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465 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what is microbiology?
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The study of microbes (microorganisms).
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What are microbes/microorganisms? What are some examples?
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They are minute living things that are usually unable to be viewed with the naked eye.
Examples: bacteria, fungi, protozoa, algae, viruses |
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T/F some microorganisms are pathogenic
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true
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what is pathogenesis?
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how an organ causes a disease
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what is virology?
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the study of viruses
95% of infections are from viruses |
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what is immunology?
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the study of the body's immune response to an infection
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where are microbes found?
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land, sea, body, air
found in water sources, the intestine, the air, soil, the environment, everywhere |
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what contains a large amount of both bacteria and viruses?
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sea water
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what do microbes do?
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decompose organic waste - bacteria
are producers in the ecosystem by photosynthesis - bacteria & algae produce industrial chemicals such as ethyl alcohol and acetone produce fermented foods such as vinegar, cheese, and bread - yeast, bacteria aid in digestion, production of essential vitamins cause disease - bacteria, viruses, yeast, & fungi they cause infections |
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why is the study of microbiology important to a health care professional?
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microorganisms are everywhere! they cause disease
they are involved in: natural disasters (people drink water containing bacteria), travel, food poisoning, hospitals (worst possible place for infectious diseases), bioterrorism, spread by different species |
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why is the study of microbiology important to a professional in the field of nutrition?
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understanding of food safety: food science, food handling and storage, laboratory analysis
understanding of microorganisms that have inherent beneficial effects |
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influenza virus
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the flu - particles are regular shaped
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giardia lamblia
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gastrointestinal effects - bad water sources (camping)
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mycobacterium tuberculosis
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TB - individual bacteria
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candida albicans
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yeast - irregular shaped
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what did we believe caused disease before we knew about microorganisms?
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illness may be due to an imbalance of "humors" in the body; fever or redness of the skin indicating too much blood >> blood letting
illness may be due to evil spirits - procession held to ward off bubonic plague in 14th century (black plague) |
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what are the 4 "humors" in the body? what do they correspond to?
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black bile
yellow bile phlegm blood corresponds to temperament and condition |
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what was used to control the plague back then?
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mass graves - "bring out your dead!"
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what year was the black plague? how many people died in how many years and where did it occur? how did it spread?
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1350
25 million people in Europe died within 5 years rats and fleas carried the diseases |
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when was tuberculosis rampant? some info on it?
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the 19th century
people didn't want to be near other people who had it |
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who was Antoni van Leeuwenhoek and what did he discover?
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a dutch merchant (1632-1723)
that we are inhibited by microbes (at least, our teeth are) he was the first to see microbes by developing a microscope that magnified 300x (wanted to see what he couldn't see) |
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what did Antoni van Leeuwenhoek name the "tiny animals" (microbes) he observed in plaque from his teeth and older people's teeth?
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"animalcules"
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who was Louis Pasteur and what did he discover?
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He was a French chemist and microbiologist (1822-1895).
He studied the microbiology of wines. He discovered that yeast was responsibly for fermentation (converting sugars to alcohol)(microorganisms and grape juice). He associated the presence of bacteria (not just yeast) with the spoilage of wine. We must have a certain mirobe to ferment wine and not spoil it He discovered that disease may be caused by microbial activity and germs (Germ theory of disease) |
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when was the Golden Age of Microbiology and what was it?
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1857-1914
beginning with Pasteur's work, discoveries included the relationship between microbes and disease, immunity, and antimicrobial drugs How do we prevent disease by killing microbes? |
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when looking through a microscope at a culture dyed, the large clumps were ____ and the small clumps were ____
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large clumps = bacteria
small clumps = viruses |
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T/F there are many different types of microorganisms
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true
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what years was the microscope discovered that led to the visualization of microbes?
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The early 1700s
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what years was the relationship between microbes and diseases found?
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early 1800s
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who discovered the relationship between microbes and diseases?
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Pasteur
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who was pasteur's cohort?
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Robert Koch
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what did robert kock do?
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he was the first to grow a disease causing bacterium in pure culture (isolated from any other living microbe). He also could prove that a specific disease was caused by a specific type of bacteria. He studied Anthrax (disease for a particulate bacteria) and other microorganisms (first one linked to a specific disease)
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what process did robert koch use to prove that a specific disease was caused by a specific type of bacterium? when?
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"Koch's Postulates"
1890 |
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T/F robert koch was irish
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false, he was german
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T/F, Koch wanted to do experiments to see if certain microorganisms were associated with certain diseases.
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TRUE
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T/F, koch wasn't able to find nutritional media to grow microorganisms
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false, he was able to
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what are the 4 steps of koch's postulates?
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1) the microbe is found in all cases of disease, but absent from healthy individuals
2) the microbe is isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture 3) when the microbe is introduced into a healthy, susceptible host, the same disease occurs 4) the same strain of microbe is obtained from the newly diseased host |
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T/F in Koch's postulates, the rabbit in step 3 should show the same symptoms as the rabbit in step 1
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TRUE
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what does koch's postulates cycle show?
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shows that it is the microbe that causes the animal to die
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who discovered tuberculosis?
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koch
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pathogenesis
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how a disease occurs
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what does HIV stand for?
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human immune deficiency virus
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T/F all microorganisms cause infections
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FALSE, only a tiny fraction of microbes cause infections
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pathogen
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a microorganism that causes an infection
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T/F only a fraction of pathogens affect humans
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TRUE
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what is a degree of virulence?
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the potential of a pathogen to cause disease is referred to as its degree of virulence
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T/F the tobacco mosaic virus effects only tobacco plants
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true, it is very specific
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T/F all staph strains are the same and effect all organisms
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false, one staph strain is not the same as another and not all organisms are effected by certain strains
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T/F if a pathogen is highly virulent, it takes a lot of that pathogen for the disease to occur
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FALSE, if a pathogen is highly virulent, it doesn't takes a lot of that pathogen for the disease to occur (its an inverse relationship between the number of pathogens and its virulence)
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many bacteria and some fungi are part of the _______ _______ ______ of the body
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many bacteria and some fungi are part of the NORMAL MICROBIA FLORA of the body
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where do the normal microbial flora colonize?
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they naturally colonize the skin and mucosal surfaces (lining of internal organs and external organs exposed to environment)
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T/F our normal microbial flora (microbiota) is always harmless to us
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false, they are, most of the time, completely harmless
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T/F some of the normal microbial flora (microbiota) provide important products and services to the body
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true
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T/F the microorganisms in our bodies are mainly bacterial
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true
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T/F the lungs do not harbor bacteria or microorganisms until you get a disease in the lungs
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true
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what is good and bad about the gastric juices in the stomach
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the acidic environment is good to bread down food, but it inhibits the growth of microorganisms
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where are most of the microorganisms in the body?
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in the colon
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T/F when a baby is born, it gets some of the flora of the mother
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true
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check out this website
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http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK7617/
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what are the beneficial properties of bifidobacteria?
