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WHAT TYPES OF ORGANISMS ARE INCLUDED IN THE STUDY OF MICROBIOLOGY?
PRIONS, VIRUSES, BACTERIA, FUNGI, AND PARASITES
WHAT OTHER AREAS, BESIDES PATHOGENESIS, ARE INCLUDED IN THE STUDY OF MICROBIOLOGY?
THE STUDY OF MICROBIOLOGY INCLUDES FOOD PRODUCTION, BIOTECHNOLOGY, GENETIC ENGINEERING, AND GENE THERAPY
WHAT IS FOOD MICROBIOLOGY?
FOOD MICROBIOLOGY IS THE USE AND STUDY OF MICROBES IN PRODUCTION OF CHEESE, ALCOHOLIC BEVERAGES, AND BREADS.
WHAT IS BIOTECHNOLOGY?
BIOTECHNOLOGY USES MICROBES FOR BENEFICIAL PROCESSES SUCH AS THE DEGRADATION OF TOXIC MATERIALS AND THE PRODUCTION OF ANTIBIOTICS, VITAMINS, AND FOOD SUPPLEMENTS.
WHAT IS GENETIC ENGINEERING?
GENETIC ENGINEERING USES MICROBES TO PRODUCE INSULIN OR TO REPLACE DEFECTIVE GENES.
DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN PARASITES AND HOSTS
A PARASITE LIVES IN OR ON ANOTHER ORGANISM AND CAUSES DAMAGE TO THAT ORGANISM. THE HOST IS THE ORGANISM ON WHICH THE PARASITE LIVES.
WHERE DO WE FIND MICROORGANISMS?
MICROORGANISMS ARE FOUND EVERYWHERE ON EARTH EXCEPT IN MATERIALS THAT HAVE BEEN MADE STERILE.
ANTONIE VAN LEEUWENHOEK
IN THE 1670s, HE INVENTED THE MICROSCOPE, AND WAS THE FIRST TO OBSERVE ANIMALCULES, OR MICROBES.
EDWARD JENNER
IN THE 1790s, HE RECOGNIZED THAT VACCINES COULD PROTECT PEOPLE FROM VIRAL DISEASES (SMALLPOX VACCINATION). HE ALSO MADE THE FIRST VACCINE, WHICH WAS USED TO EVENTUALLY ERADICATE THE SMALLPOX VIRUS.
IGNAZ SEMMELWEIS
BY THE 1850s HE WAS PROMOTING THE WASHING OF HANDS TO DISINFECT THEM AND PREVENT THE SPREAD OF DISEASE.
LOUIS PASTEUR
FROM THE 1850s TO THE 1880s, HE CONVINCED THE SCIENTIFIC COMMUNITY THAT THE THEORY OF SPONTANEOUS GENERATION WAS FALSE AND THAT ILLNESSES WERE CAUSED BY MICROBES. HE ALSO DEVELOPED VACCINES FOR ANTHRAX AND RABIES. HE IS KNOWN AS THE FATHER OF MICROBIOLOGY.
ROBERT KOCH
IN THE 1870s, HE DEVELOPED POSTULATES FOR STUDYING MICROBES. HE PROPOSED THAT (1)THE CAUSATIVE AGENT MUST BE DEMONSTRATED IN ALL ANIMALS WITH THE DISEASE, BUT NOT IN OTHER ANIMALS. (2) A PURE CULTURE OF THE AGENT IS NEEDED; (3) ORGANISMS FROM THE PURE CULTURE WOULD PRODUCE THE SAME SYMPTOMS WHEN INJECTED INTO HEALTHY ANIMALS; (4) THE SAME MICROBE THAT MADE THE ORIGINAL ANIMALS SICK COULD BE REISOLATED FROM THE SECOND GROUP OF ANIMALS.
WHAT WAS THE BASIS FOR THE BELIEF IN SPONTANEOUS GENERATION?
SPONTANEOUS GENERATION WAS THOUGHT TO OCCUR BECAUSE STERILIZED CULTURES LEFT OUT OVERNIGHT WERE FOUND TO BE CONTAMINATED THE FOLLOWING MORNING. PASTEUR PROVED THAT THIS CONTAMINATION CAME FROM THE AIR.
WHAT ARE THE SEVEN TAXA OF MICROBES?
KINGDOM, PHYLUM, CLASS, ORDER, FAMILY, GENUS, AND SPECIES.
OF THE SEVEN TAXA, WHICH TWO ARE GENERALLY USED TO IDENTIFY A GIVEN MICROBE?
GENUS AND SPECIES ARE USED TO INDENTIFY A MICROBE.
WHAT ARE ORGANISMS CALLED WHEN THEY HAVE SMALL DIFFERENCES BUT ARE STILL IN THE SAME GENUS AND SPECIES?
SIMILAR ORGANISMS ARE CALLED BIOVARS IF THEY VARY IN BIOLOGICAL PROPERTIES, OR SEROVARS, IF THEY DIFFER IMMUNOLOGICALLY. STRAINS ARE ANY TYPE OF VARIATION.
LIST THE TWO DOMAINS OF BACTERIA.
ARCHAEA AND BACTERIA
LIST THE TWO FUNDAMENTALLY DIFFERENT TYPES OF CELLS. WHY ARE THEY DIFFERENT?
THE TWO TYPES OF CELLS ARE PROKARYOTES AND EUKARYOTES.
PROKARYOTES (BACTERIA AND ARCHAEA) HAVE NO NUCLEUS. EUKARYOTES HAVE A TRUE NUCLEUS (EUKARYA)
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF A DIFFERENTIAL STAIN?
A DIFFERENTIAL STAIN ADDS TWO OR MORE STAINS TO BACTERIAL SPECIMANS CAUSING DIFFERENT TYPES OF BACTERIA TO CHANGE INTO DIFFERENT COLORS. THE DIFFERENT BACTERIA CAN THEN BE RECOGNIZED SEPARATELY.
WHAT IS THE TOTAL MAGNIFICATION OF A 100X OIL IMMERSION OBJECTIVE (LENS) AND 10X OCULAR LENS?
THE TOTAL MAGNIFICATION IS 1000X.
LIST AN ADVANTAGE OF ELECTRON MICROSCOPY OVER LIGHT MICROSCOPY.
VIRUSES ARE TOO SMALL (O.03-0.3 MICRONS) TO BE SEEN BY LIGHT MICROSCOPY. ELECTRON MICROSCOPY CAN RESOLVE DOWN TO ABOUT 0.002 MICRONS TO REVEAL FINE SURFACE STRUCTURAL DETAILS OF EVEN THE SMALLEST MICROBES.
WHAT DOES IT MEAN THAT A WATER MOLECULE IS POLAR?
A WATER MOLECULE IS POLAR BECAUSE THERE IS SOME POSITIVE CHARGES AT ONE END OF THE MOLECULE AND SOME NEGATIVE CHARGE AT THE OTHER.
WHAT IS PH?
PH IS A MEASUREMENT OF THE ACID OR ALKALINE PROPERTIES OF A MOLECULE.
WHAT DO HIGH AND LOW PHs MEAN?
HIGH PHs (ABOVE 8) ARE BASIC AND LOW PHs (BELOW 6) ARE ACIDIC.
WHAT PH IS NEUTRAL?
THE NEUTRAL POINT OF PH IS "7"
WHAT GENERAL FUNCTION DO ENZYMES ACCOMPLISH?
ENZYMES CAUSE THE BREAKDOWN OF NUTRIENTS INTO SMALLER MOLECULES THAT ARE COMBINED BY OTHER ENZYMES INTO THE COMPLEX MATERIALS REQUIRED BY THE CELL. ENZYMES ALSO DERIVE ENERGY FROM CHEMICALS FOR USE BY THE GROWING CELL.
WHAT ARE THE WORKERS OF A CELL?
THE WORKERS OF A CELL ARE THE ENZYMES, WHICH ARE POLYMERS OF AMINO ACIDS.
WOULD AN ORGANISM THAT CONTAINS ONE MILLION BASE PAIRS OF DNA BE MORE LIKELY TO HAVE ONE THOUSAND OR TEN THOUSAND GENES?
THE ORGANISM WOULD BE MORE LIKELY TO HAVE ONE THOUSAND GENES, BECAUSE AN AVERAGE GENE IS ABOUT ONE THOUSAND BASE PAIRS IN LENGTH.
HOW MANY BASES OF RNA ARE REQUIRED TO CODE FOR ONE AMINO ACID?
THREE RNA BASES ARE REQUIRED FOR ONE AMINO ACID.
HOW DO DNA AND RNA DIFFER?
DNA IS DOUBLE STRANDED, HAS THE SUGAR DEOXYRIBOSE, AND THE NUCLEOTIDE "T" (THYMIDINE); RNA IS SINGLE STRANDED, HAS RIBOSE, AND HAS "U" (URIDINE) IN PLACE OF "T".
IF A BACTERIAL CELL HAS 35 PERCENT GUANINE, HOW MUCH CYTOSINE WOULD IT HAVE? HOW MUCH ADENINE? WHY IS THIS SO?
THE CELL HAS 35 PERCENT CYTOSINE BECAUSE "C" ALWAYS EQUALS "G" IN DNA. IT HAS 15 PERCENT ADENINE BECAUSE THE REMAINING 30 PERCENT OF NUCLEOTIDES MUST HAVE EQUAL AMOUNTS OF "A" AND "T".
WHAT IS THE MAIN FUNCTION OF LIPIDS IN THE CELL MEMBRANE?
LIPIDS ARE SMALL MACROMOLECULES THAT SPAN CELL MEMBRANES. THEY PROVIDE A NONPOLAR BOUNDARY TO KEEP CELLULAR CONTENTS IN AND UNWANTED MATERIALS OUT.
WHAT IS THE BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY OF BACILLUS?
THE BACILLUS IS ROD SHAPED.
THE BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY OF COCCUS?
THE COCCUS IS SPHERICAL SHAPED.
THE BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY OF VIBRIO?
THE VIBRIO IS CURVED OR COMMA SHAPED.
THE BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY OF SPIROCHETE?
THE SPIROCHETE IS HELICAL SHAPED.
THE BACTERIAL MORPHOLOGY OF PLEOMORPHIC?
THE PLEOMORPHIC CAN BE MORE THAN ONE SHAPE.
DEFINE DIPLO-
THE PREFIX DIPLO-
MEANS LINKING OF CELLS IN TWOs
TETRA-
THE PREFIX TETRA-
MEANS LINKING IN FOURS.
STAPHYLO-
THE PREFIX STAPHYLO-
MEANS CLUSTERED (LIKE GRAPES)
STREPTO-
THE PREFIX STREPTO- MEANS IN CHAINS (LIKE A NECKLACE)
EXPLAIN THE FUNCTIONS OF THE CELL (OR CYTOPLASMIC) MEMBRANE?
THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE DEFINES THE INSIDE AND OUTSIDE OF A CELL. IT CONTAINS PROTEIN TRANSPORTERS THAT PUMP DESIRABLE CHEMICALS INTO THE CELL USING THE CELL'S ENERGY RESOURCES. IT ALSO PREVENTS UNDESIRABLE CHEMICALS FROM ENTERING THE ORGANISM.
DESCRIBE THE STRUCTURE OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN.
THE STRUCTURE OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN IS LIKE A FISHNET BECAUSE THE LONG POLYMERS OF GLYCAN ARE CROSS-LINKED BY SHORTER PIECES OF PEPTIDES.
NAME TWO BIOLOGICALLY ACTIVE ITEMS THAT DESTROY THE BACTERIAL CELL WALL.
TWO BIOLOGICALLY ACTIVE ITEMS THAT DESTROY A CELL WALL ARE LYSOZYME AND PENICILLIN.
WHAT STRUCTURAL COMPONENT IS UNIQUE TO GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA?
AN OUTER MEMBRANE IS UNIQUE TO GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA.
WHAT MAJOR CHEMICAL IS UNIQUE TO THE OUTER MEMBRANE STRUCTURE OF A GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA?
LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE IS CHEMICALLY UNIQUE TO THE OUTER MEMBRANE OF GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA.
HOW DOES PEPTIDOGLYCAN VARY BETWEEN GRAM-POSITIVE AND GRAM-NEGATIVE ORGANISMS?
GRAM-POSITIVE ORGANISMS HAVE MANY LAYERS OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN.
GRAM-NEGATIVE ORGANISMS HAVE ONLY ONE OR A FEW LAYERS OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN.
WHAT LAYER OF GRAM-POSITIVE AND GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA IS THE SAME? WHAT LAYER IS COMPLETELY DIFFERENT?
THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE IS THE SAME. THE OUTER MEMBRANE IS DIFFERENT BECAUSE ONLY GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA HAVE ONE.
LIST FOUR STEPS OF THE GRAM STAIN AND THE FUNCTION OF EACH.
THE FOUR STEPS OF A GRAM'S STAIN ARE: (1) STAIN WITH THE PRIMARY STAIN, CRYSTAL VIOLET.
(2) FIX THE CRYSTAL VIOLET WITH GRAM'S IODINE SO THAT IT AGGREGATES. (3)WASH THE AGGREGATES FROM THE POROUS GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIA WITH ACETONE-ALCOHOL (4) COUNTERSTAIN WITH SAFRANIN SO THE GRAM-NEGATIVE CELLS ARE READILY VISIBLE.
WHAT IS THE CHEMICAL MAKEUP OF THE STRUCTURE THAT COATS A BACTERIUM?
POLYSACCHARIDE IS THE COATING'S CHEMICAL MAKEUP.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE POLYSACCHARIDE COATING?
THE COATING MAKES THE BACTERIUM SLIPPERY SO THAT WHITE BLOOD CELLS CANNOT CAPTURE AND DESTROY IT.
DESCRIBE THE CELL CYTOPLASM
THE CYTOPLASMIC COMPARTMENT CONTAINS ALL THE DEGRADATIVE AND SYNTHETIC MACHINERY TO ALLOW THE CELL TO GROW AND MAKE NEW COPIES OF ITSELF. IT INCLUDES THE CELL'S DNA, RNA, AND PROTEINS.
DISTINGUISH THE BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME FROM PLASMIDS.
THE BACTERIAL CHROMOSOMES CONTAINS THOUSANDS OF GENES, INCLUDING THOSE REQUIRED FOR REPLICATION AND GENE EXPRESSION. SOME BACTERIA ALSO CONTAIN PLASMIDS, SMALL PIECES OF DNA USUALLY ENCODING FEWER THAN FIFTY GENES. PLASMIDS ARE OFTEN SPECIALIZED, LIKE THOSE THAT CODE FOR RESISTANCE TO A SPECIFIC ANTIBIOTIC.
WHAT ARE THE SIZES OF A COMPLETE BACTERIAL RIBOSOME AND ITS TWO MAJOR COMPONENTS IN "S" UNITS?
PROKARYOTIC RIBOSOMES ARE 70S (ONE EACH OF 30S AND 50S SUBUNITS, EUKARYOTIC RIBOSMES ARE 80S (ONE EACH OF 40S AND 60S)
WHY DO SOME BACTERIA HARBOR INCLUSIONS OR GRANULES?
THE GRANULES PROVIDE AN ENERGY SOURCE AVAILABLE FOR WHEN CELLS HAVE A SPECIAL ENERGY NEED.
WHAT ARE GRANULES, OR INCLUSIONS, COMPOSED OF?
GRANULES, OR INCLUSIONS, ARE COMPOSED OF POLYSACCHARIDES OR POLYPHOSHATES THAT CONTAIN MUCH CHEMICAL ENERGY.
WHAT ARE THE MOST ENVIRONMENTALLY STABLE OF ALL KNOWN LIFE FORMS? WHAT GENERA PRODUCE THEM?
THE MOST STABLE LIFE FORMS ARE SPORES. GENERA PRODUCING SPORES INCLUDE THE GRAM-POSITIVE BACTERIA "CLOSTRIDIUM" AND "BACILLUS".
WHAT IS A STREAK PLATE?
THE STREAK PLATE IS A DISH CONTAINING NUTRIENT AGAR. IT IS USED TO GROW INDIVIDUAL CELLS INTO COLONIES TO OBTAIN PURE ISOLATES.
WHAT IS A COLONY?
A COLONY RESULTS WHEN A SINGLE CELL IS STREAKED ONTO A PLATE IN A WELL-SEPARATED MANNER SO THAT THE PROGENY CAN GROW INTO A CLUMP UNTIL THEY ARE SUFFICIENTLY NUMEROUS TO BE SEEN BY THE NAKED EYE.
WHY DO WE OBTAIN ISOLATED COLONIES?
WE OBTAIN ISOLATED COLONIES BECAUSE THEY YIELD PURE CULTURES IN WHICH EVERY CELL IS IDENTICAL, SO THE ORGANISM CAN BE RECOGNIZED.
LIST FOUR METHODS USED IN THE IDENTIFICATION OF BACTERIA.
(1) BIOCHEMICAL TESTS
(2) IMMUNOLOGICAL TESTS
(3) GENETIC TESTS
(4) DIRECT DNA OR RNA TESTING FOR ORGANISM-SPECIFIC SEQUENCES.
LIST POSSIBLE BACTERIAL APPENDAGES AND THEIR FUNCTIONS.
THE FLAGELLA AID IN MOTILITY; THE PILI IN GENE TRANSFER; AND THE FIMBRIAE (HOLDFASTS) ATTACH TO A GIVEN SITE.
LIST THREE MAJOR COMPONENTS OF BACTERIAL FLAGELLA.
THE THREE MAJOR COMPONENTS OF BACTERIAL FLAGELLA ARE THE FILAMENT, HOOK, AND BASAL BODY.
HOW DO BACTERIA PRODUCE A PROPELLING FORCE?
BACTERIA PRODUCE A PROPELLING FORCE BY ROTATING THEIR HELICAL FILAMENTS AGAINST THEIR WATERY ENVIRONMENT.
NAME TWO BENEFITS OF MOTILITY TO A PATHOGENIC ORGANISM.
MOTILITY ALLOW PATHOGENS TO SPREAD AND TO ESCAPE CAPTURE BY CELLS OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM.
WHAT BENEFIT DOES CHEMOTAXIS CONFER UPON BACTERIUM?
CHEMOTAXIS ALLOWS ORGANISMS TO SWIM TOWARD OR AWAY FROM CHEMICALS.
LIST FIVE ORGANELLES CONTAINED IN MICROBIAL EUKARYOTIC CELLS.
ORGANELLES CONTAINED IN THE MICROBIAL EUKARYOTIC CELL ARE:
NUCLEI, MITOCHONDRIA, ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM, GOLGI APPARATUS, AND VACUOLES.
WHAT IS THE DIFINING CHARACTERISTIC OF A EUKARYOTIC CELL?
