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198 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
During the nineteenth century, a physician named Edward Jenner noticed that
cows get a disease called cowpox, which is similar in its symptoms to a disease
that infects humans called smallpox; however, humans can't contract cowpox.
Jenner also noticed that milkmaids were immune to smallpox. Jenner infected a
child with the pus from a cowpox blister, and found that the child was
subsequently immune to smallpox. How did the child develop immunity to
smallpox?
A. The cowpox virus prevented the smallpox virus from entering the lytic cycle.
B. The cowpox virus prevented the smallpox virus from entering the lysogenic
cycle. .
C.The cowPox virus was so similar to the smallpox virus that it stimulated
"immunological memory" of the smallpox virus.
D. The child had a particularly strong immune system that prevented him from
contracting smallpox.
C.The cowPox virus was so similar to the smallpox virus that it stimulated
"immunological memory" of the smallpox virus.
Which of the following is related to Prions?
A. Infectious agents contain DNA and RNA and cause neurodegenerative
disease.
B.Infectious agents do not contain nucleic acid and cause neurodegenerative
disease
C. Infectious agents contain DNA and cause neurodegenerative disease.
/D,I Infectious agents contain RNA and cause neurodegenerative disease
E. All of the above areTelated to Prions.
B.Infectious agents do not contain nucleic acid and cause neurodegenerative
disease
Which of the following statements about prokaryote structure is FALSE?
A. Most prokaryotes possess a cell wall made of peptidoglycan.
B. Prokaryotes possess a single chromosome inside a nucleus.
C. Some prokaryotes possess flagella for motility.
D. Cytoplasmic ribosomes are used for protein synthesis.
E. All prokaryotes possess a plasma membrane.
B. Prokaryotes possess a single chromosome inside a nucleus.
Which of the following individual is best known for his microscopy of
microorganisms?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
C. Fannie Hesse
D. Robert Koch
E. Edward Jenner
B. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
Which of the following statements is true concerning bacterial endospores?
A. They are produced by genus Clostridium and Bacillus
B. They are resistant to heat, but very sensitive to desiccation.
C. They contain high concentrations of calcium and dipicolinic acid.
D. They have high metabolic activity.
E. They have a thick cortex, but no. peptidoglycan.
A. They are produced by genus Clostridium and Bacillus
Acellular, non-living agents consisting of a protein coat that surrounds a nucleic
acid core are called .
A. prions.
B. prokaryotes.
C. viroids.
D. viruses.
E:nucleoproteins
D. viruses.
involves the uptake of naked DNA by the recipient cell.
A. transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transduction
D. All of the above
A. transformation
The final three-dimensional shape of a polypeptide is called its _
structure.
A. primary
B. secondary
(g tertiary
D. quaternary
E. isomer
tertiary
Bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium are difficult to stain because of the waxy
material associated with their unique cell walls and require
_______ stain.
A. peptidoglycan, Gram
B. sterols, simple
C. lenolic acid, counterstain
D. dipicolinic acid, endospore
E. mycolic acid, acid-fast
E. mycolic acid, acid-fast
The ability of a microscope to differentiate between two close objects or points is
referred to as
A. magnification
B. resolution.
C. contrast.
D. refraction.
E. clarification
B. resolution.
Which of the following statements about Gram-staining is FALSE? .
A. It separates bacteria into two major groups, Gram-negative and Gram-positive.
B. Bacteria stain differently based on differences in their cell wall composition.
C. The primary stain will stain both•Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria
purple.
C.After staining is complete, Gram-positive bacteria will appear purple and
Gram-negative bacteria will appear blue. .
E. None of these choices are correct.
C.After staining is complete, Gram-positive bacteria will appear purple and
Gram-negative bacteria will appear blue. .
Which of the following statements about the cell membrane is FALSE?
A. Phospholipid molecules are arranged with the hydrophobic tails facing each
other in the middle of the membrane.
B. Phospholipids in the cell membrane are arranged so that the collective
hydrophilic parts of the molecules line both the outside and inside
(cytoplasmic) facing interfaces of the cell.
C. Proteins are freely movable within the membrane.
D.The membrane is impermeable to all molecules except water
E.None of these choices are correct.
E.None of these choices are correct.
You are given a prepared slide and are told that it is a streptobacillus. Without
even looking at the slide under the microscope, you know which of the following?
A. The bacteria are linked together in chains.
B. The bacteria are spherical in shape.
C. The bacteria are in grape-like clusters.
D.The bacteria are rod-shaped chains.
E. The bacteria are Gram-negative.
D.The bacteria are rod-shaped chains.
If a protein is excessively heated, its shape can permanently change and the
protein will no longer carry out its function. This process is called
A. hydrolysis.
B. thermal catabolism.
C. denaturation.
D. ionization.
E. dehydrogenation.
C. denaturation.
What action does penicillin have that makes it effective in treating many types of
bacterial infections?
A.interferes with DNA transcription.
B. it interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis
C. It breaks down the cell wall.
D. It blocks the electron transport system.
E. It directly damages the plasma membrane
interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis
The DNA nucleotide sequence that is complementary to a DNA strand with the
following sequence, 5'GT AATC3', is:
A. 3'CATTAG5'.
B. 3'GTAATC5'.
C. 3'CAUUA05'.
D.5'GUAAUC3'.
E. None of these choices are correct
A. 3'CATTAG5'.
Which of the•following molecules does not belong with the others?
A. glucose
B. galactose
C. glycogen
D. fructose
E. ribose
C. glycogen
The chromosome of prokaryotes is located in which of the following regions?
A. the nucleus
B. the plasmid
C. the periplasmic space
D. the capsule
E.the nucleoid