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they are "friendly" bacteria in the intestines of human
1) they reduce blood ammonia levels 2) they lower serum cholesterol levels 3) they act as immunomodulators (by promoting attacks on malignant cells) 4) they produce vitamins (B vitamins, folic acid, and vitamin K) 5) they promote the normalization of the intestinal flora following antibiotic therapy 6) they inhibit the growth of potential pathogens (by producing acetate and lactate) |
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bifidobacteria make up ___% of total bacterium population in adults
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25%
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bifidobacteria take up ___% of total bacterium population in infants (breast fed)
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95%
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your digestive tract is home to more than ____ different species of bacteria; ideally 80% are (good/bad) bacteria and 20% are (good/bad) bacteria
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your digestive tract is home to more than 500 different species of bacteria; ideally 80% are good bacteria and 20% are bad bacteria
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There are literally trillions of individual bacteria residing in the ___________, with the majority of the population living in the ________.
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There are literally trillions of individual bacteria residing in the digestive tract, with the majority of the population living in the large intestine.
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The two most prevalent probiotics are ______, which make up the majority of the probiotics living in your small intestine, and ______, the most prevalent probiotic living in your large intestine.
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The two most prevalent probiotics are Lactobacilli, which make up the majority of the probiotics living in your small intestine, and Bifidobacteria, the most prevalent probiotic living in your large intestine.
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bacteria produce ammonia from _____
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proteins
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build up of ammonia can cause _________
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liver failure
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bifidobacteria are present in high percentages in your ________
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intestines
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what medication can be used in place of bifidobacteria if you can't breast feed?
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Babylife
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T/F if you take antibiotics, you kill the good guys, but bifidobacteria is resistant to it and help build up normal flora
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true
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T/F bifidobacteria just sits in your gut
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false, they are growing
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T/F just by growing themselves, bifidobacteria lessens the amount of growth of bad bacteria
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true
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T/F bifidobacteria enhance your immune response
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true
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Under certain circumstances, organisms that are part of your normal flora become ______. Some triggers include ______, ______, _______, etc.
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Under certain circumstances, organisms that are part of your normal flora become pathogenic. Some triggers include: stress, malnutrition, recurrent infections, pregnancy, medical procedures, antibiotic treatment, skin damage, etc.
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When organisms become pathogenic, the organisms are called ________ _______ and typically possess a mild degree of virulence. (some causes, it is more than just mild)
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When organisms become pathogenic, the organisms are called opportunistic pathogens and typically possess a mild degree of virulence. (some causes, it is more than just mild)
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T/F Your body keeps everything in check. Once body is unable to keep them in check, flora can become pathogenic.
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true
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T/F Flora can be benign in one spot of the body, but can travel somewhere else and can become harmful and cause disease there
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true
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___________ __________ is present in the upper respiratory tract of approx. 50% of the population
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streptococcus pneumoniae
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_______ _______ becomes pathogenic under certain conditions, causing pneumonia if it invades lower respiratory tract
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streptococcus pneumoniae
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streptococcus pneumoniae is the causative agent of ___% of bacterial pneumonia
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95%
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streptococcus pneumoniae causes _____ ____ (mid ear infection), ______ (sinuses), _______ (lining of brain), _____ (blood infection - extremely dangerous and can lead to death), etc. (other respiratory tract infections)
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streptococcus pneumoniae causes otitis media (mid ear infection), sinisitus (sinuses), meningitis (lining of brain), sepsis (blood infection – extremely dangerous and can lead to death) etc. (other respiratory tract infections)
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T/F There are different organisms (like viruses and fungi) that can cause pneumonia other than steptococcus pneumoniae
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true
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streptococcus pneumoniae is an "____ _____" because it has the opportunity to cause disease
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“Opportunistic pathogen”
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T/F some pathogens are ALWAYS highly virulent
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true
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T/F highly virulent pathogens are never associated with disease
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FALSE, they are always associated with disease
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______ ______ is a causative agent of bubonic plague
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Yersinia pestis
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how is Yersinia pestis spread?
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by rodents, fleas (they contain their own vector for their particular bacteria, so they don't get ill but they do transfer it), infected humans (humans can get sick and can transfer it as well)
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T/F Yersinia pestis is a sudden and severe disease
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true
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Yersinia pestis involves _______ _____, blood vessels, and what organ?
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involves lymph nodes, blood vessels, and lungs
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The bubonic plague was the most commonly seen form of the _____ ______. The mortality rate was ___-___%
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The bubonic plague was the most commonly seen form of the Black Death. The mortality rate was 30-75%
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the symptoms of ____ ______ include enlarged and inflamed lymph nodes (around arm pits, neck, and groin)
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Yersinia pestis
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The term '_______' refers to the characteristic bubo or enlarged lymphatic gland.
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The term 'bubonic' refers to the characteristic bubo or enlarged lymphatic gland.
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what are other symptoms of Yersinia pestis besides inflamed lymph nodes? how long does it take for symptoms to appear?
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Victims were subject to headaches, nausea, aching joints, fever of 101-105 degrees, vomiting, and a general feeling of illness. Symptoms took from 1-7 days to appear.
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virulence
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the degree to which something can cause disease
if highly virulent, it WILL cause disease |
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what are the inflamed lymph nodes on the neck called? how can they be treated?
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The bump on her neck is called a Bubo? It is inflammation of the lymph nodes. This can be treated with antibiotics
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T/F Different serotypes of the same microorganism can be beneficial or pathogenic
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true
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what is beneficial about escherichia coli (E. coli)? where is it found in the body?
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benefits the host by producing vitamin K and preventing colonization of gut with harmful bacteria.
commonly found in the lower intestines |
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what are the pathogenic characteristics of E. coli?
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0157:H7 is pathogenic. It can cause serious food poisoning. It can lead to renal failure, and people can die from it.
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T/F In the same strain of E. coli, some versions are beneficial, and other strains are harmful
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TRUE
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How do you acquire E.coli infection?
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From meat products that are infected or water sources. Can come from the animal’s feces, or it can be part of the cow’s normal flora and its not pathogenic to IT, but it is to US so WE can get sick even tho it doesn’t. Can also be in contaminated water sources. Also the surface of animals – by touching them.
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most pathogens can be looked at from the following 3 perspectives:
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epidemiology
pathogenesis host defense |
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what is epidemiology?
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the study of the factors determining the frequency and distribution of disease. So, how common it is in a certain population, what time of year it is, etc.? Can identify trends and help certain populations to learn how to prevent it
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what is pathogenesis?
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the study of how the disease develops. You look at everything in pathogenesis: how the pathogenesis gets in the body, where it is growing, how it is growing, etc.
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what is host defense?
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the study of how the host controls/interacts with the pathogen. Synonymous with host immune response, etc.
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in an epidemiological report on the number of influenza-associated pediatric deaths by week of death, the pink area shows deaths in certain months. what does this tell us?