THE DIFINING CHARACTERISTIC OF A EUKARYOTIC CELL IS THE NUCLEI.
HOW CAN AN ANTIBODY MOLECULE BE EXOCYTOSED?
FOR ANTIBODIES TO BE EXOCYTOSED, THEY ARE PACKAGED INTO A MEMBRANE VESICLE THAT FUSES WITH THE CELL MEMBRANE TO FORM A PORE THROUGH WHICH THE ANTIBODIES ARE RELEASED OUTSIDE OF THE CELL.
WHAT IS LYSOSOME?
A LYSOSOME IS A EUKARYOTIC ORGANELLE THAT IS FULL OF TOXIC CHEMICALS AND DEGRADATIVE ENZYMES. WHEN A PHAGOCYTE PHAGOCYTOSES A MICROBE, THE LYSOSOME AND PHAGOSOME FUSE SO THAT THE LYSOSOMAL CONTENTS CAN KILL AND DEGRADE THE MICROBE.
HOW DO EUKARYOTIC FLAGELLA AND CILIA DIFFER FROM BACTERIAL FLAGELLA?
EUKRYOTIC FLAGELLA AND CILIA ARE ORGANELLES THAT CONTAIN NINE PAIRS AND TWO MICROTUBULES IN A MEMBRANE. THE WHOLE STRUCTURE BEATS BACK AND FORTH. BACTERIAL FLAGELLA PROTRUDE FROM THE CELL AS A SINGLE, HELICAL FILAMENT THAT IS COMPOSED OF ONE PROTEIN WITH NO MEMBRANE COVERING. THE BACTERIA MOVE BY ROTATING THIS FILAMENT, WHICH PROPELS THE BACTERIA MUCH AS A BOAT PROPELLER MOVES A BOAT.
LIST AN IMPORTANT NONMEDICAL ROLE OF FUNGI.
FUNGI BREAK DOWN ORGANIC MATERIAL INTO FORMS THAT ARE REUSABLE BY OTHER LIVING THINGS.
DEFINE BUDS.
BUDS ARE ROUND CELLS THAT GROW ON THE SIDE OF THE MOTHER CELL UNTIL THEY ARE READY TO DIVIDE AS NEW CELLS.
EXPLAIN THE DIFFERENCE IN MEANING OF HETEROTROPH AND SAPROBE.
ALL FUNGI ARE HETEROTROPHS MEANING THEY USE PERFORMED (LIVING OR DEAD) ORGANIC MATERIAL NUTRITIONALLY. SAPROBES ARE FUNGI THAT REQUIRE THEIR NUTRIENTS TO COME SPECIFICALLY FROM DEAD ORGANIC MATERIAL.
DEFINE HYPHAE
HYPHAE ARE LONG CHAINS OF CONNECTED CELLS.
DEFINE MYCELIA
MYCELIA ARE FUZZY MASSES OF HYPHAE (MOLD).
DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE OF YEAST.
YEAST HAVE SINGLE, ROUND CELLS.
DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE OF MOLDS.
MOLDS GROW IN LONG CHAINS.
DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE MUSHROOMS.
MUSHROOMS ARE OFTEN SEEN ON DEAD OR DECAYING ORGANIC MATERIAL. THEY HAVE A SLENDER STEM AND A ROUNDED HEAD WITH SPORES ON TOP OF IT.
HOW DO SEPTATE AND ASEPTATE HYPHAE DIFFER?
SEPTATE HYPHAE HAVE CROSS-WALLS SEPARATING INDIVIDUAL CELLS. ASEPTATE HYPHAE LACK CROSS-WALLS.
WHAT IS THE MAIN FUNCTION OF FUNGAL SPORES?
SPORES ALLOW WIDESPREAD DISSEMINATION OF THE ORGANISMS.
WHAT IS THE COMPOSITION OF FUNGAL CELL WALLS?
FUNGAL CELL WALLS ARE COMPOLSED OF THE POLYSACCHARIDE CHITIN.
WHAT IS THE MAJOR LIPID OF FUNGI THAT IS USUALLY NOT PRESENT IN PROKARYOTIC OR HUMAN CELLS?
THE MAJOR LIPID OF FUNGI IS ERGOSTEROL.
WHAT IS THE MAIN FUNCTION OF FUNGAL SPORES?
SPORES ALLOW WIDESPREAD DISSEMINATION OF THE ORGANISMS.
WHAT IS THE MAJOR LIPID OF FUNGI THAT IS USUALLY NOT PRESENT IN PROKARYOTIC OR HUMAN CELLS?
THE MAJOR LIPID OF FUNGI IS ERGOSTEROL.
NAME THE THREE GROUPS OF THE KINGDOM PROTISTA AND THEIR CHARACTERISTICS.
THE THREE GROUPS OF THE KINGDOM PROTISTA ARE ALGAE, PROTOZOA, AND SLIME MOLDS. ALGAE ARE UNICELLULAR BUT CAN GROW IN LARGE GROUPS, SUCH AS SEAWEED. PROTOZOA ARE UNICELLULAR PROTISTS THAT LACK PHOTOSYNTHETIC ABILITY AND USE THEIR ORGANELLES OF MOTILITY FOR BOTH LOCOMOTION AND FOOD GATHERING. SLIME MOLDS ARE MUCH LIKE FUNGI BECAUSE THEY USUALLY GROW ON DEAD MATTER AND PRODUCE SPORES; THEY ARE UNLIKE FUNGI, HOWEVER, BECAUSE SOME MOLD FORMS HAVE FLAGELLA OR PSEUDOPODIA.
EXPLAIN THREE TYPES OF PROTOZOAL LOCOMOTION.
SOME PROTOZOANS MOVE BY FLAGELLA OR THE SHORTER, BUT SIMILAR, CILIA STRUCTURE. THESE STRUCTURES BEAT BACK AND FORTH BY SLIDING PAIRS OF MICROTUBULES AGAINST ONE ANOTHER TO MAKE THE FLAGELLA OR CILIA PUSH AGAINST THE WATER LIKE A FISH'S TAIL OR A SWIMMER'S LEGS. THE OTHER TYPE OF MOTILITY IS PRODUCED BY PSEUDOPODIA, WHICH ARE CELL MEMBRANE EXTENSIONS THAT MOVE FORWARD TO ATTACH TO A SURFACE SO THAT THE REST OF THE CELL CAN BE PULLED TO THAT POSITION IN A CRAWLING MOTION.
WHAT ROLE DO ALGAE PLAY IN GENERAL MARINE LIFE?
ALGAE ALONG WITH OTHER ORGANISMS IN PLANKTON, USE THE SUN'S ENERGY TO PRODUCE MOST OF THE ORGANIC MATERIAL AND OXYGEN AVAILABLE IN THE OCEAN. THEY ARE PRIMARY FOOD SOURCES FOR MANY OF THE OCEAN'S INHABITANTS.
WHAT ARE ALGAL CELLS MADE OF?
ALGAL CELL WALLS ARE MAINLY COMPOSED OF CELLULASE. AGAR AND PECTIN ARE ALSO PRESENT. MEMBERS OF THE DIATOM SUBGROUP OF ALGAE HAVE A SILICON CELL WALL SIMILAR TO SILICON FOUND IN GLASS AND ROCKS.
HOW DO ALGAE OBTAIN AND USE SUNLIGHT?
ALGAE OBTAIN AND USE SUNLIGHT THROUGH THE CHLOROPHYLL IN ORGANELLES CALLED CHLORAPLASTS THAT ABSORBS THE ENERGY IN SUNLIGHT. THE CHLOROPHYLL TRANSFERS THE ENERGY ON TO MITOCHONDRIA THAT CONVERT IT INTO CHEMICAL ENERGY IN THE FORM OF ATP.
HOW ARE PROTOZOANS GENERALLY CLASSIFIED?
PROTOZOANS ARE CLASSIFIED ACCORDING TO THEIR LOCOMOTION APPARATUS. FLAGELLATES HAVE FLAGELLA; PSEUDOPODS HAVE PSEUDOPODIA; CILIATES HAVE CILIA; AND SPORAZOITES HAVE NO ORGANELLES OF LOCOMOTION.
HOW ARE PROTOZOAN GROUPS COMMONLY IDENTIFIED?
PROTOZOAN GROUPS ARE COMMONLY IDENTIFIED BY THEIR LOCOMOTION APPARATUS, GENERAL SHAPE AND SIZE, NUMBER OF NUCLEI, AND PRESENCE OF CYST FORMS.
HOW DO CELLULAR AND ACELLULAR SLIME MOLDS DIFFER?
CELLULAR SLIME MOLDS GROW IN GROUPS OF INDIVIDUAL CELLS, WHEREAS ACELLULAR SLIME MOLDS GROW INTO A PLASMODIUM, A GIANT CELL CONTAINING MANY NUCLEI.
WHAT MUST HAPPEN FOR A PATHOGEN TO BE TRANSMITTED BY A MOSQUITO VECTOR?
THE PATHOGENS MUST MIGRATE TO THE MOSQUITO SALIVARY GLAND AND REPLICATE THERE.
HOW DO LICE REMAIN ATTACHED TO THEIR HOSTS?
LICE REMAIN ATTACHED BY MEANS OF LEGS, CLAWS, AND TEETH THAT ARE WELL ADAPTED TO GRASPING.
NAME A DISEASE TRANSMITTED BY FLEA VECTORS.
FLEA VECTORS TRANSMIT PLAGUE.
HOW DO MITES DIRECTLY CAUSE DISEASE?
MITES CAUSE DISEASE BY BURROWING INTO SKIN AND INDUCING AN INTENSE ALLERGIC RESPONSE.
NAME TWO ORGANISMS, THEIR DISEASES, AND THE TICK VECTORS THAT SPREAD THEM.
DERMACENTOR ANDERSONI TRANSMITS RICKETTSIA RICKETTSII, WHICH CAUSES ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER. IXODES SCAPULARIS TRANSMITS BORRELIA BURGDORFERI, WHICH CAUSES LYME DISEASE.
BECAUSE VIRUSES ARE INCAPABLE OF REPLICATING OUTSIDE OF A HOST, THEY ARE CALLED...
BECAUSE VIRUSES ARE INCAPABLE OF REPLICATIN OUTSIDE OF A HOST, THEY ARE CALLED OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR PARASITES.
WHAT IS THE SIZE OF THE LARGEST VIRUSES?
THE LARGEST VIRUSES AR 1/25 THE SIZE OF THE SMALLEST BACTERIUM.
WHAT ARE BACTERIAL VIRUSES CALLED?
BACTERIAL VIRUSES ARE CALLED BACTERIOPHAGES OR JUST PHAGES.
HOW DOES A BACTERIOPHAGE PENETRATE THE HOST CELL WALL?
IN ADDITION TO THE ATTACHMENT FACTORS THEY USE TO ADHERE TO THE HOST CELL, THEY OFTEN HAVE A NEEDLELIKE TUBE THAT THEY USE TO PROPEL THROUGH THE BACTERIAL ENVELOPE AND INJECT THEIR NUCLEIC ACID INSIDE THE HOST CELL.
DEFINE CAPSOMERE
CAPSOMERE IS A VIRAL PROTEIN THAT FORMS THE COAT AROUND THE VIRAL NUCLEIC ACID
DEFINE CAPSID
CAPSID IS A PROTEIN SHELL MADE OF CAPSOMERES
DEFINE NUCLEOCAPSID
THE CAPSID COVERING PLUS THE NUCLEIC ACID
DEFINE VIRION
AN INTACT VIRAL PARTICLE WITH ITS APPROPRIATE COATING LAYERS
DEFINE ICOSAHEDRON
TWENTY IDENTICAL SIDES
DEFINE ENVELOPE
AN ADDITIONAL COVERING MADE OF MEMBRANE FROM THE HOST CELL AND VIRAL PROTEINS.
LIST THE TWO MAIN COMPONENTS OF NUCLEOCAPSIDS.
THE TWO MAIN COMPONENTS OF NUCLEOCAPSIDS ARE THE CAPSID AND THE NUCLEIC ACID.
WHAT ARE NONENVELOPED VIRUSES CALLED?
NONENVELOPED VIRUSES ARE CALLED NAKED VIRUSES.
THE PLACEMENT OF VIRUSES INTO FAMILIES DEPENDS UPON WHICH CHARACTERISTICS?
THE PLACEMENT OF VIRUSES INTO FAMILIES DEPENDS UPON STRUCTURAL FEATURES: WHAT THEIR GENERAL SIZE AND SHAPE ARE, WHETHER THEY ARE NAKED OR ENVELOPED, AND IF THEIR NUCLEIC ACID IN DNA OR RNA.
WHAT PART OF THE ENVELOPE COMES FROM THE HOST CELL AND WHAT PART FROM THE VIRUS?
THE MEMBRANE IS FROM THE HOST AND THE ATTACHMENT PROTEINS ARE FROM THE VIRUS.
WHAT TYPE OF MOLECULE IN AN ENVELOPED VIRUS IS NECESSARY FOR ATTACHMENT TO THE HOST CELL?
A VIRAL ATTACHMENT PROTEIN THAT PROTRUDES OUTSIDE OF THE VIRAL ENVELOPE IS NECESSARY FOR ATTACHMENT TO THE HOST CELL.
ABSORPTION OF THE VIRUS TO THE CELL DEPENDS UPON WHAT SPECIFIC VIRAL AND CELLULAR COMPONENTS?
ABSORPTION DEPENDS ON A VIRAL ATTACHMENT PROTEIN AND A CELL RECEPTOR.
WHAT ARE THE TYPES OF PENETRATION?
TWO TYPES OF PENETRATION ARE ENDOCYTOSIS AND MEMBRANE FUSION.
WHERE AND HOW DOES THE PROCESS OF UNCOATING TAKE PLACE?
UNCOATING IS THE REMOVAL OF THE VIRAL CAPSID PROTEIN BY CELLULAR ENZYMES IN THE CELL CYTOPLASM.
WHERE DOES DNA AND RNA REPLICATION TAKE PLACE?
REPLICATION TAKES PLACE IN THE CELL NUCLEUS FOR DNA AND IN THE CYTOPLASM FOR RNA.
WHERE DOES VIRAL TRANSLATION TAKE PLACE?
VIRAL TRANSLATION OCCURS IN THE HOST CYTOPLASM.
HOW DOES THE ASSEMBLY OF INTACT VIRIONS OCCUR?
PROTEINS FROM THE COATING BIND TO EACH OTHER AND TO THE PROPER NUCLEIC ACID, ENABLING THE NUCLEOCAPSID TO ZIP TOGETHER WITHOUT OUTSIDE ENERGY.
DESCRIBE HOW THE RELEASE OF VIRIONS CAN OCCUR BY CELL LYSIS OR BUDDING.
A NAKED VIRUS SIMPLY LYSES THE CELL TO RELEASE VIRIONS; AN ENVELOPED VIRUS ACQUIRES A MEMBRANE FROM THE HOST AS IT PASSES THROUGH THE CELL MEMBRANE.
HOW MANY PHAGES OR VIRIONS CAN BE PRODUCED IN A SINGLLE GROWTH CYCLE?
ABOUT ONE HUNDRED PHAGES PER BACTERIUM AND ABOUT THREE HUNDRED THOUSAND ANIMAL VIRIONS PER ANIMAL CELL CAN BE PRODUCED IN A SINGLE GROWTH CYCLE.
WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN LYTIC AND LYSOGENIC VIRUSES?
LYTIC VIRUSES ALWAYS KILL THE HOST CELL BY BREAKING IT OPEN. LYSOGENIC VIRUSES ENTER THE CELL WHERE THEIR DNA INTEGRATES INTO THE HOST CELL AND BECOMES PART OF IT; THEY THEN DIVIDE WITH THE CELL. IF THE HOST CELL BECOMES SICK, LYSOGENIC VIRUSES BECOME LYTIC AND ESCAPE THE DYING CELL.
WHAT ARE CYTOPATHIC EFFECTS?,
CYTOPATHIC EFFECTS RESULT WHEN A VIRAL SPECIMEN IS PLACED ON HUMAN TISSUE CELLS IN A CULTURE MEDIUM. CYTOPATHIC EFFECT REFERS TO VISIBLE CHANGES, MICROSCOPIC OR OTHERWISE, IN CELLS RESULTING FROM VIRAL INFECTION.
WHAT IS PLAQUE?
PLAQUE IS A SPECIFIC TYPE OF CPE WHERE CELLS ARE KILLED SO THAT LOSS OF CELLS GIVES RISE TO A HOLE IN THE CELL LAYER.
HOW IS THE INCLUSION BODY TYPE OF "CPE" OBSERVED?
INCLUSION BODIES ARE NORMALLY SEEN IN THE MICROSCOPE AS DARK AREAS OF VIRAL MATERIAL.
WHAT ARE THE RESULTING LARGE CELLS CALLED WHEN MANY CELLS FUSE TOGETHER AS A RESULT OF VIRAL INFECTIONS?
WHEN MANY CELLS FUSE TOGETHER AS A RESULT OF VIRAL INFECTION, THE LARGE CELLS ARE CALLED SYNCYTIA OR GIANT CELLS.
WHAT CHANGES OCCUR DURING TRANSFORMATION?
IN TRANSFORMATION, VIRUSES CAUSE THE CELLS TO KEEP GROWING UNCONTROLLABLY AND PILE UP OR FORM A TUMOR.
WHAT DO VIRUSES DO TO THE HOST DNA-SYNTHESIZING MACHINERY?
VIRUSES SUBVERT THE HOST CELL MACHINERY INTO MAKING VIRUSES RATHER THAN CELLULAR MATERIALS.
WHAT TYPE OF NUCLEIC ACID IS IN A VIRION?
THE NUCLEIC ACID IN A VIRION IS EITHER RNA OR DNA, BUT NOT BOTH.
WHY IS TUMORIGENESIS ONLY ASSOCIATED WITH DNA VIRUSES OR RETROVIRUSES?
TUNORIGENESIS ONLY OCCURS WHEN A CELL'S GENES ARE ALTERED TO CAUSE INCONTROLLABLE CELL DIVISION. ONLY DNA CAN INTEGRATE INTO THE CELL'S CHROMOSOME BECAUSE THE CHROMOSOME IS DNA.
DESCRIBE THE SMALLEST BIOLOGICAL AGENT THAT IS REPLICATED.
THE SMALLEST REPLICATED BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS THE PRION: A PROTEIN THAT CAUSES ITSELF TO BE REPLICATED BY THE WAY IT FOLDS.
WHAT DAMAGE DO PRIONS DO?
ABNORMALLY FOLDED PRION PROTEINS ACCUMULATE IN THE BRAIN UNTIL THE BRAIN TISSUE IS DESTROYED AND THE HOST DIES.
