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290 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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variety of organisms of different sizes and shapes found in most environmental conditions
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mixed population
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separating the progeny (offspring) of a single bacterial cell from all other bacteria.
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pure culture
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T or F all cells in a pure culture are the same relative size and shape bacterium
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T.
that is they are clones of the single (single specie) |
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Mass of cells all descended from original one
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colony
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T or F about a 10 million cells are required for a colony to be visible to the naked eye
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F
1 million are required |
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the simplest and most commonly used technique for isolating the progeny of a single bacterium is?
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Streak plate method
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What type of growth is this
<Cell> l \l/ <Cell><Cell> I \I/ <Cell> <Cell> |
Bacterial growth- Binary fission
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time required to for a population to double (doubling time) in number
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Generation time
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if a bacteria can divide every 30 which is about 1 million in 10hrs how many would you have in 12 hours? (note double every 30mins)
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about 16million
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the adjustment phase of the phases of growth of bacteria is?
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Lag phase
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what phase in the phases of growth once adapted, population growth occurs at an exponential or logarithmic
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Log Phase
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Which of the phases of growth would you find Generation time or doubling time
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Log Phase
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which phase is when cell division reaches a point where the number of new cells equals the number of old cells
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Stationary Phase
cells are said to be stationary |
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as waste products build, and nutrients deplete, bacteria begin to die in increasing number describes which phase of the phases of growth?
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Decline phase
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Which growth measurement is most convenient and simplest method of determining the mass of cells in a population
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Spectrophotometry
(MASS of cells) |
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Which type of growth measurement uses light which is scattered off bacteria that passes through the cell suspension?
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Spectrophotometry
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T or F Bacteria absorbs light which is passed through the cell suspension?
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F
it scatters it |
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T or F in Spectrophotometry, when light is passed through a cell suspension the amount of light which is scattered is indirectly proportional to the mass of cells present
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F
when light is passed through a cell suspension the amount of light which is scattered is proportional to the mass of cells present |
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T or F Spectrophotometry does not take into account pellicles and sediments
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T
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Can Spectrometry distinguish between living and non-living cells?
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No
only Plate count method can distinguish between dead and living cells |
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what is the optimal region for plate count method to be accurate?
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30<(bacteria)<300
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which is the growth measurement which is the most rapid
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Direct microscopic counts
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how do you use direct microscopic counting
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One counts the number of bacteria in an accurately measured volume of liquid in a special glass slide (counting chamber)
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what is the glass slide which you use an accurately measured volume of liquid in order to count the number of bacteria called?
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Counting Slide
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T or F if an organism is taken from its original habitat and tested in a laboratory and adapted to the conditions of the laboratory it will be able to survive both in its original habitat and the laboratories environment from then on.
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True and False after it is introduced into a new habitat it MAY not be able to survive in its original habitat
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bacteria which grows between -5*C and 15*C are called?
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Psychrophile
found in Arctic and antarctic regions -5= 23F 15=59F |
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bacteria which grows between 20*C to 30*C
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Psychrotroph
20=68F 30=86F |
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What Psychro- is known to cause food spoilage in most cases
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Psychrotrophs
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T or F influenza grows at cooler temps which is why it enters your nose
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Truuuuu
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Which bacteria has an optimum growth temperature between 45*C and 80*C
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Thermophiles
45c=113F 80c=176F |
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Which Bacteria grows in optimum temperatures of 70*C and 110*C
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Hyperthermophiles
70C=158F 110C=230F |
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which bacteria are usually members of the archaea?
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Hyperthermophiles
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which bacteria are usually members of the archaea?
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Hyperthermophiles
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Which type of bacteria maybe found in thermal environments such as water heaters
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Thermophiles
Heat Stable lipids, nucleic acids and proteins allow them to survive |
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what type of bacteria uses heat stable lipids, nucleic acids and proteins which allow them to survive
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thermophiles
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have an absolute requirement for oxygen because they metabolize sugars through a pathway that require oxygen and have a oxygen range from 21% or greater
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Obligate (strict) aerobes
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what group of bacteria includes the genera Bacillus and Pseudomonas and Anthrax (these require 21% or greater oxygen range)
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Obligate (strict) aerobes
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which bacterial growth can not grow if there is any oxygen present?