E.the nucleoid
A fatty acid that contains numerous double bonds would be called a(n)
fat.
'A: saturated
B. unsaturated
C.polyunsaturated
D. steroid
E. phospholipid
C.polyunsaturated
The organic molecules responsible for forming the bilayer of biological
membranes are
A. phospholipids.
B. proteins.
C. carbohydrates.
D. nucleic acids.
E. triglycerides.
A. phospholipids.
Which of the following statements about plasmids is FALSE?
A. They are extrachromosomal pieces of DNA.
B. A single cell can carry multiple plasmids.
C.The cell does require the plasmid for survival
D. Plasmids may be advantageous to the cell.
E. Plasmids can be transferred to other bacteria
C.The cell does require the plasmid for survival
Weak bonds that result from the attraction of hydrogen to oxygen or nitrogen and
are important in proteins, DNA, and water are called bonds.
A. covalent
B. ionic
C. hydrophobic
D. catabolic
E. hydrogen
E. hydrogen
A resistant dormancy structure produced by some bacteria in response to adverse
conditions, and that germinates when conditions become favorable is called a(n)
A. sporangium.
B. endospore.
C. plasmid.
D. vegetative cell
E. porin
B. endospore.
Many bacterial throat infections are aggravated by the fact that the bacteria can
attach to throat cells. Drugs can be developed that reduce the ability of bacteria to
stick to surfaces. Which of the following structures would most likely be affected
by these drugs?
A. plasmid
B. flagella
'C. cell membrane
D. storage granules
E. fimbriae
E. fimbriae
Phosphate, sugar and nitrogen base are bonded together to form a _
A. RNA
B..RNAandDNA
C. Nucleotide
D. Liposaccharide
E. Peptidoglycan
C. Nucleotide
The unit of measurement most commonly used in bacterial microbiology is the:
A. Nanometer
B. Millimeter
C. Angstrom
D. Centimeter
E. Micrometer
E. Micrometer
Which ofthe following is the species name of the bacteria?
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Whose postulates demonstrate that a disease is caused by a microorganism and
also gave the concept of pure cultures?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
C. Fannie Hesse
D. Robert Koch
E. Edward Jenner
D. Robert Koch
A triglyceride is made up of .
A. One glycerol and three fatty acids.
B. Three glycerols and one fatty acid.
C. One glycerol and one fatty acid.
D. Three glycerols and three fatty acids.
A. One glycerol and three fatty acids.
Which one is mismatched?
A. Ignaz Semmelweis- washing hands
B. Louis Pasteur- refuted spontaneous generation theory
C. John Snow- antiseptic surgery
D. Fredrick Griffith- genetic transformation
E. Elie Metchnikoff- phagocytes
C. John Snow- antiseptic surgery
Which of the following is the most fundamental division of cell type in living
organism?
A. algae, fungi and protozoa
B. Eucarya, Bacteria and Archaea.
C. virus and viroids
D. bacteria and archea
E. eukaryote and prokaryote
E. eukaryote and prokaryote
All the following are considered microorganisms except:
A. Bacteria
B. algae
C. Viruses
D. Protozoa
E. helminths
C. Viruses
The science of microbiology blossomed during the period known as:
A. The Age of Molecular Genetics
B. The Time of Seminal Discovery
C. The Time of Microbial Appreciation
D. The Golden Age of Microbiology
. The Golden Age of Microbiology
How do probiotics help the digestive system?
A. Maintain the cholesterol level
B. Balance gut micro flora
C. Reduce high blood pressure
D. Help digest proteind
E. All of the above
B. Balance gut micro flora
More people died worldwide of influenza in 1918 epidemic than in World War I,
II, Korean War and Vietnam War combined.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Light Microscope Electron microscope
A. Uses light Uses electron beam
B. Resolving power 0.2 Il Resolving power is 0.3
m nm
C. Magnification 1000 Magnification 100,000
times times
D. Viruses are visualized Only Bacteria can be
visualized
iruses are visualized Only Bacteria can be
visualized
Which ofthe following is mismatched?
A. protozoa- unicellular organism
B.Fungi- molds unicellular and yeast multicellular
C. Virus- obligate intracellular parasite
D. Helminths- multicellular organism
E. Algae- unicellular and multicellular organism
B. fungi- molds unicellular and yeast multicellular
Mycology is the study of
A. Bacteria
B. Archea
C. Parasites
D. Fungi
E. helminths
D. Fungi
Which of the following is not a modern emerging disease?
A. Toxic shock syndrome
B. Legionnaire's disease
C. Lyme disease
D. AIDS.
E. Leprosy
E. leprosy
Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means
A. They do not have cell wall and not a specific shape
B. they have a corkscrew shape.
C. they have cell wall and they are shaped like bent rods.
D. they are either bacilli or cocci.
A. They do not have cell wall and not a specific shape
Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA?
A. uracil
B. deoxyribose -
C. phosphate
D. adenine
A. uracil
Which of the following are the reasons for the current rise in new emerging
diseases?
A. Increased travel between continents.
B. Increase in life span
C. Increasing numbers of unvaccinated and therefore susceptible children and
adults.
D. All of the above are the reasons
E. Only A and C are correct
D. All of the above are the reasons
What is true regarding Peptidoglycan
A. may be digested by penicillin.
B. consists of a long string of NAG coupled to a long string of NAM.
C. may be digested by lysozyme.
D. is used to construct a spheroplast.
E. All of the above are true
C. may be digested by lysozyme
Which is (are) true concerning the cell wall of prokaryotes?
A. It determines the shape of the bacteria.
B. It prevents the bacteria from bursting.
C. It contains peptidoglycan.
D. It may be targeted by antimicrobials.
E. All of the choices are true.
E. All of the choices are true.
The cell wall of Gram-negative organisms
A. has a thick peptidoglycan layer.
B. has a thin peptidoglycan layer and is characterized by an outer membrane
containing.
C. is more permeable to various molecules than the Gram-positive cell wall.
D. has a thick layer of peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer
membrane containing Lipopolysaccharide.
E. All of the above is true
D. has a thick layer of peptidoglycan layer AND is characterized by an outer
membrane containing Lipopolysaccharide.
What is true regarding the capsule?
A. may be used for protection.