WHAT ARE THE SIX MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENTS IN MICROBES?
THE SIX MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENTS IN MICROBES ARE: (1)CARBON (2) OXYGEN, (3) NITROGEN, (4) HYDROOGEN, (5) PHOSPHORUS, AND (6) SULFUR.
WHAT ARE THE SIX MOST ABUNDANT TYPES OF MOLECULES IN LIVING BACTERIUM?
WATER,PROTEINS, RNA, CARBOHYDARTES, LIPIDS, AND DNA.
WHAT IS THE MOST ABUNDANT COMPONENT OF LIVING BACTERIA?
THE MOST ABUNDANT COMPONENT OF LIVING BACTERIA IS WATER.
AUTOTROPHS
AUTOTROPHS ARE BACTERIA THAT CAN USE CARBON DIOXIDE FROM THE AIF AS THEIR CARBON SOURCE.
HETEROTROPHS
HETEROTROPHS ARE BACTERIA THAT REQUIRE THEIR CARBON SOURCE IN AN ORGANIC FORM. (E.G., A SUGAR OR AN AMINO ACID)
FASTIDIOUS ORGANISMS
FASTIDIOUS ORGANISMS ARE BACTERIA THAT DO NOT PRODUCE THEIR OWN VITAMINS, USUALLY BECAUSE THEY CAN ACQUIRE THEM FROM THE HOST.
AUXOTROPHS
AUXOTROPHS ARE MUTANT BACTERIA THAT ARE INCAPABLE OF SYNTHESIZING AN ORGANIC MOLECULE, SUCH AS A VITAMIN.
PHOTOAUTOTROPHS
BACTERIA THAT DERIVE ENERGY FROM LIGHT.
HALOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT HAVE ADAPTED TO GROWTH IN HIGH-SALT CONDITIONS.
METHANOGENS
BACTERIA THAT DERIVE ENERGY FROM CARBON DIOXIDE AND HYDROGEN TO PRODUCE METHAN GAS.
CHEMOAUTOTROPHS
BACTERIA THAT DERIVE ENERGY FROM ROCKS OR MINERAL RATHER THAN SUNLIGHT OR ORGANIC MATERIALS.
HOW ARE CULTURE MEDIA PRODUCED?
AGAR IS ACCED TO THE CULTURE BROTH, THE ENTIRE MIX BOILED TO MELT THE AGAR, AND THE MIX IS POURED INTO PETRI DISHES WHERE IT SOLIDIFIES AS IT COOLS TO ROOM TEMPERATURE
DISTINGUISH DEFINED MEDIA FROM COMPLEX MEDIA.
THE COMPLETE CHEMICAL CONTENTS OF DEFINED MEDIA ARE KNOWN BECAUSE THEY ARE MADE OF KNOWN CHEMICALS.COMPLEX MEDIA INCLUDES SOME COMPONENT THAT IS FROM A BIOLOGICAL SOURCE, ANIMAL OR PLANT, IN WHICH SOME OF THE CONSTITUENT CHEMICALS ARE NOT KNOWN.
DEFINE SELECTIVE MEDIA.
SELECTIVE MEDIA ALLOW SOME ORGANISMS TO GROW WHILE INHIBITING OTHRS.
DEFINE DIFFERENTIAL MEDIA.
DIFFERENTIAL MEDIA ALLOW SEVRAL KINDS OF ORGANISMS TO GROW, BUT THE ORGANISMS APPEAR DIFFERENTLY; FOR EXAMPLE, THE ORGANISMS MIGHT APPEAR AS DIFFERENT COLORS.
HOW ARE PURE BACTERIAL CULTURES OBTAINED?
PURE BACTERIAL CULTURES ARE OBTAINED BY STREAKING A SAMPLE OF BACTERIA ONTO A PETRI DISH SO THAT INDIVIDUAL BACTERIA FALL IN WELL-ISOLATED POSITIONS. THE BACTERIA ARE GROWN INTO COLONIES SO THAT INDIVIDUAL COLONIES CAN BE RECOVERED AS PURE CULTURES.
NAME AND DEFINE THE TECHNIQUES USED TO WORK WITH MICROBIAL CULTURES.
ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE IS USED TO WORK WITH MICROBIAL CULTURES. IT MEANS HANDLING SAMPLES SO THAT THEY DO NOT BECOME CONTAMINATED FROM THE OUTSIDE.
HOW DOES DIFFUSION ASSIST A CELL NUTRITIONALLY?
BECAUSE OF BROWNIAN MOTION, NUTRIENT MOLECULES ARE CONSTANTLY MOVING, SO THEY MAKE CONTACT WITH THE BACTERIUM, PASS THROUGH OUTER LAYERS, AND DIFFUSE TO THE BACTERIA'S CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE WHERE THE CELL CAN TRANSPORT THEM INSIDE.
WHAT PREVENTS A BACTERIAL CELL FROM RUPTURING DUE TO INTERNAL OSMOTIC OR HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE?
THE STRENGTH OF THE PEPTIDOGLYCAN LAYER PREVENTS A BACTERIAL CELL FROM RUPTURING DUE TO INTERNAL OSMOTIC OR HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE.
AEROBES
AEROBES ARE BACTERIA THAT GROW IN THE PRESENCE OF OXYGEN.
FACULTATIVE ANAEROBES
BACTERIA THAT GROW WITH OR WITHOUT OXYGEN.
MICROAEROPHILES
BACTERIA THAT REQUIRE REDUCED LEVELS OF OXYGEN.
ANAEROBES
BACTERIA THAT FAIL TO GROW IN THE PRESENCE OF OXYGEN.
ACIDOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT GROW IN ACIDIC ENVIRONMENT.
ALKALOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT GROW IN ALKALINE ENVIRONMENTS.
OBLIGATE HALOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT CANNOT GROW WITHOUT SALT.
PSYCHROPHILES
BACTERIA THAT THRIVE IN COLD TEMPERATURES.
MESOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT THIVE IN WARM TEMPERATURES.
THERMOPHILES
BACTERIA THAT THRIVE IN HOT TEMPERATURES
THERMODURIC BACTERIA
BACTERIA THAT CANNOT GROW IN HIGH TEMPERATURES, BUT WHICH ARE ALSO NOT KILLED BY HIGH TEMPERATURES.
SYMBIOSIS
SYMBIOSIS IS THE RELATIONSHIP IN WHICH DIFFERENT ORGANISMS GROW WITH ONE ANOTHER.
SYNERGISM
SYNERGISM IS THE RELATIONSHIP IN WHICH THE TOTAL GROWTH OF TWO OR MORE ORGANISMS IS MORE THAN WOULD HAVE RESULTED HAD THEY GROWN INDEPENDENTLY.
COMMENSALISM
COMMENSALISM IS THE RELATIONSHIP IN WHICH ONE ORGANISM HELPS ANOTHER BUT IS UNAFFECTED ITSELF.
ANTAGONISM
ANTAGONISM IS A HARMFUL RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN TWO ORGANISMS.
NORMAL FLORA
NORMAL FLORA ARE THE NATIVE MICROBES THAT AN INDIVIDUAL HARBORS WITHOUT CAUSING DISEASE.
IF ONE BACTERIUM GOES THROUGH FOUR GENERATIONS, HOW MANY BACTERIA WILL RESULT?
FOUR GENERATIONS OF A BACTERIUM WILL PRODUCE SIXTEEN BACTERIA.
HOW LONG WILL IT REQUIRE TEN BACTERIA TO GROW INTO MORE THAT ONE HUNDRED BACTERIA IF THE DOUBLING TIME IS THIRTY MINUTES?
IF THE DOUBLING TIME IS THIRY MINUTES, IT WILL TAKE TWO HOURS FOR TEN BACTERIA TO GROW INTO MORE THAN ONE HUNDRED BACTERIA.
WHAT DOES EXPONENTIAL GROWTH MEAN?
EXPONENTIAL GROWTH MEANS THAT IN EVERY GENERATION (OR GROWTH CYCLE) TWICE AS MANY CELLS ARE FORMED. THIS IS IN CONTRAST TO ADDING ONE INDIVIDUAL EACH GENERATION.
EXPLAIN WHAT BACTERIA ARE DOING IN EACH OF THE FOUR PHASES YOU LISTED ABOVE.
IN THE LAG PHASE, CELLS ADAPT TO NUTRIENTS AND PREPARE FOR CELL DIVISION. IN THE LOG PHASE, CELLS DOUBLE IN REGULAR INTERVALS. IN THE STATIONARY PHASE, CELLS MAINTAIN CELL NUMBER BUT DO NOT CONTINUE TO GROW BECAUSE OF NUTRIENT DEPLETION. IN THE DECLINE PHASE, CELLS BEGIN TO DIE BECAUSE OF LACK OF ENERGY AND NUTRIENTS.
DEFINE AUTOLYSIS. WHY MAY A BACTERIUM AUTOLYSE?
AUTOLYSIS IS THE BREAKDOWN OF AN ORGANISM BECAUSE OF ITS OWN PURPOSE AND MECHANISM. SOME BACTERIA AUTOLYZE IN ORDER TO SPREAD AND ENHANCE GROWTH OF SURVIVORS.
HOW CAN THE NUMBER OF VIABLE CELLS IN A CULTURE BE DETERMINED?
THE NUMBER OF VIABLE CELLS IN A CULTURE CAN BE DETERMINED BY PERFORMING DILUTIONS AT EACH POINT, SPREADING ALIQUOTOS ON PETRI DISHES, AND COUNTING THE NUMBER OF COLONIES THAT GROW.
WHAT IS THE MEANING OF CFU?
CFU MEANS "COLONY FORMING UNIT" EACH VIABLE CELL THAT CAN GROW INTO A COLONY ON A PETRI PLATE IS A "CFU"
WHAT INFORMATION DOES A TURBIDIMETRIC ASSAY YIELD?
A TURBIDIMETRIC ASSAY DETERMINES HOW MANY BACTERIAL CELLS, LIVING OR DEAD, ARE PRESENT BY USE OF A SPECTROPHOTOMETER. THE NUMBER DIFFERS FROM CFU NUMBERS, BECAUSE CFU NUMBERS ONLY REFLECT VIABLE CELLS.
DEFINE ANABOLISM.
ANABOLISM IS THE USE OF ENERGY AND BUILDING BLOCKS TO MAKE NEW CELLULAR MATERIALS.
DEFINE CATABOLISM.
CATABOLISM IS THE BREAKDOWN OF COMPLEX MATERIALS THAT CELLS USE FOR MAKING MORE CELLS.
DEFINE METABOLISM.
METABOLISM IS ALL THE CHEMICAL PROCESSES OCCURRING IN A CELL.
DEFINE ENZYMES.
ENZYMES ARE PROTEIN CATALYSISTS THAT CELLS USE TO CONVERT SOME MOLECULES INTO OTHRS.
SOME ENZYMATIC REACTIONS ARE CONTROLLED BY NEGATIVE FEEDBACK. WHAT HAPPENS WHEN THE PRODUCT OF A GIVEN REACTION BECOMES HIGH IN CONCENTRATION?
WHEN THE CELL IS IN AN ENVIRONMENT WITH AMPLE AMINO ACIDS, FOR INSTANCE, THE CELL GETS THE SIGNAL TO SAVE ENERGY AND NOT TO MAKE ITS OWN AMINO ACID.
WHAT IS ACTIVATION ENERGY?
ACTIVATION ENERGY REFERS TO THE AMOUNT OF HEAT NECESSARY TO CAUSE A CHEMICAL REACTION. ENZYMES CAN DRAMATICALLY REDUCE THE ACTIVATION ENERGY.
LIST THE THREE MAJOR PATHWAYS OF CATABOLISM IN ORGANISMS.
THE THRE MAJOR PATHWAYS OF CATABOLISM IN ORGANISMS ARE GLYCOLYSIS, THE KREBS CYCLE, AND ELECTRON TRANSPORT.
NAME THE STARTING COMPOUND OF GLYCOLYSIS.
THE STARTING COMPOUND OF GLYCOLYSIS IS GLUCOSE.
HOW MANY ATPs ARE PRODUCED BY GLYCOLISIS?
GLYCOLYSIS PROCUCES TWO ATP.
HOW MANY ATPs ARE PROCUCED BY TCA CYCLE/ELECTRON TRANSPORT?
TCA CYCLE/ELECTRON TRANSPORT PRODUCES THIRTY ATP.
NAME THE FINAL ELECTRON ACCEPTOR IN AEROBIC RESPIRATION.
THE FINAL ELECTRON ACCEPTOR IN AEROBIC RESPIRATION IN OXYGEN.
NAME TWO POSSIBLE FINAL ELECTRON ACCEPTORS IN ANAEROBIC RESPIRATIONS.
TWO POSSIBLE FINAL ACCEPTORS IN ANAEROBIC RESPIRATION ARE NITRATE AND SULFATE.
LIST SIX COMMERCIALLY VALUABLE PRODUCTS PRODUCED BY FERMENTATION.
SIX COMMERCIALLY BALUABLE PRODUCTS PRODUCED BY FERMENTATION ARE CHEESE, YOGURT, VINEGAR, ACETONE, BUTYL ALCOHOL, AND BEER/WINE.
NAME THREE TYPES OF MACROMOLECULES FOR WHICH BUILDING BLOCKS, OR PRECURSOR MOLECULES, ARE REQUIRED.
DNA, RNA, AND AMINO ACIDS ARE THREE TYPES OF MACROMOLECULES THAT REQUIRE BUILDING BLOCKS, OR PRECURSOR MOLECULES.
WHAT IS TRANSCRIPTION?
TRANSCRIPTION IS THE PROCESS BY WHICH RNA POLYMERASE USES A DNA TEMPLATE TO PRODUCE mRNA.
WHAT IS AN OPERON?
AN OPERON IS TWO OR MORE GENES IN A BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME THAT ARE TRANSCRIBED INTO ONE mRNA MOLECULE. EUKARYOTIC CELLS DO NOT HAVE OPERONS.
WHAT IS TRANSLATION?
TRANSLATION IS THE PROCESS OF rRNAs TRANSLATING THE mRNA CODONS INTO PROTEINS BY POLYMERIZING THE CORRECT AMINO ACIDS IN THE CORRECT ORDER.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF RNA POLYMERASE?
IN IS USED TO PRODUCE THE RNA COPY OF EACH GENE.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF mRNA?
IT IS A TEMPLATE FOR THE CODED GENETIC INFORMATION IN DNA TO BE TRANSLATED INTO PROTEIN.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF RIBOSOMES?
THEY ARE ENZYMES THAT CARRY OUT THE PROCESS OF TRANSLATION.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE CODON?
THE CODON IS A NUCLEOTIDE TRIPLET THAT CODES FOR A SPEDIFIC AMINO ACID.
WHAT IS COUPLED TRANSCRIPTION AND TRANSLATION?
COUPLED TRANSCRIPTION AND TRANSLATION IS THE SIMULTANEOUS SYNTHESES OF RNA AND PROTEIN THAT OCCURS IN THE CYTOPLASM OF PROKARYOTES.
WHAT DOES A TRIPLET OF BASES ENCODE?
EACH TRIPLET CODON IN mRNA CODES FOR ONE AMINO ACID.
HOW DID GRIFFITH DEMONSTRATE A GENE TRANSFER?
GRIFFITH SHOWED THAT CAPSULAR PRODUCTION COULD BE RESOTRED TO A CAPSULAR MUTANT FROM DEAD, WILD-TYPE BACTERIA.
HOW DID AVERY SHOW THAT GENES ARE MADE OF DNA?
AVERY AND HIS CO-WORKERS SHOWED THAT THE BACTERIAL SUBSTANCE THAT CAUSED TRANSFORMATION WAS DNase SENSITIVE. THIS PROVIDED EVIDENCE THAT TRANSFERAL OF DNA RATHER THAT PROTEIN OR RNA WAS NECESSARY FOR CAPSULE PRODUCTION.
WHAT DID HERSHEY AND CHASES'S EXPERIMENT CONFIRM?
HERSHEY AND CHASE CONFIRMED THAT DNA, RATHER THAN PROTEIN, IS THE GENETIC MATERIAL.
DEFINE GENE.
A GENE IS THE DNA CODING MATERIAL FOR A SINGLE PROTEIN.
DEFINE CHROMOSOME.
CHROMOSOMES ARE LARGE CIRCULAR MOLECULES OF SEVERAL MILLION BASE PAIRS OF DNA THAT CONTAINS CELLULAR GENES.
DEFINE GENOME.
A GENOME IS THE COLLECTION OF ALL THE GENES IN A CELL.
DEFINE COMPLEMENTARY DNA.
COMPLEMENTARY DNA IS DNA THAT WILL BASE PAIR WITH ANOTHER DNA MOLECULE BECAUSE IT HAS "A" IN PLACE OF EVERY "T", "C" IN PLACE OF EVERY "G" OF THE OTHER MOLECULE.
HOW MANY GENES MIGHT THERE BE IN AN AVERAGE BACTERIUM? IN THE HUMAN CELL?
THERE ARE ABOUT FIVE THOUSAND GENES IN A BACTERIUM AND ABOUT FIFTY THOUSAND GENES IN A HUMAN CELL.
WHAT CELLS HAVE DIPLOID OR HAPLOID GENOMES?
PROKARYOTIC CELLS HAVE HAPLOID GENOMES; EUKARYOTIC CELLS HAVE DIPLOID GENOMES.
WHAT MUST HAPPEN TO THE GENETIC MATERIAL WHEN DIVISION OF A CELL OCCURS?
WHEN DIVISION OF A CELL OCCURS, THE GENOME MUST BE DUPLICATED.
WHERE DOES DNA SYNTHESIS BEGIN?
DNA SYNTHESIS BEGINS AT THE ORIGIN OF REPLICATION.
WHAT IS PRODUCED BY DNA REPLICATION?
DNA REPLICATION PRODUCES TWO DOUBLE-SIDED DNA MOLECULES IDENTICAL TO THE STARTING DNA.
HOW DOES DNA PROOFREAD?
DNA PROOFREADS THROUGH DNA POLYMERASE, WHICH CHECKS TO SEE IF THE NEWLY ADDED NUCLEOTIDES ARE COMPLEMENTARY TO THE TEMPLATE. IF THEY ARE NOT COMPLEMENTARY, DNA POLYMERASES REMOVES AND REPLACES THEM WITH A NEW NUCLEOTIDE.
ARE HUMAN VIRUSES HARMFUL OR BENEFICIAL?
HUMAN VIRUSES CAN BE BOTH HARMFUL AND BENEFICIAL. WHEN A VIRUS CAUSES DAMAGE TO THE HOST, IT IS HARMFUL. WHEN A VIRUS IS USED BY GENE THERAPY TO REPAIR A HUMAN GENETIC DEFECT, IT IS BENEFICIAL.