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Obligate (strict) anaerobes
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which bacterial growths would be killed or denatured by hydrogen peroxide due to its oxygenated properties?
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Obligate (Strict) anaerobes
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over half of all bacteria are ________
a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. Facultative anaerobes d. Aerotolerant anaerobes |
B. anaerobic
are killed or denatured by oxygen and therefore can be treated using hydrogen peroxide |
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if you stepped on a rusty nail which type of bacteria would most you most likely have introduce into your body?
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Obligate (Strict) anaerobes
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the best examples of Clostriduim and Bacteroides which grow in which way?
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Obligate (Strict) anaerobes
0% oxygen or death/denaturation |
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these bacterial cells grow on the top o the test tube (pellicle) due to their need for 21% or greater range of oxygen. What type of Bacterial growth is this?
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Obligate (Strict) aerobes
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these bacterial cells grow on the bottom of the test tube (sediment) due to their need for absolutely no oxygen. what type of bacterial growth is this?
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obligate (strict) anaerobes
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which bacterial growths are between 0% to 21% range of oxygen?
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Aerotolerant anaerobes
facultative anaerobes |
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which bacterial growths have both SOD and catalase
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Obligate (Strict) aerobes and Facultative anaerobes
Not Aerotolerant anaerobes they do not have catalase but have SOD |
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Which Bacterial growths Have SOD but not catalase
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Aerotolerant anaerobes
Not Obligate (strict) aerobes or Faculative which have SOD and CATALASE |
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T or F Facultative anaerobes growth is generally more rapid if oxygen is present by making ATP
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True
even though they do not need oxygen to reproduce with oxygen they can reproduce faster |
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yeast are good examples of what type of bacterial growths?
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Facultative anaerobes
EX: Escherichia coli and Saccharomyces |
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which bacterial growth requires small amounts of oxygen (2%-10%) but greater amounts of oxygen concentrations are toxic?
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microaerophilic organisms
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which bacterial growth has the enzyme myeloperoxide?
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Microaerophilic organisms
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Peptic ulcers (Helicobacter pylori) is caused by a bacteria which grows through what type of growth?
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Microaerophilic organisms
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this bacterial growth could have mucous gel which coats the stomach lining which contains low levels of oxygen
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Microaerophilic organisms
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which bacterial growths have an oxygen range of 0-21% and also utilize SOD enzyme?
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Facultative anaerobes- also uses catalase
Aerotolerant anaerobes- only uses SOD |
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which bacterial growth can grow in both oxygenated or non-oxygenated environments but derives no benefit from growing in oxygenated environments
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Aerotolerant anaerobes
SOD no Catalase |
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which bacterial growth is known as "Obligate Fermenters"
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Aerotoerant anaerobes
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what bacterial growth will ferment when oxygen is not present but will utilize oxygen if it is present?
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Faculatative anaerobes
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which bacterial growth will ferment whether or not oxygen is present in its environment
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Aerotoerant anaerobes
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which bacterial growth takes the longest to grow?
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aerotolerant anaerobes
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Streptoccus pyogenes (strep throat) utilizes what type of bacterial growth?
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aerotolerant anaerobes
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what is the pH necessary for most species of bacteria to grow optimally?
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pH 7 (neutral)
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Which type of bacterias grow optimally at pH below 5.4
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acidophiles
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acidophiles neutralize acids by converting urea to ammonia by using what enzyme
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urease
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neutrophile exist between what pH
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pH 5.4-8.5
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which class of bacteria which cause most human disease are in?
a. acidophiles b. neutrophiles c. alkalanophiles |
b. neutrophiles
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alkaliphiles grow between what optimal pH's
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pH 7.0-11.5
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vibrio cholerae likes pH of 9.0 what bacterial pH group does this fall into
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alkaliphiles- 7.0-11.5
not: acidophiles- less than 5.4 neutorophiles- 5.4-8.5 |
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cholera that was found in London's water pump came from what type of water
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rice water Stool
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when dealing with alkaliphiles in the lab you might have to supply your bacteria with what to their medium in order to prevent the acid byproduct of the bacterias metabolism which inhibits their growth?