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The pathogens are adapting during these months. This chart tells us that we have to develop a new vaccine for the spring and summer months for the new strain because influenza mutates.
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T/F Microbes are found in all major groups (“domains”) of life
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true
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who classified the 3 domains of life based on differences in rRNA?
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Carl Woese
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what are the 3 domains of life?
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they come from an ancestor
1) bacteria 2) archaea 3) eukarya |
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which 2 domains are prokaryotes?
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1) bacteria
2) archaea |
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which domain is eukaryote?
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3) eukarya
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what are 3 types of eukarya?
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1) algae and plants
2) fungi and animals 3) protists |
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viruses need _____ cells to replicate
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viruses need host cells to replicate
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what domains of life can you find microorganisms?
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in all domains of life
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what are the 3 domain classifications based on?
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genetic frequencies
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which domain contains single cell organisms, but are able to survive in extreme conditions (volcanoes, high salt pools, etc.)?
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archaea
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which domain contains single cell organisms and can't survive in extreme conditions?
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bacteria
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T/F viruses aren't classified as being alive (unlike microorganisms)
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true, because they need a host cell to exist
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what are the 2 types of archaea?
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1) extreme halophiles
2) extreme thermophiles |
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what are extreme halophiles?
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the "salt lovers"
require an environment as salty or even 10x saltier than ocean water. Some prefer up to 30% salt concentrations! These bacteria live in the Dead Sea, the Great Salt Lake, salt evaporation ponds. |
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what are extreme thermophiles?
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"heat/cold lovers"
they prefer temperatures about 60 degrees C (up to 110 degrees C for hyperthermophiles!) or near or below freezing. (some thermophiles will die at room temp.) |
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where do thermophiles live?
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in hot sulfur springs, Yellowstone park, deep sea hydrothermal vents "black smokers", geothermal power plants. Also live in ocean waters around Antarctica, under the polar ice caps, etc.
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what are two species of thermophiles?
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Thermus aquaticus and Pyrococcus furiosis
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what are two types of bacteria?
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1) cyanobacteria
2) eubacteria |
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what are cyanobacteria?
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photosynthetic "blue-green" bacteria = produce O2 gas. Photosynthetic bacteria first appeared in the fossil record 3.2 billion years ago, and completely changed Earth's environment from anaerobic (no free oxygen) to aerobic (containing oxygen gas) - these bacteria made the O2 rich atmosphere in which we live!!! These bacteria are very closely related to eukaryotic chloroplasts
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what are eubacteria?
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The "true bacteria". Examples: Enteric bacteria like E. coli, Salmonella typhus, Legionella, Heliobacter pylorii (cause of many ulcers), Neisseria gonorrhea (cause of gonorrhea), Nitrogen-fixing bacteria that are able to convert nitrogen gas into ammonia. Clostridium (tetanus, botulism). Bacteria within this division - proteobacteria - are very closely related to eukaryotic mitochondria (more on this later) and often move by whip-like flagella. Heterotrophic – use carbon as an energy source
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_________ can live in extreme conditions
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Extremeophiles
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_________ can live in extreme temperatures
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Thermophiles
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_________ can live in high salt conditions
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Halophiles
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what are small, ancient prokaryotic cells with no nucleus?
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bacteria
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what are larger, more complex organisms?
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eukaryota
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what are tiny, tough ancient prokaryotes with no nucleus - extremeophiles?
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archaea
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) is membrane bound?
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eukaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) has a nucleiod?
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prokaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) has several layers, not membrane bound?
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prokaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) has complex subcellular structures (membrane bound compartments - all contained with certain functions)?
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eukaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) has envelope with lipid membrane boundaries - plus structural cell wall?
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prokaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) is bacteria (a bacterial cell) and has proteins?
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prokaryote
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which one (eukaryote/prokaryote) has a flagellum?
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prokaryote
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T/F both prokaryotes and eukaryotes can exist in multi-cell groups like organs and tissues
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true! new discovery
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in a picture of a cell with dark grey and light grey areas, the light grey area is the _____________ material
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genetic material
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what is the purpose of the flagellum for the bacterial cell (prokaryote)?
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it helps it move
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what is the shape of cocci?
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spheres
in bunches, chains, and quartets |
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what is the shape of bacilli?
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sticks, rods
alone, in chains, and spiral |
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what is the shape of vibrios (cholera)?
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bent rods
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what different shapes are considered irregular?
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squares, starts, filaments
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what are the two most common kinds of bacterial shapes?
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cocci and bacilli
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what is Morphology?
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Morphology is a branch of biology dealing with the study of the form and structure of organisms and their specific structural
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what is the origin of viruses?
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it is unknown
it is hypothesized that precursors to viruses and cells originated in pre-biotic environment |
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T/F viruses come in different shapes and sizes
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true
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what shape is a rabies virus?
|
round on one end and flat on the other
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how are viruses defined?
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by the material they have and the host they have
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what is electron microscopy?
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higher resolution than light microscopy
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what is bigger, a bacterium or virus?
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bacterium
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what is bigger, a bacterium or an animal cell?
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animal cell
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what is bigger, a plant cell or an animal cell?
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plant cell
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can viruses be seen under light microscopy? can bacterium?
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viruses, no
bacterium, yes |
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1 meter = _______ mm = ______ micrometers = ______ nm
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1 meter = 1,000 mm = 1,000,000 micrometers = 1,000,000,000 nm
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1.5 mm = ______ micrometers
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1,500 micrometers (just multiply it by 1,000)
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if an E. coli is 5 micrometers and a tip of a pin is 1.5 mm, how many E. coli are on the tip of the pin?
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1.5 mm = 1,500 micrometers (just multiply it by 1,000)
1,500 micrometers/5 micrometers = 300 E. coli |
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what is the resolution of human eyes?
|
150 mm
|
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what can we use to see smaller objects like microbes?
|
a microscope
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how does a microscope work to help us see?
|
magnification by lenses spread light rays out - increasing its resolution
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life on earth is based on what kinds of reactions?
|
chemical reactions
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why is an understanding of chemistry essential?
|
it is essential to understanding cellular structure and function
it is essential to understanding the pathogenic effects of infectious diseases |
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tissues are organized in the following way:
atoms --> ______ --> ________ --> tissues |
atoms --> molecules --> cells --> tissues
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what bonds are critical for the processes in atoms, molecules, cells, and tissues?
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chemical bonds
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tissues are made up of _____
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cells
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cells are made up of ______
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molecules
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molecules are made up of _______
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atoms
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the core of atoms consists of ______ and ______
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protons and neutrons
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the number of protons equals the atomic ______
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atomic number
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the number of neutrons is usually equal to the number of protons, and their total amount equals the atomic _______
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atomic weight
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T/F shells occupied by electrons have a limited capacity
|
true
|
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how many electrons are in the first shell? second? third?
|
first - 2 electrons
second - 8 electrons third - 18 electrons (but needs 8 to be stable) |
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the _____ is a basic unit of matter that consists of a dense, central _______ surrounded by a cloud of negatively charged electrons.