WHAT IS A VIRAL VECTOR?
A VIRAL VECTOR IS A VIRUS USED IN GENE THERAPY TO DELIVER A GENE WITH PROPER ACTIVITY TO HOST CELLS THAT NEED THE GENE.
WHEN DO BACTERIA NORMALLY REGULATE GENE EXPRESSION?
BACTERIA USUALLY REGULATE GENE EXPRESSION DURING TRANSCRIPTION.
HOW IS THE LAC OPERON INDUCED?
LACTOSE COMBINES WITH THE LAC REPRESSOR TO INACTIVATE IT. RNA POLYMERASE CAN THEN BIND TO THE PROMOTER AND TRANSCRIBE THE LAC OPERON.
HOW IS THE TRYPTOPHAN OPERON REPRESSED?
TRYPTOPHAN BINDS TO THE TRP OPERON APOREPRESSOR TO FORM AN ACTIVE COMPLEX, WHICH BINDS TO THE TRP OPERATOR AND PREVENTS RNA POLYMERASE BINDING AND TRANSCRIPTION.
DESCRIBE FEEDBACK INHIBITION.
FEEDBACK INHIBITION IS ASSOCIATED WITH REPRESSIBLE OPERONS WHERE THE END PRODUCT OF THE OPERON PATHWAY MAKES A COMPLEX WITH THE APOREPRESSOR TO INHIBIT TRANSCRIPTION.
GIVE TWO WAYS THAT INDUCIBLE AND REPRESSIBLE EXPRESSION CONTROL DIFFERS.
INDUCTIBLE SYSTEMS TURN ON EXPRESSION WHILE REPRESSIBLE SYSTEMS TURN THEM OFF. REPRESSIBLE SYSTEMS HAVE FINE CONTROL OVER HAW MUCH EXPRESSION OCCURS.
WHAT IS A FUNCTION OF PROTEASES?
PROTEASES RID THE CELL OF UNWANTED PROTEINS.
LIST THREE THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE MUTATION.
THREE THINGS THAT CAN CAUSE MUTATION ARE: (1) A MISTAKE IN THE DNA-DEPENDENT DNA POLYMERASE. (2) CHEMICALS FOUND IN THE ENVIRONMENT, AND (3) ULTRAVIOLET RAYS FROM THE SUN AND TANNING LIGHTS.
WHAT PROCESS CASUSES SPONTANEOUS GENETIC CHANGE?
MUTATION CAUSES SPONTANEOUS GENETIC CHANGES.
WHAT IS A HERITABLE CHANGE IN THE BASE SEQUENCE OF DNA CALLED?
A HERITABLE CHANGE IN THE BASE SEQUENCE OF DNA CALLED IS A MUTATION.
DEFINE NONSENSE MUTATION.
A NONSENSE MUTATION GIVES RISE TO A STOP CODON IN THE MIDDLE OF A GENE SO THAT TRANSLATION STOPS BEFORE IT IS COMPLETE.
DEFINE FRAME-SHIFT DELETION.
A FRAME-SHIFT DELETION INDICATES THAT NUCLEOTIDES, PERHAPS ONE OR TWO (NOT THREE), HAVE BEEN DELETED FROM A GENE SO THAT DOWNSTREAM CODONS ARE NO LONGER IN REGISTER.
GIVE AN EXAMPLE OF PHENOTYPIC AND GENOTYPIC CHANGES IN THE LAC OPERON.
A MUTATION IN AN UNDEFINED AREA OF THE LAC OPERON, AND THE THREE STRUCTURAL GENES OR THE CONTROL PROMOTER OR OPERATOR REGIONS COULD RESULT IN THE CELL BECOMING PHENOTYPICALLY LACTOSE. IF WE KNEW THAT THE MUTATION SPECIFICALLY RENDERED THE LAC Z GENE NONFUNCTIONAL, WE WOULD CALL IT A LAC Z GENOTYPE.
HOW MIGHT REGULATROY MUTATIONS IN THE LAC OPERATOR OR PROMOTER AFFECT CELL FUNCTION?
A MUTANT LAC OPERATOR WOULD NOT BIND THE REPRESSOR, SO THE LACTOSE OPERON WOULD BE EXPRESSED CONSTITUTIVELY. A MUTANT LAC PROMOTER WOULD BE UNABLE TO BIND RNA POLYMERASE SO NO TRANSCRIPTION OR EXPRESSION WOULD BE POSSIBLE.
WHAT DOES THE AMES TEST SHOW?
THE AMES TEST SHOWS WHETHER TEST CHEMICAL INCREASE THE FREQUENCY OF MUTATION. IF THE FREQUENCY INCREASES, THE CHEMICAL UNDER QUESTION IS CALLED A MUTAGEN OR EVEN A CARCINOGEN.
IN WHICH TYPE OF TRANSFER DOES A SEX PILUS FORM A BRIDGE BETWEEN TWO BACTERIA?
A SEX PILUS FORMS A BRIDGE BETWEEN TWO BACTERIA IN CONJUGATION.
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE IN LOCATION OF THE F-FACTOR IN AN "F" CELL AND AN "Hfr" CELL?
THE F-FACTOR OF AN F+ CELL RESIDES IN THE EXTR-SHROMOSOMAL PLASMID; THE F-FACTOR OF AN Hfr CELL INTEGRATES INTO AND BECOMES A PART OF THE BACTERIAL CHROMOSOME.
WHAT TYPE OF GENE TRANSFER TRANSPORTS NAKED DNA THROUGH A CELL MEMBRANE?
TRANSFROMATION TRANSPORTS NAKED DNA THROUGH A CELL MEMBRANE.
WHAT TYPE OF GENE TRNASFER IS MEDIATED BY A BACTERIOPHAGE?
TRANSDUCTION IS MEDIATED BY A BACTERIOPHAGE.
STERILE REFERS TO THE COMPLETE ABSENCE OF WHAT?
STERILE REFERS TO THE COMPLETE ABSENCE OF LIFE.
NAME THE MOST COMMON GASEOUS STERILIZING AGENT.
THE MOST COMMON GASEOUS STERILIZING AGENT IS ETHYLENE OXIDE.
HOW DO DRY HEAT AND MOIST HEAT DIFFER IN THEIR ABILITY TO KILL MICROBES?
DRY HEAT IS LESS EFFICIENT THAN MOIST HEAT, SO DRY HEAT MUST REACH HIGHER TEMERATURES TO STERILIZE OBJECTS.
NAME A MACHINE IN THE HOSPITAL AND ONE IN MANY HOMES THAT CAN PRODUCE ENOUGH STEAM PRESSURE TO STRILIZE ITEMS IN LESS THAN ONE HOUR.
HOSPITALS USE AN AUTOCLAVE, ESSENTIALLY THE SAME PROCESS AS A HOME-USED PRESSURE COOKER.
WHAT ARE THE STADARD PRESSURE, TEMPERATURE, AND TIME NORMALLY USED TO ACHIEVE STERILIZATION WITH STEAM?
THE STANDARD PRESSURE, TEMPERATURE, AND TIME NORMALLY USED TO ACHIEVE STERILIZATION WITH STEAM ARE 121 DEGRESS CELSIUS AT FIFTEEN MINUTES.
WHAT ARE THE ADVANTAGES OF STERILIZATION BY GAMMA RADIATION?
STERILIZATION BY GAMMA RADIATION DOES NOT INVOLVE HEAT, THUS IS GOOD FOR HEAT-SENSITIVE MATERIAL LIKE PLASTICS. GAMMA RAYS ALSO HAVE GREAT PENETRATION, WHICH IS GOOD FOR STERILIZING ITEMS IN SEALED PACKAGING.
WHAT ARE THE ADVANTAGES OF STERILIZATION BY ULTRAFILTRATION?
STERILIZATION BY ULTRAFILTRATION INVOLVES NO HEAT OR CHEMICAL REACTION, SO IT IS GOOD FOR SOLUBLE MATERIALS (SUCH AS ENZYMES AND ANTIBIOTICS), AND IT IS A GOOD WAY TO STERILIZE GASES.
WHAT ARE THE BASIC USAGES OF DISINFIECTANTS AND ANTISEPTICS?
DISINFECTANT REFERS TO CHEMICAL USED TO KILL BACTERIA ON INANIMATE OBJECTS. ANTISEPTICS ARE USUALLY MILDER VERSIONS OF DISINFECTANTS THAT CAN BE USED ON HUMAN FLESH.
DIFFERENTIATE AMONG BACTERICIDE, FUNGICIDE, VIRUCIDE, SPORICIDE, AND BIOCIDE.
BACTERICIDES KILL BACTERIA; FUNGICIDES KILL FUNGI; VIRUCIDES KILL VIRUSES; SPORICIDES KILL SPORES; AND BIOCIDES ARE NONSPECIFIC AGENTS.
WHAT DIFFERENT EFFECTS DO BACTERIOSTATIC AND BACTERICIDAL AGENTS HAVE ON BACTERIA?
BACTERIOSTATIC AGENTS DO NOT KILL BACTERIA, BUT THEY DO INHIBIT THEIR GROWTH; BACTERICIDAL AGENTS KILL THE BACTERIA.
WHAT IS THE PHENOL COEFFICIENT?
THE PHENOL COEFFICIENT IS THE KILLING CAPACITY OF ANY DISINFECTANT COMPARED TO THE KILLING COPACITY OF PHENOL.
WHY HAVE PHENOLICS GENERALLY REPLACED PHENOL IN DISINFECTION?
PHENOLICS ARE MILDER FORMS OF PHENOLS. THEY EFFECTIVELY REMOVE TRANSIENT ORGANISMS FROM THE SKIN WITHOUT PATIENT HARM.
HOW DOES IODINE KILL MICROBES?
IODINE OXIDIZES PROTEINS/ENZYMES SO THAT THE MICROBES BECOMW UNABLE TO SYNTHESIZE MACROMOLECULES.
HOW DOES RADIATION KILL MICROBES?
RADIATION IONIZES AND DESTRYS DNA.
IS 100 PERCENT ALCOHOL USED AS A DISINFECTANT? WHAT IS BETTER?
100% ALCOHOL IS NOT USED; A 70% SOLUTION(WITH WATER) IS MORE EVVECTIVE BECAUSE IT IS BETTER AT DISSOLVING MICROBIAL MEMBRANES.
WHAT IS PASTEURIZATION?
PASTEURIZATION IS A PROCESS OF HEATING MILK (OR OTHER DRINKS)TO A HIGH ENOUGH TEMPERATURE AND FOR A LONG ENOUGH TIME TO KILL PATHOGENS.
WHY DO WE USE DISINFECTANTS SO FREQUENTLY IN THE CLINICAL SETTING?
WE USE DISINFECTANTS SO FREQUENTLY IN THE CLINICAL SETTING TO PREVENT NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS, ESPECIALLY SINCE NOSOCOMIALLY ACQUIRED MICROBES ARE OFTEN ANTIBIOTIC RESISTANT.
HOW DO DETERGENTS WORK?
DETERGENTS REMOVE TRANSIENT MICROBES FROM SURFACES (SUCH AS HANDS) BUT DO NOT REMOVE RESIDENT ORGANISMS. CATIONIC DETERGENTS DISSOLVE BACTERIAL MEMBRANES.
WHAT KILLS MOST MICROBES IN THE STOMACH?
THE ACID IN THE STOMACH KILLS MOST MICROBES.
WHY WERE ANTIBIOTICS CALLED A MIRACLE CURE?
ANTIBIOTICS WERE CALLED A MIRACLE CURE BECAUSE THEY WERE SELECTIVE IN THAT THEY COULD KILL MICROBES WITHOUT KILLING THE PATIENT.
COMPARE THE TERMS ANTIBIOTIC AND ANTIMICROBIC.
ANTIBIOTIC LITERALLY MEANS "ANTILIFE". THE TERM ANTIMICROBIAL IS MOER DESCRIPTIVE BECAUSE IT DENOTES SPECIFICITY OF AN AGENT FOR MICROBES.
DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN NAROW-SPECTRUM AND BROAD-SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIALS.
NARROW-SPECTRUM AGENTS TARGET A SPECIFIC TYPE OF BACTERIA; BROAD-SPECTRUM AGENTS INHIBIT THE GROWTH OF NEARLY ALL BACTERIA.
WHAT IS THE COMMON PROBLEM OF USING A BROAD-SPECTRUM ANTIBIOTIC?
BROAD-SPECTRUM ANTIBIOTICS DO NOT DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN UNDESIRABLE MICROBES AND THE NORMAL FLORA. BY ELIMINATING THE NORMAL FLORA, SUPERINFECTION CAN RESULT.
WHY DO SOME BACTERIA AND FUNGI PRODUCE ANTIBIOTICS?
SOME BACTERIA AND FUNGI PRODUCE ANTIBIOTICS TO INHIBIT OTHER MICROBES AND RETAIN MORE NUTRIENTS.
WHAT IS THE IMPORTANCE OF SELECTIVE TOXICITY?
A DRUG WITH COMPLETELY SELECTIVE TOXICITY WOULD BE 100 PERCENT LETHAL TO MICROBES AND HAVE ZERO EFFECT ON THE PATIENT. THE HIGHER THE SELECTIVE TOXICITY, THE LESS LIKELY THE PATIENT WILL EXPERIENCE SIDE EFFECTS.
WHICH ANTIBIOTIC IS THE MOST COMMON TO INDUCE ALLERGIC REACTIONS? WHICH ONES ARE NOT ALLERGENIC?
PENCILLIN INDUCES THE MOST ALLERGIC REACTIONS. ALL ANTIBACTERIALS CAN BE ALLERGENIC.
WHAT IS A SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORAMPHENICAL TREATMENT?
A SIDE EFFECT OF CHLORAMPHENICAL TREATMENT IS DEPRESSION OF THE IMMUNE SYSTEM.
BASED ON ITS MODE OF ACTION, WHY IS PENICILLIN CIDAL?
PENICILLIN IS CIDAL BECAUSE CELL WALLS CANNOT DEVELOP IN ITS PRESENCE. THEY BECOME THINNER AND THINNER UNTIL THE CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE BULGES OUT AND THE CELL LYSES.
DO DRUGS LIKE PENICILLIN AND CEPHALOSPORIN, WHICH ACT ON THE CELL WALL, ACT EQUALLY WELL ON GROWING AND NONGROWING BACTERIA? WHY OR WHY NOT?
DRUGS LIKE PENICILLIN AND CEPHALOSPORINS DO NOT WORK WLL ON STATIONERY-PHASE BACTERIA BECAUSE THE CELL WALLS ARE ONLY WEAKENED WHEN CELLS TRY TO MAKE NEW "PG" THAT NEEDS TO BE CROSS-LINKED INTO THE EXISTING CELL WALL.
WHY DO WE CALL SULFA HIGHLY SELECTIVE?
SULFA DRUGS INHIBIT THE SYNTHESIS OF FOLIC ACID, A VITAMIN THAT BACTERIA AND SEVERAL OTHER MICROBES MUST SYNTHESIZE ON THEIR OWN. HUMANS CANNOT SYNTHESIZE FOLIC ACID; THEREFORE, THERE IS NO INHIBITION TO HUMAN CELLS.
NAME FOUR OTHER TARGET SITES FOR ANTIBIOTIC ACTION BESIDES THE CELL WALL.
FOUR OTHER TARGET SITES FOR ANTIBIOTIC ACTION ARE AS FOLLOWS: THE FUNCTIONS OF 70S RIBOSOMES IN TRANSLATION ACTIVITY, THE INHIBITION OF BACTERIAL RNA SYNTHESIS, BACTERIAL DNA SYNTHESIS, AND DISRUPTION OF THE CELL MEMBRANE.
HOW DOES A "B-LACTAMASE" PROTECT A BACTERIUM FROM PENCILLIN OR THE THIRD GENERATION PENICILLIN, CEPHALOSPORIN?
A "B-LACTAMASE" IS AN ENZYME THAT DEGRADES PENCILLINS. CHANGES IN THE B-LACTAM (THE FOUR-MEMBERED RING) MAKE IT RESISTANT TO THE ORIGINAL PENICILLINASE; BUT PENICILLINASE HAS MUTATED AGAIN, SO IT CAN DEGRADE CEPHALOSPORINS, TOO.
WHAT IS THE NOTED MECHANISM OF TETRACYCLINE RESISTANCE?
IN TETRACYCLINE RESISTANCE, BACTERIA OBTAIN A GENE THAT LITERALLY PUMPS THE TETRACYCLINE FROM THE INSIDE TO THE OUTSIDE OF THE CELL.
ARE TETRACYCLINES (ONE FORM OF THE BACTERIOSTATIC DRUGS) NARROW SPECTRUM? WHY OR WHY NOT?
TETRACYCLINES ARE BROAD-SPECTRUM ANTIBIOTICS BECAUSE ALL BACTERIA HAVE 70S RIBOSOMES.
HOW CAN FUNGI BECOME RESISTANT TO DRUGS THAT BIND TO ERGOSTEROL?
RESISTANT FUNGI MAKE LESS ERGOSTEROL, SO THERE ARE FEWER TARGETS FOR ANTI-ERGOSTEROL DRUGS TO BIND TO.
DRUGS DO NOT CAUSE MUTATION, THEY SELECT FOR RESISTANT CELLS. EXPLAIN.
IF THERE ARE BACTERIA IN THE POPULATION THAT ARE NOT KILLED OR INHIBITED BY THE DRUG, THEY ARE SELECTED AS THE ONLY ONES THAT REPLICATE AND MULTIPLY.
HOW CAN WE MINIMIZE THE SPREAD OF DRUG RESISTANCE?
TO MINIMIZE THE SPREAD OF DRUG RESISTANCE, WE CAN DO THE FOLLOWING; REDUCE THE AMOUNTS OF ANTIBIOTICS USED IN ANIMAL FEEDS; DISCOURAGE THE INDISCRIMINATE USE OF ANTIBIOTICS IN HUMANS; GIVE MORE THAN ONE ANTIBIOTIC SIMULTANEOUSLY TO COMPLETELY ELIMINATE INFECTIONS, AS NEEDED.
WHY DO TETRACYCLINES HAVE LIMITED USE?
TETRACYCLINES HAVE LIMITED USE BECAUSE BACTERIA HAVE BECOME RESISTANT TO THEM.
WHAT PRACTICES HAVE LED TO WIDESPREAD DRUG-RESISTANT ORGANISMS?
THE UNNECESSARY USE OF ANTIBIOTICS (SUCH AS TREATING COLD VIRUSES WITH PENICILLIN OR USING TOO LITTLE OF AN ANTIBIOTIC SO THAT ORGANISMS WITH MILD RESISTANCE ARE NOT KILLED) HAS LED TO THE WIDESPREAD DEVELOPMENT OF DRUG-RESISTANT ORGANISMS.
WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO IDENTIFY THE PATHOGEN BEFORE DECIDING ON WHICH THERAPY TO USE?
IT IS IMPORTANT TO IDENTIFY THE PATHOGEN FIRST SO THAT THE ANTIBIOTIC SUSCEPTIBILITY OF THE ORGANISM CAN BE DETERMINED AND THE CORRECT ANTIBIOTIC USED.
WHAT IS DRUG SUSCEPTIBILITY TESTING AND WHY IS IT DONE?
DRUG SUSCEPTIBILITY TESTING DETERMINES WHICH DRUG WILL MOST EFFECTIVELY KILL THE ISOLATED MICROBE.
WHAT DOES A LARGER ZONE OF INHIBITION BY INFECTION STRAIN "A" RELATIVE TO THAT OF STRAIN "B" INDICATE?
IT MEASURES THE ANTIBIOTIC POTENCY AND WOULD INDICATE WHICH MICROBE IS MORE SUSCEPTIBLE TO THE DRUG.
WHAT IS THE KIRBY-BAUER TEST?
IN THE KIRBY-BAUER TEST, BACTERIA ARE SPREAD ON A PETRI PLATE, AND ANTIBACTERIAL DISKS ARE ADDED ON TOP. THE ANTIBACTERIAL CHEMICALS DIFFUSE INTO THE AGAR MEDIUM AND KILL/INHIBIT GRAWTH OF SUSCEPTIBLE ORGANISMS.
WHAT DOES "MIC" REFER TO?
"MIC" REFERS TO MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION. IT IS USED WHEN MICROBES ARE GROWN IN LIQUID BROTH IN TUBES THAT CONTAIN A RANGE OF ANTIMICROBIAL CONCENTRATION. THE LOWEST ANTIMICROBIAL CONCENTRATION THAT INHIBITS MICROBIAL GROWTH IS THE "MIC".
HOW DO THE DILUTION TUBE AND KIRBY-BAUER TESTS WORK?
IN TUBE DILUTION TESTING, THE ANTIBIOTIC IS SERIALLY DILUTED TO DETERMINE AT WHAT CONCENTRATION THE DRUG WILL BE EFFECTIVE; THE KIRBY-BAUER TEST DETERMINES THE POTENCY OF AN ANTIBIOTIC BY ESTABLISHING THE ZONE OF INHIBITION WHEN THE ANTIBIOTIC DIFFUSES INTO THE AGAR PLATE.
IF A GIVEN DRUG HAS A THERAPEUTIC INDEX OF ONE HINDRED THOUSAND, WOULD THAT BE CONSIDERED GOOD OR BAD? EXPLAIN.
A THERAPEUTIC INDEX OF ONE HUNDRED THOUSAND WOULD BE EXCELLENT. IT WOULD MEAN THAT THE DRUG COULD BE USED CLINICALLY THROUGHOUT A ONE-HUNDRED-THOUSANDFOLD RANGE.
WHAT IS A PORTAL OF ENTRY?
A PORTAL OF ENTRY IS THE SITE AT WHICH PATHOGENIC MICROBES GAIN ACCESS TO TISSUE THAT CAN BE INFECTED.
NAME SOME PORTALS OF ENTRY IN HUMANS.
SOME PORTALS OF ENTRY IN HUMANS INCLUDE THE MOUTH AND NOSE, THE GU TRACT, CUTS IN THE SKIN, MOSQUITO BITES THAT PENETRATE INTO THE BLOOD, AND THE PLACENTA.
DISTINGUISH THE SURVIVAL ABILITIES OF INTRACELLULAR AND EXTRCELLULAR PATHOGENS.
INTRACELLULAR PATHOGENS CAUSE INFECTION BECAUSE THE MICROBES HAVE DEVELOPED THE ABILITY TO ESCAPE PHAGOCYTIC KILLING MECHANISMS. EXTRACELLULAR PATHOGENS CAUSE INFECTION BY THEIR ABILITY TO REMAIN OUTSIDE OF PHAGOCYTIC CELLS.
DEFINE AND DISTINGUISH PRIMARY AND OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS.
PRIMARY PATHOGENS CAN INVADE AND INFECT HEALTHY HOSTS. OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS ARE NORMALLY NONPATHOGENS THAT CANNOT BE WARDED OFF BY INDIVIDUALS WHOSE IMMUNE SYSTEMS ARE COMPROMISED.
WHAT INDIVIDUALS ARE GENERALLY PREDISPOSED TO INFECTION WITH OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS?
TISSUE TRANSPLANT PATIENTS AND PEOPLE WITH IMMUNODEFICIENCIES (AIDS PATIENTS, FOR EXAMPLE) ARE OFTEN PREDISPOSED TO INFECTION WITH OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS.
DIFFERENTIATE A VIRULENT ORGANISM FROM A VIRULENCE FACTOR.
A VIRULENT ORGANISM IS ONE THAT CAUSES A DISEASE. VIRULENCE FACTORS ARE ENZYMES AND TOXINS THAT ALLOW AN ORGANISM TO EVADE THE HOST IMMUNE SYSTEM.
HOW DO THE CONCEPTS OF INFECTIOUS DOSE AND VIRULENCE DIFFER FROM EACH OTHER?
INFECTIOUS DOSE REFERS TO THE NUMBER OF BACTERIAL CELLS REQUIRED TO ESTABLISH INFECTION; VIRULENCE REFERS TO THE BACTERIUM'S ABILITY TO INFECT A HOST IN SPITE OF THE HOST'S DEFENSES.
GIVE TWO FACTORS THAT ALLOW DIFFERENT MICROBES TO ATTACH OR ADHERE TO TARGET CELLS.
FIMBRIAE AND LIPOTEICHOIC ACID OF GRAM-POSITIVE CELLS ARE FACTORS THAT ALLOW DIFFERENT MICROBES TO ATTACH OR ADHERE TO TARGET CELLS.
HOW DO ENDOTOXINS AND EXOTOXINS DIFFER?
ENDOTOXINS ARE RELEASED ONLY WHEN THE MICROBE IS DAMAGED OR LYSED. EXOTOXINS ARE PURPOSEFULLY SECRETED FROM THE MICROBE.
WHAT DOES BOTULINUM TOXIN DO?
AFTER IT IS EATEN IN FOOD, THE BOTULINUM TOXIN PENETRATES THE INTESTINAL WALL AND BLOCKS TRANSMISSION OF NERVE-MUSCLE SIGNALS.
WHAT KIND OF TOXIN IS "LPS" (LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE)? IN WHAT KIND OF BACTERIA DO YOU FIND "LPS"?
LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE IS AN ENDOTOXIN FOUND IN THE GRAM-NEGATIVE BACTERIAL LIPID A.
WHAT VIRULENT EFFECT DOES "LPS" HAVE ON IT'S HOST?
THE HOST RECOGNIZES LIPID A AND TRIES TO DESTROY THE INFECTION BY COOKING IT WITH HIGHER BODY TEMPERATURES (FEVER). IF THE HOST OVERREACTS, BRAIN DAMAGE, CARDIOVASCULAR SHOCK, AND HEMORRHAGING CAN OCCUR.
DESCRIBE AN EXOENZYME THAT FUNCTIONS IN VIRULENCE.
THE EXOENZYME HYALURONIDASE FUNCTIONS TO DESTROY HOST CONNECTIVE TISSUE, WHICH FACILITATES BACTERIAL SPREADING.
WHAT DO HEMOLYSINS DO?
HEMOLYSINS ARE TOXINS THAT CAUSE THE RED BLOOD CELLS TO LYSE SO THAT RED BLOOD CELL CONTENTS BECOME AAILABLE AS MICROBIAL NUTRIENT SOURCES.
DEFINE SYSTEMIC INFECTION.
INFECTION SPREAD VIA THE BLOOD OR LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS.
DEFINE FOCAL INFECTION.
INFECTION SPREAD FROM A SPECIFIC LOCALE.
DEFINE ACUTE INFECTION.
SEVERE INFECTION THAT BEGINS ABRUPTLY.
DEFINE CHRONIC INFECTION.
INFECTION THAT APPEARS GRADUALLY AND LASTS FOR AN EXTENDED PERIOD.
DEFINE SUBACUTE INFECTION.
INFECTION WITH INTERMEDIATE DURATION AND SYMPTOMS.
DEFINE PRIMARY INFECTION.
INFECTION CAUSED BY THE ORGANISM THAT INITIATED THE INFECTION.
DEFINE SECONDARY INFECTION.
INFECTION CAUSED BY A DIFFERENT ORGANISM THAN THE ONE THAT ESTABLISHED THE ORIGINAL PRIMARY INFECTION.
DEFINE SUBCLINICAL, ASYMPTOMATIC, OR INAPPARENT INFECTION.
INFECTION THAT, THOUGH PRESENT AND GROWING, DOES NOT MANIFEST SYPTOMS.
DEFINE ABSCESS.
DISCRETE INFECTION THAT BLOCKS THE ENTRY OF IMMUNE SYSTEM CELLS.
DEFINE BACTEREMIA.
BACTERIA IN THE BLOOD.
DEFINE SEPTICEMIA.
ACTIVELY GROWING BACTERIA IN THE BLOOD.
DEFINE VIREMIA.
VIRUS IN THE BLOOD.
DEFINE LEUKOCYTOSIS.
INCREASED NUMBER OF WHITE BLOOD CELLS.
DEFINE LEUKOPENIA.
DECREASED NUMBER OF WHITE BLOOD CELLS.
WHAT IS LATENCY?
LATENCY IS WHEN MICROBES PERSIST IN A DORMANT STATE, ALTHOUGH SYMPTOMS OF THE INFECTION SUBSIDE.
NAME SOME COMMON MICROBES THAT BECOME LATENT.
COMMON MICROBES THAT BECOME LATENT ARE TUBERCLE BACILLI, HERPES SIMPLEX, HIV, HEPATITIS B, AND EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUSES.
WHAT POTENTIAL DANGER DOES A CHRONIC CARRIER PRESENT TO OTHER PEOPLE?
BECAUSE THE CHRONIC CARRIER MAY BE ASYMPTOMATIC, HE MAY NOT KNOW THE DISEASE IS IN HIS SYSTEM AND CAN THEREFORE UNKNOWINGLY SPREAD THE DISEASE TO OTHERS.
WHAT ARE SEQUELAE?
SEQUELAE ARE SPECIFIC CONDITIONS THAT FOLLOW AN ILLNESS EPISODE, SUCH AS HEART VALVE DAMAGE AFTER A BOUT OF STREP SORE THROAT.
WHEN DO SEQUELAE OCCUR?
SEQUELAE OCCUR AFTER THE INITIAL INFECTION HAS RUN ITS COURSE.
WHAT IS THE CDC? WHAT DOES THE CDC PUBLISH?
CDC STANDS FOR THE CENTER FOR DISEASE CONTROL AND PREVENTION IN ATLANTA, GEORGIA. THE CDC PUBLISHES INFORMATION ABOUT NEW OUTBREAKS OF ILLNESSES, NEW PATHOGENS, AND HOW TO CONTROL AND PREVENT DISEASE IN THE MORBIDITY AND MORTATLITY WEEKLY REPORT.
WHY IS AN INFECTION CONTROL NURSE SO IMPORTANT?
AN INFECTION CONTROL NURSE IS IMPORTANT BECAUSE HE OR SHE ACTS TO IDENTIFY AND CONTROL THE SPREAD OF OUTBREAKS AS QUICKLY AS POSSIBLE.
WHAT IS COMMUNICABLE?
AN INFECTION PASSED FROM ONE HOST TO ANOTHER.
WHAT IS CONTAGIOUS?
A HIGHLY COMMUNCABLE INFECTION.
EXPLAIN TRANSMISSION (HORIZONTAL AND VERTICAL)
THE SPREAD OF DISEASE FROM ONE INDIVIDUAL TO ANOTHER (HORIZONTAL) OR FROM PARENT TO PROGENY (VERTICAL)
DEFINE FOMITE.
AN INANIMATE OBJECT FROM WHICH A MICROBE MAY BE CATRACTED.
DEFINE AEROSOLS.
MICROBE-CONTAINING DROPLETS RELEASED INTO THE AIR BY COUGHING OR SNEEZING.
DEFINE FECAL-ORAL ROUTE.
MICROBES LEFT ON THE HANDS AFTER DEFECATION/URINATION, SUBSEQUENTLY TRANSMITTED TO FOOD OR OTHER OBJECTS HAVING ORAL CONTACT; OR ANY FECAL CONTAMINATION OF FOOD OR WATER.
WHICH LINE OF DEFENSE PROVIDES SPECIFICITY AND LONG-TERM IMMUNITY?
ACQUIRED IMMUNITY PROVIDES SPECIFICITY AND LING-TERM IMMUNITY.
LIST SEVEN NATURAL PHYSICAL BARRIERS TO INFECTION.
(1)SKIN; (2)MUCUS; (3)CILIATED EPITHELIAL CELLS;
(4)FLUID FLOW (TEARS,SWEAT,SALIVA,URINE); (5)ACIDITY IN THE GI TRACT;
(6) UREA; (7)INTERFERONS.
LIST FIVE SPECIFIC FACTORS OF THE BADY'S NATURAL IMMUNITY THAT REDUCE INFECTION AND EXPLAIN HOW THEY REDUCE INFECTION.
FIVE SPECIFIC ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS OF THE BODY THAT ARE ADAPTED TO REDUCE INFECTION ARE MUCUS(TRAPS AIRBORNE MICROBES), FLUID FLOW(FLUSHES OUT PATHOGENS), GI TRACT(ACID KILLS MICROBES), BODILY SECRETIONS CONTAINING LYSOZYME(DEGRADES BACTERIAL CELL WALLS), AND IRON-BINDING PROTEINS (PREVENT ADEQUATE NUTRITION TO THE BACTERIA).
WHERE IS LYSOZYME FOUND AND WHAT DOES IT DO?
LYSOZYME IS FOUND IN ALL BODILY SECRETIONS. IT DEGRADES BACTERIAL CELL WALLS.
HOW DOES COMPLEMENT KILL MICROBES?
THE COMPLEMENT PROTEINS CIRCULATE THROUGH THE BODY AND BIND TO BACTERIAL-BOUND ANTIBODIES OR TO BACTERIAL POLYSACCHARIDES TO FORM THE MEMBRANE ATTACK COMPLEX (C6-C7-C8-C9), WHICH PRODUCES PORES IN THE BACTERIAL MEMBRANE, ALLOWING LEAKAGE AND LYSIS OF THE MICROBE.
WHAT ARE THE FUNCTIONS OF C3A AND C5A?
C3A AND C5A ARE CHEMOTACTIC FACTORS THAT RECRUIT PHAGOCYTIC CELLS TO THE SITE OF INFECTION.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF POLYMORPHONUCLEAR LEUKOCYTES (PMNs), OR NEUTROPHILS?
THE FUNCTION OF PMNs, OR NEUTROPHILS, IS TO ENGULF AND DIGEST FOREIGN MATTER.
HOW ABUNDANT ARE PMNs?
PMNs COMPRISE 55% OF ALL WHITE BLOOD CELLS.
WHAT DO PMNs AND MACROPHAGES BOTH HAVE RECEPTORS FOR?
PMNs AND MACROPHAGES BOTH HAVE RECEPTORS OF IgG ANTIBODIES AND THE C3B COMPONENT OF COMPLEMENT.
LIST SOME THINGS THAT INHIBIT PHAGOCYTES.
LOW pH ENVIRONMENTS, POORLY OXYGENTATED TISSUE, AND FLUID-FILLED SPACES INHIBIT PHAGOCYTES.
WHAT HOST RESPONSE DO BASOPHILS AND MAST CELLS STIMULATE?
BASOPHILS AND MAST CELLS STIMULATE INFLAMMATION.
WHAT AGENTS DO EOSINOPHILS HELP FIGHT?
EOSINOPHILS RELEASE TOXINS THAT FIGHT ORGANISMS THAT ARE TOO LARGE FOR PHAGOCYTES TO INGEST, SUCH AS WORMS.
WHAT IS AN ANTIGEN?
AN ANTIGEN IS USUALLY A PROTEIN OR POLYSACCHARIDE THAT IS RECOGNIZED BY THE BODY AS FOREIGN MATTER.
WHAT IS AN EPITOPE?
AN EPITOPE IS A PART OF AN Ag THAT ACTUALLY BINDS TO AND Ab.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF B CELLS? WHAT IS THE SPECIALIZED, SECRETING PROGENY CELL CALLED?
B CELLS PRODUCE ANTIBODIES. THE SPECIALIZED, SECRETING PROGENY CELL IS A PLASMA CELL.
HOW MUCH TIME IS REQUIRED TO PRODUCE Ab?
SEVEN TO TEN DAYS ARE REQUIRED TO PRODUCE Abs.
WHAT OTHER CELL TYPE, BESIDES THE PLASMA CELL, RESULTS FROM B CELL PROLIFERATION? WHAT IS ITS FUNCTION?
MEMORY B CELLS ALSO RESULT FROM B CELL PROLIFERATION. THEIR FUNCTION IS TO PROVIDE A QUICK RESPONSE TO A FUTURE Ag EXPOSURE BY PROODUCING Abs AGAINST THAT Ag.
WHAT DOES A Th CELL CAUSE TO HAPPEN TO MANY IMMUNE CELLS?
THE Th CELL CAUSES THE PROLIFERATION OF MANY IMMUNE CELLS.
WHERE DO B AND T CELLS MATURE?
B CELLS MATURE IN THE BONE MARROW, T CELLS IN THE THYMUS.
WHAT THREE CELL TYPES ARE REQUIRED FOR AN ACQUIRED IMMUNE RESPONSE, AND WHAT CELLS SECRETE THEM?
THE THREE CELL TYPES REQUIRED FOR AN ACQUIRED IMMUNE RESPONSE ARE THE ANTIGEN-PRESENTING CELL (APC), THE T HELPER (Th) CELL, AND A B OR T CELL THAT IS STIMULATED TO PROLFERATE.
WHAT TWO CYTOKINES ARE REQUIRED FOR AN ACQUIRED IMMUNE RESPONSE, AND WHAT CELLS SECRETE THEM?
THE CYTOKINES IL1 (INTERLEUKIN 1) AND IL2 (INTERLEUKIN 2) ARE REQUIRED FOR AN ACQUIRED IMMUNE RESPONSE. IL1 IS SECRETED BY THE APC AND IL2 IS SECRETED BY THE Th CELL.
