Microbiology Exam 2

Front 1

A positive catalase test indicates which Gram positive cocci?

Back 1

Stapylococcus

Front 2

You have a positive catlase test indicating Stapylococcus so the next test you run is__________, which uses ___________ and a positive result is indicated by _________

Back 2

Coagulase
Rabbit plasma
clotting of the plasma

Front 3

A positive coagulase test indicates ___________________ and 3 types of this are:

Back 3

pathogenic staphylococcus
~Staph. aureus
~Staph intermedius
~Staph hyicus

Front 4

A negative coagulase test indicates ______ and 2 types are ________

Back 4

non-pathogenic
~Staph. epidermis
~micrococcus

Front 5

Name the 3 types of pathogenic Staph:

Back 5

Staph aureus
Staph. intermedius
Staph hyicus

Front 6

True or false

Most bacteria are facultative anaerobes

Back 6

true

Front 7

Name 2 types of non-pathogenic Staph:

Back 7

Staph. epidermis
Micrococcus

Front 8

You have a negative catalase test, which indicates what type of GPCOC?

Back 8

Streptococcus

Front 9

When you have identified that you have a type of Streptococcus after doing a catalase test, what is typically your next step?

Back 9

Inoculate a BAP to test for type of hemolysis

Front 10

With Streptococcus, Beta hemolysis is indicative of ___________ and the 6 types are:

Back 10

Pathogenic bacteria
~Strep. pyogenes (Lancefield group A)
~Strep agalactiae (Lancefield group B)
~Strep. dysgalactiae (variable hemolysis)
~Strep equi (Lancefield group C)
~Strep zooepidemicus
~Strep canis

Front 11

With Streptococcus, Alpha hemolysis is indicative of what 4 types of bacteria?

Back 11

~Strep. pneumoniae
~Strep. suis
~Strep bovis
~Strep equinus

Front 12

With Streptococcus, Gamma Hemolysis is indicative of what 2 types of bacteria?

Back 12

~Strep. faecalis
~Strep. uberis

Front 13

What are 3 shapes of GPRODS?

Back 13

Small rods
Large rods
coccobaccillus

Front 14

To ID GPRODs, one type of test used is the H2S test which uses a _______ and a positive test result is _________

Back 14

KIA agar slant
black pigment along stab line

Front 15

To ID GPRODs, one type of test used is the Motility test which uses MIO motility media and a positive test result is indicated by ___________

Back 15

media being cloudy throughout

Front 16

To ID GPRODs, another test used for ID is the Urease test on a Urea agar slant and a positive result is indicated by ______ and a delayed positive is indicated by ______________

Back 16

hot pink agar
pale pink

Front 17

In addition to the Catalase, H2S, Motility and Urease tests, what are 2 other things that can help ID Genus and Species of bacteria being tested?

Back 17

Origin of sample
colony morphology

Front 18

Streptococcus grows in _________ and is a __________ bacteria found in MM of ____________.

Back 18

twisted chains and pairs
normal flora
genital, GI and respiratory tracts

Front 19

Streptococcus is a normal flora ___________bacteria that can be ___________ and causes ______ infections

Back 19

facultative
pathogenic
pyogenic

Front 20

Streptococcus pyogenes causes _____, belongs to Lancefield group _______ and is __________hemolytic.

Back 20

strep throat
A
Beta

Front 21

Strep agalactiae Group B is confirmed using what test?

Back 21

The CAMP test

Front 22

The CAMP test involves the unknown Beta Strep being streaked on a BAP plate perpendicular to Staph aureus. A positive result is indicated by _________

Back 22

beta hemolysis around both streak lines with ARROWS at the juncture of the 2 streak lines

Front 23

Strep agalactiae belongs to Lancefield group_______ , is a ______ hemolytic and is a leading cause of ___________ and women are NF cervical carriers.

Back 23

B
Beta
Bovine mastitis

Front 24

Strep equi belongs to Lancefield group _____, is a _______hemolytic and is what causes ___________, a very contagious _____ that involves enlarged lymph nodes which leads to dyspnea. A Bacterin is used __________

Back 24

C
Beta
Equine Strangles
URI
only during outbreaks

Front 25

Strep. dysgalactiae belongs to Lancefield group ____, is a _____ hemolytic and is a minor cause of________

Back 25

C
Beta
bovine mastitis

Front 26

Strep equi subspecies zooepidemicus belongs to Lancefield group ____ and is a ________ hemolytic that affects a wide variety of animals and is seen in ____________.