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The atom is a basic unit of matter that consists of a dense, central nucleus surrounded by a cloud of negatively charged electrons.
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The atomic nucleus contains a mix of positively charged _________ and electrically neutral _______ (except in the case of hydrogen-1, which is the only stable nuclide with no neutrons)
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The atomic nucleus contains a mix of positively charged protons and electrically neutral neutrons (except in the case of hydrogen-1, which is the only stable nuclide with no neutrons)
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The electrons of an atom are bound to the nucleus by the _______ ________.
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The electrons of an atom are bound to the nucleus by the electromagnetic force.
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A group of atoms can remain bound to each other, forming a _________
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A group of atoms can remain bound to each other, forming a molecule
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An atom containing an equal number of protons and electrons is electrically neutral, otherwise it has a positive charge (electron deficiency) or negative charge (electron excess) and is an _____.
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ion
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An atom is classified according to the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus: the number of protons determines the ________ element, and the number of neutrons determines the _______ of the element
|
An atom is classified according to the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus: the number of protons determines the chemical element, and the number of neutrons determines the isotope of the element
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If the electron shell is not full, it is _________.
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If the electron shell is not full, it is unstable.
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T/F Atoms with unstable electron shells can give or receive electrons to other atoms
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true, This stabilizes the atom and makes ionic bonding possible.
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what do atoms and electrons do because they aren't always stable?
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they collide and form molecules
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_________ bonding happens when an atom isn’t stable and interacts with another atom to become stable
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Chemical bonding happens when an atom isn’t stable and interacts with another atom to become stable
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_______ bonds occur when one atom donates an electron and one atom receives an electron.
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ionic bonds
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sodium chloride is an example of what type of bond?
|
ionic bond
|
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in a sodium chloride bond, _____ donates an electron. ______ receives an electron
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sodium donates and chloride receives
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when electrons are donated or received, atoms are ______
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ionized
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in _______ bonds, electrons are shared
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covalent bonds
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one pair shared forms a ______ bond
two pairs shared forms a _____ bond |
single bond
double bond |
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T/F covalent bonds can't have polarity
|
FALSE, they can have polarity
|
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nonpolar
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equal sharing of electrons
|
|
polar
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unequal sharing of electrons
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polar covalent bonds have a (strong/weak) electrical charge
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weak
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in ______ bonds, there is no donating or accepting of electrons
|
covalent bonds
|
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in H2O, which end is slightly positive and which is slightly negative?
|
the H2 is slightly positive, while the O is slightly negative
|
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H20 is a ______ bond
|
covalent
|
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T/F covalent bonding is the basis for organic molecules
|
true
|
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carbon has an atomic number of _____. It has 2 electrons in the first shell, ____ electrons in the second shell, and needs ____ shared electrons to make the second shell stable
|
carbon has an atomic number of 6. It has 2 electrons in the first shell, 4 electrons in the second shell, and needs 4 shared electrons to make the second shell stable
|
|
what element is the main backbone that likes to bond?
|
carbon
|
|
hydrogen bonds are found ______ and _________ molecular structures
|
between and within
|
|
______ bonds help determine and maintain structures of proteins and nucleic acids
|
hydrogen bonds
|
|
T/F the strength and length of hydrogen bonds are affected by many variables
|
true
|
|
what are two factors that can affect hydrogen bonds?
|
temperature and pH
|
|
water has three major properties:
|
solubility
reactivity heat capacity |
|
without _______, our body cannot undergo metabolism
|
water
|
|
T/F many molecules can be dissolved in water
|
true, this is why it is very soluble
|
|
a solution is made up of two ingredients: _____ and _____
|
solvent and solute. water is a great solvent, and the solute can be anything that is dissolved in the water
|
|
water causes "spheres of _____"
|
hydration
|
|
Water molecules in a hydration sphere are called _____ water
|
bound water
|
|
Sodium binds to (H2/O) and chloride binds to (H2/O)
|
Na+ binds to O-
Cl- binds to H2+ |
|
what makes water have a reactivity factor?
|
chemical reactions normally occur in water
dehydration synthesis hydrolysis |
|
hydrolysis
|
using water to break down molecules (Add water)
|
|
dehydration synthesis
|
removing water to build molecules
during dehydration synthesis, a water molecule is lost, electrons are rearranged, and a new bond is formed between the subunits. Also, it can be used to join the subunits of each large molecules |
|
what makes water have heat capacity factors?
|
it has the ability to absorb and retain heat
chemical reactions give off heat as a by-product |
|
T/F in order to break things down, you need to have water
|
true
|
|
T/F once you break things down, you need to build things
|
true
|
|
T/F microorganisms can only live at a perfect pH
|
false, they can live in acidic or alkaline environments
|
|
acidity is (high/low) on the pH scale and is an excess of (H+/OH-)
|
acidity is low numbers on the pH scale and is an excess of H+ ions
|
|
alkalinity (basic) is (high/low) on the pH scale and is an excess of (H+/OH-)
|
alkalinity (basic) is high numbers on the pH scale and is an excess of OH- ions
|
|
what is a neutral pH number?
|
7.0
|
|
what pH range do organisms like to grow?
|
6.5-9
|
|
what normally happens to organisms when they are exposed to H+ or OH- molecules?
|
they bond to them and die away
|
|
T/F pH and temperature both play a role in determining the ability of bacteria to grow and thrive in particular environments
|
true
|
|
what pH range does bacteria normally grow?
|
6.7 - 7.5
|
|
acidophiles prefer _____ conditions.
|
acidic
|
|
Thiobacillus ferrooxidans thrive in rivers, canals, mine drainage effluents, and coal mines, which are at a (low/high) pH, which means its (acidic/basic)
|
low pH, acidic
|
|
cholera can thrive at a (low/high) pH, which is (Acidic/basic)
|
high pH, basic
|
|
biohydrometallurgy
|
microbial mediated extraction of metals from minerals or solid wastes and acid mine (more biological than chemical way to attract metals)
|
|
how does Thiobacillus ferrooxidans survive in a low pH?
|
it is resistant to H+ trying to bind to it
it has a way to get rid of H+ because of something that is on its cell structure. It may release a halo that protects it. |
|
T/F sometimes, molecules thrive off of H+ by taking it in and using it
|
true
|
|
Vibrio cholera is an infection of the _______ ______ and causes what?
|
Vibrio cholera is an infection of the small intestine and causes acute diarrhea.
|
|
where is Vibrio cholera found?
|
in contaminated water, sewage, shellfish, contaminated produce and sea water
|
|
Vibrio cholera prefers a high pH to evolve (basic), but it is found in the stomach (acidic). So, how does it cause disease in humans?
|
If a lot of cholera bacteria gets into the stomach, it gets into the lining of the stomach and hides there, because there is a higher pH there. Also, eating increases the pH in the stomach, so while you eat and you have cholera, its more likely to survive in your stomach.
