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328 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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chains of cocci
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streptococci
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irregular clusters of cocci
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staphylococci
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club shaped rods
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coryneforms
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rod with tapered ends
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fusiform
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H antigen, adhesin, mobility
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flagella
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what are flagella made of ?
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flagellins
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flagella enclosed in a sheath (internal flagella)
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periplasmic flagella
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bacteria that demonstrate a twisting motion
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spirochetes
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thin hair like filaments which are straighter and shorter than flagella, occur over entire surface
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fimbriae
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important for development of biofilms (2)
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fimbriae, fibrils
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sex pili is present in in G+/G-?
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G- (involved in transfer of DNA)
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rod shaped protein structures important in host tissue colonization and biofilms
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fibrils
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K antigen
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capsule
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capsule is made of what?
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glycocalyx
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role of capsule?
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1. resistance to phagocytosis
2. adherence/biofilms 3. protect from antibiotics |
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importance of cell wall?
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maintains cell shape, able to withstand strong osmotic pressure
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components of G+ cell wall
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1. thick layer of peptidoglycan
2. teichoic acid, lipotechoic acid |
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major antigens only found in G+ ?
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teichoic acids
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components of G- cell wall
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1. outer membrane (phospholipids, protein, LPS)
2. porin 3. monolayer of peptidoglycan 4. periplasmic gel 5. inner membrane |
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endotoxin found only in G-? what are its 3 regions?
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Lipopolysaccharide
1. lipid A 2. core polysaccharide 3. O polysaccharide (O antigen) |
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G+ gram stain?
G- gram stain? |
-purple
-pink |
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functions of cytoplasmic membrane?
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1. sites of active transport
2. respiratory chain components 3. energy transducing systems 4. biosynthesis of DNA, phospholipids, peptidoglycan 5. secretion of exotoxins |
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single diffuse chromosome with no nuclear membrane or histone proteins
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nucleoid
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invaginations of the cytoplasmic membrane, associated with division septa
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mesosomes
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components for protein synthesis
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ribosomes
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nutrient reserves
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cytoplasmic granules
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highly resistant forms which can withstand heat, poor nutrient supply, lack of water
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endospores
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do G+ or G- make endospores?
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G+
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examples of bacteria that make endospores?
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anthrax, botulism, tetanus, gas gangrene
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Antigen letter for
1. flagella 2. capsule 3. O polysaccharide |
1. H
2. K 3. O |
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which type of genetic classification tells you what the bacteria is NOT
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G+ C content (ranges from 25-75%)
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estimates the extent of formation of molecular hybrids from 2 DNA strands of different origin
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DNA homology
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most reliable taxonomic information
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RNA homology (16sRNA)
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rapid ID that looks for distinct genes for a given microbe
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nucleic acid probe
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allows identification of a pathogen which occurs in very low concentration and/or cannot be cultivated in the lab
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PCR
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used to determine the taxonomy of bacteria residing in the oral cavity?
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PCR
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used to determine gene expression under different physiological conditions
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microarrays
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used to define quorum sensing and other control mechanisms
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microarrays
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bacteria replicated by?
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binary fission
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4 stages of growth curve?
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lag, log, stationary, decline
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period of physiological adjustment (growth curve)
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lag phase
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phase of maximal division rate with a decrease in cell size
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log phase
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newly produced bacteria=bacteria dying
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stationary phase
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phase where number that die is greater than number produced
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decline phase
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average time needed to double bacterial population
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generation time
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generation time is determined during?
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log phase
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most bacteria obtain energy from the _____ of chemical compounds
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oxidation
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CO2 is the sole source of carbon
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autotroph
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CO2 plus organic
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heterotroph
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bacteria grows only under high reducing intensity, lacks metabolism for using oxygen, does fermentation and anaerobic respiration
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obligate anaerobe (growth at bottom of tube)
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will grow in the presence of O2 but doesnt use it as an electron acceptor, can protect from O2
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aerotolerant anaerobe (growth at bottom of tube, but some spread out)
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capable of growing under aerobic/anaerobic
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facultative anaerobe (most growth towards top but can have growth at bottom too)
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requires oxygen for growth
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obligate aerobe
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grows best at low O2 tensions
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microaerophile
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which bacteria can protect themselves from O2?