Back 26

C
Beta
wound & genital infections, mastitis

Front 27

Strep equi subspecies zooepidemicus is becoming more common in shelter dogs and causes ___________

Back 27

acute canine respiratory disease with cough, fever and lung hemorrhage

Front 28

Strep canis is a ___________ hemolytic and is seen in _________

Back 28

Beta
UG infections and cystitis
skin, wound and ear infections

Front 29

The most numerous bacteria in oral cavity are:

Back 29

Streptococcus Alpha hemolytic bacteria

Front 30

Strep. pneumoniae is an ___________ hemolytic without a Lancefield group classification. This is a leading cause of _____________in ____________

Back 30

Alpha
primates (Pneumococcal variety), humans (Bacterial)
guinea pigs
rarely causes it in dogs

Front 31

Strep pneumoniae is __________ resistant, has an ________course and mortality is __________

Back 31

very antibiotic
acute
high

Front 32

Strep suis is an __________ hemolytic that is __________for young pigs that causes meningitis, septicemia and arthritis.

Back 32

Alpha
pathogenic

Front 33

Enterococcus faecalis is a ________ hemolytic and a _________that is important for people because it is a leading cause of _______ but is also a common in _______ and tends to be antibiotic resistant.

Back 33

Gamma
NF bacteria in the GI tract
nosocomial infections
opportunistic infections

Front 34

Staphylococcus tends to be antibiotic resistant due to the actions of this enzyme _________________

Back 34

Beta lactamase

Front 35

Beta lactamase is an enzyme that destroys penicillin like antibiotics but we have _____________

Back 35

drugs that inactivate this enzyme

Front 36

Staphylococcus are bacteria that grow in __________,and are ____________ that are resistant to drying, disinfectants and antibiotics.

Back 36

clusters
facultative anaerobes AND Aerobes

Front 37

Staphylococcus are a NF species but become __________ causing _______ due to an enzyme that facilitates attachment to skin and MM's (tissue invasion.

Back 37

pathogenic
pyogenic infections

Front 38

Name the 3 Staphylococcus Coagulase positive bacteria

Back 38

Staphylococcus aureus
Staphylococcus intermedius
Staphylococcus hyicus

Front 39

Staph aureus,is a ________ hemolytic that causes a ______Coagulase test and is _________ for humans and many animals.

Back 39

Beta (double zone)
positive
pathogenic

Front 40

Staph aureus causes a wide variety of infections and is a leading cause of _____________. Commonly caused infections include _______________ as well as food poisoning.

Back 40

bovine mastitis
surgical, wound and skin infections
GU infections and Osteomyelitis in open fractures

Front 41

Staph. intermedius is a newer species similar to Staph aureus and is the most common species of staph from _____, is a __________ hemolytic.

Back 41

dogs
beta (Double zone)

Front 42

Staph intermedius is a common cause of __________

Back 42

mastitis, would, skin and surgical site infections, GU tract, arthritis and bacteremia

Front 43

MRSA stand for

Back 43

Methicillin
Resistant
Staphlococcus
Aureus

Front 44

MRSI stands for

Back 44

Methicillin
Resistant
Staphylococcus
Intermedius

Front 45

Stapholococcus hyicus is a catalase and coagulase positive bacteria that is usually _______ hemolytic and is known for causing ___________ pig disease

Back 45

Gamma
greasy

Front 46

Greasy pig disease is also called __________ and is more common in __________ and is highly contagious skin disease that involves yellowish crusts on snout, ears and head.

Back 46

Exudative Epidermitis
piglets

Front 47

Name the 2 coagulase negative Staphylococcus non-pathogenic species

Back 47

Staph. epidermis- NF on skin but can cause opportunistic infections

Micrococcus

Front 48

Two types of anaerobic GPCOC are

Back 48

peptococcus
peptostreptococcus

**are NF of alimentary tract, important in mixed infections, abscesses and effusions

Front 49

GPRODS have 3 types that this class is studying. What are they?

Back 49

Small rods
Large rods
branching--a higher evolutionary form that are fungi like, branching and filimentous

Front 50

Small GPRODS are more important in _________

Back 50

large animal

Front 51

What are the 5 Genus classifications for SMALL GPRODS?

Back 51

Corynebacterium
Listeria
Erysipelothrix
Arcanobacterium
Rodococcus

Front 52

What are the 2 Genus classifications for Large GPRODS?

