorial 7 million
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1.)can computers be used to design molecules to interact with specific microbial structures 2.)one of the most successful computer-directed drug design is __, which binds to active site of HIV protease which slows the growth of HIV 3.)new methods of screening natural products are being used, this led to the discovery of __, which is the first antimicrobial drug targeted to disrupt bacterial lipid biosynthesis (gram +) |
yes saquinavir platenismycin |
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1.)combination of drugs can be used also, ampicillin can be mixed with __which are both B-lactasmase inhibitors |
sulbactam |