|
|
biological molecules are also referred to as _____ organic molecules
|
organic molecules
|
|
what are the 4 major categories of biological molecules?
|
1) carbohydrates
2) lipids 3) proteins 4) nucleic acids |
|
T/F all 4 categories of biological molecules use carbon as their backbone
|
true
|
|
________ bonds in large organic molecules provide energy to living organisms (metabolism)
|
chemical bonds
|
|
all CHOs contain _____, ______, and ______
|
carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen
|
|
which of the 4 categories of biological molecules can be viewed as the most easily used and best source of energy because it is very easy to break their bonds?
|
CHOs
|
|
T/F Organisms and cells can break down or build up carbohydrates.
|
true
|
|
__________ in food processing typically is the conversion of carbohydrates to alcohols and carbon dioxide or organic acids using yeasts, bacteria, or a combination thereof, under anaerobic conditions. A more restricted definition of _______ is the chemical conversion of sugars into ethanol. The science of _________ is known as zymurgy.
|
fermentation
|
|
When CHOs are placed under anaerobic conditions (lacking oxygen), they go through a metabolism process called ______ where they produce alcohols or acids.
|
fermentation
|
|
what are the 3 major categories of CHOs?
|
monosaccharides
disaccharides polysaccharides |
|
what are monosaccharides?
|
smallest carbohydrate (i.e. Glucose)
Used to build bigger carbohydrate molecules |
|
what are disaccharides?
|
two monosaccharides (i.e sucrose)
|
|
what are polysaccharides?
|
many monosaccharides (i.e. Cellulose, Peptidoglycan – bacterial cell wall)
|
|
what type of CHO makes up the cell wall structures of bacteria?
|
polysaccharides
|
|
______ are chemically diverse groups of substances that include fats, phospholipids, and steroids.
|
lipids
|
|
lipids are relatively (soluble/insoluble) in water, which makes them very useful as elements of cellular structure
|
insoluble
|
|
lipids make up the basis of _____ ______ because of their insolubility
|
cell membranes
|
|
T/F Some lipids contain more energy than carbohydrates but are harder to break down.
|
TRUE
|
|
what are fats?
|
Fats are lipids that contain the three carbon molecule glycerol and one or more fatty acids.
|
|
saturated fats
|
contain all of the hydrogens that can possibly be bound
|
|
unsaturated fats
|
have lost hydrogens and formed double bonds at the locations of the missing hydrogens
|
|
fatty acids form (short/long) chains of ______
|
Fatty acids form long chains of carbons
|
|
fats are made by (hydrolysis/dehydration synthesis) and are broken by (hydrolysis/dehydration synthesis)
|
Fats are made by dehydration synthesis.
Fats are broken down by hydrolysis. |
|
a fatty acid is a _____ acid with a long unbranched aliphatic tail (chain), which is either saturated or unsaturated
|
carboxylic acid
|
|
Fatty acids are usually derived from ____ or _____
|
triglycerides or phospholipids
|
|
T/F Fatty acids are important sources of fuel because their metabolism yield large quantities of ATP
|
true
|
|
. In particular, _____ and ______ muscle prefer fatty acids.
|
heart and skeletal muscle
|
|
The brain cannot use fatty acids as a source of fuel; it relies on ______ or on _____ bodies.
|
glucose or on ketone bodies
|
|
_________are lipids with CHOs attached
|
glycolipids
|
|
________ are lipids with phosphates attached
|
phospholipids
|
|
___________ form barriers between the water inside the cell and the water outside the cell. They play important roles in bacterial cells
|
phospholipids
|
|
________ consist of four cycloalkaline rings joined to each other (i.e. cholesterol)
|
steroids
|
|
cholesterol is found in the _____ _____ of some eukaryotic cells
|
cell membranes
|
|
other steroids are found in fungal _____ _____
|
plasma membranes
|
|
_______ are are the establishment of the permeability barrier, provision of the environment for many enzyme and transporter proteins, and they influence membrane-related processes such as protein export and DNA replication
|
phospholipids
|
|
The ______ ________ pathway also provides precursors for protein modification and for the synthesis of other molecules.
|
lipid synthetic pathway
|
|
________ make up the cell membrane in our bodies
|
phospholipids
|
|
______ are really good making up the membrane because they have hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends that make a barrier against things
|
phospholipids
|
|
The cell membrane of almost all living organisms and many viruses are made of a _____ _______, as are the membranes surrounding the cell nucleus and other sub-cellular structures. It is the barrier that keeps ions, proteins and other molecules where they are needed and prevents them from diffusing into areas where they should not be
|
lipid bilayer
|
|
Bilayers are particularly impermeable to ions, which allows cells to regulate salt concentrations and pH by pumping ions across their membranes using proteins called ____ _____
|
ion pumps
|
|
Phospholipids have a _______ head and two _____ tails.
|
Phospholipids have a hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails.
|
|
T/F the lipid bilayer is a dynamic fluid structure
|
true
|
|
T/F the lipid bilayer doesn't allow anything to embed itself in it
|
false, You can have things embedded in the membrane
|
|
a large part of the metabolism occurs in the _____ ____
|
plasma membrane
|
|
T/F proteins are all very similar in structure and function
|
FALSE, they are very diverse in both structure and function
|
|
proteins are made up of ____ ____ building blocks
|
amino acid
|
|
amino acids contain one ______ group and one ____ group
|
carboxyl group and one amino group
|
|
T/F Each protein has a specific three dimensional shape that is directly related to function.
|
true
|
|
there are ___ amino acids
|
22
|
|
R groups are considered ____ groups
|
carboxyl groups
|
|
Carboxyl and amino groups combine on different amino acids combine to form a _____ bond through dehydration synthesis.
|
peptide bond
|
|
how does one amino acid interact with another amino acid?
|
the carboxyl groups interact
|
|
Proteins are made up of long sequences of linked amino acids, called ______
|
peptides
|
|
what is a dipeptide?
|
two amino acids
|
|
what is a polypeptide?
|
many amino acids
|
|
T/F some amino acids contain ____ atoms. They can form _____ bridges, which are important in protein structure
|
sulphur atoms
disulfide bridges |
|
T/F the length and variation of proteins are limited
|
FALSE, they are unlimited
|
|
Depending on the ____ groups associated with each amino acid, you can have certain bonds created, which increases the complexity of the protein
|
R groups (carboxyl groups)
|
|
the 3D structure of proteins is broken down into what 4 levels?
|
1) primary
2) secondary 3) tertiary 4) quaternary |
|
what is a primary protein?
|
sequence of amino acids in the peptide chain (linked together)
|
|
what is a secondary protein?
|
folding or coiling of the peptide chain (usually into a helix or pleated sheet) (side groups interact with other side groups) (types of bonds: hydrogen bonds, peptide bonds, disulfide ridges)
|
|
what is a tertiary protein?
|
peptide chain folds upon itself (becomes more complex and globular)
|
|
what is a quaternary protein?