B. may be used to help the bacteria adhere to surfaces.
C may be involved in movement .
. D. may be involved in energy production.
E.may be used for protection AND may be used to help the bacteria adhere
to surfaces .
E.may be used for protection AND may be used to help the bacteria adhere
to surfaces .
What is true regarding Eukaryotic cells?
A. are more obviously compartmentalized than prokaryotes.
B. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA.
C. contain peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
D. have the same size ribosomes as prokaryotes.
E. usually have a single circular supercoiled piece of DNA AND contain
peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
A. are more obviously compartmentalized than prokaryotes
Lysosomes are bags of digestive enzymes found in prokaryotic cells.
A. True
B. False
B. False
What was the result of Griffith's transformation experiment?
A. Live Streptococcus pneumonia without capsule did not kill mouse
B. Live Streptococcus pneumonia with capsule killed mouse
C. Live Streptococcus pneumonia without capsule and dead Streptococcus
Pneumonia with capsule was injected into a mouse, killed the mouse.
D. Transformed cells acquired ability to synthesize capsule.
E.all the above
E.all the above
A catabolic reaction in which water is used during the breaking of chemical bonds
is called
A. synthesis.
B.hydrolysis.
C. condensation.
D. anabolism.
E. hydrocatabolism
B.hydrolysis.
Which is true about the RNA transcript?
A. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template.
B. It has the same 5'_3' orientation as the DNA positive strand.
C. It is made in short fragments that are then stitched together. . .
D. The template starts at the promoter region.
E. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it is the same 5'_3' orientation
as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region.
E. It is formed using the DNA minus strand as a template, it is the same 5'_3' orientation
as the DNA positive strand AND the template starts at the promoter region.
. Which is true about RNA polymerase?
A. It is used during transcription.
B. It does not require a primer.
C. It has a detachable subunit, sigma factor, which recognizes the promoter.
D. It reads the template in the 3'-5' direction.
E. All of the choices are true.
E. All of the choices are true.
Which of the following is most likely to grow at refrigerator temperatures?
A. mesophiles
B. psychrophiles
C. thermophiles
D. acidophiles
B. psychrophiles
4. Limiting the activity of microbes in food can be accomplished by
A. pasteurization.
B. cold storage.
C. irradiation.
D. growth inhibiting substances.
E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following is true about phenotype?
A. Phenotype is expressed independent of the genotype.
B.Phenotype the expression of the genotype.
C. Phenotype is independent of the environment that the bacteria is in
D. Phenotype is always the same as the genotype.
E. None of these choices are correct
B.Phenotype the expression of the genotype.
Segments of DNA capable of moving from one area in the DNA to another are
called
A. base analogs.
B. intercalating agents.
C.transposons.
D. palindromic sequences.
C.transposons.
Chemical mutagens often act by altering the
A. hydrogen bonding properties of the nitrogen bases.
B. nitrogen base sequence.
C. number of binding sites on the nitrogen bases.
D. alkyl groups of the nitrogen bases.
A. hydrogen bonding properties of the nitrogen bases.
Which of the following statements about transformation is FALSE?
A. Transformation requires contact between donor and recipient cells.
B. Double-stranded DNA binds to the surface of recipient cells.
C. Some bacterial cells are naturally competent.
D. A single strand of donor DNA hydrogen bonds to a homologous region of
recipient DNA.
E. Double-stranded DNA enters the recipient cell.
E. Double-stranded DNA enters the recipient cell.
How many nucleotides are in a codon?
A.l
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.5
C. 3
The genetic code has more than one codon for some amino acids. This is an example
of
A. evolution.
B. stringency.
C. degeneracy.
D.translation.
D.degeneracy
A stop codon
A. codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine.
B. forms a hairpin loop forcing the ribosome to fall off.
C. codes for no amino acid.
D. enhances the binding of the e-polymerase.
E. codes for the stop amino acid s-methyl-methionine AND forms a hairpin loop forcing
the ribosome to fall off.
codes for no amino acid
The growth of microorganisms in a food product is influenced by the availability of
A. moisture
B. nutrients
C. temperature.
D.All of the choices are correct
D. all of the choices are correct
Which of the following organisms may grow at pH 3.5?
A. Clostridium
B. Streptococcus
C. Vibrio cholera
D. lactic acid bacteria
D. lactic acid bacteria
Most bacteria are inhibited by a pH of
A. 7.2.
B. 4.0.
C. 6.0.
D. 7.0.
B. 4.0.
Nitrous acid most frequently causes mutations by
A. substituting oxygen for hydrogen bonds.
B. converting keto groups to amino groups.
C. altering the bonding ratios of nitrogen bases.
D.converting cytosine to uracil.
D.converting cytosine to uracil.
A mutation in a gene that results in substitution of a different amino acid is
A. silent mutation.
B.missense mutation
C. nonsense mutation
D. frameshift mutation.
E. spontaneous mutation
B.missense mutation
What is true regarding intercalating agents?
A. act during DNA synthesis.
B. often result in frame shift mutations.
C. only act in dormant cells.
D. alter the hydrogen bonding properties of the bases.
E. act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.
E. act during DNA synthesis AND often result in frame shift mutations.
Which of the following mechanisms are used by bacteria to repair thymine dimers?
A. no repair mechanisms.
B. photoreactivation repair, excision repair and SOS repair
C. SOS repair.
D. excision repair.
E. photoreactivation repair AND excision repair.
B. photoreactivation repair, excision repair and SOS repair
The formation of a covalent bond between two adjacent thymines is caused by
A. mustard gas.
B. alkylating agents.
C. microwave radiation.
D. UV radiation.
D. UV radiation.
The placement of the amino acid during translation is determined by the
A. DNAse which transcribes both molecules.
B. complementarity of the codon-anticodon.