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1. aerotolerant
2. facultative 3. obligate aerobe 4. microaerophile |
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grow best at temperature range 30-40C
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mesophile
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grow best at temperature range 65-75C
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thermophile
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pH for most pathogenic bacteria
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7.2-7.6
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transport that is porin channel nonspecific, concentration dependent, energy not required
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passive diffusion
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transport that uses a carrier molecule, higher conc-> lower conc
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facilitated diffusion
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transports against a concentration gradient, energy is needed
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active transport
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breakdown of organic molecules
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catabolism
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synthesis of cell constituents from simpler molecules
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anabolism
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all bacterial pathogens are autotrophs or heterotrophs?
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heterotrophs
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what are the coenzymes of the ETC?
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NAD
FAD coenzyme Q cytochrome |
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3 fundamental biochemical pathways
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glycolysis
TCA electron transport coupled ot oxidative phosphorylation |
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biochemical test that uses the artificial electron acceptor Kovacs reagent
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oxidase
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biochemical test based on production of enzyme that catalyzes the oxidation of reduced cytochrome by oxygen
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oxidase
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test the ability to turn hydrogen peroxide -> water and oxygen
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catalase
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terminal electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration
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NO3
SO4 CO2 |
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2 bacteria which are nitrate reducers?
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E Coli
Staph aureus |
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what is the terminal electron acceptor for fermentation?
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organic compound
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what are the end products of fermentation
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lactic acid, ethanol, acetic acid, butyric acid, butanol, propionic acid, acetone
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fermentation end product responsible for dental caries
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lactic acid
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a segment of DNA encoding a polypeptide
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cistron
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a unit of transcription
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operon
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4 things that compose an operon
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1. promoter
2. operator 3. cistrons 4. terminator |
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a process for the synthesis of mRNA complimentary to one strand of DNA template
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transcription
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a process in which the genetic info in mRNA directs protein syntheiss
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translation
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T/F transcription and translation occur immediately because there is no physical separation
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True
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substitution of one nucleotide for another
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point mutation
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deletion/insertion of one or more nucleotides
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frameshift mutation
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naked DNA derived from one cell or virus is taken up by another cell
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transformation
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the ability to incorporate DNA by transformation
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competency
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during ___ phase transformation can occur
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log
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DNA of one cell is introduced into another cell by virus infection
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transduction
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virus accidently packages bacterial DNA that gets incorporated into nucleoid
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generalized transduction
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virus packages virus DNA + bacterial DNA
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specialized transduction
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transfer of DNA by direct contact between cells
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conjugation
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an extrachromosomal, autonomously replicating DNA molecule which promotes conjugation and gene enchange
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sex factor "F"
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extrachromosomal, autonomous replication, carry genes for wide range of phenotypic characteristics
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plasmids
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phenotypic characteristics that plasmids can transfer
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antibiotic resistance*
biodegradative enzymes enterotoxin production hemolysin production |
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segments of DNA that can move from place to place, can cause mutations
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transposons
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what can be used as cloning vectors in gene cloning?
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plasmids, viruses
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invasion of the host by microbes
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infection
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the biochemical mechanism by which bacteria cause disease
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pathogenicity
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the measure of an organisms pathogenic potential
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virulence
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large inserts of DNA that include virulence genes not found in nonpathogenic members of the genera
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pathogenicity islands
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population density determines the regulation of virulence genes
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quorum sensing
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bacterial communities
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biofilms
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the ability of an organism to spread under natural conditions
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communicability
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microbial adherence requires what two things?
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receptor and adhesin
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bacterial adhesins include:
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fimbriae
capsule(glycocalyx) teichoic acids, lipotechoic acids flagella outer membrane proteins fibrils |
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what type of bacterial requires flagella, motility, and chemotaxis
-also has ability to resists lysosomal enzymes |
Salmonella typhimurium
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specific adhesins called _____ bind to host cell receptors
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invasins
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2 methods to prevent phagocytic killing inside cell:
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1. inhibition of phagolysosome fusion
2. resistance to lysosomal enzymes |
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ways to disseminate in the host (4)
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1. causes lysis
2. be transported to lymph nodes and enter blood stream 3. passing between cells forming epithelial barriers 4. bloodstream(special mechanisms to acquire iron) |
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secretion system that delivers virulence determinants directly into host cells
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type III secretion system
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spreading factors, allows pathogen to penetrate tissue by hydrolyzing hyaluronic acid
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hyaluronidase
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spreading factor that breaks down connective tissue of muscle
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collagenase
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what extracellular enzyme causes coagulation of fibrinogen
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coagulase
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which extracellular enzyme breaks down fibrin
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kinases
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splits urea to form ammonium hydroxide (raise pH)
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urease
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what extracellular enzyme can cause kidney stones ?