Back 52

Bacillus (aerobic)
Clostridium (anaerobic)

Front 53

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, a small GPROD, is also know as what in sheep ______ and in horses it is known as _______

Back 53

CLA- Caseous Lymphadenitis in sheep

Pigeon fever in horses -Ulcerative lymphangitis

Front 54

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is acquired by sheep through

Back 54

wounds from shearing, castration, dehorning and tail docking

Front 55

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the club shaped rods bacteria that are also known for looking like ______

Back 55

chinese letters

Front 56

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is acquired by horses and mules through ___________

Back 56

puncture wounds

Front 57

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis pathology involves the bacteria spreading via the ______.

Back 57

lymphatics

Front 58

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in sheep cause the lymph nodes to become huge and then _________ and possibly ulcerate.

Back 58

abscess w/caseous pus

Front 59

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis in horses spreads to lymph nodes but can cause ________ as well as lameness and the characteristic _________

Back 59

abscess anywhere

lameness

edema in the pectoral muscles

Front 60

Treatment for Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is difficult, especially in herds. ____________ abscesses make treatment difficult and __________ is often required and isolation is recommended due to the pus being highly infectious. Herd culling is often needed.

Back 60

Walled off
surgical excision with a suture drain

Front 61

Prevention of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis involves immunization with _______ that is used _________ and control of flies is important due to their being a mechanical vector.

Back 61

Bactrin
only during outbreaks

Front 62

Corynebacterium renale have _______ that faciliatate attachment to the MM of ___________

Back 62

pili
GU tract

Front 63

Corynebacterium renale cuases disease in ___________

Back 63

cattle and sheep

Front 64

In cattle, Corynebacterium renale causes ______________

Back 64

bovine pyelonephritis, cystitis

Front 65

In sheep, Corynebacterium renale causes

Back 65

bacterial balanopothitis--> "pizzle rot"

and vulvulitis

Front 66

Corynebacterium renale causes pyelonephritis and cystitis which involves an ______________ and often involves _______ which leads to the characteristic bloody purulent urine.

Back 66

ascending pyogenic infection of urinary tract

hemorrhagic necrosis and ulceration of MM lining urinary tract

Front 67

Corynebacterium renale is seen more often in sheep on high protein diets which _________, which leads to urine__________

Back 67

alters urine ph
scalding of skin and MM of external genitalia, which predisposes skin to infection

Front 68

Listeria monocytogenes is a small GPROD that is motile, found in feces, soil, water, milk, straw and silage that is a common cause of ___________, has one form in people and _____ forms in animals.

Back 68

food

2

Front 69

In people, Listeria monocytogenes takes one form known as ________, which is a cause of food poisoning with V/D as well as meningitis in ________

Back 69

Listeriosis

immunocompromised people

Front 70

In animals, Listeria monocytogenes takes 2 forms. What are they?

Back 70

Visceral form and Neural form

Front 71

In Listeria monocytogenes, the Visceral form is more common in ______ and causes widely disseminated ____________ on internal organs.

Back 71

monogastric animals, though rare in dogs, common in rabbits, chinchillas, GP
abscesses

Front 72

In Listeria monocytogenes, the Neural form is more common in _________ and is commonly called "________" due to its affects on the _______ and is usually fatal.

Back 72

ruminants, esp. cattle and sheep
circling disease
CNS with unilateral ataxia

Front 73

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie, a small GPROD, is resistant to drying and can survive for long periods in water, soil and food. The reservoir for this bacteria is ____________

Back 73

in the NF of the throat, mouth of swine and fish slime

Front 74

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie is pathogenic for ____________

Back 74

pigs, birds (esp. turkeys) fish, marine mammals and people

Front 75

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie in people causes what in people?

Back 75

Fish Handlers Disease

Front 76

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie in pigs causes what disease and what age is most susceptible?

Back 76

Swine erysipelas
3-18 month old piglets are most susceptible

Front 77

The Swine erysipelas form of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie has 4 forms. What are they?

Back 77

~Skin form -most common
~Arthritic - older pigs
~Acute - septicemia, high fever, typically fatal
~Cardiac-endocarditis, usually fatal
**immunization available

Front 78

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie in the skin form of Swine erysipelas typically looks like ______, where it gets its name ____________

Back 78

red to purple skin patches in a diamond/ square shape

"Diamond Skin Disease"

Front 79

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathie in marine mammals and fish typically is seen with ____________

Back 79

skin lesions and septicemia

Front 80

Arcaneobacterium pyogenes is a small GPROD that affects ruminants and gains entrance through ______ and causes ___________ in wounds, surgical infections, mastitis, pneumonia and umbilical infections.