C. sequence of nucleotides at the 5' end of the tRNA.
D. secondary structure of the newly forming protein.
B. complementarity of the codon-anticodon.
What is the number of tRNA molecules that may be associated with translation?
A. more than 100
B. 75
C. 64
D. less than 64
D. less than 64
The E-site in the robosomes
A. is found on the RNA polymerase enzyme.
B. is responsible for the release of the tRNA.
C:. is found on the 35S polysome.
D. is the eminoacyl site.
E. is responsible for the release of the tRNA AND is the eminoacyl site.
B. is responsible for the release of the tRNA.
The unique flavor of yogurt is due to the production of
A. lactic acid
B. casein and alcohol.
C. rennin and coagulated protein.
D. curd and whey.
A. lactic acid
If the sequence of nucleotides in one chain of a DNA molecule is
3' TCAAGCCGTA 5' a new nucleotide chain will be produced during replication
with the complementary sequence
A 3' TCAAGCCCAT 5'
B. 5'AGTTCGGCAT 3'
C. 3' CTGGATTTCC 5'
D. 5' AGATCTAGGT 3'
B. 5'AGTTCGGCAT 3'
Which is true about DNA replication?
A. It is semi conservative.
B. It starts at an origin of replication.
C. It is bi-directional.
D. It requires RNA primers.
E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Studies done by Buchner showed that ground-up yeast cells were able to convert
sugar to alcohol. The components of the mixture that were responsible for this
transformation were
A. DNA molecules.
B. enzymes.
C. lipids.
D. carbohydrates.
B. enzymes.
Concerning catabolism and anabolism,
A. they refer to reactions solely dealing with the metabolism of lipids.
B. the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other.
C. the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other.
D. they refer solely to the reactions involved in synthesis of carbohydrates.
E. the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in
one is utilized in the other.
E. the intermediates of one serve as the reactants in the other AND the energy gathered in one is utilized in the other.
Enzymes speed up reactions by
A. raising aCtivation energy.
B. producing heat.
C. reducing entropy.
D.lowering activation energy.
E.raising activation energy AND reducing entropy
D. lowering activation energy
The term antiparallel
A. refers to the structure single-stranded RNA.
B. is synonymous with semiconservative.
C. refers to the opposite orientation of the two strands in DNA.
D. refers to a type of prokaryotic replication
C. refers to the opposite orientation of the two strands in DNA.
DNA repair mechanisms occur
A. only in prokaryotes.
B. only in eukaryotes.
C. in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
D. in neither eukaryotes or prokaryotes
C. in both eukaryotes or prokaryotes
. Prokaryotic cell mutations can be observed very quickly because the prokaryotic
chromosome is
A. diploid.
B. polyploid.
C. haploid.
D. polysomal.
C. haploid.
Bacteria that have properties of both the donor and recipient cells are the result of
A. UV light.
B. SOS repair.
C. frame shift mutations.
D. genetic recombination.
D. genetic recombination.
The mechanism by which genes are transferred into bacteria via viruses is called
A. ellipsis.
B. replica plating.
C. transformation.
D. transduction.
E. conjugation.
D. transduction
IN conjugation the donor cell is recognized by the presence of
A. an F plasmid.
B. a Y chromosome.
C. diploid chromosomes.
D. an SOS response.
E. an F plasmid AND diploid chromosomes.
A. an F plasmid.
Oxygen radicals are dealt by which enzymes in the bacteria?
A. glycolase.
B. superoxide dismutase.
C. catalase.
D. hydrogen peroxidase.
E. superoxide dismutase AND catalase.
E. superoxide dismutase AND catalase.
DNA polymerase is able to proofread the DNA sequence.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Mutations are likely to persist after SOS repair, but not after light or excision repair.
A True
B. False
A. true
Which molecule carries an anticodon?
A.DNA
B.mRNA
C. rRNA.
D. tRNA
D. tRNA
Which is/are true of coenzymes?
A. They are organic molecules.
B. They transfer atoms from one molecule to another.
C. They may bind to a number of different enzymes.
D. They are synthesized from vitamins.
E. All of the choices are correct.
E. All of the choices are correct.
GCCCAAAG is a molecule of
A. RNA.
B. DNA.
C. Protein.
D. cannot tell as written.
D. cannot tell as written.
DNA is characterized by
A. ribose.
B. single-stranded.
C. deoxyribose.
D. thymine.
E.deoxyribose AND thymine
E.deoxyribose AND thymine
The 3' end of DNA
A. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of
deoxyribose.
B. attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
C. always has thymine attached to it.
D. usually has guanine attached to it.
E. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of
deoxyribose AND attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
E. refers to the end that has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 3 carbon of
deoxyribose AND attaches to the 5' phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide.
Experiments designed by suggested that living cells caused the
fermentation of sugar to produce alcohol.
A. Pasteur
B. Koch
C. Wohler
D. Fleming
A. Pasteur
Some segments of the precursor mRNA in eukaryotes is non-coding are called
A. exons.
B. introns.
C. integrans.
D. uselessans.
B. introns
Adenine binds to thymine via 3 hydrogen bonds.
A. True
B. False
B. False
The minus strand of DNA serves as the template for RNA production.
A. True
B. False
A. true
The genetic code is universal.
A. True
B. False
A. True
What is true regarding most enzymes?
A. are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates.
B. are specialists and typically recognize a single substrate.
C. are active over a wide pH range.
D. have several active sites.
E. are generalists and typically recognize a number of different substrates AND have
several active sites.
B. are specialists and typically recognize a single substrate.
In a rapidly multiplying bacterial population, cell numbers increase
A. arithmetically .
B. logarithmically.
C. geometrically.
D. indirectly
B. logarithmically.
The optimal temperature for most human pathogens might be expected to range from
A. 35-40°C.
B. 20-45°C.
C. 15-25°C.
D. 93-98.6°C.
A. 35-40°C.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Gonyaulax
D. Vibrio Cholera
E. Corynebacterium diphtheria