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urease
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what bacteria can cause gastric ulcers?
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Helicobacter pylori
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is LPS an endotoxin or exotoxin?
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endotoxin
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what is the active portion of LPS
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lipid A
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what are the effects of exposure to LPS?
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fever, hypotension, shock and death
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how does an A-B exotoxin work?
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B subunit binds and A portion determines the mechanism of action
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list all of the bacteria that have A-B exotoxins? (5)
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neurotoxins-tetanus, botulinum
cytotoxin-diptheria enterotoxin-cholera, E coli |
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examples of membrane active exotoxins and the cells they affect
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1. leukocidins-neutrophils, macrophages
2. lecithinase-RBC 3.hemolysin-RBC |
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bacterial proteins that bind to MHC class II on antigen presenting cells and T cells
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super antigens
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S aureus mediated toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is what type of exotoxin?
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super antigen
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study of determinants, occurence, distribution, and control of health and disease in a defined population
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epidemiology
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microorganims that causes the disease
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etiological agent
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person in whom organisms are present and may be multiplying but who shows no clinical response
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carrier
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person with infection who acts as a source
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index case
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movement of infectious agent from a source individual directly into the environment
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dissemination
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transmission of an organism from a source to a susceptible individual
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infectiousness
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place where infectious agents are perpetuated in nature
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reservoir
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the usual number of cases of a particular disease
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endemic
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a short term increase in the occurrence of a disease
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epidemic
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a long term increase in the incidence of a disease
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pandemic
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inanimate objects that can transmit pathogens but dont support mutiplication
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fomites
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in dentistry the most important source of pathogens is from?
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human sources
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4 bacteria of concern in dentistry and how they are transmitted?
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Neisseria Gonorroheae-inoculation
Treponema pallidum-inoculation Mycobacterium tuberculosis-inoculation/inhalation Streptococcus pyrogenes-inhalation |
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agent that kills bacteria
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bactericide
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agent that prevents the growth of bacteria
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bacteriostatic
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what is the quickest form of sterilization?
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autoclave
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what form of sterilization uses moist heat?
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autoclave
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which indicators prove sterilization and which do not?
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prove-biological indicators(use spores)
dont prove-process indicator(color change) |
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what are disinfectants that damage bacterial cell membrane?
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membrane-active disinfectants
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what are examples of membrane active disinfectants?
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chlorhexidine,
quaternary ammonium, alcohols, phenols |
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which disinfectants are commonly used on skin?
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alcohols
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which disinfectants are used for "cold sterilization" and give an example
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aldehydes-like glutaraldehyde
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which disinfectants are used as an anti-plaque agent and give an example?
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bisguanides-like chlorhexidine
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what are the 3 methods of direct examination?
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light microscopy
dark field microscopy fluorescence microscopy |
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what are the two important classes of immunoglobins with diagnostic importance
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IgG
IgM |
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list the 4 types of immunologic tests
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1. slide and tube agglutination
2. latex agglutination 3. EIA (direct/indirect) 4. immunofluorescent microscopy |
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which immunologic test is visible with the naked eye?
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latex agglutination( becomes milk white suspension)
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which test starts with the antigen being bound to a solid support and uses labeled enzymes
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indirect EIA
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which tests starts with the Ab being bound to a solid support and uses labeled enzymes
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direct EIA
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which test is made visible with a fluorescent dye?
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immunofluorescent microscopy
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susceptibility test that shows zone size (inhibition)
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disk agar diffusion (Kirby-Bauer)
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which susceptibility tests shows you the MIC?
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E-test
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the highest dilution of an antimicrobial agent that is able to inhibit the growth of a test organism
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MIC(minimum inhibitory concentration)
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List the 6 groups of antibiotics that affect the cell wall
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1. penicillin
2. cephalosporin 3. carbapenems 4. glycopeptide 5. bacitran 6. polymixins |
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what is the mode of action of penicillin?