|
folded peptide chains join together
|
|
how are the shapes of proteins held together?
|
hydrogen and disulfide bonds
|
|
T/F proteins cannot be denatured
|
false, they can be denatured
|
|
what factors may lead to proteins being denatured?
|
pH, temperature, ionic strength, and solubility factors can break hydrogen bonds
|
|
T/F changes in shape of a protein disrupt function
|
true
|
|
how does pH denature a protein?
|
acid has H+ ions that start to interact with the protein and disrupt its structure
|
|
how does temperature denature protein?
|
it makes the molecules move faster and the bonds break
|
|
T/F In some cases, once you have denatured a protein and changed its structure, it is irreversible
However, in other cases, denaturation IS reversible |
TRUE, it depends on the protein
|
|
renaturation
|
from denatured protein to normal protein
regains biological activity |
|
denaturation
|
from normal protein to denatured protein
loss of biological activity |
|
________ proteins can preserve structural integrity of the protein and can be use for motility
|
structural proteins
|
|
______ proteins are involved in many cellular functions (chemical reactions) such as metabolism
|
enzymatic proteins
|
|
_______ _______ store cellular information and also functions as energy molecules
|
nucleic acids
|
|
what are the two types of nucleic acid information molecules?
|
DNA – deoxyribonucleic acid
RNA – ribonucleic acid |
|
what is metabolism?
|
metabolism is the process of energy the body uses to break down the chemical bonds
|
|
_________ governs the survival and growth of microorganisms
|
metabolism
|
|
T/F the growth of microorganisms can have a direct effect on infectious disease
|
true
|
|
good metabolic function makes pathogens (more/less) successful at causing disease
|
Good metabolic function makes pathogens more successful at causing disease
|
|
T/F microbes can grow without nutrients
|
false, Microbes needs nutrients and to gain energy in order to go through cell division, gain proteins, etc.
|
|
T/F enzymes are proteins
|
true
|
|
a series of reactions are caused by ________. These reactions carry out transformation in the metabolic pathway.
|
enzymes
|
|
what is catabolism
|
the release of energy
|
|
what is anabolism
|
the usage of energy
|
|
which is associated with ingesting food and breaking it down, catabolism or anabolism?
|
catabolism because it releases the energy from the food
|
|
which is associated with the body using broken down energy, catabolism or anabolism?
|
anabolism
|
|
T/F energy is sometimes freely flowing around the body
|
FALSE, Energy can’t be freely flowing around because you will lose it, so it is harnessed in molecules
|
|
_______ is a series of chemical processes that go on in living organisms to maintain life. It is used to obtain energy. It is linked to growth and reproduction.
|
metabolism
|
|
what two things are required for growth?
|
carbon and energy
|
|
what 2 processes does the body have to obtain carbon?
|
1) autotrophy
2) heterotrophy |
|
what is autotrophy?
|
carbon is obtained from inorganic substances (they also undergo photosynthesis)
|
|
what is heterotrophy?
|
carbon is obtained from other organic molecules (we are heterotrophs)
|
|
nearly all infectious organisms are chemo____________s.
|
chemoheterotrophs
|
|
how do chemoheterotrophs obtain energy?
|
by breaking down other organic molecules and compounds
|
|
T/F infectious organisms don't evolve as readily in heterotrophs as they do autotrophs
|
FALSE, Since we are heterotrophs, infectious organisms develop pathways inside our bodies in order to survive. They evolve nicely in our bodies.
|
|
metabolic ______ are complex chemical reactions. They involve electron transfer, oxidation, and reduction reactions
|
metabolic pathways
|
|
where is energy from a broken down chemical bond harnessed?
|
in ATP molecules
|
|
what are some carrier molecules that harness energy and electrons during metabolic processes?
|
NADH, FADH, (and ATP?)
|
|
T/F bacteria have membrane bound organelles
|
FALSE
|
|
a(n) _________ reaction is a chemical reaction in which an atom, ion or molecule LOSES one or more electrons
|
oxidation
|
|
a(n) ________ reaction is a chemical reaction in which an atom, ion or molecule GAINS one or more electrons
|
reduction
|
|
T/F oxidation and reduction reactions always occur together
|
TRUE
|
|
The combination of an oxidation reaction and a reduction reaction are jointly referred to as _____ reactions.
|
redox reactions
|
|
when sodium donates an electron to the chlorine to gain stability, is this oxidation or reduction?
|
oxidation
|
|
when chlorine gains an electron to gain stability, is this oxidation or reduction?
|
reduction
|
|
T/F the electron exchange in redox reactions is a source of energy for the reactions
|
true
|
|
T/F in metabolism, respiration occurs at the cellular level and is the same as breathing
|
FALSE, it is not the same, (respiration at the macroscopic level).
|
|
cellular respiration describes which process, anabolic or catabolic?
|
catabolic - release of energy
|
|
cellular respiration is divided into what 3 different types of respiration?
|
1) aerobic respiration
2) anaerobic respiration 3) facultatively anaerobic respiration |
|
what is aerobic respiration?
|
metabolism that uses oxygen
|
|
what is anaerobic respiration?
|
metabolism that doesn't use oxygen
|
|
what is facultatively anaerobic respiration?
|
metabolism that can use oxygen but can also occur without it
|
|
the type of cellular respiration determines the amount of ATP produced. Which type of respiration produces the most ATP? the least?
|
aerobic produces the most ATP - so it will grow faster
anaerobic produces the least ATP - it grows slower |
|
what is fermentation an example of, aerobic or anaerobic?
|
anaerobic
|
|
what happens if you add oxygen to an organism that undergoes facultative anaerobic respiration? what if you take away oxygen?
|
it still survives, and because oxygen is present, it will grow faster. Without oxygen, it still survives, just grows slower. HOWEVER there are exceptions!
|
|
where are the metabolic pathways located in bacteria?
|
in the cytoplasm (Cytosol) and plasma membrane
|
|
more ATPs are produced with (aerobic/anaerobic)
|
aerobic
|
|
what are the 3 main metabolic pathways?
|
1) glycolysis
2) krebs cycle 3) electron transport chain |
|
what happens, anabolism or catabolism, in all 3 of the metabolic pathways?
|
catabolism because you break down food products to get ATP molecules
|
|
what happens to glucose in these pathways?
|
it goes through all of the metabolic pathways and the body can obtain its energy
|
|
metabolic reactions occur in series of chemical reactions called _____.
|
pathways
|
|
T/F each step in the pathway is mediated or facilitated by a specific enzyme
|
true
|
|
in the reaction: A -> B -> C -> D -> E , which is the substrate and which is the final product and which are the intermediates?
|
A is initial substrate
E is final product B, D, and D are intermediates |
|
______ promote the running of the reactions under physiological conditions to proceed at an appropriate speed.
|
enzymes
|
|
T/F There are a lot of enzymes and if any of them are destroyed or not functional, the substrate can’t evolve completely
|
true
|
|
______ are proteins that act as catalysis for metabolic reactions, making the reaction go faster
|
enzymes
|
|
T/F each enzyme is specific for a reaction
|
true
|
|
T/F enzymes are found in most living organisms
|
FALSE, Found in all living organisms and most cells contain hundreds of types which are constantly being manufactured and replaced.
|
|
how do enzymes make reactions go faster?
|
work by lowering the energy of the activation (using a minimal amount of energy)
|
|
T/F enzymes are always present
|
FALSE, Enzymes aren’t present all of the time –just because you have an enzyme that’s working, doesn’t mean it is there all of the time. It is degraded and rebuilt.
|
|
T/F Enzymes have specific three dimensional shapes: if the shape changes, activity is inhibited.
|
true
|
|
The shape of the molecule provides a distinctive site called the _____ site
|
active site
|
|
what happens at the active site of the enzyme?
|
The specific substrate fits into the enzyme and the reaction occurs.