1. Painless voluminous diarrhea called rice water stools

2. Chronic cough, chronic fever, night sweats and caseous necrosis

3. Hemorrhagic rash that begins on extremities, obligate intracellular bacterium
transmitted by tick Dermacentor.

4. Generalized numbness, dizziness, general muscle weakness causes Paralytic
Shellfish poisoning.

5. Whitish gray membrane on tonsils and throat, cardiac and kidney failure,
paralysis may follow.
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Rickettsia rickettsii
C. Gonyaulax
D. Vibrio Cholera
E. Corynebacterium diphtheria

1. Painless voluminous diarrhea called rice water stools - D

2. Chronic cough, chronic fever, night sweats and caseous necrosis - A

3. Hemorrhagic rash that begins on extremities, obligate intracellular bacterium
transmitted by tick Dermacentor. - B

4. Generalized numbness, dizziness, general muscle weakness causes Paralytic
Shellfish poisoning. - C

5. Whitish gray membrane on tonsils and throat, cardiac and kidney failure,
paralysis may follow. - E
Which of the following can be the virulence factor of bacteria?
A. Endotoxin
B. Exotoxin
C. Capsule.
D. Lipase, DNase, protease
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
All of the following statements are true of enteric bacteria Except:
A.They are Gram-positive rods.
B. Most species live in the intestines of humans and other animals.
C. Most are facultative anaerobes.
D. Proteus, Escherichia, and Enterobacter are examples of enteric bacteria.
E. Many are part of the normal flora.
A.They are Gram-positive rods.
Protozoan infections are typically spread by
A. the respiratory route.
B. blood transfusion
C. body fluids.
D. the fecal-oral route
D. the fecal-oral route
Both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
A. are gram positive cocci.
B. are rod -shaped.
C. cause necrotizing fasciitis.
D. are gram positive and catalase positive
E. are gram positive, catalase and coagulase positive
A. are gram positive cocci.
Protozoan classification is based on their means of
A. locomotion.
B. growth.
C. reproduction.
D. obtaining nutrients
A. locomotion.
The ability to exist as either a trophozoite or a cyst is characteristic of many
A. fungi.
B. viruses.
C. protozoa.
D. bacteria
C. protozoa.
Which of the following are spirochetes?
A. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Treponema palladium and Borrelia burgdolferi
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprea
D. Bacteroids fragilis and Fusobacterium nucleatum
B. Treponema palladium and Borrelia burgdolferi
Brucellosis may also be known as
A. Bang's disease.
B. undulant fever.
C. Hansen's disease.
D. rabbit fever.
E. Bang's disease AND undulant fever
E. Bang's disease AND undulant fever
What is the differentiating criterion between disease caused by Treponema
palladium and Haemophilus ducreyi?
A. In both chancres is on genitalia
B. Both diseases are sexually transmitted
C.Chancre of syphilis is hard and painless whereas H. ducreyi is soft and painful.
D. Chancre of syphilis is soft and painless whereas H. ducreyi is hard and painful.
C.Chancre of syphilis is hard and painless whereas H. ducreyi is soft and painful.
Sarcodina move by means of
A. flagella.
B. apicomplexans.
C. cilia.
D. pseudopodia.
D. pseudopodia.
Most cases of Salmonella gastroenteritis have a(n)
A. human source.
B. animal source.
C. plant source.
D water source
B. animal source.
Plasmodium falciparum causes the most serious (malignant) form of malaria.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Which of the following species of bacteria is most likely to be involved in epidemics of
meningitis among people in crowded, stressed conditions and educational institutes?
A. Listeria monocytogenes.
B. Hemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis.
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Neisseria meningitidis.
What are the features associated with Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A. Most common cause of gastroenteritis in US.
B. Guillian-Barre syndrome is the mysterious complication
C. Poultry is the common source of infection.
D. It is a gram-negative enteric rod grows well'at 42°C
E. All of the above are the features.
E. All of the above are the features.
Which of the following is caused by a protozoan infection?
A. Chancroid
B. Malaria
C. Lymphgranuloma venereum
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
E. All of the above
B. Malaria
After being bitten by an infected tick, transfer of the rickettsial organism occurs
A. within 4-10 hours.
B. within 5 minutes.
C. within 20 minutes.
D. immediately.
A. within 4-10 hours.
The development of lymph node enlargement in the region of a skin ulcer after a
tick bite or handling of a wild animal suggests
A. brucellosis.
B. endocarditis.
C. septicemia.
D. tularemia.
D. tularemia.
The unique characteristic of Lyme disease is
A. erythema migrans.
B. induration.
C. carbuncle.
D. furuncle.
A. erythema migrans.
The lactobacilli, in their role as normal flora of the vagina, help the vagina resist
infection by contributing to
A. the neutrality of the vaginal mucus.
B. acidity of the vagina.
C. food for the resident vaginal flora.
D. fertility of the host.
B. acidity of the vagina.
Organism that is cell wall less, typically produce colonies with a fried egg appearance and causes atypical pneumonia.
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Klebseialla pneumonia
D. Haemophilus pneumoniae
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
Which of the following organism/disease pairings is incorrect?
A. Yersinia pestis/bubonic plague
B. Helicobacter pylar is/peptic ulcer.
C. Salmonella typhi/ typhoid fever
D. Rickettsia/Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
E. Vibrio cholera/conjunctivitis
E. Vibrio cholera/conjunctivitis
Following are the normal flora in human body EXCEPT
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. E. coli.
C. Staphylococcus epidermidis
D. Salmonella typhi
E. Lactobacillus acidophilus
D. Salmonella typhi
Which of the statements about Neisseria gonorrhea is false?
A. It is a gram positive diplococci
B. Pelvic-inflammatory disease is common in untreated cases
C. Attaches to epithelial cells via pili
D. In neonates causes Ophthalmia neonatorum
E. Spread through sexual contact
A. It is a gram positive diplococci
Specific strains of this cause most of the cases of bacterial
urinary infection.
A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B.Escherichia coli
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Klebsiella
B.Escherichia coli
During which of the following stages of syphilis are infected people NOT able to
transmit the disease to others and gummas are formed in the tissue and organs?
A. primary
B. secondary
C. tertiary
D. secondary and tertiary
C. tertiary
Toxic shock syndrome was most commonly noted in menstruating women during
the early 1980s. Which of the following was the reason for this observation?
A. Fewer condoms were being used during sexual activity in the 1980s.
B. Certain, high-absorption tampons encouraged the growth of the bacteria
causing toxic shock.
C. Stressful lifestyles in the 1980s weakened the immune system of women.
D. Birth control pills became common, leading to an overgrowth of vaginal
Staphylococcus.
E. Its increase correlated with the increase in AIDS.
B. Certain, high-absorption tampons encouraged the growth of the bacteria
causing toxic shock.
All of the following are true of Helicobacter pylori, except
A. It is a facultative anaerobic, gram negative rod
B. Secretes urease enzyme
C. Associated with duodenal and gastric ulcer and stomach cancer
D.Mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets
D.Mode of transmission is via respiratory droplets
Which of the following organisms cause neonatal meningitis?
A. E. coli, Streptococcus pneumonia and Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumonia and Streptococcus
agalactiae
C. E. co.li, Streptococcus agalactiae and Listeria monocytogenes
D. H influenza, N. meningitidis and S. pneumoniae
C. E. co.li, Streptococcus agalactiae and Listeria monocytogenes
A 10 year old boy has fever, painful swallowing and enlarged lymph nodes in the
neck. A Gram-stained smear shows gram-positive cocci arranged in chains. On
blood agar numerous colonies surrounded by clear zone. If you found the catalase
test to be negative, which one of the following organisms would you MOST
probably have isolated?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B.Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Staphylococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B.Streptococcus pyogenes
Which is true about C. botulinum?
A. Gram positive endospore forming rod
B. Infantile botulism is associated with honey
C. Toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors
D. Causes flaccid paralysis of muscles
E.All of the above is true
E.All of the above is true
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Pseudmonas aeruginosa
E. Clostridium tetani