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Buffers are often supplied in the medium
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pressure required to prevent the net flow of water across a semipermeable membrane is called
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Osmotic pressure
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the greater the concentration the _____ the osmotic pressure. the lower the concentration the ______ the osmotic pressure
a. greater/greater b. lower/lower c. greater/lower d. lower/ greater |
c. greater/lower
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you can divide organisms into groups based on what?
a. their source of energy b. source of carbon for the synthesis of all the organic molecules that make up the cell components c. both d. neither |
c. both
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what are the 2 major types of bacterial nutrition which is based on energy?
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Phototrophs- organisms harvest energy from sunlight
chemotrophs- organisms that obtain energy by metabolizing chemical compounds |
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what type of organisms get their nutrition from harvesting energy from sunlight
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Phototrophs
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Which type of organisms gets their nutrition by obtaining energy by metabolizing chemical compounds
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chemotrophs
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Heterotrophs uses which type of carbon for its nutritional aspect
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Organic carbon- such as glucose
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Autotrophs use which type of carbon for its nutritional aspect
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Inorganic carbon in the form of Carbon dioxide
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which is a medically important bacteria typically uses an organic source of carbon such as glucose?
a. heterotrophs b. autotrophs c. both d. neither |
a. heterotrophs
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photoautotrophs use what for energy?
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sunlight and inorganic carbon in the atmosphere to make organic compounds
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Algae and cyanobacteria use what type of energy to get their nutrition?
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Photoautotrophic- sunlight+inorganic Carbon
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Photoheterotrophs use what for energy
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sunlight and carbon from organic compounds
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what type of bacteria gets its nutrition from both sunlight and carbon from inorganic compounds
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photoautotrophs
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what type of bacteria gets its nutrition from both sunlight and carbon from organic compounds
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Photoheterotrophs
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what type of bacteria get its nutrition from inorganic compounds for energy and their carbon from carbon dioxide
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Chemoautotrophs
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how do chemoautotrophs recieve their energy and carbon?
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inorganic compounds for energy and carbon from carbon dioxide
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how do chemoheterotrophs recieve their energy and carbon?
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they use organic compounds for both energy and carbon
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how do fungi, protozoa, and bacteria get their nutrition?
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Chemoheterotrophically
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Fastidious bacteria requires what?
a. additional ingredients to grow b. special pH c. special Temp d. all of the above e. none of the above |
d. all of the above
fastidious bacteria requires- 1. additional ingredients to grow 2. special pH and Temp |
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Neisseria requires at least 40 additional ingredients, including 7 vitamins and all of the 20 amino acids. what bacterial growth group does this bacteria fall under?
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Fastidious bacteria
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what are small organic molecules, other than energy or carbon, that bacteria must be provided in order to grow?
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Growth factor
Ex: amino acids and vitamins |
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what is growth factors are necessary for the synthesis of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA)
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Purines and pyrimidines
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what is required for the synthesis of proteins
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amino acids
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what is needed as coenzymes and functional groups of certain enzymes
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Vitamins
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what culture media is composed of mixtures of pure chemicals
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Chemically defined
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which culture media is not practical for use in laboratories
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chemically defined media (synthetic)
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T or F in a chemically defined media (synthetic) it is composed of pure chemicals and the composition is known
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True
also it is not practical for use in laboratories |
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which culture media contains nutrients released by the partial digestion of yeast, beef, soy, or proteins such as casein from milk
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complex (undefined) media
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which culture media contains a variety of ingredients such as meat juices and digested proteins, making a tasty soup for microbes?