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it inhibits PBP which doesnt allow the cross linking of adjacent peptidoglycan
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oxacillin, methicillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin, ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, piperacillin are all examples of?
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penicillins
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which antibiotic group has the same mode of action as penicillin but has a broader antibacterial spectrum?
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cephalosporins
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cefazolin, cephalathin, cefaclor, cefoxitin, cefotaxime, MOXALACTAM, ceftriaxome, and cefepime are examples of what?
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cephalosporins
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Which beta lactams have the broadest spectrum and give an example
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carbapenems-imipenem
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which antibiotic is used for MRSA and other multi resistant gram + bacteria?
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vancomycin
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which antibiotic inhibts the movement of peptidoglycan precursors in G+
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bacitran
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which antibiotic penetrates the outer membrane of gram - bacteria?
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polymyxins
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4 groups of antibiotics that interfere with nucleic acid synthesis?
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1. quinolones
2. novobiocin 3. rifamycins 4. metronidazole |
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which antibiotic inhibits DNA gyrase?
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quinolones
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ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, gatifloxacin, and moxifloxacin are examples of what?
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quinolones
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which antibiotic has the same mechanism as quinolones?
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novobiocin
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which antibiotic binds to RNA polymerase and prevents RNA synthesis and give two examples
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rifamycin
examples: rifampin, rifabutin |
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which antibiotic acts as a free radical that damages bacterial DNA
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metronidazole
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which antibiotic needs to be reduced by nitroreductase?
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metronidazole
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List the 7groups of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis
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1. aminoglycosides(end in mycin)
2. tetracylcines(end in cycline) 3. macrolides(end in mycin) 4. chloramphenicol 5. oxazolidinones 6. clindamycin 7. streptogramins |
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which antibiotic can resulut in tooth staining and should be avoided in children up to 8 and pregnant women?
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doxycline
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which antibiotic is used for typhoid fever?
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chloramphenicol
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which antibiotic is used for bacteria resistant to penicillins, vacomycin, and amiolycosides?
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oxazolidinones-ex linezolid
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which antibiotic inhibits PABA-> folic acid
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sulfonamides
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which antibiotic is an analog for dihydrofolic acid?
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trimenthoprim
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What are the two toxoid vaccines?
|
diptheria
tetanus |
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what are the conjugate vaccines?
|
Hib meningitis/epiglottis
pneumococcal otitis media/meningitis meningococcal disease |
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which is an acellular vaccine?
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pertussis
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which vaccine is a capsular polysaccharide?
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pneumococcal pneumonia/meningitis
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which vaccine is killed cell (purified)
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anthrax
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which vaccine is live attenuated?
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tuberculosis
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which species of staph are coagulase +/-
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S. aureus=+
S. epidermidis= - S. saprophyticus = - |
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which bacteria causes more frequent and more varied diseases than any other human pathogen?
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S. aureus
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which bacteria are G+ cocci, with yellow colonies
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S. aureus
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S. aureus is catalase ___
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positive
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what are S. aureus extracellular enzymes?
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coagulase
hyaluronidase |
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what is a membrane active toxin that causes lyses of RBC in S. aureus?
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alpha toxin
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what is the S aureus super antigen that cause food poisoning?
|
enterotoxin
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what toxin causes scalded skin syndrome
|
exfoliative toxin (S. aureus)
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what is the S. aureus super antigen that causes shock, fever, rash etc
|
toxic shock syndrome toxin-1
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what is S. aureus resistant to?
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penicillins and cephalosporins
|
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what are the clinical manifestations of S. aureus?
|
1. skin infections-boils, impetigo, scalded skin
2. respiratory infections-pneumonia 3. metastatic infection-metastatic abscesses 4. food poisoning-heating food doesnt kill enterotoxin 5. toxic shock syndrome |
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what is the most common cause of catheter and shunt infections?
|
S. epidermidis
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what is the most common cause of UTIs in young sexually active women?
|
S. saprophyticus
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the most dangerous carriers of staphylocci are _____, in the hospital they are _____
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food handlers
hospital personnel |
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most important transmission route for staphylococci?