Gram negative rod, strict aerobe, causes burn infection produces green pus

Gram positive, anaerobic rod, toxin blocks the action of inhibitory neurons at
neuromuscular junction

Protozoa, contracted by inhalation of cysts in water, causes Primary amebic
meningoencephalitis

Gram negative coccobacilli, associated with paroxysmal cough followed by
forceful inspiratory whoop.
A. Naegleria fowleri
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Pseudmonas aeruginosa
E. Clostridium tetani

Gram negative rod, strict aerobe, causes burn infection produces green pus - D

Gram positive, anaerobic rod, toxin blocks the action of inhibitory neurons at
neuromuscular junction - E

Protozoa, crosses placenta causes neurological damage to fetus - B

Protozoa, contracted by inhalation of cysts in water, causes Primary amebic
meningoencephalitis - A

Gram negative coccobacilli, associated with paroxysmal cough followed by
forceful inspiratory whoop. - C
The bacterial lung infection acquired by inhalation of aerosols of contaminated
water is known as
A. whooping cough.
B. pneumonia.
C. influenza.
D. Legionnaires'disease
D. Legionnaires'disease
Which of the following statements about African sleeping sickness is true?
A. It is transmitted by a tick.
B. It is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Symptoms of the disease are tender nodule, enlarge lymph nodes, gradual
loss of interest, coma and death
D. The disease is endemic in South and Central America
C. Symptoms of the disease are tender nodule, enlarge lymph nodes, gradual
loss of interest, coma and death
The term pyogenic refers to organisms that induce the production of
A. fever.
B.pus.
C. antibodies.
D. abscesses.
E. None of these choices are correct.
B.pus.
This is a more appropriate name for the historical "flesh-eating" disease:
A. cystitis.
B. gas gangrene.
C. streptococcal sepsis
D. necrotizing fasciitis
D. necrotizing fasciitis
Research studies show that excessive hand washing with warm soapy water
favors the growth of Staphylococcus aureus on the hands. This can create a public
health problem for people in the following careers:
A. Nursi-ng.
B. Elderly care worker.
C. Food handler.
D. Childcare worker.
E. All of these choices are correct.
E. All of these choices are correct.
This extracellular protein is produced by Staphylococcus aureus and helps the
organism form clots:
A. fibronectin.
B. fibrinase.
C. coagulase.
D. tumor necrosis factor.
E. None of these choices are correct
C. coagulase.
Giardiasis may be contracted from
A. another person.
B. clear mountain streams.
C. chlorinated city water.
D. cold filtered beer.
E. another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water
E. another person, clear mountain streams AND chlorinated city water
The infectious form of Chlamydia trachomatis is a(n)
A. reticulate body.
B. elementary body.
C. primary element.
D. core body.
B. elementary body.
The most important vector of Lyme disease in the eastern U.S. is
A. Dermacentor virabilis.
B. Dermacentor andersoni.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Ixodes scapularis.
D. Ixodes scapularis.
Animal viruses are divided into a number of families whose names end in
A. -virus.
B. -viridae.
C. -viscous.
D. -eieio.
B. -viridae.
Coccidioidomycosis and Histoplasmosis are caused by:
A. eating contaminated food
B . inhaling spores present in dust and soil
C. from person to person
D. sexually transmitted
B . inhaling spores present in dust and soil
The phenomenon responsible for the ability of Corynebacterium diphtherium to
produce the virulent toxin responsible for the devastating effects of diphtheria is
called
A. self-assembly.
B. matrix conversion.
C. prion protein.
D lysogenic conversion.
D lysogenic conversion.
Which of the following. is Not caused by poxvirus?
A. molluscum contagiosum
B. chickenpox
C. cowpox
D. smallpox
C. cowpox
Herpes simplex 1 usually causes and herpes simplex 2 usually
causes .
A. cold sores, genital herpes
B. fever blisters, cold sores
C. canker sore, fever blisters
D. shingles, stomatitis
A. cold sores, genital herpes
All of the following diseases are included in TORCH syndrome Except:
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Rubella
C. Herpes simplex
D. Cytomegalovirus
E.Trichomoniasis
E.Trichomoniasis
For which disease is an exanthema (skin rash) not a symptom?
A. measles
B.parainfluenza
C. coxsackievirus
D. rubella
B.parainfluenza
Which of the following viruses can be oncogenic in humans?
A. Epstein-Barr virus
B. Human herpes type 8
C. Hepatitis Band C
D. Human papillomavirus
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
Which of the following cells is a target of HIV infection?
A. macrophages
B. T helper cells
C. Cells with CD4 marker on them
D.All of these can support infection
D.All of these can support infection
number two cause of common cold during winter
belongs to family?
A. Coronavirus, Coronaviridae
B. Adenovirus, Adenoviridae
C. Rhinovirus, Picomaviridae.
D. Enterovirus, Picomaviridae
A. Coronavirus, Coronaviridae
Which receptors of the influenza virus are responsible for binding to host cells?
A.hemagglutinin
B. neuraminidase
C. type C
D. capsid protein'
A.hemagglutinin
Resistance of some animals to certain viral diseases is based on
A. lack of spikes for attachment.
B. phagocytosis of the virus by the host cell
C.Lack of specific receptors on the host cell
D. the presence of the viral envelope
C.Lack of specific receptors on the host cell
Retroviruses are unique in that they
A. replicate in nervous system cells.
B.carry enzyme reverse transcriptase which uses RNA template to make DNA
copy
C. do not have a capsid.
D. use DNA as a template to make RNA.
B.carry enzyme reverse transcriptase which uses RNA template to make DNA
copy
Humans acquire the arbovirus that causes epidemic encephalitis by
A.the bite of an infected mosquito.
B.human to human contact.
C. contaminated food.
D. the fecal-oral route.
A.the bite of an infected mosquito.
Which of the following is not an arthropod?
A. mosquitoes
B. flukes
C. lice
D. ticks
E. fleas
B. flukes
The major barrier to the control of rhinovirus upper respiratory infections by
immunization is
A. The poor local and systemic immune response to these viruses
B. The number and antigenic diversity of the viruses
C. The side effects of the vaccine
D. The inability to grow the viruses in cell culture
B. The number and antigenic diversity of the viruses
Which disease is incorrectly matched with the causative agent?
A. Croup- Parainfluenza virus '-
B. Chronic hepatitis and hepatocellular cancer- Hepatitis A virus
C. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome- Coronavirus
D. Infantile exanthema subitum- Roseola virus
E. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome- Sin Nombre virus
B. Chronic hepatitis and hepatocellular cancer- Hepatitis A virus
Polio and Hepatitis A viruses are virus.
A.enteric
B. arbo
C. cold
D. syncytial
A.enteric
Viruses that cause serious disease in infants are ---- and ----
A. mumps, calicivirus
B. bunyavirus, cardiovirus
C.respiratory syncytial virus, rotavirus
D. coxsackievirus, HTLV-II
C. respiratory syncytial virus, rotavirus
Which of the following is Not a characteristic of the agents of spongiform
encephalopathy?
A. causes chronic transmissible disease
B. cause of Mad cow disease, Kuru and Screpie
C. cause neurodegenerative disease
D.They are made up of DNA and protein coat
D.They are made up of DNA and protein coat
If a virus utilizes a lytic life cycle of reproduction, it will not induce tumors.
A. True
B. False

