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203 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Small(10-400nm) acellular entities consisting of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a protein coat (capsid).
Viruses
A complete viral particle of nucleic acid and protein coat.
Virion
Viruses existing intracellularly are at one of 2 phases:
Replicating or Latent
3 characteristics that classify Viruses
1. Symmetry (morphology) of the capsid
2. Nucleic Acid properties
3. Genetic Relatedness
Name the 5 steps of Viral Replication
1. Attachment of the virus to the host cell (viral coat protein and host receptor cells)
2. Entry of viral nucleocapsid or nucleic acid (host cell machinery)
3. Synthesis of viral protein and nucleic acids
4. Self-assembly of virions
5. Release of progeny viruses
4 methods of viral disease transmission
1. Airborne
2. Arthropod-borne
3. Direct Contact
4. Food & water-borne
Caused by proteinaceous infectious particles, leading to fatal neurodegenerative disorders (dementia, motor dysfunction).
Prion Disease ("Mad Cow Disease")
Has 5'-3' polarity and can serve as mRNA directly
Positive Sense RNA
Abnormally folded proteins that cause other protein to fold abnormally- results in neuron loss. Can be acquired from eating contaminated meat.
Prion Protein
Chickenpox (Varicella) & Shingles (Herpes Zoster), Measles (Rubeola), Mumps, Rubella (German Measles), Influenza, and Smallpox (Variola) are what kind of diseases?
Airborne Diseases
Name for the dsDNA Herpesvirus
Varicella Zoster Virus
Pus-filled eruptions on skin due to initial infection of what virus?
Varicella Zoster Virus- Chickenpox
Treatments for Chickenpox?
Supportive; acyclovir (anti-viral).
{Recovery gives immunity, but not elimination.}
What virus goes into latent phase in cranial nerves and sensory neurons in the dorsal root ganglia?
Varicella Zoster Virus
Reactivated form of chickenpox?
Shingles- potherpetic neuralgia. (Treatment: Acyclovir)
Where does the varicella virus replicate once it infects mucosa of upper respiratory tract?
Regional lymph nodes. (And then goes on to replicate in the liver and spleen).
What are the primary and secondary viremias of of varicella?
Primary virus infection is in the bloodstream and Secondary is in the skin (appearance of vesicular rash).
After primary infection of Varicella- viruses migrate where?
Up the sensory nerve to the dorasal root ganglion in the spinal cord- turning into the latent viral phase.
What causes the re-activation of Herpes Zoster virus? What is the secondary infection called?
Stress (virus migrates down sensory nerve and virus comes back as Shingles).
Structure: Negative-strand, enveloped RNA Paramyxovirus
Symptoms: Nasal discharge, cough, fever, headache, conjunctivitis, RASH, CNS degeneration, death
Measles (Rubeola)
Structure: Negative-strand, enveloped RNA Paramyxovirus
Symptoms: FEver, salivary gland swelling, tenderness; in severe cases encephalitis, meningitis, orchitis
Mumps
Structure: Positive-strand, enveloped RNA TOGAVIRUS
Symptoms: Rash of small red spots, fever, congenital disease: stillbirth, miscarriage, birth defects
Rubella (German Measles)
True or False. There is an Antiviral treatment and vaccine for MMR.
False. There is only a vaccine and its for MMR and varicella (called MMRV), which has reduced the incidence in the US. (However, Global prevalence and morbidity/mortality remain high).
Name some adverse reactions to the MMR vaccine.
Fever (5-15%), Rash (5%), Joint symptoms (25%), thrombocytopenia (<1/30,000 doses), Parotitis (rare), Deafness (rare), Encephalopathy (<1/1,0000,000 doses).
Influenza is a negative strand RNA virus, part of what family?
Orthomyxoviridae.