|
direct contact via hands
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for what bacteria would you collect pus, purulent fluids, sputum or urine specimens?
|
Staphylococci
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what test do you use to differentiate between S. aureus and Strep?
|
catalase test
staph + strep - |
|
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what are the post infection problems with S. pyrogenes?
|
rheumatic fever
glomerulonephritis |
|
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which bacteria are mostly facultative, produce lactic acid, and are catalase negative?
|
streptococcus
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what is the complete lysis of RBC?
partial lysis? no lysis? |
beta-hemolysis
alpha hemolysis gamma hemolysis |
|
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lancefield groups are based on what?
|
carbohydrates and teichoic acids
|
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group A beta streptococcus?
|
S. pyogenes
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group B beta streptococcus?
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S. agalactiae
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which group is primarily alpha hemolytic and do not posses lancefield antigens?
|
viridans groups
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|
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Name the protein and bacteria that cause rheumatic fever?
|
M protein of S. pyogenes
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what is a membrane active exotoxin responsible for beta hemolysis?
|
streptolysin S
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what is a membrane active exotoxin in S pyogenes that lyses RBC and WBC?
|
streptolysin O
Streptolysin S |
|
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which toxin has been associated with 50% of cases of streptococcal toxic shock disease?
|
Exotoxin A (pyrogenic exotoxin)
|
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what is the most common cause of bacterial sore throat?
|
S. pyogenes
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rash is the hallmark of which S pyogenes disease?
|
scarlet fever
|
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Patients have hypotension, renal failure, red rash and extensive soft tissue infection?
|
strep toxic shock syndrome
|
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which bacterium causes necrotizing fasciitis "flesh eating bacterium"
|
S. pyogenes
|
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what complication is characterized by inflammatory lesions of the heart, joints, subcutaneous tissues and CNS?
|
rheumatic fever
|
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what are the most common clinical manifestations of S pyogenes?
|
pharyngitis
otitis media impetigo |
|
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what is the most common transmission of S pyogenes?
|
direct contact, droplets
|
|
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Whats tests are used to rule out staph when testing for strep?
|
bacitracin sensitivity and catalase test
|
|
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treatment for S pyogenes?
|
penicillin, erythromycin
|
|
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which antibiotic should be given to high risk patients in a dental procedure?
|
clindamycin
|
|
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what bacteria is the leading cause of neonatal sepsis and meningitis?
|
S. agalactiae
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which bacterium is a diplococcus with lancet shaped cells?
|
S. pneumonia
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what is an important virulence factor for S pneumonia?
|
capsular antigens
|
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what is the leading cause of community acquired bacterial pneumonia?
|
S. pneumonia
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what is an important cause of bacterial meningitis?
|
S. pneumonia
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what is a capsular precipitation test based on type specific antigens?
|
Quellung reaction(tells you which serotype of S pneumonia is causing disease)
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S. pneumonia is sensitive to what that most alpha streptococci are resistant to?
|
Optochin
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what is the optimum pH of S. mutans?
|
5-6
|
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what is most commonly associated with infective endocarditis?
|
S. sanguis
|
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what is the membrane active exotoxin that is similar to streptolysin O and causes transmembrane pores?
|
pneumolysin
|
|
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what are the virulence factors for S pneumonia?
|
capsules
pneumolysin |
|
|
the conjugate pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is made of what two parts?
|
1. 7 serotypes
2. pneumolysin |
|
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what are the 3 major clinical manifestations of S pneumonia?
|
1. pneumonia-fever, cough, sputum
2. sinusitis and otitis media 3. meningitis |
|
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what is the leading cause of community acquired bacterial pneumonia?
|
S. pneumonia
|
|
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young children are a major resevoir for what bacteria?
|
S. pneumonia
|
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what is an important cause of bacterial meningitis?
|
S. pneumonia
|
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What diagnostic test can tell you what serotype is occuring by capsular precipitation based on type specific antigens
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Quellung reaction
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what is a rapid test for S pneumonia?
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LA test (K antigen)
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what are the alpha hemolytic streptococci that do not possess group specific carbs?
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viridans
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bacteria in the mutans group of streptococci
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mutans
sobrinus cricetus rattus |
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which strep group are the initial colonizers
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mitis
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what bacteria are in the mitis group?
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sanguis
gordonii mitis oralis |
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which bacterial group adheres to the acquired pellicle?