The best-known examples of viruses that cause latent infections are
A. polio.
B. herpes.
C. measles.
D. chickenpox.
E. herpes AND chickenpox.
A. True

and
E. herpes AND chickenpox.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of normal cells?
A. They grow as a monolayer.
B.They grow as multiple layers.
C. They undergo a limited number of divisions and then die.
D. They stick tightly to the surface of glass culture dishes.
B.They grow as multiple layers.
The condition in which the virus infects and persists within the host with no
obvious harm is
A. disease.
B. colonization.
C. adaptation.
D. balanced pathogenicity.
D. balanced pathogenicity.
Viruses are commonly referred to by their name.
A. locale
B. genus
C. disease
D. species
E. disease AND species
E. disease AND species
Each virus codes for at least one attachment protein which can bind to a receptor
on the host cell.
A.True
B. False
A.True
A: Epstein-Barr virus
B. Rabies virus
C. Varicella zoster
D. Rubella virus
E. Yellow fever virus

Double stranded DNA virus causes familiar childhood infection and also causes
shingles when virus in the spinal/cranial nerves is reactivated.

Positive sense RNA virus, transmitted by mosquito, affects liver causes jaundice
and hemorrhage.

Belongs to Togaviridae family, mode of transmission is via respiratory droplet,
crosses placenta and causes congenital abnormalities.

Negative sense RNA virus, travels through axon cytoplasm to eNS and causes
hydrophobia and may lead to encephalitis.

Double stranded DNA virus becomes latent B lymphocytes and causes infectious
mononucleosis.
A: Epstein-Barr virus
B. Rabies virus
C. Varicella zoster
D. Rubella virus
E. Yellow fever virus

Double stranded DNA virus causes familiar childhood infection and also causes
shingles when virus in the spinal/cranial nerves is reactivated. - C

Positive sense RNA virus, transmitted by mosquito, affects liver causes jaundice
and hemorrhage. - E

Belongs to Togaviridae family, mode of transmission is via respiratory droplet,
crosses placenta and causes congenital abnormalities. - D

Negative sense RNA virus, travels through axon cytoplasm to eNS and causes
hydrophobia and may lead to encephalitis. - B