Back 80

wounds

pyogenic infections

Front 81

Rhodococcus equi is a small GPROD that causes ________ in foals, who are most susceptible at ______ months of age.

Back 81

bronchopneumonia, a superative abscessing pneumonia with large abscesses within the lungs
1-6

Front 82

Foals with Rhodococcus equi infections typically show symptoms of ________ and have a high mortality rate.

Back 82

dyspnea, fever, anorexia, rales

Front 83

Bacillus is a LARGE GPROD, of which there are many species, is common in the enviroment and is a (AEROBIC/ANAEROBIC/FACULTATIVE ??) bacteria that may be found as a common contaminant on culture plates.

Back 83

aerobic

Front 84

Bacillus anthracis, a LARGE GPROD is called __________, which is an obligate pathogen for animals and people.

Back 84

Anthrax

Front 85

Bacillus anthracis tends to affect________

Back 85

People, horses, cattle, pigs, dogs but rarely cats

Front 86

Bacillus anthracis is typically fatal to large animals and people if __________ but can be acquired through ________, which is less fatal in most cases

Back 86

inhaled

skin penetration and ingestion

Front 87

Once Bacillus anthracis is in the body, the bacteria produce an EXOTOXIN that affects________

Back 87

CNS and CVS

Front 88

The EXOTOXIC effects of Bacillus anthracis are:

Back 88

~Damage to blood vessels causing cell and tissue death
~Fever and convulsions
~Edema-death due to suffocation from laryngeal edema
~Die quickly, usually w/in 24hrs
~May remain asymptomatic up until a few hours before death

Front 89

The postmortem characteristics of Bacillus anthracis are:

Back 89

bleeding out of orifices
blood will not clot
lack of rigor mortis

Front 90

What are the three forms of Bacillus anthracis?

Back 90

1. Cutaneous
2. Pulmonary
3. GI

Front 91

The cutaneous form of Bacillus anthracis is the least dangerous form that enters through a wound and in people is called " _________"

Back 91

Wool Sorters disease

Front 92

The pulmonary form of Bacillus anthracis is the MOST DEADLY because it involves:

Back 92

CVS collapse
coagulopathy
hemorrhaging into the lungs
shock and death
99% fatal w/in 24 hours

Front 93

The GI form of Bacillus anthracis involves the ingestion of spores, which leads to:_____________ and is the most common form in dogs and cats, though rarely seen and not fatal.

Back 93

V/D
swelling of mouth and throat
gastroenteritis

Front 94

Treatment for Bacillus anthracis involves large dosages of _________ to surviving animals as well as quarantining of area for 3 weeks after last known case to prevent further outbreaks.

Back 94

antibiotics

Front 95

Bacillus anthracis is a disease that is reportable to the state. After seeing large GPRODS on a gram stain, tissues should be __________ and a necropsy ____________

Back 95

sent to the state lab
is NEVER performed due to potential for further spread of the disease.

Front 96

Carcasses, bedding, contaminated dirt from a Bacillus anthracis outbreak is _____________

Back 96

burned or buried with a chemical disinfectant

Front 97

Clostridium is an anaerobic spore forming LARGE GPROD that releases ___________

Back 97

exotoxins

Front 98

Clostridium botulinum is also known as ___________ and tends to affect humans, mammals and waterfowl, esp. ducks.

Back 98

botulism

Front 99

Clostridium botulinum in birds is known as __________ and tends to affect waterfowl, shore birds, scavenger birds.

Back 99

Avian botulism ~ Limberneck

Front 100

Clostridium botulinum tends to be acquired by __________ that may be found in poorly canned foods, animal carcasses, rotting vegetation (pond bottoms) and even in maggots.