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complex (undefined) media
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nutrient broth, nutrient agar, serum, chocolate agar, blood agar. are all what type of media
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complex (undefined) media
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what are anaerobe jars or candle jars used for when used in anaerobic media?
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used to grow anaerobic organisms
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thioglycollate, cysteine, or sodium sulfide are what type of culture medias and what specific type of that media is it
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anaerobic media
oxygen-binding agents |
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oxygen-binding agents in the medium prevent what?
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they prevent oxygen from exerting toxic effects on anaerobes
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in a anaerobic media, screw cap tubes are used for?
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sealing out the air
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what is stabbing a straight inoculating wire coated with organisms into a tube of agar-solidified medium?
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stab culture
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what encourages growth of some organisms while inhibiting others?
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selective media
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T or F Mannitol salt agar has 7.5% NaCl which is selective agent and only let halophils grow.
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True
Staphlyococci |
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T or F MacConkey agar contains bile salts which allows most non-intestinal bacteria but will let gram negative bacteria from gut grow
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False MacConkey agar contains bile salt which will INHIBIT most non-intestinal bacteria but will let gram negative bacteria from gut grow
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what differentiates between two or more genera or species
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special types of culture media called a differential
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T or F any media can be selective as well as differential
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True
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what 2 main functions must cells carry out?
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1. degradation of food to generate energy and small molecules
2. the use of the energy to convert the small molecules into macromolecules and cell structures |
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what are the three major pathways in which food is degraded?
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1. glycolysis
2. the TCA cycle 3. Pentose Phosphate pathway |
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T or F glycolysis produces much more energy than the TCA cycle for the same amount of food degraded.
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False TCA produces more than the Glycolysis
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the main functions of the TCA cycle and Glycolysis EXCEPT?
A. produce energy B. synthesize precursor metabolites which are converted into the subunits of macromolecules C. generate reducing power to be used in biosynthetic reactions D. All of the above are true |
D. All of the above are true
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what pertains to all chemical reactions and physical workings of the cell?
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Metabolism
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what is synthesis of cell molecules and structure consume energy
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anabolism
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what is degradation or breaking of large molecules into smaller molecules and often release energy
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catabolism
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what is a metabolite?
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any compound produced in metabolism
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degradative reactions yield what
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energy
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degradation of glucose by bacteria as well as humans must result in the formation of what three main classes of molecules?
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1. ATP
2. NADH 3. precursor metabolites that serve as the starting materials for the synthesis of small molecules that are synthesizes into cell structures |
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what is the most common pathway of the three main catabolic pathways?
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glycolysis
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glucose is converted into pyruvic acid in what catabolic pathway
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glycolysis
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what 2 catabolic pathways generate ATP
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glycolysis
TCA cyle |
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many bacteria and yeast use which pathway to degrade glucose and other sugars
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glycolysis
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what catabolic pathway is used when pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and water?
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TCA cycle
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How does the TCA cycle generate ATP?
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by trapping the energy of pyruvic acid
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what catabolic pathway is used when glucose is converted to compounds that enter the pathway of glycolysis?
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Pentose phosphate pathway
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which catabolic pathway does not generate ATP?
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Pentose phosphate pathway
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when yeast degrades glucose into waste products it is what type of reaction? the production of more yeast cells is what type of reaction?
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1. Catabolic
2. Anabolic |
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decomposition of natural products in the absence of air is called?
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Fermentation
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number of acids as well as large amounts of alcohol could be produced as a byproduct of what?
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fermentation
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what is the chief culprit in tooth decay?
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Lactic Acid
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what is responsible for pain that occurs in muscles during strenuous exercise?
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Lactic Acid
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bacteria which carry out lactic acid fermentation are called?
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Lactic acid bacteria
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what is responsible for the cells ability to carry out functions necessary for cell multiplication?
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enzymes
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T or F a single enzyme molecule can convert as many as 1 million substrate molecules per second to products
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True
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on the surface of the enzyme there is a space where the substrate binds called a ....