(Influenza is a disease of the respiratory system- spread by aerosols).
Name the 4 Pandemics that happened in 1918, 1957, 1968, and 1977.
1918- Spanish Flu (worst pandemic: killed 50 million people worldwide)
1957- Asian Flu
1968- Hong Kong Flu
1977- Russian Flu

(the Spanish Ate the Hungry King's Ring.)
What are the incubation periods for the following common viral infections:
1. Influenza
2. Measles
3. Rabies
4. AIDS
1. 1-2 days
2. 9-12 days
3. 30-100 days
4. 1-10 years
Symptoms:
- Acute febrile respiratory tract infection
- Rapid onset of fever, malaise, sore throat, cough
- Children may also have abdominal pain, vomiting, otitis media, myositis, croup
Name the cause of these symptoms!
Influenza
Name 2 methods of transmission of Influenza.
1. Inhalation of small aerosol droplets
2. Schoolchildren
What are the names of the antiviral drugs available for Influenza? What types of vaccines exist?
Antiviral Drugs: Amantadine, rimatadine, zanamivir, oseltamivir
Vaccines:
- Killed vaccine against annual strains of influenza A and B viruses
- Live, Attenuated influenza A and B vaccine (nasal spray)
What are the 2 factors that help classify Influenza subtypes?
Hemagglutinin (HA) and Neuraminidase (NA) - membrane surface glycoproteins.
Functions in the viral attachment to host cells. Attaches to galactose-sialic acid receptors on the host cell and is one of the major surface epitope seen by the immune system for the Influenza virus.
HA- Hemagglutinin
Functions by cleaving viral particles from host cells- allows for virion release.
NA- Neuraminidase.
A protein that is used as an antiviral drug halts viral transmission by blocking the release of the virion. What kind of antiviral drug could this be?
A Neuraminidase Inhibitor
Due to accumulation of mutations in a strain within a geographic area- results in point mutations that lead to amino acid substitutions. This is called...
Antigenic Drift.
Due to reassortment of genomes when 2 different strains of flu viruses (from humans and animals) infect the same cell and are incorporated into a single new capsid. This is called...
Antigenic Shift
AIDS stands for...?
And is caused by what virus?
Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome and is caused by HIV.
A retrovirus (enveloped lentivirus)
- positive strands, ssRNA genome
- believed to have evolved from monkey viruses that recombined.

Name this virus!
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
{100-140nm}
When (year) was HIV first described?
1981
Methods of transmission for HIV:
Through infected bodily fluids (blood, semen, vaginal secretions, breast milk) that come in contact with a person's broken skin or mucous membrane.
What on the HIV attaches to CD4 and its coreceptors? Name the coreceptors of CD4.
gp120 and gp41 attach to CD4 and the corecptors: CCR5 or CXCR4
Which cells can HIV infect?
CD4+T cells and Macrophages/DCs. This leads to the depletion of CD4+T cells by viral lysis, apopotosis, or CD8+T cells killing.
Name the 4 Clinical Stages that occur after the incubation period in HIV infected individuals.
1. Acute (2-8 weeks after infection)
2. Asymptomatic (months to years)
- Viremia decreases, but viral replication may continue in lymph nodes
3. Chronic Symptomatic (months to years)
- CD4+T cell levels decline and opportunistic infections begin
4. AIDS
What characterizes AIDS? When does one become classified with this syndrome?
When CD4+T cell levels decline BELOW 200 cells/ul of blood.
What treatments are available for HIV?
No cure but some treatments that aim to reduce viral load and disease symptoms.
Antiviral Agents:
- nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase (RT) inhibitors (AZT: Aziodthymidine)
- nonnucleoside RT inhibitors
- protease inhibitors
- fusion inhibitors
- HAART
What does HAART stand for?
Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy- a combination of drugs for HIV treatment.
True or False: All of the following are live attenuated vaccines available in the US: measles, mumps, and varicella zoster.
True; as are: Sabin polio, smallpox, and yellow fever vaccine.
What organism is associated with the following type of diarrhea: Rice water stools?
Vibrio Cholera
Name 4 routes of transmission for Bacterial infections.
1. airborne
2. food-and-water borne
3. arthropod-borne
4. direct contact
True or False. Flesh eating bacteria is caused by the action of bacteria eating host tissue.
False.
Bacteria release toxins that disable host cell function, which causes disease and cell death in some cases.
Staphylococcus is an invasive, gram- _______ cocci- resemble "bunches of grapes". Causes pus-forming diseases in humans.
POSITIVE
This bacteria can be found in respiratory system and skin- can be spread by direct human contact, aerosols or fomites. Frequent cause of nosocomial disease.
Staphylococcus- Frequently caused by infection fo hair follicles and formation of abcesses (scalded skin syndrome, carbuncle, impetigo, folliculitis, furuncle).
This syndrome is caused by superantigen of S.aureus.
Toxic Shock Syndrome
S. aureus _____ and ______ bind to TCR and MHC class ____ and activate T cells.
a.) Map
b.) SAg (superantigens)
c.) II
The stimulation of T cells in the absence of specific peptide antigen leads to:
cytokine overproduction (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha)- which leads to shock due to circulatory collapse and organ failure.
Bacteria that is resistant to Penicillin, methicillin, amoxicillin, cephalosporin, and more antibiotic drugs is known to be called:
Methicillin-Resistant S. aureus: MRSA
- Second most common cause of adult death due to infectious diseases.
- Leading cause of childhood death worldwide.
- Source: food, water, human carriers
Transmission Mode: Fecal/Oral
Diarrheal Diseases
Causes 'traveler's diarrhea"- fecal/oral transmission. (Most strains are non-pathogenic- human intestine as normal flora).
E.coli Gastroenteritis
ETEC
EIEC
enterotoxic E. coli
enteroinvasive E. coli
EPEC
EHEC
enteropathogenic E. coli
enterohemorrhagic E. coli
EAggEC
DAEC
enteroaggregative E. coli
diffusely adhering E. coli
Carries Shiga-like toxin and causes hemorrhagic colitis.
EHEC- Enterohemorrhagic strain