The enzyme and substrate interact to form the enzyme-substrate complex |
|
T/F The active site has to have the proper shape for the enzyme to work.
|
true
|
|
T/F A given enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction
|
TRUE - highly specific
|
|
T/F most enzymes react with many substrates
|
FALSE, Most enzymes react with only one particular substrate.
|
|
Specificity of enzyme is due to:
|
1) The shape of an enzyme molecule
2) Electrical charges found at the active site |
|
______ are inorganic ions such as magnesium, zinc, or manganese. They help enzymes in reactions.
|
co-factors
|
|
______ are non-protein organic molecules. They bind to the active site and change the shape of the active site so that the substrate can fit.
|
coenzymes
|
|
if you have an enzyme that isn't complete, its a(n) _____________
|
apoenzyme
|
|
the ______ fits into the incomplete enzyme to make it able to work. They are helpers to enzymes that don't work.
|
cofactor
|
|
coenzymes and cofactors can be used as ______ _______ in redox reactions (they can carry things from one thing to another)
|
carrier molecules
|
|
continuous enzyme activity allows what 2 things?
|
- waste of energy
- Buildup of potentially harmful products |
|
what 3 ways does enzyme inhibition take place?
|
1) competitive inhibition
2) allosteric inhibition 3) feedback inhibition |
|
T/F our bodies can constantly use enzymes because we make products all of the time
|
FALSE, Enzymes are present, however, if they were active all of the time, it would be dangerous for us because we cannot be making products all of the time (it wastes our energy)
|
|
if our bodies were constantly making a lot of products, what would happen?
|
If they are making a bunch of products, these products can be toxic to our bodies
|
|
the _________ molecule is similar in structure to the substrate and competes with the substrate to bind to the active site
|
inhibitor molecule
|
|
what does the inhibitor in competitive inhibition do?
|
When the inhibitor has bound to the active site, the substrate cannot bind.
|
|
is the binding of the competitive inhibitor reversible or not?
|
yes, and it is dependent upon the relative numbers of inhibitor molecules and substrate molecules present.
|
|
is allosteric inhibition an example of competitive or non-competitve inhibition?
|
non-competitive
|
|
inhibitor molecules bind to a part of the enzyme away from the active site: the _______ site
|
allosteric
|
|
what type of inhibition involves inhibitor molecules that do not block the active site?
|
allosteric
|
|
what type of inhibition changes the shape of the active site in such a way that it can no longer fit properly with the substrate?
|
allosteric inhibition
|
|
T/F the binding of some allosteric inhibitors are reversible
|
true
|
|
what happens in feedback inhibition?
|
The final product in a pathway accumulates and begins to bind to and inactivate the enzyme that catalyzes the first reaction of the pathway.
|
|
is feedback inhibition reversible?
|
yes, and when the level of end product decreases, the inhibition stops and the pathway begins to function again.
|
|
In ________ inhibition, the product binds to a site on the enzyme (like allosteric inhibitor) and changes its structure so that the enzyme cannot bind again to a substrate.
|
feedback inhibition
|
|
T/F in feedback inhibition, the end product will decrease over time, so less of them are binding, so the substrate and enzyme can start binding again. So our body regulates it with the amount of products produced.
|
true
|
|
what factors affect enzyme activity?
|
1) pH
2) Temperature |
|
how does pH affect enzyme activity?
|
a low pH is acidic, and H+ is present. The H+ forms hydrogen bonds with the enzymes and changes their shape. With a high pH, the OH- ions do the same type of thing
|
|
how does temperature affect enzyme activity?
|
High kinetic energy tends to break bonds and enzymes cannot bind to substrates as well
|
|
__________ is when molecules are broken down through metabolic processes to release the energy stored in their chemical bonds – cellular respiration.
|
catabolism
|
|
__________ is the metabolic processes in which the energy derived from catabolism is used to build large organic molecules from smaller ones – build components of cells such as proteins.
|
anabolism
|
|
during catabolism, food molecules are broken down and energy is stored into ______. Heat is also lost.
|
ATP
|
|
T/F catabolism and anabolism is a cycle
|
true
|
|
catabolic processes in metabolism are called ______ reactions because they cause a release of energy
|
fueling
|
|
what are the 3 important pathways by which most organisms release energy from nutrient molecules?
|
glycolysis
krebs cycle electron transport chain |
|
what part of the cell does glycolysis occur? do they require oxygen?
|
Reactions occur in the cytoplasm and do not require oxygen.
|
|
how many ATP molecules are produced in glycolysis?
|
4 ATP molecules
|
|
in the first steps of glycolysis, how many ATP molecules are consumed?
|
2
|
|
what is the net gain of ATP molecules in glycolysis?
|
2
|
|
________ acts as a coenzyme in glycolysis and carries electrons to the electron transport chain
|
NAD
|
|
during glycolysis, Phosphates are transferred to substrates by ________
|
phosphorylation
|
|
phosphorylation makes the substrates more ______
|
energetic
|
|
After a series of steps, the 6-carbon glucose molecule is broken into two 3-carbon ______ molecules.
|
pyruvate
|
|
in glycolysis, you start with one molecule of _____, and at the end of glycolysis you have 2 molecules of ________
|
start with glucose, and end with pyruvate
|
|
T/F for glucose to be broken down, you have to use energy
|
true
|
|
T/F in glycolysis, you gain 4 ATPs but lose 2, so the net gain is 2 ATP molecules by the end of this pathway
|
true
|
|
NAD is a co-enzyme. It collects a H+ ion and the NAD is (oxidized/reduced). NAD becomes NADH
|
reduced
|
|
are the krebs cycle and cellular respiration aerobic or anaerobic?
|
aerobic
|
|
is glycolysis aerobic or anaerobic?
|
BOTH - it can happen in the presence or absence of oxygen
However, once you get to the end of glycolysis and pyruvate is made, depending on if you have oxygen or not, different pathways are made. |
|
at then end of glycolysis, in the absence of oxygen, _______occurs
|
fermentation
|
|
at then end of glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, what happens?