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viridans(mitis) group
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what disease occurs most commonly on damaged heart valves, may follow an acute or subacute course
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infective endocarditis
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|
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what are the signs/symptoms of infective endocarditis?
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fever, weight loss, anemia, heart murmur, splenomegaly, peripheral embolization
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at what pH is the dissolution of enamel?
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5.5
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which bacteria is alpha hemolytic, and produces a large amount of acid products(acidogenic-mostly lactic acid)
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S. mutans
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sucrose is hydrolyzed into ____ and _____ by the enzyme _____.
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glucose, fructose
invertase |
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sucrose -> glucan by what enzyme?
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glucosyltransferase (GTF)
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what enzyme adheres to the enamel and becomes a part of the acquired pellicle, and promotes bacterial-pellicle and bacteria-bacteria interactions
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glucosyltransferase (GTF)
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which bacteria is a major etiologic agent of dental caries, produces propionic acid
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Strep. sobrinus
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which strain aggregates with Veillonella species?
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Strep. salivarivaius
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which strain is more commonly a resident of the tongue, and rarely found in plaque?
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Strep. salivarius
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which species is most commonly associated with infective endocarditis?
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Strep.sanguis
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which bacteria has most strains that are not acidogenic?
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Strep. sanguis
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what can be an adhesin to the salivary pellicle?
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lipotechoic acid
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what bacterial group is most common cause of subacute endocarditis?
|
streptococcus
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glucan can only be formed from metabolism of what sugar?
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sucrose
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GTF interacts with ____ to cause stacking
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glucan
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T/F strep sanguis is an initial colonizer
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True
|
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what group are normal flora of the oral cavity and upper respiratory, genital, and gastrointestinal tract?
|
viridans streptococci
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which group occurs in plaque, they are initial colonizers, and adhere to the acquired pellicle?
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viridans(mitis)
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chewing, dental manipulation, Gi instrumentation can cause invasion of what?
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the bloodstream
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cellulitis or wound infections, meningitis, sinusitis are all clinical manifestations of what bacteria?
|
viridans streptococci
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An ASO (antistreptolysin O) test can be used to diagnose which bacteria?
|
S. pyogenes
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S pyogenes can spread to other organ systems
skin-> ___ middle ear-> ___ meninges ->_____ |
skin-> impetigo
middle ear -> otitis media meninges -> meningitis |
|
|
what complication is believed to be an autoimmune reaction where antistrep antibodies react with own body?
|
rheumatic fever
|
|
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when testing for streptococcus which two things rule out staph?
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1. bacitran sensitivity
2. catalase test |
|
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what can be used to detect antigens directly from throat swabs?
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1. latex agglutination
2. EIA |
|
|
what is the treatment for S pyogenes?
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penicillin
erythromycin |
|
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what are the bacteria that are part of the mitis group?
|
S sanguis
S gordonii S mitis S oralis |
|
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What is diagnosed by repeated blood cultures
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Infective endocarditis (strep)
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what is the name for curved rods?
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vibrios
|
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what is the name for s-shaped bacteria?
|
spirilla
|
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spiral form bacteria?
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spirochetes
|
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tightly wound spiral forms
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leptospira
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very tightly wound spiral forms
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borrelia
|
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flagella can act as a virulence factor by promoting...
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spread of infection and attachment
|
|
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linear polymers of NAG and NAM are linked with what type of bond?
|
beta 1,4 bond
|
|
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strings of NAG and NAM are linked by ____
|
peptide bridges
|
|
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subunits of _____ form small channels that allow passage of small molecules in G- cell wall
|
porin
|
|
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endospores have a coat made of what?
|
keratin like protein
|
|
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why does no metabolism take place in endospores?
|
low water content
|
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GC percentage is specific for a given species but not____ for that species
|
exclusive
|
|
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which procedure employs DNA primers to amplify specific regions of bacterial DNA?
|
PCR
|
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|
the energy released from exergonic reactions are used to drive ______ reactions
|
endergonic
|
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the ETC accepts ____ from reduced compounds and transfers them to ____ forming water
|
electrons
O2 |
|
|
what is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
|
oxygen
|
|
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nitrate reducers reduce nitrate into what?