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Active site
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when the substrate binds by weak forces to the active site this is called what?
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Enzyme-substrate complex
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after the enzyme reaction a product is released leaving the enzyme _______.
a. positive b. negative c. unchange d. changed |
c. unchanged
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some enzymes act with the assistance of a non-protein, inorganic ions, of low molecular mass in order to work called a __________
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cofactor
EX: Magnesium, zinc, copper, and other trace elements |
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what are small non-protein organic molecules such as nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
|
coenzymes
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T or F enzymes and coenzymes both take part in only a single reaction
|
False
unlike enzymes, coenzymes do not take part in only a single reaction, but they associate with many different enzymes that catalyze different reactions |
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T or F both enzymes and coenzymes are recycled so they are only needed in minute quantities
|
True
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what are relatively small organic molecules required for the catalytic function of certain enzymes?
|
Coenzymes
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T or F coenzymes may either be attached by covalent bonds to a particular enzyme or exist freely in solution
|
True
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T or F once the structure of the enzyme is altered, in the course of the reaction, it will remain
|
False
it will always restore its original structure in subsequent reactions catalyzed by other enzyme systems |
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NAD, NADP, FAD, CoA, these are types of what
|
coenzymes
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what coenzyme do these vitamins produce.
1. Niacin--> 2. riboflavin--> 3. pantothenic acid--> 4. B-12--> 5. Thiamin (B-1)--> |
1. niacin- NAD+
2. riboflavin- FAD 3. pantothenic acid- CoA 4. B-12- Co B-12 5. thiamin (B-1) - thiaminpyrophospate (TPP) |
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which 2 coenzymes main function is oxidation or hydrogen transfer
A. NAD & FAD B. CoA & FAD C. TPP & CoA D. None of the above |
A. NAD and FAD
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which coenzyme, from the chart in our notes, is a acetyl group carrier?
|
CoA
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which coenzyme, from the chart in our notes, deals with methyl group transfer?
|
coenzyme B-12 (Co B-12)
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which coenzyme, from the chart in our notes, deals with aldehyde group transfer?
|
TPP
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a rise in temperature will double the speed of the enzymatic reaction?
A. 2C B. 5C C. 10C D. 15C |
C. 10C
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what will a too high increase in temperature do to a protein and the enzymatic reaction?
|
it will denature the proteins causing the enzymes to become inactive
|
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T or F the allosteric site can be found at the active site
|
False
allo- means other than |
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regulation of enzyme activity through the binding of allosteric effector to the enzyme is called
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allosteric regulation
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allosteric effectors which activate are called?
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positive effectors
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allosteric effectors which inhibit are called?
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negative effectors
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enzymes which are subjected to allosteric regulation is called?
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allosteric enzymes
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biosynthetic pathways are necessary to make
A. nucleotides B. amino acids C. both D. neither |
C. both
biosynthetic pathways: nucleotides amino acids sugars Lipids |
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the mechanism by which biosynthetic and catabolic pathways regulate themselves is called?
|
feedback regulation
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allosteric inhibition is an example of what type of enzyme inhibition?
|
non-competitive inhibitor
because the substrate and the inhibitor act on different sites on the enzyme |
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inhibitors which don't compete for the active site are called?
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non-competitive
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inhibitors which damage the enzymes permanently are called?
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non-reversible
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T or F cyanide, arsenic, mercury and nerve gasses are all competitve and non-reversible
|
False
Non-competitive and non-reversible |
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which inhibitor binds to the active site or the enzyme, obstructing access of the substrate?
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competitive inhibition
|
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DNA has two main functions what are these?