WHAT CELLS ARE NOT STIMULATED WHEN A T-INDEPENDENT ANTIGEN (SUCH AS A POLYSACCHARIDE) IS DETECTED BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM?
Th CELLS ARE NOT STIMULATED WHEN A T-INDEPENDENT ANTIGEN (SUCH AS A POLYSACCHARIDE) IS DETECTED BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM, AND THUS NO MEMORY CELLS ARE FORMED.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF A PLASMA CELL?
THE PURPOSE OF A PLASMA CELL IS TO PRODUCE ANTIBODIES THAT RECOGNIZE AND BIND TO SPECIFIC ANTIGENS.
HOW MANY Ag BINDING SITES DOES IgG HAVE? SECRETORY IgA (sIgA)?
IgG HAS TWO Ag BINDING SITES; IgM HAS TEN; sIg HAS FOUR.
WHICH Ab CLASS HAS THE LONGEST HALF-LIFE?
IgG HAS THE LONGEST HALF-LIFE: TWENTY-ONE DAYS.
WHICH Ab CLASSES OPSONIZE Ags?
IgG AND IgM OPSONIZE Ags.
HOW DO Abs FIX COMPLEMENT?
Abs IgG AND IgM FIX COMPLEMENT; WHEN THEY BIND TO A PATHOGEN, A C3 BINDING SITE IS EXPOSED SO THAT COMPLEMENT BEGINS ITS CASCADE OF PROTEIN BINDING.
WHY DO WE RESIST A SECOND ROUND OF INFECTION WITH THE THREE-DAY MEASLES VIRUS.
WE RESIST A SECOND ROUND OF INFECTION BECAUSE IN A SECOND INFECTION, THE VIRION ARE DESTROYED BY B CELLS AND T CELLS THAT RECOGNIZE THE BIRUS'S Ags BEFOR THE DISEASE BACOMES SYMPTOMATIC.
WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ACTIVE AND PASSIVE IMMUNITY?
ACTIVE IMMUNITY INDUCES THE IMMUNE SYSTEM INTO A PROTECTIVE STATE BY INTRODUCING A WEAKENED OR KILLED MICROBE BEFORE EXPOSURE TO THE VIRULAENT MICROBES OCCURS. PASSIVE IMMUNITY INTRODUCES SPECIFIC ANTIBODIES FROM ONE HOST TO ANOTHER RECENTLY EXPOSED INDIVIDUAL. NO LONG-TERM IMMUNITY OCCURS BECAUSE THE INDIVIDUAL'S IMMUNE SYSTEM IS NOT STIMULATED, AND THE Abs ARE SLOWLY DEGRADED.
SMALL Ab:Ag COMPLEXES CAN GIVE RISE TO WHAT TYPES OF DISEASE?
SMALL Ab:Ag COMPLEXES CAN GIVE RISE TO ARTHRITIS, VASCULITIS, GLOMERULONEPHRITIS, AND OTHER IMMUNE COMPLEX DISEASES.
WHAT IS AN ALLERGEN?
AN ALLERGEN IS A SUBSTANCE THAT PROVOKES AN ALLERGIC RESPONSE BY INDUCING IgE PRODUCTION.
WHY DOESN'T A PERSON HAVE AN ALLERGIC RESPONSE DURING THE FIRST EXPOSURE TO AN ALLERGEN?
A PERSON DOESN'T HAVE AN ALLERGIC RESPONSE DURING THE FIRST EXPOSURE TO AN ALLERGEN BECAUSE THE FIRST EXPOSURE RESULTS IN THE PRODUCTION OF IgM. IN SUBSEQUENT EXPOSURE, THE EXPRESSION OF Ab CLASSES MAY SWITCH TO THE PRODUCTION OF IgE, WHICH THEN BINDS TO MAST CELLS AND BASOPHILS TO MAKE THEM SENSITIZED.
WHAT DOES HUMORAL IMMUNITY REFER TO?
HUMORAL IMMUNITY REFERS TO Abs.
WHY IS A DELAYED-TYPE HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION HARD TO THE TOUCH?
A DELAYED-TYPE HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION IS HARD OT THE TOUCH BECAUSE IT TIGHTLY PACKED WITH IMMUNE CELLS.
BRIEFLY DESCRIBE THE MECHANISMS FOR THE FOUR TYPES OF HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS.
THE MECHANISM FOR THE 4 TYPES OF HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTIONS ARE AS FOLLOWS:
(1) TYPE I: ALLERGENS BIND TO IgE Ab ON MAST CELLS AND BASOPHILS THAT RELEASE HISTAMINE.
(2) TYPE II: Abs IN THE HOST BIND TO HOST Ags, FIX COMPLEMENT, AND OPSONIZE THE Ags SO THAT COMPLEMENT AND PHAGOCYTES DESTROY THE Ags.
(3)TYPE III:SMALL COMPLEXES OF Ab:Ag FORM AND ARE FILTERED OUT IN THE KIDNEY OR STICK TO HOST TISSUE WHERE PHAGOCYTIC CELLS ATTACK THE WHOLE COMPLEX TISSUE AREAS.
(4)TYPE IV: T CELLS, ESPECIALLY Tc CELLS ARE RECRUITED TO THE SITE BY FOREIGN Ags. THE Tc CELLS RELEASE TOXIC CHEMICALS IN THE AREA.
DEFINE BRUTON'S DISEASE.
IN BRUTON'S DISEASE THE PATIENT MAKES NO B CELLS.
DiGEORGE SYNDROME.
IN DiGEORGE SYNDROME, T-CELLS DO NOT FORM DUE TO FAILED THYMUS.
SEVERE COMBINED IMMUNODEFICIENCY.
IN SEVERE COMBINED IMMUNODEFICIENCY, THE STEM CELLS IN THE BONE MARROW DO NOT PRODUCE B OR T CELLS.
ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY.
IN ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY, THE VIRUS KILLS THE Th CELLS THAT CONTROL NEARLY ALL OTHER IMMUNE RESPONSES.
LIST FIVE AUTOIMMUNE DISEASES.
(1)RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
(2)INSULIN-DEPENDENT DIABETES MELLITUS
(3)SYSTEMIC LUPOS ERYTHEMATOSUS
(4)MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
(5)MYASTHENIA GRAVIS.
HOW IS TB TRANSMITTED?
TB IS TRANSMITTED VIA RESPIROTORY DROPLETS.
WHAT DOES A POSITVE MANTOUX INDICATE?
A POSITIVE MANTOUX OR TIME TEST INDICATES TB INFECTED THE PERSON AT SOME TIME.
HOW TB TREATMENT CHANGED?
TB TREATMENT NOW REQUIRES ANTIBACTERIAL SUSCEPTIBILITY TESTING TO FIND EFFECTIVE DRUGS. TREATMENT IS USUALLY WITH TRIPLE ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY FOR SIX MONTHS TO TWO YEARS.
DESCRIBE THE PSEUDOMEMBRANE CAUSED BY DIPTHERIA.
THE PSEUDOMEMBRANE, WHICH FORMS IN THE PHARYNX, CAN CAUSE ASPHYXIATION. IT SHOULD NOT BE REMOVED BECAUSE OF THE RISK OF BLEEDING TO DEATH.
WHAT IS UNUSUAL ABOUT THE MORPHOLOGY OF "BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS"?
"BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS" IS A COCCOBACILLUS.
WHO IS SUSCEPTIBLE TO PERTUSSIS?
YOUNG CHILDREN ARE MOST SUSCEPTIBLE TO PERTUSSIS.
HOW IS PERTUSSIS RECOGNIZED?
PERTUSSIS CAN BE RECOGNIZED BY THE PAROZYSMAL SOUND WHEN COUGHING STOPS LONG ENOUGH FOR INSPIRATION.
WHAT DOES A PAROXYSM CAUSE?
A PAROXYSM CAUSES THE WHOOPING SOUND THAT OCCURS WHEN COUGHING MUST STOP FOR OXYGEN REPLACEMENT BY A STRESSFUL INSPIRATION.
WHAT TWO SYSTEMS ARE USED TO CLASSIFY THE STREPTOCOCCI?
TWO SYSTEMS USED TO CLASSIFY THE STREPTOCOCCI ARE LANCEFIELD'S C CARBOHYDRATE GROUPING (A,B,C,ETC.) AND BY HEMOLYSIS TYPE.
WHAT ARE THE COMMON, SIGNIFICANT SITES OF HUMAN INFECTION BY THE STREPTOCOCCI?
THE COMMON, SIGNIFICANT SITES OF HUMAN STREPTOCOCCAL INFECTION ARE THROAT, ORAL CAVITIES, VAGINA, AND INTESTINES.
IN WHAT RELATIVELY NEW SITE IS GROUP B STREP (STREP AGALACTIAE) FOUND TODAY?
GROUP B STREP IS NOW FOUND IN THE HUMAN VAGINAL TRACT.
WHICH PEOLPLE ARE AT RISK FOR WHICH DISEASES FROM GROUP B STREP?
NEWBORNS ARE AT RISK FOR SEPTICEMIA AND MENINGITIS FROM GROUP B STREP.
WHAT COLOR WILL VIRIDANS STREP PRODUCE ON BLOOD AGAR? WHAT PARTICULAR DISEASE DOES VIRIDANS STREP CAUSE?
VIRIDANS STREP WILL PRODUCE A GREENISH TINGE ON BLOOD AGAR. VIRIDANS STREP CAUSES SUBACUTE ENDOCARDITIS.
WHAT CHEMICAL COMPONENT OF THE CELL WALL IS USED TO DIFFERENTIATE THE ABOVE STREPTOCOCCI?
C CARBOHYDRATE IS USED TO DIFFERENTIATE STREPTOCOCCI.
WHAT RELATION DOES THE PNEUMOCOCCAL (STREP. PNEUMONIAE) CAPSULE HAVE TO:
(1) VIRULENCE
(2) NUMBER OF TIMES AN INDIVIDUAL CAN ACQUIRE PNEUMOCOCCAL PHEUMONIA.
(1) VIRULENCE: ONLY ENCAPSULATED STRAINS ARE VIRULENT.
(2) NINETY TIMES BECAUSE THERE ARE NINETY SEROVARS.
WHAT IS THE EPIDEMIOLOGY AND PATHOLOGY OF THE PNEUMOCOCCUS?
PNEUMOCOCCUS IS SPREAD FROM HUMAN TO HUMAN. INFECTIONS CAUSE A PUS-LIKE EXUDATE AND FLUID ACCUMULATION IN TEH LUNGS. X-RAYS AND RUSTY SPUTUM HELP IN DIAGNOSIS. DEATH BY DROWNING OCCURS, SINCE THE LINGS FILL WITH FLUID.
HOW SHOULD INFECTION WITH THE PNEUMOCOCCUS BE PREVENTED?
INFECTION CAN BE PREVENTED WITH PNEUMOVAX(VACCINE), BUT IMMUNITY LASTS ONLY FIVE YEARS. BOOSTER SHOTS ARE RECOMMENDED IF NO HYPERSENSITIVITY DEVELOPS.
LIST TWO CHARACTERISTICS ABOUT "MYCOPLASMA" CELL ENVELOPES.
TWO UNUSUAL CHARACTERISTICS ABOUT MYCOPLASMA CELL ENVELOPES ARE THAT THE CELL HAS NO CELL WALL (PEPTIDOGLYCAN LAYER) AND MEMBRANES THAT CONTAIN STEROLS.
DESCRIBE HOW TO DIAGNOSE THE DISEASE CAUSED BY MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE.
THE BEST DIAGNOSIS FOR MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE IS TO OBSERVE INCREASING TITERS OF COLD AGGLUTININS THAT CAUSE RBC AGGLUTINATION AT REFRIGERATOR TEMPERATURES.
DESCRIBE THE SOURCE, SYMPTOMS, AND AT-RISK INDIVUALS FOR LEGIONELLOSIS. ON WHAT DOES LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA USUALLY FEED?
SOURCES FOR LEGIONELLOSIS ARE AEROLOLS FROM LAKES, STREAMS, AND COOLING TOWERS. THE SYMPTOMS INCLUDE RESPIRATORY DISTRESS. INDIVIDUALS AT RISK ARE HEAVY SMOKERS AND DRINKERS. LEFIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA USUALLY FEED ON AMOEBAE.
HOW DO CONTACTS OF MENINGITIS PATIENTS PROTECT THEMSELVES?
HEALTH-CARE WORKERS AND FAMILY CONTACTS ARE AR RISK TO ACQUIRE MENINGITIS FROM PATIENTS AND NEED PROPHYLACTIC TREATMENT WITH RIFAMPIN.
WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MENINGITIS?
THE MOST COMMON CAUSE IN HEMOPHILUS INFLUENZE. THE ORGANISM WAS INITIALLY ISOLATED FROM A FLU PATIENT, HENCE THE INFLUENZA MISNOMER IN THE NAME. THIS GRAM-NEGATIVE, PLEOMORPHIC, ROD-SHAPED, AEROBIC ORGANISM REQUUIRES CARBON DIOXIDE AND SOME VITAMINS TO GROW. UNTREATED H.INFLUENZAE IN 90 PERCENT FATAL, AND, EVEN WITH IMMEDIATE TREATMENT, ONE-THIRD OF ALL PATIENTS HAVE PERMANENT MENTAL DAMAGE.
HOW SOON DOES TREATMENT OF MININGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS NEED TO START?
TREATMENT OF MENINGOCOCCAL MENINGITIS NEEDS TO START IMMEDIATLEY.
HOW ARE C.PNEUMONIAE CULTURED?
C. PNEUMONIAE CANNOT BE GROWN ON BACTERIAL MEDIA BUT MUST BE GROWN INSIDE OF HUMAN CELLS IN CULTUE. THEY CANNOT PRODUCE THEIR OWN ATP AND MUST ACQUIRE IT FROM THE HOST CELL; HENCE, THEY ARE OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR PATHOGENS.
WHAT IS THE PRINCIPAL CAUSE OF THE COMMON COLD?
THE PRINCIPAL CAUSE OF THE COMMON COLD IS RHINOVIRUSES
IF YOU HAVE 113 BOUTS OF RHINOVIRUS, WILL YOU BE IMMUNE FOR THE REST OF YOUR LIFE?
NO, THE IMMUNITY LASTS ONLY ONE YEAR.
WHAT IS THE MAJOR SITE OF INFECTION FOR ADENOVIRUSES?
THE MAJOR SITE OF INFECTION FOR ADENOVIRUSES IS THE UPPER RESPIRATORY TRACT.
HOW MANY ADENOVIRAL INFECTIONS CAN AN INDIVIDUAL EXPERIENCE?
AN INDIVIDUAL CAN EXPERIENCE AT LEAST FIFTY ADENOVIRAL INFECTIONS.
WHAT ARE THE TWO SURFACE VIRULENCE PROTEINS OF THE INFLUENZA VIRUS?
THE TWO SURFACE VIRULENCE PROTEINS OF THE INFLUENZA VIRUS ARE NEURAMINIDASE AND HEMAGGLUTININ.
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF NEURAMINIDASE AND HEMAGGLUTININ IN THE ESTABLISHMENT OF INFECTION?
NEURAMINIDASE BREAKS DOWN THE PROTECTIVE MUCOUS LAYER THAT LINES THE THROAT; HEMAGGLUTININ ATTACHES TO THE CILIATED EPITHELIAL CELLS IN THE THROAT SO THAT THE VIRUS CAN ENTER AND KILL THE CELLS.
DEFINE PANDEMIC.
PANDEMIC IS A WORLDWIDE EPIDEMIC.
DEFINE ANTIGENIC DRIFT.
ANTIGENIC DRIFT IS A MUTATIONAL CHANGE IN THE HEMAGGLUTININ AND NEURAMINIDASE GENES.
DEFINE ANTIGENIC SHIFT.
ANTIGENIC SHIFT IS A COMPLETE HEMAGGLUTININ GENE CHANGE.
WHAT IS THE CAUSE OF DEATH IN THOSE WHO HAVE INFLUENZA?
THE CAUSE OF DEATH IN THOSE WHO HAVE INFLUENZA IS SECONDARY BACTERIAL PNEUMONIA.
HOW DO AMANTADINE,RIBAVIRIN, AND ZANAMIVIR FUNCTION?
AMANTADINE, REBAVIRIN, AND ZANAMIVIR INHIBIT UNCOATING, VIRAL RNA REPLICATION, AND NEURAMINIDASE, RESPECTIVELY.
WHAT IS THE OVERALL EFFECTIVENESS OF INFLUENZA VACCINES?
THE OVERALL EFFECTIVENESS OF INFLUENZA VACCINES IS 70 TO 80 PERCENT, AND THEY SAVE MANY LIVES.
DEFINE PAROTITIS
PAROTITIS IS INFLAMMATION OF THE PAROTID (SALIVARY) GLANDS CAUSED BY MUMPS VIRUS
DEFINE ORCHITIS
ORCHITIS IS INFLAMMATION OF THE TESTES CAUSED BY MUMPS VIRUS.
WHAT TWO DISEASES ARE CAUSED BY VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS, AND HOW ARE THEY TRANSMITTED?
TWO DISEASES CAUSED BY VARICELLA-ZOSTER VIRUS ARE CHICKEN POX AND SHINGLES. CHICKEN POX IS TRANSMITTED VIA DROPLETS FROM THE RESPIRATORY TRACT. SHINGLES IS LATENT AND OCCURS WHEN THE ENDOGENOUS VIRUSES ARE REACTIVATED.
WHO IS AT RISK FOR RUBELLA VIRUS?
A FETUS, ESPECIALLY DURING THE FIRST TRIMESTER, IS AT RISK FOR RUBELLA VIRUS.
WHO IS GIVEN RUBELLA VACCINE?
THE GENERAL POPULATION IS GIVEN RUBELLA VACCINE TO PROTECT THE UNBORN.
WHAT IS MMR?
MMR IS A SINGLE DOSE VACCINE FOR MUMPS, MEASLES, AND RUBELLA.
WHAT IS AN ALTERNATIVE NAME FOR MEASLES?
SEVEN-DAY MEASLES.
WHAT IS AN ALTERNATIVE NAME FOR RUBELLA?
THREE-DAY MEASLES OR GERMAN MEASLES.
WHO IS AT RISK FOR RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS (RSV)?
INFANTS AND YOUNG CHILDREN ARE AT RISK FOR RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS.
WHAT NEEDS TO BE DONE WHEN AND RSV CASE APPEARS IN A NEONATAL WARD:
INFECTED CHILDREN SHOULD BE ISOLATED AND TREATED WITH RIBAVIRIN VIA A RESPIRATOR. HEALTH-CARE WORKERS SHOULD WEAR PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT.
WHAT TWO TISSUE TYPES ARE PREDOMINATELY INFECTED BY POLIOVIRUS?