Double stranded DNA virus becomes latent B lymphocytes and causes infectious
mononucleosis. - A
Which of the following is the characteristic of temperate phage?
A. Lyse their host cell.
B. Integrate their DNA into the host cell.
C. Kill their host cell on contact
D.Integrate their DNA into the host cell and change properties of their host
cell.
E. All of the above are true i
D.Integrate their DNA into the host cell and change properties of their host
All bacteriophages must have the ability to have their nucleic acid enter the host and replicate inside the host cell.
A. True
B. False
A. True
Adenoviruses are released from the cell due to cell lysis.
A .True
B. False
A. True
Virus associated with chronic liver infection and cancer is
A. hepatitis C
B. hepatitis B
C. hepatitis A
D.both A and B
D.both A and B
Characteristic intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies formed in rabies are called
____ and is the example of _
A. metachromatic bodies, phenotypic effect
B. Koplik spots, genotypic effect
C. Neogribodies, cytopathic effect
D. polyphasic bodies and cytologic effect
C. Neogri bodies, cytopathic effect
Benign epithelial growth on the skin of fingers are called
A. polyoms
B. Warts
C. Whitlows
E.Pox
B. Warts
Which ofthe following helminthes infection causes macrocytic megaloblastic
anemia?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Ascaris lumbricoides
C Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Taenia solium
E. Wuchereria bancrofti
C Diphyllobothrium latum
All adult helminthes produce
A. cysts and trophozoites
B. scolex and proglottids
C. hooks and cuticles
D. fertilized eggs and larvae
D. fertilized eggs and larvae
The host is where the larva develops, and the host is where
the adults produce fertile eggs.
A. Intermediate, definitive
B. definitive, intermediate
C. secondary, transport
D. primary and secondary
A. Intermediate, definitive
Currently, the most common nematode infestation worldwide is
A. Hookworm
B. Tapworm
C. Ascariasis
D. Trichinosis
C. Ascariasis
Candida albican is the cause of , an infection of the _
A. onychomycosis, root canal
B. thrush, mouth
C. moniliasis, lung
D. salpingitis, uterus
B. thrush, mouth
The MMR vaccine is used to protect against
A. mononucleosis, mange, rubeola.
B. measles, mange, rubeola.
C.measles, mumps, rubella.
D. mononucleosis, mumps, rubella.
C.measles, mumps, rubella.
Teratogenic birth defects are common in the babies of pregnant women infected
with which of the following diseases?
A. cytomegalovirus
B. rubella
C. human parvovirus B 19
D All of the above
D All of the above
Which of these happen(s) in the case of antigenic shift in influenza A?
A. single mutation in hemagglutinin
B.recombination ofRNA segments between bird and human strains
C. change from influenza A to influenza B
D. both A and B
B.recombination of RNA segments between bird and human strains
Which cestode infection is common in United States and caused by consuming
infected beef?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Necator americanus
C. Strongyloides stercoralis
D. Enterobius vermicularis
A. Taenia saginata
The replicative cycle of bacteriophages differs from the replicative cycle of
animal viruses in that
A. among the phages only nucleic acid enters the cell.
B. the capsid of phages does not fuse with the host cell membrane
C. during lytic infection the phage codes for lytic enzymes which lyse the cell
D. budding is rare among bacteriophages
E. All ofthe above
E. All ofthe above
The swelling of the limbs typical of elephantiasis is caused by
A. Ascaris lumbricoids
B. Necator americanus -
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Wuchereria bancrofti
All of the following infections are acquired by respiratory droplet Except:
A. Rubella
B. Hepatitis A
C. Rubeola
D. Varicella-zoster
E. Respiratory syncytial virus
B. Hepatitis A
The nucleic acid of a mature virion can take on several different forms. It may be
A. linear or circular DNA and RNA
B. single- or double-stranded RNA and DNA
C.All viruses are single or double-stranded DNA
D Either DNA or RNA
E. All of the above
D Either DNA or RNA
The skin is an effective barrier to pathogens in which of the following ways? 1. Leukocytes are closely associated with the skin. 2. The surface cells continually fall off making it difficult for pathogens to gain a foothold. 3. The pH of the skin is normally acidic. 4. The salt content of the skin is high. 5. Sebum and sweat contain substances that inhibit the growth of most pathogens.

A. 1,2,3.
B. 2,3,4.
C. 2,3,4,5.
D. 1,2,3,4
E. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Correct answer: 1,2,3,4,5.
Which of the following are normal flora of the skin?

Corynebacterium.
Propionobacterium.
Staphylococcus.
yeasts.
All the above
Correct answer: all the above.
Which of the following microorganisms is most closely associated with acne?

Staphylococcus
Propionibacterium.
Corynebacterium.
Streptococcus.
Fungi.
Correct answer: Propionibacterium.
All of the following are true with regard to the Staphylococci EXCEPT:

A. They are universally present on normal skin.
B. They are salt tolerant and therefore are able to grow well on salty skin.
C. They help to prevent colonization of pathogens.
D. The principal species on the skin is Staphylococcus aureus.
E. They are capable of causing disease if the host defenses are impaired.
The principal species on the skin is Staphylococcus aureus.
An infection of a hair follicle that progresses into a large area of redness, swelling, and pain with pus drainage and possibly fever would be called ____________________.

A. acne vulgaris.
B. folliculitis.
C. a carbuncle.
D. a furuncle.
E. necrotizing fasciitis.
a carbuncle.
Which of the following virulence factors and its effect are mismatched?

A. exfoliatin/inhibits phagocytosis.
B. leukocidin/kills white blood cells.
C. proteases/degrade collagen.
D. protein A/binds to antibodies to inhibit phagocytosis.
E. coagulase/produces clots to impede movement of white blood cells.
exfoliatin/inhibits phagocytosis.
B. It is caused by a Streptococcus.
C. Exfoliatin is carried from site of infection by the blood to the epidermis and results in the splitting of the cell layers of the epidermis.
D. It is transmitted person-to-person especially in newborns.
E. The incubation period is usually days.
. It is caused by a Streptococcus
Which of the following are true with regard to impetigo?
1. It usually is a superficial skin infection limited to the epidermis.
2. It is the most common type of pyoderma.
3. It is caused by both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. In untreated cases, the kidneys may become inflamed.
5. It can be spread on fomites such as towels or toys that are shared by children.

A. 1,2,4.
B. 1,2,3.
C. 1,2,3,5.
D. 1,2,4,5.
E. 1,2,3,4,5.
E. 1,2,3,4,5.
All of the following are true with regard to Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever EXCEPT:

A. It is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii.
B. The microbe is introduced into humans via a tick bite.
C. The microbe is taken up by the endothelial cells of small blood vessels where they multiply and ultimately lyse the cells.
D. The damage remains localized in the vessels near the skin.
E. Ticks are most active from April to September and most cases occur during this time.
D. The damage remains localized in the vessels near the skin.
A disease caused by an infection with Borrelia burgdorferi that is introduced to humans through a tick bite, and has a bullseye rash as a hallmark symptom is

A. impetigo.
B. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever.
C. Lyme disease.
D. tinea.
E. dermal mycosis.
Correct answer: Lyme disease.
Which of the following precautions can someone take to reduce the risk of acquiring diseases that result from tick bites? 1. Avoid tick-infested areas. 2. Wear protective clothing to minimize exposed areas of skin. 3. Use tick repellents before going into tick infested areas. 4. Grasp the tick with tweezers around its abdomen to get a firm hold and remove the tick. 5. Treat the site with antiseptic after removing the tick.

A. 1,2,3.
B. 1,2,3,4.
C. 1,2,4.
D. 1,2,3,5.
E. 1,2,3,4,5.
D. 1,2,3,5.
All of the following are true regarding chickenpox EXCEPT:

A. It is caused by the varicella virus.
B. Recovery is usually uncomplicated.
C. The lesions itch, and scratching can lead to serious secondary infections.
D. The disease tends to be more serious when it occurs in teenagers and adults.
E. All the above are true.
E. All the above are true.