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1. storing genetic information
2. reproducing itself |
|
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what in bacteria may change with changes in the environment that turn on and off gene functions
|
enzymes
(-denature-) |
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uracil replaces what other pyrimidine when looking at a RNA structure vs a DNA structure?
|
Thymine
DNA A--T G--C RNA A--U G--C |
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Adenine and guanine are _______ and cytosine, thymine, and uracil are ______.
|
Purines
Pyrimidines |
|
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5* A-C-C-T-T-G-G-A-T-C-G 3*
what is the complementary strand? (DNA) |
3* T-G-G-A-A-C-C-T-A-G-C 5*
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which type of RNA carries the DNA message that get translated into proteins?
|
mRNA
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which type of RNA interpret the genetic code on mRNA and carries a specific Amino Acid
|
tRNA
|
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which type of RNA makes up ribosomes along with ribosomal proteins?
|
rRNA
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why is DNA information duplicated prior to cell division?
|
that way after binary fission both cells will have the same genetic information as the parental cell
|
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the average gene is made up of over how many nucleotides?
A. 1000 B. 5000 C. 10000 D. 15000 |
A. 1,000
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the human genome contains more than how many genes
A. 5000 B. 10000 C. 15000 D. 25000 |
D. 25,000
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during Replication of DNA, two strands of DNA separate at a specific site called?
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origin of replication
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synthesis of new strands occurs at the __________ which progresses around the entire DNA molecule as the strand separates.
|
replication fork
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what unzip template strands into leading and lagging strands?
|
Helicase
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T or F DNA polymerase cannot add nucleotides to the 3' end of DNA
|
False
polymerase cannot add nucleotides to the 5' end of DNA |
|
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what are nucleic acid fragments generated during discontinuous replication of the lagging strand of DNA
|
Okazaki fragments
|
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during DNA replication, what seals the gaps between fragments by forming covalent bonds
|
DNA ligase
|
|
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enzyme that sequentially adds nucleotides to the growing strand is called?
|
DNA polymerase
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DNA replication occurs in what direction?
|
5' ---> 3'
|
|
|
mistakes happen in approximately how many nucleotides?
A. 100k B. 1milion C. 100milion D. 1billion |
D. 1 billion
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|
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what basically Proof reads DNA?
|
DNA Polymerase
|
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what is semiconservative replication?
|
each of the two double-stranded molecules contains one of the original strands and a newly synthesized strand
|
|
|
what type of replication has one of the original strands plus one newly synthesized strand of DNA
|
semiconservative replication
this is how we produce our DNA this is done in order to make sure there are no mistakes in DNA synthesis |
|
|
T or F DNA replicates bidirectionally
|
True
allows an entire chromosome to be replicated in Half the time |
|
|
what is a fragment of nucleic acid to which DNA polymerase can add nucleotides?
|
Primer
|
|
|
what unzips DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork
|
Helicase
|
|
|
what uses one strand of DNA as a template to generate the complementary strand
|
DNA Polymerases
|
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what temporarily breaks the strands of DNA relieving the tension caused by unwinding the two strands of the DNA helix
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DNA gyrase
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what synthesizes small fragment of RNA to serve as primers for DNA synthesis during discontinuous replication of the lagging strand
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Primase
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what Joins two DNA fragments by forming a covalent bond between the sugarphosphate residues of adjacent nucleotides
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DNA Ligase
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what is the distinct region of a DNA molecule at which replication is initiated call?
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origin of replication
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the process of synthesizing RNA from DNA is called
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Transcription
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information encoded on a mRNA is deciphered to synthesize a protein is called?
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Translation
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what is a - ve strand?
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strand of DNA that serves as the template for RNA synthesis. resulting RNA molecule is complementary to this strand
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what is a + ve strand
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strand of DNA complementary to the one that serve as the template for RNA synthesis. sequence of the resulting RNA molecule is analogous to this strand
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a transcript which carries 1 gene is a what?
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monocistronic
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a transcript which carries multiple genes is called?
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polycistronic
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in transcription, the direction towards the 5' end of the transcribed region is called?
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upstream
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in transcription, the direction towards the 3' is called
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downstream
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T or F a promotor is upstream of a gene
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True
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what identifies the region of the DNA molecule that will be transcribed into RNA?
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Promotor
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what phase of Transcription does RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to a promoter region on a double stranded DNA?