|
nitrite or free nitrogen gas
|
|
|
what hydrolyzes proteins-> peptides
what breaks down peptides-> amino acids |
protease
peptidase |
|
|
what process includes anaerobic mechanisms of energy production which do not involve a respiratory chain or cytochromes?
|
fermentation
|
|
|
according to metabolism of O2 which bacteria can be fermentative?
|
obligate anaerobe, aerotolerant, facultative
|
|
|
1. RNA polymerase binds
2. DNA seperates 3. mRNA formed 4. termination -these are the steps for? |
transcription
|
|
|
in conjugation genetic material is transferred through what?
|
cytoplasmic bridge (sex pili)
|
|
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what are segments of dsDNA that code for site specific recombination, they integrate into a gene and function or activity is altered
|
insertion sequences
|
|
|
what is the capacity to move towards a host surface via flagella?
|
chemotaxis
|
|
|
what are the advantages of entry into host cells?
|
avoiding host defense immune system, locating an environment rich in nutrients
|
|
|
type III secretion system helps prevent ______ of virulence factors by immune system?
|
neutralization
|
|
|
inhibit phagocyotosis
mask surface components like LPS mimic host antigens -this can all be done by what? |
capsule
|
|
|
what is activated/stimultated by LPS?
|
-initiates complement cascade
-activates B lymphocytes -stimulates tumor necrosis factor, interleukin-1, prostaglandins |
|
|
T/F the site of action of exotoxins is less localized than endotoxin
|
F-site of action of exotoxins is more localized than endotoxin
|
|
|
what is the process of destroying all forms of microbial life?
|
sterilization
|
|
|
what is an agent that kills or removes bacteria in a material or an object?
|
disinfectant
|
|
|
what are disinfectants used on living tissues called?
|
antiseptic
|
|
|
which form of cleaning is more desirable because of increased cleaning efficacy, reduced aerolization, and reduced manual labor?
|
ultrasound
|
|
|
which sterilization process is a dual action of toxic chemicals and heat?
|
chemical vapor sterilization
|
|
|
what is a disadvantage of autoclave
|
corrosion of instruments
|
|
|
a method of standardizing disinfectants is to compare them to?
|
phenol
|
|
|
what are disinfectants that cause fixation of the cell membrane and block release of cellular components?
|
glutaraldehyde
formaldehyde |
|
|
what disinfectants oxidize cellular constituents
|
hypochlorite
bromides |
|
|
what do beta lactamases do to penicillin?
|
open the beta lactam ring hydrolytically
|
|
|
what 3 antibiotics have beta lactam rings?
|
penicillin
cephalosporin carbapenem |
|
|
what are the beta lactamase inhibitors "suicide inhibitors"?
|
clavulanic acid
sulbactam |
|
|
clavulanate + amoxicillin =?
clavulanate + ticarcillin= ? |
augmentin
timentin |
|
|
what is a nucleic acid antibiotic that is used for tuberculosis?
|
rifampin
|
|
|
streptomycin, neomycin, kanamyin, amikacin, spectoinomycin all inhibit what?
|
protein synthesis
|
|
|
which vaccine is giving to high risk groups like military and college students?
|
meningococcal
(Neisseria meningitis) |
|
|
which bacteria is involved with 80% of pus forming disease?
|
staph aureus
|
|
|
which bacteria is susceptible to lysostaphin because of the glycine-glycine linkages?
|
staph aureus
|
|
|
which bacteria has a wide optimum temperature -6.5-46 C ?
|
staph aureus
|
|
|
what are the extracellular enzymes for S aureus?
|
coagulase
hyaluronidase |
|
|
Name the 4 toxins for S aureus
|
1. alpha toxin (lyses RBC)
2. enterotoxin (food poisoning) 3. exfoliative (scalded skin) 4. toxic shock syndrome |
|
|
S aureus is resistant to what two disinfectants?
|
phenols
mercuric chloride |
|
|
Name the 4 virulence factors for S pyogenes
|
1. M protein (rheumatic fever)
2. streptolysin O (lysis) 3. streptolysin S (betahemolysin) 4. pyrogenic exotoxins |
|
|
what is responsible for the delayed hypersensitivity to strep?
|
pyrogenic exotoxins
|
|
|
which age group does rheumatic fever primarily occur in?
|
6-15
|