|
pyruvate enters the krebs cycle and the electron transport chain
|
|
is the krebs cycle aerobic or anaerobic?
|
aerobic
|
|
krebs cycle is also known as the TCA cycle or the ____ _____ cycle.
|
citric acid
|
|
in the krebs cycle, _____ is further metabolized to harness energy in bonds
|
pyruvate
|
|
what is the starting point and goal of the krebs cycle?
|
pyruvate is the starting point and the goal of the process is to get more energy
|
|
in the krebs cycle, pyruvate is first modified with _________. This produces acetyl-CoA complex.
|
coenzyme A
|
|
T/F pyruvate enters the krebs cycle
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FALSE, it has to be converted to acetyl CoA
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the main goal of the kreb's cycle is to transfer H+ atoms to the carrier molecules ( _____ and ____, which are coenzymes)
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NAD and FAD
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once NAD and FAD obtain the H+ atoms from the krebs cycle, they take them to ___________
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the electron transport chain
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in the krebs cycle, for every glucose, ____ ATPs, ____ NADHs, and ____ FADHs are made
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2 ATPs
6 NADHs 2 FADHs |
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in the krebs cycle, __________ is oxidized as CO2
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carbon
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in the krebs cycle, energy is captured and stored when ____ is converted to ATP
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ADP
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pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA by removing a _____ molecule from pyruvate and then removing an _____ to reduce an NAD+ into NADH
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This is achieved by removing a CO2 molecule from pyruvate and then removing an electron to reduce an NAD+ into NADH
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in glycolysis, _____ pyruvate molecules are produced from ___ glucose molecule
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2 pyruvates from 1 glucose
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each glucose is processed through the krebs cycle _____ times
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two times
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during the krebs cycle, NAD is converted to ____ and FAD is converted to _____. Also ____ are produced in the cycle. The carrier molecules are carrying ______ atoms
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NADH, FADH, ATPs, H+ atoms
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the MAIN GOAL of the krebs cycle is to convert the carrier molecules into their (oxidized/reduced) form
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REDUCED form
NAD --> NADH FAD --> FADH This lets the H+ ions go into the electron transport chain |
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the electron transport chain is a sequence of ________
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molecules
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in eukaryotes, the electron transport chain is found in the ___________________
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inner mitochondrial membrane
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in prokaryotes, the electron transport chain is found in the ___________________
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plasma membrane
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in the electron transport chain, electrons (from NADH and FADH) are transferred to a final _______ ______
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electron acceptor
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in the electron transport chain, in aerobic respiration, the final acceptor is ________
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oxygen
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in the electron transport chain, in anaerobic respiration, the final acceptor is an ______ _____ molecule
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inorganic oxygen-containing molecule
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the electron transport chain is the site of _______ _________ - the production of ATPs
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oxidative phosphorylation
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LOOK IN BOOK FOR LECTURE 4, SLIDE 26 and 27
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ya
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What happens to the NADH2+ and FADH2 produced during the Krebs cycle?
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The molecules have been reduced, receiving high energy electrons from the pyruvic acid molecules that were dismantled in the Krebs Cycle. Therefore, they represent energy available to do work. These carrier molecules transport the high energy electrons and their accompanying hydrogen protons from the Krebs Cycle to the electron transport chain in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
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in the electron transport chain, NADH2+ is oxidized to _____ and FADH2 to _______
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NAD and FAD
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in the electron transport chain, the high energy electrons are transferred to _____ (Q) and ______ molecules, the electron carriers within the membrane.
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The high energy electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (Q) and cytochrome c molecules, the electron carriers within the membrane.
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T/F in the electron transport chain, the electrons are passed from molecule to molecule in the inner membrane of the mitochondron, losing some of their energy at each step.
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true
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in the electron transport chain, a combining of _____ and _____ atoms with oxygen forms water. The molecules that take part in the transport of these electrons are referred to as the electron transport chain.
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electrons and H2 atoms
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the ETC can be summarized as follows: the electrons that are delivered to the electron transport system provide energy to "pump" _______ protons across the _______ ________ membrane to the outer compartment
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The process can be summarized as follows: the electrons that are delivered to the electron transport system provide energy to "pump" hydrogen protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the outer compartment
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The high concentration of hydrogen protons in the ETC produces a free energy potential that can do work. That is, the hydrogen protons tend to move down the concentration gradient from the (inner/outer) compartment to the (inner/outer) compartment.
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This high concentration of hydrogen protons produces a free energy potential that can do work. That is, the hydrogen protons tend to move down the concentration gradient from the outer compartment to the inner compartment.
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in the ETC, the only path that the protons have is through _____ _______ within the inner membrane. The protons therefore pass through the channel lined with enzymes
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enzyme complexes
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The free energy of the hydrogen protons is used to form ATP by phosphorylation, bonding _______ to ADP in an enzymatically-mediated reaction. Since an ____ _____ gradient supplies the energy, the entire process is referred to as ______ phosphorylation.
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The free energy of the hydrogen protons is used to form ATP by phosphorylation, bonding phosphate to ADP in an enzymatically-mediated reaction. Since an electrochemical osmotic gradient supplies the energy, the entire process is referred to as chemiosmotic phosphorylation.
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in the ETC, if the oxygen supply is cut off, the electrons and hydrogen protons cease to flow through the electron transport system. If this happens, the proton concentration gradient will not be sufficient to power the synthesis of _____. This is why we, and other species, are not able to survive for long without oxygen!
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ATP
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what is the source of energy in the ETC?
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the pumping process of all the H+ ions
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where is the ETC located in the molecule?
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in the intermembrane space of the molecule
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T/F in the ETC, there is an equal amount of H+ in the intermembrane space and in the cytosol
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FALSE! Because there are so many H+ in the intermembrane space and not many in the cytosol, it is not at equilibrium.
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in the ETC, what transports the H+ atoms into the cytosol in order to maintain balance? what is this called?
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ATP synthase
this is called chemiosmotic gradient (kind of like osmosis but it uses energy) |
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As electrons move from one molecule to another in the chain, energy is released via a process called __________
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chemiosmosis
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in chemiosmosis, protons are pumped (into/out of) the cell
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out of the cell
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in chemiosmosis, the proton concentration outside the cell increases to be greater than the inside of the cell, causing a _____ ______ to form
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concentration gradient
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in chemiosmosis, what allows protons to re-enter the cell?
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Specialized membrane proteins allow protons to re-enter the cell.
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energy is (gained/released) as protons re-enter the cell
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released
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The energy released in chemiosmosis is used to bind _______ to ADP, making the high-energy molecule ATP
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phosphate
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what range amount of ATPs are created in chemiosmosis?
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32-38
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The difference in proton concentration in this process is called the proton _____ ______
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proton motive force
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Cells using anaerobic respiration generate _____ molecules of ATP from one glucose molecule.
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two
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Cell using aerobic respiration generate ____ total molecules of ATP from one glucose molecule.
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around 40 ATPs
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