TWO TISSUE TYPES PREDOMINATELY INFECTED BY POLIOVIRUS ARE THE ALIMENTARY CANAL AND NEURONS IN THE SPINAL COLUMN.
HOW DO WE PREVENT PARALYTIC POLIO?
WE PREVENT PARALYTIC POLIO BY VACCINATION WITH THE SALK(KILLED VIRUS) AND SABIN(LIVE-ATTENUATED VIRUS) VACCINES.
LIST THE MAIN AREAS OF THE BODY INFECTED BY THE YEAST FILOBASIDIELLA NEOFOMANS.
THE YEAST FILOBASIDIELLA NEOFOMANS INFECTS THE LUNGS AND THE MEMBRANES OF THE BRAIN.
LIST THREE DIMORPHIC FUNGI WITH THEIR SITES OF INFECTION.
THREE DIMORPHIC FUNGI AND THEIR SITES OF INFECTION ARE HISTOPLASMA CAPSULATIUM, LUNGS; BLASTOMYCES DERMATITIDIS, PULMONARY INFECTIONS; AND COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS, PULMONARY AND MENINGEAL REGIONS.
WHAT IS THERMAL DIMORPHISM?
THERMAL DIMORPHISM REFERS TO CERTAIN FUNGI THAT GROW IN COOL ENVIRONMENTS, AS MOLDS. AS TEMPERATURES RISE TO 37 DEGREES CELSIUS, THEY GROM AS YEASTS.
HOW CAN ASPERGILLUS AND THE PHYCOMYCETES BE DISTINGUISHED BY LOOKING AT THEIR HYPHAE?
ASPERGILLUS PRODUCES SEPTATE HYPHAE, WHILE THE PHYCOMYCETES PRODUCE ASEPTATE HYPHAE.
WHAT TYPES OF PEOPLE ARE INFECTED WITH PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII? WHO GETS PNEUMOCYSTOSIS?
ANY PERSON CAN BE INFECTED WITH PNEUMOCYSTIS CARINII. IMMUNOCOMPROMISED PEOPLE LIKE AIDS PATIENTS GET PNEUMOCYSTOSIS.
WHAT IS THE TRANSMISSION MODE OF CHOLERA?
CHOLERA IS TRANSMITTED BY UNTREATED WATER AS WELL AS BY FECAL-ORAL SPREAD.
WHAT PHYSIOLOGICAL REACTION DOES CHOLERAGEN AFFECT?
CHOLERAGEN CAUSES A MASSIVE LOSS OF ELECTROLYTES.
WHAT NOTABLE DIFFERENTIATING CHARACTERISTIC DOES SHIGELLOSIS HAVE COMPARED TO SALMONELLOSIS?
UNLIKE SALMONELLOSIS, A SYMPTOM OF SHIGELLOSIS IS BLOODY DIARRHEA WITH A RASPBERRY JAM STOOL.
WHAT IS "EMB" AGAR USED FOR?
"EMB" AGARS ARE USED TO CULTURE COLIFORMS TO TRACE THE OCCURRENCE OF FECAL CONTAMINATION IN WATER (WELL WATER) AND OTHER FOOD SOURCES.
DESCRIBE THE ETIOLOGY AND SYMPTOMATOLOGY OF:
INFANTILE DIARRHEA.
INFANTILE DIARRHEA IS CAUSED BY A LOCAL STRAIN OF E. COLI. TRANSMISSION IS FECAL-ORAL, AND SYMPTOMS INCLUDE DIARRHEA.
DESCRIBE THE ETIOLOGY AND SYMPTOMATOLOGY OF:
TRAVELER'S DIARRHEA
TRAVELER'S DIARRHEA OCCURS WHEN PEOPLE ENCOUNTER E COLI WITH A NEW ENTEROTOXIN THAT THEY HAVE NEVER BEEN EXPOSED TO. A SYMPTOM OF THE DISEASE IS DIARRHEA.
DESCRIBE THE ETIOLOGY AND SYMPTOMATOLOGY OF:
CYSTITIS AND BACTERIURIA.
E.COLI CAUSES SYSTITIS OR BACTERIURIA, AND SYPTOMS INCLUDE HIGH FREQUENCY OF URINATION WITH PAIN.
GIVE THE NAME OF THE ORGANISM, ETIOLOGY, AND DISEASE CHARACTERISTICS OF TYPHOID FEVER.
TYPHOID FEVER IS CAUSED BY SOLMONELLA TYPHI. IT IS SPREAD BY CHRONIC CARRIERS WHO USE INADEQUATE HYGIENE PROCEDURES. SYMPTOMS INCLUDE INTESTINAL ULCERS, BLOODY DIARRHEA, ROSE SPOTS, AND STEPLADDER FEVER.
HOW LONG CAN CARRIERS SPREAD SALMONELLA TYPHI?
CARRIERS MAY SPREAD SALMONELLA TYPHI THROUGHOUT A LIFETIME.
COMPARE SALMONELLOSIS WITH TYPHOID FEVER.
SOLMONELLOSIS IS MUCH LESS SEVER THAN TYPHOID. IT IS NOTABLE THAT THE ORGANISMS ARE OFTEN TRANSMITTED FROM REPTILES, SUCH AS TURTLES. SALMONELLOSIS IS ALSO ASSOCIATED WITH RAW EGGS, POULTRY, RAW MILK, AND MAYONNAISE. BECAUSE SALMONELLA GROW IN CHICKENS AND OTHR LIVESTOCK, CONTAMINATION OF MEAT IS FREQUENT. TYPHOID FEVER PRESENTS WITH INTESTINAL ULCERATIONS WITH BLOODY STOOLS; BACTEREMIA DEVELOPS WITH RESULTANT SKIN HEMORRHAGES CALLED ROSE SPOTS AND A STEPLADDER FEVER THAT GOES UP AND DOWN EACH DAY. SALMONELLOSIS SPREADS FROM SYMPTOMATIC, AS WELL AS ASYMPTOMATIC, CHRONIC CARRIERS WHO FAIL TO WASH ADEQUATELY.
HELICOBACTER PYLORI IS ASSOCIATED WITH WHAT DISEASE?
H. PYLORI CAUSES GASTRITIT (INFLAMMATION OF THE STOMACH) IN OTHERWISE HEALTHY INDIVIDUALS. IT IS STRONGLY ASSOCIATED WITH ABOUT 90 PERCENT OF GASTRIC ULCERS AND GASTRIC CANCER.
HOW DO PEOPLE GET BOTULISM?
PEOPLE GET BOTULISM BY EATING CANNED FOODS THAT HAVE NOT BEEN ADEQUATELY HEATED TO KILL THE SPORES.
HOW DOES SPORULATION HELP CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM IN SURVIVAL AND DISEASE TRANSMISSION?
THESE ORGANISMS CAN SURVIVE BOILING, FREEZING, AND DROUGHT AND REMAIN VIABLE IN THE SOIL FOR HUNDREDS OF YEARS.
HOW DO HEPATITIS VIRUSES CAUSE JAUNDICE?
THE HEPATITIS VIRUSES DAMAGE THE LIVER SO THAT HEMOGLOBIN BREAKDOWN BY HEPATOCYTES IS INTERRUPTED AT THE BILIRUBIN STAGE. THE YELLOW BILIRUBIN THEN BUILDS UP IN THE BLOOD TO PRODUCE JAUNDICE.
WHAT TREATMENTS DO PEOPLE POTENTIALLY EXPOSED TO HAV UNDERGO?
PEOPLE POTENTIALLY EXPOSED TO HAV RECEIVE HEPATITIS A IMMUNE GLUBULIN, WHICH CONTAINS THE IMMUNOGLOBULIN PROTEINS FROM THE BLOOD OF PEOPLE WHO HAVE RECOVERED FROM A HEPATITIS A INFECTION.
LIST POSSIBLE DISEASES CAUSED BY THE COXSACKIE VIRUS.
THE COXSACKIE VIRUS CAN CAUSE GASTRENTERITIS, ASEPTIC MENINGITIS, HERPANGINA, PLEURODYNIA, AND MYOCARDITIS. THE B4 STRAIN IS ALSO ASSOCIATED WITH DIABETES.
LIST THREE PROTOZOANS THAT CAUSE INTESTINAL TRACT INFECTIONS.
THREE PROTOZOANS THAT CAUSE INTESTINAL TRACT INFECTION ARE GIARDIA LAMBLIA, ENTAMOEBA HISTOLYTICA, AND CRYPTOSPORIDIUM PARVUM.
WHAT IS THE DEFINITIVE HOST OF A HELMINTH?
THE DEFINITIVE HOST OF A HELMINTH IS THE HOST IN WHICH THE SEXUALLY MATURE FORM GROWS.
WHAT ARE THE TWO PHYSIOLOGICAL COMPONENTS (AND THEIR FUNCTIONS) OF A TAPEWORM?
THE TWO PHYSIOLOGICAL COMPONENTS OF A TAPEWORM ARE THE SCOLES, THE HEAD WITH A SUCKER OR HOOKS FOR ATTACHMENT, AND THE PROGLOTTIDS, WHICH ARE UTERI THAT FILL WITH EGGS.
HOW IS TAENIA SAGINATA ACQUIRED?
TAENIA SAGINATA ARE ACQUIRED BY EATING TAPEWORM CYSTS IN UNDERCOOKED BEEF.
DESCRIBE PINWORM (ENTEROBIUS VERMICULARIS) SPREAD AND DETECTION.
PINWORM SPREAD IS A RESULT OF SCRATCHING THE ANUS WHERE THE EGGS ARE LAID. DETECTION IS BY USING CELLOPHONE TAPE THAT IS PRESSED AGAINST THE ANAL AREA AND THEN OBSERVED MICROSCOPICALLY.
DESCRIBE THE CIRCUITOUS ROUTE OF ASCARIS.
THE EGGS OF ASCARIS DEVELOP INTO LARVAE ON PLANTS. THEY ARE EATEN AND SWALLOWED, THEN PENETRATE THE INTESTINAL WALLS AND PASS THROUGH THE LYPH AND LUNG TO BE COUGHED UP AND SWALLOWED AGAIN TO REINFECT THE INTESTINAL TRACT. EGGS ARE PASSED OUT WITH THE FECES AND CONTAMINATE PLANTS TO COMPLETE THE CYCLE.
WHAT IS THE RESERVOIR OF THE NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE?
HUMANS ARE THE SONLY SOURCE OF THE NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE.
WHAT ARE THE GRAM REACTIVITY AND MORPHOLOGY OF NEISSERIA?
THE BEAN-SHAPED PAIRS OF COCCI OF NEISSERIA ARE GRAM-NEGATIVE.
HOW IS GONORRHEA DIAGNOSED?
GONORRHEA IS DOAGNOSED AS INFECTION WITH OXIDASE-POSITIVE, GRAM-NEGATIVE DIPLOCOCCI FROM A URETHRAL EXUDATE AND THE SPECIES CONFIRMED BY SUGAR FERMENTATION TESTS.
HOW IS GONORRHEA TREATED AND PREVENTED?
GONORRHEA IS TREATED WITH PENICILLIN OR CEPHTRIAXONE. THE RISK FOR GONORRHEA DECREASES WITH THE USE OF CONDOMS. THERE IS NO VACCINE.
HOW DOES N. GONNORRHOEAE OVERCOME THE FLUSHING MECHANISM PRODUCED BY URINE FLOW?
N. GONORRHOEAE OVERCOMES THE FLUSHING MECHANISM PRODUCED BY URINE FLOW THROUGH THE USE OF PILI HOLDFASTS.
DESCRIBE THE SHAPE, MOTILITY, AND TRANSMISSION OF TREPONEMA PALLIDUM.
TREPONEMA PALLIDUM IS COILED, SPIRAL-SHAPED; HIGHLY MOTILE; AND SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED.
DESCRIBE THE PRIMARY STAGE OF SYPHILIS.
PATIEN EXHIBITS A CHANCRE FULL OR ORGANISMS.
DESCRIBE THE SECONDARY STAGE OF SYPHILIS.
A RASH APPEARS ON PALMS AND FEET (OR OTHER PLACES) WITH FLUID THAT IS FULL OF ORGANISMS.
DESCRIBE THE TERTIARY STAGE OF SYPHILIS.
YEARS AFTER THE INITIAL INFECTION, THE PATIENT SUFFERS FROM A GUMMA, WHICH IS CHARACTERIZED BY DESTRUCTION OF SOFT TISSUE OF THE BONE, HEART, BRAIN, INTERNAL VISCERA, EYE DAMAGE, AND SPEECH DEFECTS.
HOW IS SYPHILIS TREATED?
SYPHILIS IS TREATED WITH PENICILLIN IN THE FIRST TWO STAGES; ANTIBACTERIALS ARE USELESS DURING THE TERTIARY STAGE.
WHAT IS GENERAL PARESIS?
ABOUT TWENTY YEARS AFTER SYPHILIS INVECTION, A GENERAL GROUP OF MENTAL ILLNESSES CALLED GENERAL PARESIS (DEMENTIA DUE TO SYPHILIS) DEVELOP. THE ILLNESSES INCLUDE EMOTIONAL INSTABILITY, MEMORY LOSS, IMPAIRED JUDGEMENT, DELUSIONS, HALLUCINATIONS, LOSS OF VISION, EYE DAMAGE, AND SPEECH DEFECTS.
HOW OFTEN IS CHLAMYDIAL INFECTION ASYMPTOMATIC?
CHLAMYDIAL INFECTION IS ASYMTOMATIC IN 70 PERCENT OF FEMALES AND 30 PERCENT OF MALES.
WHERE MUST DRUGS TRAVEL TO BE EFFECTIVE AGAINST CHLAMYDIA?
DRUGS MUST PENETRATE INTO THE HOST CELL, THEN INTO THE INCLUSION BODY, AND FINALLY INTO THE BACTERIA TO BE EFFECTIVE AGAINST CHLAMYDIA.
WHAT IS THE EPIDEMIOLOGY OF HSV II?
HSV II CAUSES PENILE, VULVAR, AND PERIANAL INFECTIONS, AND IT IS SPREAD BY DIRECT SEXUAL CONTACT, EVEN WHEN LESIONS ARE NOT PRESENT.
WHAT IS THE CONCERN FOR THE FETUS AND NEONATE WITH RESPECT TO GENITAL HERPES INFECTION OF THE MOTHER?
A C-SECTION IS RECOMMENDED FOR DELIVERY BECAUSE OF THE RISK OF THE NEWBORN CONTRACTING A DISSEMINATED INFECTION, WHICH IS USUALLY FATAL.
HOW MUCH TIME IS REQUIRED FOR A CURE FROM HERPES SIMPLEX H AND GENITAL WARTS VIRUSES?
A CURE IN NEVER ACHIEVED. THE VIRUSES REMAIN IN THE BODY FOR LIFE.
WHAT ARE THE SYMTOMS OF VULVOVAGINITES?
SYMPTOMS OF VULVOVAGINITIS INCLUDE ITCHING AND A CURD-LIKE DISCHARGE.
WHAT IS PING-PONG CANDIDIASIS?
PING-PONG CANDIDIASIS RESULTS WHEN A WOMAN IS REINFECTED WITH CANDIDIASIS FROM HER MALE SEXUAL PARTNER.
DESCRIBE FEMALE SYMPTOMS OF TRICHOMONAS VAGINALIS.
THE SYMPTOMS ARE BURNING SENSATION UPON URINATION WITH A FROTHY, WHITE VAGINAL EXUDATE.
DESCRIBE THE UNDULATING MEMBRANE.
THE UNDULATING MEMBRANE IS A LATERAL MEMBRANE ON THE PROTOZOAN THAT CAUSES TRICHOMONIASIS. THE MEMBRANE WAVES (UNDULATES) BACK AND FORTH AS THE PROTOZOAN SWIMS IN ITS HOST. THE MEMBRANE ALSO SERVES AS A READILY RECOGNIZED IDENTIFICATION MARKER.
HOW DOES TETANUS INFECTION OCCUR?
TETANUS IS CAUSED BY SPORES FROM THE SOIL THAT ENTER VIA A PUNCTURE WOUND (E.G. A NAIL IN THE FOOT).
WHAT SPECIFIC PATHOLOGY DOES C. TETANI CAUSE?
C. TETANI CAUSES THE JAW MUSCLES TO CONTRACT INTENSELY, HENCE, THE COMMON NAME LOCKJAW. ACTUALLY, ALL MUSCLES OF THE BODY ARE AFFECTED.
WHAT ANIMAL IS A SOURCE OF ANTHRAX SEEN IN THE UNITED STATES? HOW IS ANTHRAX PREVENTED?
CATTLE ARE AN ANIMAL SOURCE OF ANTHRAX SEEN IN THE UNITED STATES. ANTHRAX IS PREVENTED BY VACCINATION AND TREATMENT OF CATTLE.
HOW FAST DOES M. LEPRAE GROW?
M. LEPRAE ORGANISMS IN PATIENTS GROW EXTREMELY SLOWLY AND MAY HAVE INCUBATION TIMES OF TWO TO TEN YEARS BEFORE AN INFECTED PERSON SHOWS SYMPTOMS. THE ORGANISMS DO NOT GROW IN CULTURE MEDIA.
WHAT PARTS OF THE BODY ARE INFECTED MY M. LEPRAE?
M. LEPRAE INFECTS THE SKIN AND NEURONS.
HOW IS LEPROSY TRANSMITTED?
LEPROSY IS TRANSMITTED BY DIRECT CONTACT. LEPROMATOUS LEPROSY MAY BE CONTRACTED FROM RESPIRATORY AEROSOLS. M. LEPRAE MAY NOT BE SPREAD EASILY, AS SPOUSES OF INFECTED PEOPLE SOMETIMES DO NOT CONTRACT THE DISEASE EVEN AFTER YEARS OF CONTACT. M. LEPRAE DOES GROW IN NINE-BANDED ARMADILLOS, HOWEVER, AND MAY BE TRANSMITTED BY THEM.
WHAT IS THE INCUBATION PERIOD FOR LEPROSY? HOW IS LEPROSY DIAGNOSED AND TREATED?
THE ORGANISM IN PATIENTS GROW EXTREMELY SLOWLY AND MAY HAVE INCUBATION TIMES OF TWO TO TEN YEARS BEFORE AN INFECTED PERSON SHOWS SYMPTOMS. LEPROSY IS DIAGNOSED BY OBSERVATION OF SKIN LESIONS AND LOSS OF SENSATION. TREATMENT IS WITH THE RESERVED ANTIBIOTIC DAPSONE, OR OTHER ANTIBACTERIALS IN THE CASE OF RESISTANCE, FOR TWO YEARS OR MORE.
WHAT ORGANISM CAUSES GAS GANGRENE?