Strain: O157:H7- cause of several recent food-borne outbreaks.

- Naturally found in cow intestine
- Meat contamination can occur during slaughter or due to fecal contamination of water (run off)
EHEC can cause this in young children, where there is a loss of RBCs, kidney failure, and in severe cases, results of death.
Haemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)
A patient comes in to your clinic with complaints of an upset stomach. Mentioning that they had a rare burger the day before, topped with some good ol' country cheese, what kind of bacterial infection pops into your mind?
E. Coli O157:H7

Raw or undercooked ground beef, raw milk, raw milk cheeses, lettuce, spinach, unpasteurized apple juice or cider are other sources of such an E. coli infection.
Gram negative, faculative anaerobe, non-spore forming rod

Source: poultry, eggs, beef, exotic pets (reptiles)
Salmonella sp.

From: Uncooked or undercooked eggs (mayo, cookie dough, caesar salad)
Raw or rare poultry
A 21 year old, college student comes in to the ER with a fever, nausea, abdominal cramps and diarrhea. After taking a patient history, you find out that the young student attempted to make scrambled eggs that morning but they didn't turn out so good- they were still a bit runny. You conclude after this is a case of: ____________.
Treatment: ___________________
Salmonellosis
Treatment: oral or IV rehydration
Mary Mallon was the first documented case of being a healthy carrier of:
Typhoid fever
Salmonella enterica, serovar Typhi
Gram negative, curved rods.
Source: sewage-contaminated water
Symptoms due to infection: Vomiting and 'rice water stools' lead to severe dehydration and death.
Vibrio Cholera
Virulence factor: cholera enterotoxin
Treatment: oral rehydration
(vaccine available)
True or False. Of AB toxins, the A subunit binds epithelial cells and the B subunit activates adenyl cyclase.
False. The B subunit binds epithelial cells and the A subunit activates adenyl cyclase.
Once the A subunit of the cholera enterotoxin activates adenyl cyclase, cAMP increases, which leads to what result?
Fluid secretion
(High cyclic AMP levels block uptake of Na+ and increased NaCl in lumen draws in water. Excess water causes diarrhea.)
This state of infection is caused by Clostridium difficile, where an excessive use of antibiotics kill normal flora.
Antibiotic-associate colitis
______ reverse transcribe their RNA into DNA using an enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
Retroviruses
Name the 3 main ways that viruses can enter cells.
1. Receptor-mediated endocytosis (influenza)
2. Fusion with plasma membrane (HIV)
3. Direct injection of viral nucleic acid while the capside remains outside (poliovirus)
True or False. S. enterica serovar Typhi is a particular strain of Staphylococcus aureus.
False.
S. enterica serovar Typhi is a particular strain on Salmonella, which causes typhoid fever.
Negative sense RNA must first be transcribed into 'sense' mRNA by ____________ before translated.
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
True or False. Positive sense RNA viruses also need the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, because they need to replicate their RNA and the cell machinery can't replicate RNA.
True.
Host cells replicate DNA, not RNA.
The virus needs to have a polymerase that can act on RNA (which is why it is called RNA-dependent) to make more RNA (which is why it is called an RNA polymerase).
_________ are examples of sporadic diseases, meaning that there suddenly will be a large number of cases for a period of time, and then the number declines. (SARS)
Epidemics
- Can either be Outbreaks (local) or Pandemics (global).

