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101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What genera of retroviruses does HIV belong to?
Lentivirus
What enzyme is unique to retroviruses?
Reverse Transcriptase

Of the RNA viruses, Retroviridae is the only family of RNA viruses to use a reverse transcriptase

Of the DNA viruses, Hepadnaviridae is the only family of DNA viruses to use a reverse transcriptase
What is the role of reverse trancriptase?
To convert a single-stranded RNA viral genome into a double-stranded DNA genome
Why are mutations common with reverse transcriptase?
The enzyme is "sloppy"
What is the implication of a sloppy enzyme?
Development of resistance secondary to increased mutation rate requiring changes in pharmacotherapy, e.g., triple-therapy drug regimens
What are two identified serotypes of HIV responsible for?
HIV-1 is responsible for AIDS

HIV-2 is responsible for a similar illness, but overall has milder clinical manifestations.
What is the general structure of retroviruses?
An enveloped virus with a positive single-strand RNA genome.
Waht is the viral envelope make from?
Host cell membrane
What are two surface glycoproteins found on te HIV envelope?
1) Transmembrane glycoprotein (TM; fusoin protein, and gp31)

2) Surface glycoprotein (SU; attachment protein, and gp120)
Which surface glycoprotein is a TM (fusion) protein?
gp41
Which surface glycoprotein is a surface (attachment) protein?
gp120
What additional protein is found on the HIV enveloope?

Where?

What is it involved with?
Outer matrix protein (MA; p17)

Between the envelope and the capsid

Entry of the DNA provirus into the nucleus and virus assembly
What is the capsid geometry of HIV?
Comple, cone-shaped geometry
What is the major capsid protein?
p24
Can p24 be used to detect HIV infection?
YES
When during teh course of HIV is p24 expressed?
Throughout the infection
What are the five components of the HIV capsid?
1) Two identical copies of positive ssRNA genome
2) Nucleocapsid proteins
3) Reverse transcriptase
4) Protease
5) Integrase
What is p7?

What is its role?
Nucleocapsid protein

To complex with RNA within the capsid
What are the three major HIV genes?
gag
pol
env
What does the gag gene code for?
Core proteins
Matrix proteins
Which does the pol gene code for?
Reverse transcriptase
Integrase
Protease
Ribonuclease
What are four additional coding regions found in teh HIV genome?
U5
U3
R sequence
Long terminal repeats
What is U5?
Sequence of viral RNA found at the 5' end which contains part of the site needed for viral integration into the host cell chromosome and contains the transfer RNA primer binding site for reverse transcriptase.
What is U3?
The sequence of viral RNA at the 3' end which contains sequences used for control of transcription of the DNA provirus
What is the R sequence?
The repeated sequence of viral RNA found at both ends which is used during reverse transcription
What are long terminal repeats?
Two identical repeats that result from the duplication of the U and R units during the synthesis of the DNA provirus
What are six steps of HIV replication?
1) Binding to host cell receptor
2) Viral entry
3) Reverse transcription
4) Integration into host cell DNA
5) Transcription and translation
6) Assembly and maturation
Which three steps of HIV replication are dependent on viral proteins?
Viral entry
Reverse transcription
Integration
What parts of HIV replication require use of host cell machinery?
Synthesis of viral genomes, messenger RNA, and structural proteins
Which host cell receptor does HIV show tropism for.
CD4 receptors
What are four types of cells that contain CD4 receptors?
1) T-helper cells
2) Lymphocytes
3) Macrophages
4) Dendritic cells
Which cell type is usually the first cell to become infected?
Macrophages
What is a chemokine receptor?
Protein involved in the control of the immune response and inflammation
Is there only one type of chemokine receptor?
NO
In fact different HIV strains prefer certain chemokine receptors over others
What occurs if HIV binds the chemokine receptor?
Fusion between teh viral envelope and the cell membrane secondary to envelope glycoprotein (TM) activation
What host cell component serves as a primer for the initiation of reverse transcription?
tRNA, which binds a specific viral RNA sequence
What is the first product of reverse transcription?
A DNA-RNA hybrid
Which enzyme is involved in creating DNA from RNA?