C. PERFRINGENS CAUSES GAS GANGRENE.
ALL PEOPLE CARRY S. EPIDERMIDIS. WHERE?
S. EPIDERMIDIS IS FOUND ON THE SKIN.
WHAT SPECIES OF STAPHYLOCOCCUS IS COAGULASE POSITIVE?
S. AUREUS IS COAFULASE POSITIVE.
WHAT PERCENTAGE OF PEOPLE IN THE HOSPITAL SETTING ARE CARRIERS OF STAPHYLOCOCCUS?
THIRTY TO FIFTY PERCENT OF ALL PEOPLE IN THE HOSPITAL SETTING ARE CARRIERS OF STAPHYLOCOCCI.
LIST DISEASES CAUSED BY S. AUREUS?
DISEASES CAUSED BY S. AUREUS ARE FOOD POISONING, NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS, IMPETIGO, BOILS, DESQUAMATION OR DENUDING IN NEWBORNS, PNEUMONEA, AND OSTEOMYELITIS.
LIST THE VIRULENCE DETERMINANTS AND THEIR FUNCTIONS COMMON TO ALL STRAINS OF S. AUREUS.
THE VIRULENCE DETERMINANTS AND THEIR FUNCTIONS COMMON TO ALL STRAINS OF S. AUREUS ARE PROTEIN A (CLOAKS THE BACTERIA WITH HUMAN Abs); HEMOLYSIN (LYSES RBCs); LEUKOCIDIN (KILLS WBCs); COAGULASE (CLOTS BLOOD); AND CATALASE (DEGRADES HYDROGEN PEROXIDE).
HOW ARE PYOGENIC STAPHYLOCOCCAL INFECTIONS PRIMARILY TREATED?
PYOGENIC (PUS-FORMING) STAPHYLOCOCCAL INFECTIONS ARE TREATED PRIMARILY BY DRAING THE PUS.
WHAT DOES MRSA INDICATE?
MRSA INDICATE METHICILLIN-RESISTANT S. AUREUS.
WHAT SHOULD BE DONE TO PREVENT STAPHYLOCOCCAL TRANSMISSION IN THE HOSPITAL SETTING?
TO PREVENT STAPHYLOCOCCAL TRANSMISSION IN THE HOSPITAL SETTING, STAFF MUST ENGAGE IN STRICT HAND WASHING AND ASEPTIC TECHNIQUES.
HOW STABLE TO TEMPERATURE IS STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS?
NEITHER FREEZING NOR FOOD-WARMING TEMERATURES WILL KILL THE BACTERIA STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS.
ENTEROCOCCUS FAECALIS IS TRANSMITTED FROM WHERE TO WHERE TO CAUSE INFECTIONS?
ENTEROCOCCUS FAECALIS IS NORMAL FLORA FROM THE INTESTINAL TRACT THAT CAUSES INFECTION WHEN THERE IS A GUT PERFORATION.
DESCRIBE THE EPIDEMIOLOGY, COURSE OF DISEASE, AND TREATMENT OF RABIES.
RABIES OCCURS IN WILD ANIMALS AND SPREADS TO HUMANS THROUGH BITES OR SCRATCHES. THE VIRUS ATTACKS THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM, TAKING SIX WEEKS TO SEVERAL MONTHS TO TRAVEL VIA LOCAL NEURONS TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM. THE INFECTED ANIMAL'S THROAT MUSCLES CONTRACT IN A SPASM, CAUSING AN AVERSION TO SWALLOWING. A MULTIDOSE VACCINE IS EFFECTIVE WHEN GIVEN EITHER BEFORE OR JUST AFTER THE BITE OR SCRATCH THAT TRANSMITTED THE VIRUS.
DESCRIBE NEGRI BODIES.
NEGRI BODIES ARE BLACK INCLUSIONS FOUND IN THE BRAIN TISSUE OF AN INFECTED BRAIN.
GIVE THE NAME OF THE VIRUS THAT CAUSE WARTS.
PAPILLOMA VIRUS CAUSES WARTS.
WHAT IS HERPES KERATITIS?
HERPES KERATITIS IS A LATENT INFECTION OF THE EYE, CAUSING SHARP PAIN, SENSITIVITY TO LIGHT, AND VISION LOSS. IT MAY REQUIRE A CORNEA REPLACEMENT.
WHERE DO HERPES VIRUSES REPLICATE?
HERPES VIRUSES REPLICATE IN A CELL'S NUCLEUS.
DESCRIBE LATENCY.
LATENCY IS WHERE AN INFECTED PERSON WILL HARBOR THE VIRUS FOR LIFE.
DESCRIBE RECURRENCE.
RECURRENCE IS THE REACTIVATION OF A LATENT VIRUS.
WHAT ARE THE SITES OF INFECTION FOR HSV I?
THE SITES OF INFECTION FOR HSV I ARE ABOVE THE WAIST AND ARE FOUND PRIMARILY ON THE FACE AND MOUTH.
WHAT ARE THE PRIMARY AND RECURRENT DISEASES OF HSV I?
THE PRIMARY AND RECURRENT DISEASES OF HSV I ARE GINGIVOSTOMATITIS (PRIMARY) AND HERPES LABIALIS (RECURRENT).
LIST THE EXPECTED SITE(S) OF HUMAN INFECTION FOR THE DERMATOPHYTES.
THE EXPECTED SITES OF HUMAN INFECTION FOR THE DERMATOPHYTES ARE ON THE GENERAL BODY AS WELL AS THE FOOT, HAIR, GROIN, SCALP, AND NAIL.
IS TINEA CAPITIS A DISEASE OR AN ORGANISM?
TINEA CAPITIS IS A DISEASE.
WHAT TYPE OF CANDIDIASIS OCCURS IN THE MOUTH, AND WHAT ARE ITS SYMPTOMS?
THRUSH IS THE TYPE OF CANDIDIASIS THAT OCCURS IN THE MOUTH. IT CAUSES SMALL, WHITE FLECKS OR PATCHES THAT APPEAR ON ORAL MEMBRANES AND RESEMBLE MILD CURD WHEN THEY GROW TOGETHER.
HOW IS CANDIDIASIS IDENTIFIED?
CANDIDIASIS IS RECOGNIZED BY THE APPEARANCE OF LESIONS AND BUDDING YEAST AND IS CONFIRMED BY SUGAR FERMENTATION.
HOW IS YERSINIA PESTIS SPREAD?
YERSINIA PESTIS, WHICH CAUSES BUBONIC PLAGUE, IS SPREAD BY FLEA VECTORS FROM MICE AND RATS TO HUMANS.
NAME THE VECTOR OF TRANSMISSION FOR ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER.
FROM WILD MAMMALIAN HOSTS BY TICKS TO HUMANS.
NAME THE VECTOR OF TRANSMISSION OF EPIDEMIC TYPHUS.
BODY LICE IS THE VECTOR OF TRANSMISSION OF EPIDEMIC TYPHUS.
WHAT ARE THE RESERVOIRS FOR R. RICKETTSII?
BLOOD-SUCKING ARTHROPODS AND WILD ANIMALS.
WHAT ARE THE RESERVOIRS FOR R. PROWAZEKII?
HUMANS
DESCRIBE THE THREE PHASES OF LYME DISEASE.
IN THE FIRST PHASE, A RED RASH (CALLED A BULL'S EYE RASH BECAUSE OF IT'S SHAPE) APPEARS. IN THE SECOND PHASE, THE INFECTED PERSON DEVELOPS INFLUENZA-LIKE SYMPTOMS. IN THE THIRD-PHASE, THE PERSON MAY DEVELOP DEBILITATING, SOMETIMES FATAL, IMMUNE COMPLEX DISEASES OR ARTHRITIS.
BESIDES TAMPONS, WHAT OTHER ITEMS CAN PROVIDE A BREEDING GROUND FOR S. AUREUS?
S. AUREUS CAN BREED IN OR ON STITCHES, CATHETERS, HEART VALVES, OR ANY OTHER INDWELLING DEVICE WHERE INFECTION MIGHT DEVELOP.
WHAT IS THE DERIVATION OF THE WORD ARBOVIRUS?
THE WORD ARBOVIRUS IS DERIVED FROM ARTHROPOD BORNE VIRUS.
LIST THREE ARBOVIRAL ENCEPHALITIDES COMMON IN THE UNITED STATES.
THREE ARBOVIRAL ENCEPHALITIDES COMMON TO THE UNITES STATES ARE ST. LOUIS ENCEPHALITIS, CALIFORNIA ENCEPHALITIS, AND EASTERN EQUINE ENCEPHALITIS.
HOW HAS YELLOW FEVER BEEN CONTROLLED IN OUR COUNTRY?
YELLOW FEVER HAS BEEN CONTROLLED IN THIS COUNTRY BY MOSQUITO CONTROL.
WHAT CANCER IS ASSOCIATED WITH HBV?
HEPATOCELLULAR CARCINOMA IS STRONGLY ASSOCIATED WITH HBV.
DESCRIBE THE EPIDEMIOLOGY AND PRINCIPAL DISEASE CAUSED BY THE EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS (EBV).
THE EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS CAUSES 90 PERCENT OF INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS. IT INFECTS MOSTLY SIXTEEN-TO TWENTY-TWO-YEAR OLDS SYMPTOMATICALLY; IT IS TRANSMITTED BY SALIVA AND COMMONLY CALLED THE KISSING DISEASE OR THE COLLEGE DISEASE.
DESCRIBE THE EPIDEMIOLOGY AND DISEASES CAUSED BY THE CYTOMEGALOVIRUS (CMV).
CYTOMEGALOVIRUS CAUSES THE OTHER 10 PERCENT OF INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS. IT CAN REACTIVATE IN THE MOTHER DURING THE THIRD TRIMESTER OF PREGNANCY AND CAUSE BIRTH DEFECTS, SUCH AS MENTAL DAMAGE AND HEARING LOSS.
WHERE DO EBV AND CMV REMAIN LATENT?
EBV AND CMV REMAIN LATENT IN WHITE BLOOD CELLS.
LIST THE TWO MAJOR BODY SITES FOR HUMAN MALARIAL INFECTION.
THE TWO MAJOR BADY SITES FOR HUMAN MALARIAL INFECTION ARE THE LIVER AND THE RED BLOOD CELLS.
HOW DO PLASMODIUM SPECIES ESCAPE THE IMMUNE SYSTEM?
PLASMODIUM SPECIES ESCAPE THE IMMUNE SYSTEIM BY SWITCHING TO EXPRESS OTHERS OF THE 150 SURFACE PROTEIN GENES.
WHAT IS THE VECTOR THAT TRANSMITS MALARIA-CAUSING PLASMODIUM?
MALARIA-CAUSING PLASMODIUM IS TRANSMITTED VIA ANOPHELES MOSQUITOES FROM ONE INFECTED INDIVIDUAL TO ANOTHER.
HOW IS MALARIA TREATED?
MALARIA IS TREATED WITH CHLOROQUINE AND QUININE.
HOW DO HUMANS ACQUIRE TOSOPLASMA GONDII?
HUMANS ACQUIRE TOXOPLASMA GONDII FROM HANDLING CAT FECES.
WHO IS AT RISK FOR CONTRACTING T. GONDII?
THE FETUS IS AT SPECIAL RISK WHEN THE MOTHER IS INFECTED WITH T. GONDII. IMMUNOCOMPROMISED PATIENTS ARE ALSO AT RISK FOR INFECTION.
WHAT IS RETROVIRUS?
RETROVIRUSES HAVE THE ENQYME REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE, WHICH SYNTHESIZE DNA FROM AN RNA TEMPLATE, A REVERSE TRANSCRIPTION.
WHAT IS SO UNUSUAL ABOUT THE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE?
THE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE ENZYME CAN REPLICATE A DOUBLE STRAND OF DNA FROM A SINGLE STRAND OF RNA.
WHAT IS THE RECEPTOR FOR HIV ATTACHMENT TO CELLS, AND WHAT CELLS HAVE THIS RECEPTOR?
HIV ATTACHES TO THE T-CELL RECEPTOR IN CD4 OR Th CELLS.
DISCUSS THE TRANSMISSION OF HIV.
HIV INFECTION REQUIRES ACCESS TO THE RECIPIENT'S BLOODSTREAM VIA A CUT OR TEAR IN THE SKIN, WHICH IS EXPOSED TO SEMEN, VAGINAL FLUIDS, OR BLOOD.
WHEN DO OVERT SYMPTOMS OF AIDS APPEAR?
OVERT SYMPTOMS OF AIDS APPEAR EIGHT TO TEN YEARS AFTER INITIAL INFECTION WITH HIV OR WHEN THE CD4 CELL COUNT DROPS TO LESS THAN 200 CELLS/MM3.
HOW DOES THE GENOME OF HIV PERSIST IN CERTAIN HUMAN CELLS?
THE GENOME OF HIV PERSISTS IN CERTAIN HUMAN CELLS BECAUSE THE REVERSE TRANSCRIPTASE MAKES A DNA COPY THAT INTEGRATES TO BECOME PART OF THE CELL GENOME.
WHAT ACTUALLY KILLS AIDS PATIENTS?
CD4 CELLS ARE GRADUALLY REDUCED TO ZERO, PREVENTING THE FORMATION OF MEMORY CELLS AND EXPANDED CELL POLULATION OF ANY IMMUNE CELLS, SO OPPORTUNISTIC INFECTIONS CANNOT BE SURMOUNTED BY THE IMMUNE SYSTEM.
WHAT IS THE RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN AIDS AND KAPOSI'S SARCOMA?
THERE IS A HIGH INCIDENCE OF KAPOSI'S SARCOMA IN AIDS PATIENTS DUE TO THE REACTIVATION OF THE HUMAN HERPES VIRUS 8.
HOW CAN THE SPREAD OF AIDS BE REDUCED?
THE SPREAD OF AIDS CAN BE REDUCED IF PEOPLE AVOID ANAL SEX; DO NOT HAVE MULTIPLE SEX PARTNERS; AVOID RECAPPING NEEDLES; PRACTICE PROPER USE OF CONDOMS; PRACTICE ABSTINENCE; HAVE A SINGLE, FAITHFUL SEX PARTNER; AND USE GLOVES AND PROPER FACE AND EYE COVERINGS IF EXPOSURE TO MUCOUS MEMBRANES IS POSSIBLE FOR HEALTH-CARE WORKERS.
NAME TWO GENERA OF ORGANISMS USED TO MAKE SAUERKRAUT AND LIST THEIR FUNCTIONS.
TWO GENERA OF ORGANISMS USED TO MAKE SAUERKRAUT ARE LEUCONOSTOC, WHICH PRODUCES ACIDS, AROMA, AND FLAVOR, AND LACTOBACILLUS, WHICH PRODUCES LACTIC ACID SO THAT THE pH IS ABOUT 2, PREVENTING GROWTH OF OTHER BACTERIA AND MOLDS.
WHAT ORGANISMS PRODUCE YOGURT?
LACTOBACILLUS AND STREPTOCOCCUS THERMOPHILUS PRODUCE YOGURT.
WHY ARE MICROBES RATHER THAN PLANTS USED IN MANY INDUSTRIAL APPLICATIONS?
MICROBES RATHER THAN PLANTS ARE USED IN MANY INDUSTRIAL APPLICATIONS BECAUSE THEY CARRY OUT A WIDE RANGE OF ENZYMATIC REACTIONS, GROW RAPIDLY, CAN BE GROWN INEXPENSIVELY, AND ARE AMENABLE TO GENETIC MANIPULATION, SUCH AS THE ABILITY TO INCREASE PRODUCTION AMOUNTS.
HOW HAVE MICROBES HELPED IN WASHING CLOTHES?
ENZYMES FROM BACTERIA ARE INCLUDED IN DETERGENTS AND ARE USED TO DEGRADE CHEMICALS THAT STAIN CLOTHES.
WHAT IS DONE TO THE MICROBES THAT PRODUCE ALCOHOLIC DRINKS IN THE LAST PHASE OF PRODUCTION?
MICROBES ARE KILLED BY PASTEURIZATION OR REMOVED BY FILTRATION.
GIVE AN EXAMPLE OF HOW SCIENTISTS HAVE USED GENE CLONING TO PROTECT PLANTS FROM INSECTS.
INSECT TOXIN GENES FROM B. THURINGIENSIS HAVE BEEN CLONED INTO PLANTS SO THAT THE PLANT PRODUCES THE INSECTICIDE RIGHT ON THE LEAVES. WHEN THE LEAVES ARE EATEN, THE LARVAE ARE KILLED.
WHAT IS BOD?
BOD IS BIOCHEMICAL OXYGEN DEMAND: THE RATE AT WHICH MICROBES REMOVE OXYGEN FROM WATER.
WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF ALUM IN WATER PURIFICATION?
ALUM FORMS A GEL THAT MICROBES AND PARTICLES STICK TO AS THE GEL SETTLES OUT AND REMOVES THEM.
WHAT HAVE WE LEARNED FROM THE USE OF DDT?
PESTICIDES LIKE DDT MAY BE HARMFUL TO ANIMALS, TOO. WE NEED TO DEVELOP AND USE PESTICIDES THAT ARE QUICKLY BROKEN DOWN BY MICROBES OR OTHER MEANS.
WHAT ARE LICHENS?
LICHENS ARE MUTUALISTIC COLONIES OF ALGAE AND FUNGI.
WHAT DIGESTS THE CELLULOSE OF WOOD IN TERMITES?
PROTOZOA DIGEST THE CELLULOSE OF WOOD IN TERMITES.
WHAT TYPE OF ORGANISM PRODUCES METHANE?
ARCHAEA PRODUCE METHANE.
DEFINE AMMONIFICATION.
AMMONIFICATION IS THE BREAKDOWN OF PROTEINS AND NUCLEIC ACID BY BACTERIA AND FUNGI TO RELEASE NITROGEN IN THE FORM OF AMMONIA.
DEFINE NITRIFICATION.
NITRIFICATION IS THE OXIDATION OF AMMONIA TO NITRATE BY THE BACTERIA NITROSOMONAS AND NITROBACTER.
DEFINE DENITRIFICATION.
DENITRIFICATION OCCURS WHEN BACTERIA USE NITRATE ANAEROBICALLY AND RELEASE NITROGEN GAS.
DEFINE NITROGEN FIXATION.
NITROGEN FIXATION IS THE PROCESS OF BACTERIAL FIXATION OF NITROGEN GAS INTO NITRATE; TWO IMPORTANT BACTERIA THAT FIX NITROGEN ARE AZOTOBACTER (FREE LIVING) AND RHIZOBIUM (WHICH GROWS IN PLANT ROOT NUDULES TO FIX NITROGEN IN LARGER QUANTITIES).