SARS- caused severe disease over a short period of time but then disappeared.
________ are the form that parasites take after excystation.
Trophozoites

Giardia: excysted form is the trophozoite.
______________: cyst form is called the bradyzoite. During ___________, bradyzoites break out of the cyst and then immediately differentiate into __________ which are the trophozoite form.
Toxoplasma

Excystation

Tachyzoites
True or False. Trophozoite form is very infectious for Leishmania and Trypanosomes, however, Giardia and Toxoplasma would benefit from cyst form when transmitted.
True. Leishmania and Trypanosomes go directly from insect to human, so they don't need that protective coat, but Toxo and Giardia are parasites shed into the environment, so the shell is needed for this method of transmission.
Name 3 flies that can be infected from their human blood meal with:
a.) Leishmania
b.) T. cruzi
c.) T. brucei
a.) sandfly
b.) triatomine 'kissing bug'
c.) tsetse fly
C. difficile overgrowth leads to enterotoxin and cytotoxin production, and sporulation. What are some signs and symptoms for this infection?
Pseudomembranous colitis, toxic megacolon, can lead to sepsis and death.
What is Fecal Transplantation/Bacteriotherapy?
Transplant of donor's stool in patient's colon along with saline in order to re-instate microbe order in the gut. Used for patients with C. difficile.
Gram Negative, micraerophilic, spiral bacillus.
Signs and symptoms of infection: erosion and ulceration of stomach lining.
Helicobacter Pylori

Treatment: Antibiotics and Pepto-Bismol
Bacteria attach to sialic acid residues on gastric epithelium- multiply in mucus layer- secrete virulence factors that allow bacteria to persist and grow. What is the result?
Peptic Ulcer Disease
What are the 3 types of H. pylori diseases?
1. Duodenal ulcers
2. Gastric (stomach) ulcers
3. Stomach cancer
What did Marshall and Warren do that awarded them the Novel Prize in 2005?
Discovered the bacterium Helicobacter pylori and its role in gastritis and peptic ulcer disease.
What was the cause of the 'Black Death' plague?
Yersinia pestis
Arthropod-borne disease that is transmitted from rodents to humans through flea bites, direct contact, or inhaled aerosols.
Signs and Symptoms: fever, chills, subcutaneaous hemorrhages, enlarged lymph node, called ___________. What bacteria is this?
__Buboes____

Yersinia pestis
- multiplies in blood and lymph
True or False. Yersinia pestis transmits from wild animals or insects via airborne transmission or direct contact (bite).
True.
Allows bacterium to secrete and inject virulence proteins into target cells.
Type III protein secretion (TTSS)
{resembles syringe}
Segments of DNA encoding virulence genes (clusters of genes)- can be chromosomal, on plasmids or transmitted by phage. These are called...
Pathogenicity Islands
Effector proteins from Yersinia pestis into host cells that counteract host defense mechanisms.
YOPS- Yersinal Outer membrane Proteins
{plasmid-encoded virulence factors}
Eukaryote
Unicellular, usually motile and lack a cell wall.
- chemoorganoheterotrophs
- free living in acquatic environments