What is another one of its roles?
Reverse transcriptase

It has RNAse activity which degrades the DNA-RNA hybrid's RNA while concurrently synthesizing the DNA strand.
What is the double stranded DNA molecule end product called?
The provirus
What protein then helps with the transport of the provirus to the nucleus?
Matrix protein (MA)
What enzyme then cleaves chromosomal DNA and inserts the proirus into the host genome?
Integrase
Is the insertion and integration of the provirus random?
YES
What are the two genomic forms of HIV?
+ssRNA (extracellular)
dsDNA (proviral, intracellular)
Which enzyme transcribes the integrated provirus into full length mRNA?
Host cell RNA polymerase II
What are the three basic products of the mRNA transcribed from the virus?
Genome for viral pogeny
Gag proteins and gag-pol polyproteins
Spliced RNA
What is a gag-pol polyprotein?
The source of viral revere transcriptase adn integrase
How is gag-pol polyprotein formed?
In the process of translating a gag protein precursor, approximately 5% of the time the stop codon is missed, resulting in a gag-pol polyprotein
What omponents combine with each other during HIV assembly?
The genomes, uncleaved gag and gag-pol polyproteins, associate with the envelope glycoprotein (TM)-modified plasma membrane
How does the plasma membrane become associated with the env glycoproteins?
The env polyproteins are cleaved into SU and TM proteins by the golgi apparatus, which is subsequently transorted to the host cell membrane
When is the viral protease that cleaves the gag and gag-pol polyproteins activated?
As the virion buds from the surface of infected cells
Which cell dies as a result of release of mature virions?
Lymphocytes
Which cell lives even after release of mature virions?
Macrophages
What are the four major routes of transmission of HIV?
Sexual contact
Blood transfusion
Contaminated needles
Perinatal transmission
Is HIV present in both semen and vaginal secretions?
YES
Can other STDs increase the rate of transmission of HIV?
YES
Any disease that compromises the integrity of the skin can facilitate transmission
What types of transfusions have resulted in HIV transmission?
All types resulting in the screening of the blood supply for the presence of HIV
What are three methods of HIV perinatal transmission?
Transplacentally
Passage of baby through the birth canal
Breast feeding
What can prevent perinatal transmission?
Azidothymidine (zidovudine, AZT)
What are three general ways in which HIV leads to clinical manifestations?
Induction of an immnodeficient state
Host response to HIV-infected cells
Destruction of cells by virus
What percent of HIV-postive individuals take more than 20 years to develop AIDS?
10%
What unique finding was found to decrease the likelihood of acquiring HIV in Kenyan prostitutes?
Homozygously altered HIV coreceptors
Where does the virus usually proliferate to after the initial infection?
CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells
How do CD4+ lymphocytes generally become infected?
By contacting infected follicular dendritic cells in the germinal centers of lymph nodes.
What percent of HIV+ individuals suffer from an acute, mononucleosis-like viral illness several weeks after being first infected?

What symptoms do these people report?
33-66%
Patients are rarely diagnosed during the acute viral illness

Fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, and pharyngitis
What occurs during the acute viral illness?
High rate of HIV replication in CD4+ lymphocytes leading to high levels of HIV (viremia) and presence of p24
What is the response to the acute phase viremia?
HIV-specific cytotoxic T cells respond, followed by the humoral response 1 to 10 weeks after intitial infection; this decreases the viral load and helps resolve the symptoms
Does viral replication cease after the acute viral illness resolves?
NO
What is 'latent' during the latent period?
Clinical symptoms
What is not "latent" during the latent period?
Viral replication
What gradually results in a net loss during the latent period?
CD4+ T cell count
Why does the CD4+ T cell count only drop a little during the majority of the latent period?
Stem cell output compensates
What percent of HIV proviruses are transcriptionally inactive during the latent period?
90%
Why are there viremic episodes during the latent period?
When the person becomes infected by other pathogens.
What are some of the possible clinical manifestations of HIV during the latent period?
Generalized lymphadenopathy, fevers, weight loss, and diarrhea, as well as bouts of herpes zoster and candidiasis.
Generally speaking, what speeds the progression of HIV to AIDS?
A stimulus, e.g., infection, activating resting T cells, inducing HIV replication, increasing the chance for mutations, and promoting syncytium formation
What is a syncytium in the context of HIV?
Uninfected cells that become directly infected by an infected cell.
Do T-cell precursors get infected?
Yes
and they eventually die
What is the problem with HIV mutations in terms of containing the infection?
Decreased ability of antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to detect new antigens.
When is a patient said to have AIDS?
CD4 count <200/mL with serologic evidence of HIV and/or the appearance of one or more AIDs-defining illnesses.
What cells play a key role in spreading HIV to other organs?
Macrophages
What is responsible for AIDS encephalopathy?
Macrophages are responsible, not a decreased in CD4+ cells.
How are macrophages linked with the wasting syndrome seen in AIDS?
Likely by the release of cytokines such as tumor necrosis factor
Are the eye, skin, and bone marrow infected by HIV?
YES
What are the malignancies commonly associated with AIDS?
Kaposi sarcoma
Lymphoma
What are the common bacterial opportunistic infections associated with AIDS?
Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
Tuberculosis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Salmonella
What are the common viral opportunistic infections associated with AIDS?
1) Herpes simplex virus (HSV-1 and HSV-2)
2) JC virus
3) Epstein-Barr virus
4) CMV
5) Kaposi sarcoma (human herpesvirus 8 [HHV-8])
What virus is commonly associated with chrioretinitis?
CMV
What are the common fungal, parasitic, and protozoan opportunistic infections associated with AIDS?
1) Candida
2) Cryptococcus
3) Pneumocystis jiroveci
4) Histoplasma
5) Coccidioides
6) Cryptosporidium
7) Toxoplasma gondii
8) Isospora
What are come of the many diseases caused by these organisms?
disseminated miliary disease, pneumonia, meningitis, encephalitis, esophagitis, diarrhea, osteomyelitis, retinitis, vaginitis, and thrush
What organism is responsible for the classically described pneumonia in AIDS patients?
P. jiroveci
What method is commonly used to screen for HIV?
ELISA
What test is used to confirm the diagnosis if an ELISA test is positive for HIV?
Western blot for p24
What is the most sensitive method for early detection of HIV?
PCR
Why else is PCR helpful in managing HIV?

What is the viral load?
Helps estimate viral load, drug response, and prognosis

The level of replicating virus in plasma determined by PCR
What is the significance of the viral load?
Indicator of the rate of progression to AIDS
Why is PCR not used to screen for HIV?
Cost
What are the three basic categories of antiviral drugs?
Nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors
Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
Protease inhibitors
What are nucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

What are some examples?
Agents that are phosphorylated by host cell kinases that terminate and/or inhibit reverse transcriptase

Lamivudine
Stavudine
Zalcitabine
Zidovudine
Didanosine
Abacavir
What are nonnucleoside reverse-transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)?

What are some examples?
Agents that inhibit the action of reverse transcriptase that bind to a site on reverse transcriptase that is different than NRTIs

Delavirdine
Efavirenz
Nevirapine
What are protease inhibitors?

What are some examples?
Agents that inhibit HIV-1 protease which prevents cleavage of viral precursors

Indinavir
Nelfinavir
Ritonavir
Saquinavir
Amprenavir
Why are anti-HIV drugs theoretically more effective early in the course of the disease?
There are fewer mutations and less resistance early in the course of the disease