Back 100

ingestion of preformed EXOTOXIN in food source

Front 101

The pathology of Clostridium botulinum involves the neurotoxicity of the EXOTOXIN produced by this bacteria which acts at a neuromuscular junction to prevent the release of ____________

Back 101

acetylcholine ( a chemical that CAUSES muscle contraction)

Front 102

The endotoxin involved in Clostridium botulinum prevents the release of acetylcholine, which results in __________, which in animals typically starts in the _________

Back 102

muscle weakness and paralysis

hindquarters and progresses from there

Front 103

Death from Clostridium botulinum is typically due to _________ and is ____% fatal

Back 103

respiratory arrest and suffocation due to paralysis of respiratory muscles and diaphragm.
95%

Front 104

Botulism antitoxin is available for people and horses, however, it is

Back 104

EXPENSIVE

Front 105

Clostridium tetani, a LARGE GPROD, also known as tetanus & lockjaw is most prevalent in :

Back 105

(Most to least susceptible)
Humans and horses
ruminants (+/- immunize)
swine
carnivores - rare
poultry

Front 106

The pathology of Clostridium tetani involves an neurotoxic endotoxin that blocks the function of __________, resulting in:

Back 106

inhibitory neurons

muscle contractions, spasms, rigidity

Front 107

Clostridium tetani infection starts out with contractions and spasms occurring in response to _______

Back 107

startling stimuli such as loud noises or flashes of light

Front 108

If untreated, Clostridium tetani will cause death in ___________ from suffocation due to rigidity of respiratory muscles.

Back 108

1-2 weeks

Front 109

A person suffering from a tetanus infection will typically have:

Back 109

muscle spasms, lock jaw

Front 110

A horse suffering from tetanus will typically be seen in a "_________" stance with a rigid gate IF able to walk

Back 110

saw-horse

Front 111

Treatment for tetanus involves:

Back 111

tetanus antitoxin, antibiotics, muscle relaxers

Front 112

Prevention of tetanus involves:

Back 112

an immunization with a tetanus toxoid and antitoxin if exposed.

Front 113

Name the 7 LARGE GPROD Clostridium bacteria

Back 113

botulinum
tetani
perfringes
septicum
chauvoei
noveyi
haemolyticum

Front 114

Clostridium perfringes , a LARGE GPROD, causes Clostridal enterotoxemia and tends to affect people, dogs and cats but is especially important in ___________

Back 114

large animals

Front 115

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes produces 12 different endotoxins and in addition to GI effects, can also cause ________

Back 115

wound infections and gas gangrene

Front 116

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes is acquired through ingestion of spores and some of the factors that can predispose to infection are:

Back 116

changes in diet, over eating, intestinal parasites, antibiotics, stress.

Front 117

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes affects intestinal environment so spores______

Back 117

become vegetative and then release exotoxins

Front 118

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes produces exotoxins that damage the MM of ________, which leads to hemmorrhagic enteritis and systemic_____

Back 118

intestines
toxemia

Front 119

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes in large animals is often seen as the animal is 100% health the day before and then is suffering from:

Back 119

hemorrhagic enteritis, systemic toxemia, ataxia, coma and death. Often found dead.

Front 120

Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes is diagnosed by looking for __________

Back 120

large rods that resemble safety pins (3-5/hpf significant)

Front 121

Treatment for Clostridal enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringes involves an ____________

Back 121

antitoxin to young LARGE animals if showing symptoms
antibiotics

Front 122

Clostridium septicum is a histotoxic anerobic myocitis (muscle inflammation) that affects_____ and is acquired by endospores_______

Back 122

large animals
entering wounds

Front 123

Clostridium septicum pathology typically involves tissues necrosis, edema, gas gangrene and __________

Back 123

systemic toxemia and is highly fatal
**immunization is available

Front 124

Clostridium chauvoei is a histotoxic bacteria that affects_________ and is also known as "__________" and is acquired through endospores being ingested or entering a wound

Back 124

large animals
black leg disease

Front 125

The pathology of Clostridium chauveoi involves the EXOTOXINS causing swelling, edema, gas gangrene and the skin becoming _______, and eventually systemic toxemia leads to death.

Back 125

discolored

**immunization available

Front 126

Clostridium novyi causes infectious necrotic hepatitis and affects _________, is also known as Black Disease, and is more common in areas with liver flukes.

Back 126

large animals

Front 127

Clostridium novyi is acquired through ingestion of the spores and pre-existing liver damage makes an animal _____________ and is highly fatal

Back 127

more susceptible

**immunization available

Front 128

Clostridium haemolyticum is also known as Bacilliary hemoglobinuria~red water disease, affects ______________.

Back 128

large animals

Front 129

Clostridium haemolyticum is acquired through ingestion of spores, and pre-exisiting liver damage makes an animal more susceptible. This bacteria releases and exotoxin which causes ______, which results in _________ and is highly fatal.

Back 129

hemolysis of RBC's
dark red urine, anemia and high fever

**immunization is available