Reproduce: Asexually and Sexually
Protozoa
Sexual reproduction is exchange of gametic nuclei between paired ________ of opposite mating types. Can also reproduce asexually.
Protozoa
Formation of a cyst
-Resting state with a cyst wall and low metabolic activity
Encystation
- Provide protection from changes in environment
- Site for nuclear reorganization and cell division
- Allows for transfer from one host to another
Cysts
Escape from the cyst
- Triggered by return to a favorable environment or by entry into a new host.
Excystation
A trophozite is a _________ form (capable of growth) released by parasitic species.
Vegetative
How are Toxoplasma, Entamoeba, Cryptospordium, and Giardia transmitted?
Food and water-borne protozoan infections
Plasmodium T. brucei, T. cruzi, and _______ are vector-borne protozoan infections.
Leishmania
Name the 3 types of Kinetoplastids described in lecture.
Leishmania spp.
Trypanosoma brucei
Trypanosoma cruzi
What category of protozoans do the following fall under:
- Cryptosporidium
- Toxoplasma
- Plasmodium
Apicomplexans
Causes intestinal disease in humans and animals.
- Forms cysts and trophozoites
- Cysts cause infection then differentiate into trophozoites
- Trophozoites attach to intestinal epithelium and interfere with nutrient absorption
Giardia
What is it called when one species restricts growth of the other.
Amensalism
A type of chemical barrier.
-Produces superoxide radicals that damage microbes.
Lactoperoxidase
A type of chemical barrier.
- Sequesters iron, limiting microbe replicaiton.
Lactoferrin
An antimicrobial peptide.
- Linear, alpha-helical peptides that lack cysteine residues
Cathelicidin
An antimicrobial peptide.
- humans have alpha and beta form
- rich in arginine and cysteine, disulfide linked
- found in neutrophil granules, intestinal Paneth cells, intestinal and respiratory epithelial cells
Defensins
Peptides produced by normal microbiota
- may be lethal to bacteria in the same species or different species
- producer organisms are immune to their own
- contribute to the protective effects of the normal flora
Bacteriocins
(ex: Lantibiotics produced by gram + bacteria- inhibit bacteria cell wall synthesis and cause pore formation).
Lantibiotics
Produced by gram + bacteria- inhibit bacteria cell wall synthesis and cause pore formation
Trophozite and cyst are passed in stool but trophozites can't survive in the environment. Contaminate water, food or fomites with cyst form and are ingested by humans/organisms.
Overall:
Cyst to trophozoite - division- to cyst.
This is the life cycle of: ________
Giardia Lamblia
Most common cause of epidemic waterborne diarrheal illness in US

Clinical Manifestations:
- acute: severe diarrhea, epigastric pain, cramps
- chronic: intermittent diarrhea with periodic appearance and remission of symptoms
Giardiasis
What are some treatments and prevention/control methods for Giardiasis?
Antiportozoal agents
- Avoid contaminated water and use filters for drinking water.
Specialized DNA-containg organelle located at the base of the flagellum in the mitochondrion.
Kinetoplast
What category of protozoans contain catenated kDNA circles that encode protein involved in mitochondrial energy production? Give 2 examples of protozoans found in this category.
Kinteoplastids

Examples: Leishmania and Trypanosoma
Leishmanias and Trypanosomes can cause what kind of disease due to the fact that they have a flagellum?
Hemoflagellate Diseases
Give 2 examples of parasites with these characteristics.
- complex life cycle (involving both vertebrate and invertebrate hosts
- transmitted by bites and infected arthropods
- infect blood and tissues of humans
- contain kinetoplasts
Leishmania and Trypanosomes
Name that Disease!
- Causes both cutaneous (skin) and visceral (internal organs) disease
- Parasite that causes the disease is transmitted by sand flies during blood meal
Leshmaniasis
Primary reservoirs: canines and rodents
- Parasite is taken up by macrophage in humans, where it replicates and spreads.

Name that Parasite!
Leishmania
Name that Parasite!

Life Cycle:
Promastigote (insect stage) in vector- transmitted to human.
Phagocytized by macrophages.
Promastigote transforms into amastigote in macrophage.
Multiply.
Vector infected with parasite when takes a blood meal from infected individual. Ingestion.
Amastigote transforms into promastigote stage in midgut of vector.
Leishmania
True or False. In the Leishmania life cycle, the Amastigote stage is found only in the human.
False. Amastigote stage is in the vector as well!
Term for Intracellular life cycle in the mammalian host for Leishmanias.
Amastigote.
Name that Disease!

Treatment, prevention and control:
- antiparasite therapy
- vector and reservoir control

Both Visceral and Cutaneous Disease are possible.
Leishmaniasis
lesions of mouth, nose, throat, and skin that cause extensive scarring and disfigurement
Mucocutaneous
papules at each inoculation site develop into crustated ulcers; healing occurs with scarring
Diffuse Cutaneous

Leishmania
Infected macrophages lodge in body tissues, lyse, and amastigote release continues the infection - results in organ and tissue damage
Causes: Intermittent fever and enlarge spleen or liver.

Name that Disease! (Specific form!)
Lesihmaniasis
Visceral Form
African Sleeping Sickness caused by:
T. brucei (Tsetse flies)
Can change their coat proteins to evade immune detection: antigenic variation
Trypanosomes
American Chagas’ disease caused by:
T. cruzi (kissing bug)
Parasites transmitted into bloodstream during insect bite
and can invade which organs and sites.
liver, spleen, lymph nodes, CNS
Clinical manifestations: Inflammation and necrosis of heart, blood vessels, leads to coma and death within 1-3 years
Caused by T. brucei
Name the Disease!
African sleeping sickness
Name that Disease!

-Clinical manifestations: Acute asymptomatic phase, followed by chronic phase, and eventually heart and GI disease
-Can also be transmitted through blood transfusions, organ transplantation, and transplacentally (congenital)
Caused by T. cruzi
Chagas disease
(American Trypanosomiasis)
What is the treatment for Trypanosomiasis?
Anitparasite therapy- most effective during acute infection
Metacyclic trypanomastigotes in hindgut are passed in feces of triatomine bug. Trypanomastigotes enter bite wound and transform in ___________.
Amastigotes
Amastigotes mulitply and transform into trypanomastigotes- burst out of cell and enter blood stream.
Picked up by triatomine bug during blood meal. Trypanomastigote is transformed into epimastigote in midgut and then in ______________ _____________. Name that Life Cycle!
Metacyclic typanomastigotes

Trypanosoma cruzi
Name that Life Cycle!

Cats are the definitive hosts of the parasite. Congenital disease can occur when women are infected for the first time during pregnancy.
Fecal oocysts from cat to human or other animals and then human.
Toxoplasma Life Cycle
• Set of secretory organelles
• Contains proteins that are secreted by the parasite
• These proteins aid invading and modulating host cell function
Apical Complex
Apicomplexans also contain an _________, a chloroplast-like organelle that is essential to parasite survival. These parasites have plant-like enzymes and are sensitive to a wide variety of herbicides!
Give 2 examples of this type of Protozoa.
Apicoplast

Examples: Toxoplasma, Cryptospordium & Plasmodium
Name that Parasite!

Transmission:
- Fecal-oral from infected cats
- Ingestion of cysts in undercooked meat
- congenital fetal infection

Name a few clinical manifestations.
Toxoplasma

Clinical manifestations: usually asymptomatic but can be fatal in immunocompromised hosts
Can cause chronic infection in the brain.

Treatment: Antiparasite therapy
Malaria is caused by what protozoan?
Plasmodium spp.
Female Anaopheles mosquitoes require blood meal for egg growth. They are the vector what parasite and disease?
parasite: Plasmodium spp.
disease: Malaria
Plasmodium spp. infects _____________ cells first and then RBCs.
Hepatocytes
What does Malaria mean in Italian?
Bad Air
Discovered parasites in blood of a patient suffering from malaria.
Louis Alphonse Laveran 1880
Discovered different forms of Malaria.
Camillo Golgi 1886
Discovered that malaria was transmitted by mosquitoes.
Ronald Ross
Name the 3 stages of the Life Cycle of Plasmodium.
1. Mosquito stages
2. Human Liver stages
3. Human Blood stages
In Malaria infection, mosquito takes a blood meal and injects what form of the parasite into the human?
Sporozoite
Parasite growth in mosquitoes is highly dependent on what 3 things?
1. Temperature
2. Humidity
3. Life Span
1955 Global Malaria Eradication Campaign (WHO) relied heavily on what insecticide to eliminate Malaria?
DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrihloroethane)
- chlorine containing chemical controlling insect vectors of disease
- affects the nervous system
- destabilizes sodium channels, which propagate excitation signals on surface of neurons
DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrihloroethane)
morphological change in the infected cell (ballooning, clustering, etc.)
Cytopathic effect
Coronavirus is what type of virus? What characterizes this virus?
Rhinovirus

- S 'spike' protein, which allows the virus to attach to host cells
What is the C3 convertase that is generated in the Classical Pathway?
C2a4b- cleaves C3
Human MHC genes are called:
Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
One of the ways that NK cells recognize target cells- by binding to antibodies coating infected or malignant cells
Cells that have down-regulated MHC class I are recognized by what kind of cells?
Natural Killer Cells- this is usually due to viral infection or cancer
Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Basophils are all:
Granulocytes
Most abundant WBC that responds rapidly to infection. Highly phagocytic. Kills ingested microbes with enzymes and reactive species (RNI, ROI)
Neutrophils
Migrate to mucous membranes, control helminth infections, role in allergy and hypersensitivities
Eosionophils
Release vasoactive mediatiors, histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, leukotrienes, role in ALLERGIC response
Basophils
These cells circulate in the blood and then migrate to tissues where they mature into macrophages or dendritic cells.
Monocytes
Express a variety of surface receptors that recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs)- highly phagocytic.
Macrophages
Process in which microbes are coated with serum proteins, which leads to their recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells
Opsonization
Complement proteins, antibodies, and mannose-binding proteins are common:
Opsonins
Binding of MB-Lectin to pathogen surface results in cleavage of
C2 and C4
C3bBb is the C3 convertase for which pathway and leads to what?
For the Alternative Pathway and it leads to cleavage of more C3 in C3a and C3b. This is a protective mechanism to prevent C3b from initiating MACs on their surfaces.
Monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils are all:
Phagocytic cells
PAMPs for:
Gram negative bacteria?
Gram positive bacteria?
- = LPS
+ = Peptidoglycan
Name that Interferon!
Primarily involved in anti-viral immunity
Type I

IFN alpha/beta

-Prevent viral replication and assembly (auto and paracrine)
-Cells that receive IFN signal- will begin to synthesize antiviral proteins
Name that Interferon!

Involved in immunity against many types of infections.
Type II

IFN gamma
True or False. LPS is an exotoxin.
False. Its an endotoxin.
Cytokines that elicit fever in the host (ex: IL-1, IL-6, TNF)
Endogenous pyrogens
Major functions of Adaptive Immunity
Recognize
Respond
Remember
T and B cells are derived from
Lymphocytes
Once T cells are activated, they can turn into 3 different subtypes of T cells- what are they?
1. Memory T cell
2. Th Cell (T helper cell)
3. CTL (Cytotoxic T Lymphocyte)
Once B cells are activated, they can turn into 2 different kind of cells- what are they?
1. Memory B cell
2. Plasma Cell
Antibody Generators are called immunogens but are also called:
Antigens
True or False. Antigens can bind to Abs or TCRs.
True.
Macrophages, DCs and B cells are all:
Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)
True or False. DCs only express MHC class I.
False. DCs express MHC class I and II. They are the most effective APC.
True or False.
MHC class I bind to antigenic peptides that come from outside the cell.
False.
MHC class I bind to antigenic peptides that come from INSIDE the cell.
What is the complex that combines with T cells to transmit signals into the T cell.
CD3
2 signals are required for T cell activation. What are they?
1. TCR binding to peptide: MHC
2. Costimulatory signals
CD28 (CTL or Th cell) and B7 (APC)

B7 are often upregulated in response to microbial stimuli helps ensure that T cells respond to infected cells.
The bridge between innate and adaptive immunity.
Dendritic Cells
Naive T cells
Mature T cells when activated by APC (with both signals)
Proliferation (clonal expansion)
Effector T cells or Memory Cells

What are the 2 types of Effector T cells?
CD4+ T cells (help B cells make Abs)
and CD8+ T cells (kills target cells)
B cell activation requires 2 signals. What are they?
1. BCR binding to Ags
2. Cytokines made by T cells

Result: Ab production by B cells
Name the 4 steps of T-dependent antigen triggering for B cell activation.
1. APC presents Ag to CD4+T cell via MHC class II
2. CD4+ T cell is activated to proliferate and produce cytokine (TH2 cell)
3. CD4+ TH2 cell interacts with a B cell displaying the same Ag on its MHC class II
4. B cell has received both signals so it proliferates and becomes a plasma cell making Abs
How do B cells display their Ags on their MHC class II?
BCR internalizes Ags.
80% if serum Ig
Opsonin, activates complement
Only Ig that can cross placenta
IgG
Pentamer
First Ig Produced
Complement Activation
IgM
Secreted Across mucosal surfaces
Tears, saliva, breast milk
IgA
Parts of BCR
IgD
major Ig in allergy
IgE
cross-linked bacterial cell antigens
Agglutination
Cell-free molecule in solution (antibody and Ag)
Percipitation
Opsonization
Oppsonized bacteria engulfed more rapidly
Neutralization
antibodies block binding of virus to host cells
Lysing bacterial cells (MAC)
Complement Fixation
Is the consequence of a person developing his or her own immune response to a microbe
Active Immunity
is the consequence of one person receiving performed immunity made by another person
Passive Immunity
1. Discrimination between self and non-self
2. Diversity
3. Specificity
4. Memory

What are these hallmarks of?
Adaptive Immunity