A. Initiation or RNA synthesis B. elongation C. termination D. None |
A. Initiation or RNA synthesis
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what phase of transcription does binding melts a short stretch of DNA, creating a region of exposed nucleotides which serves as template for RNA synthesis
A. initiation of RNA synthesis B. elongation C. termination D. None |
A. initiation of RNA synthesis
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what phase of transcription would you find the sigma factor
A. initiation of RNA synthesis B. elongation C. termination D. None |
A. initiation of RNA synthesis
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particular subunit of RNA polymerase which recognizes the promoter region prior to the initiation of transcription is called?
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sigma factor
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after transcription is initiated what happens to the sigma factor?
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the sigma factor dissociates from RNA polymerase leaving the remaining portion core enzyme to complete transcription
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what phase of transcription does RNA polymerase moves along the the template strand of the DNA and synthesizes a single stranded messager RNA molecule
A. initiation of RNA synthesis B. elongation C. termination D. None |
B. elongation
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what phase of transcription does RNA polymerase encounters a terminator and falls off the DNA template and releases the newly synthesized RNA
A. initiation of RNA synthesis B. elongation C. termination D. None |
C. termination
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what is a sequence of nucleotides in the DNA that when transcribed, permits two complementary regions of the resulting RNA to base-pair, forming a hairpin loop structure?
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Terminator
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coded information contained in RNA and DNA is called?
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codons
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what does degenerated code mean?
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multiple codons code for the same amino acid
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translation is initiated by what?
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start codon
AUG |
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T or F all proteins start with methionine (AUG)
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True
AUG |
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what terminates translation, signaling the end of the protein?
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stop codon
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there are three stop codons what are these?
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UAA
UAG UGA Start codon: aug |
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what is the key molecule in Translation?
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tRNA
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what has three nucleotides complementary to a particular codon in the mRNA
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Anticodon
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tRNA is said to be ___1____ when it is bound to an amino acid and ___2______ when it is not
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1. Charged
2. Uncharged |
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
mRNA must be transported out of the nucleus |
eukaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
transcription and translation are not coupled |
eukaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
mRNA molecules must be severely modified in the nucleus after transcription is complete |
eukaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
have no nucleus |
prokaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
the process of transcription and translation are said to be coupled |
prokaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
they can occur simultaneously as mRNA is forming a ribosome may attach and translation can begin |
prokaryotes
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eukaryotic or prokaryotic:
mRNA is polycitronic |
prokaryotes
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in eukaryotes, blocks of genes that do not code for anything, but are still transcribed is called?
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Introns
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T or F Introns are moved from tRNA
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False
they are removed from mRNA |
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what are the 2 major factors in which diversity of bacteria stems from?
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1. different sequence of nucleotides in DNA code for different proteins
2. expression of genetic information is regulated so the genes are turned off and on, depending on the particular environment |
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what is the sequence of nucleotides in the organisms DNA is called?
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Genotype
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T or F Genotypical changes are rare
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True
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T or F genotype is involved in changes in the nucleotide sequence (mutation)
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True
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what is the expression of the genotype?
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Phenotype
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T or F Phenotype depends on the genotype but not the environment
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False
depends on both |
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T or F phenotypic changes are readily reversible
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True
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T or F when environment changes back to the original environment, bacterial population will change back to their original property
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True
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name some types of gene mutations
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spontaneous and induced mutation
base substitutions frame shift chemical mutation radiation |
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what is a change in the nucleotide base sequence of a genome?
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mutation
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what are agents which cause mutations?
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mutagens
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rate of spontaneous mutations in genes is between ______ and ______ per cell division
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10^-4 and 10^-12
10k to 1trillion |
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T or F repair mechanism corrects any mistakes or damage in DNA but not before it is passed on to its progeny cells
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False
repair mechanism corrects any mistakes or damage in DNA before they are passed on to progeny cells |
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what is the spontaneous mutation called base substitution?
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incorrect purine or pyrimidine base is incorporated into the DNA
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if only one base pair is changed or replacement of a purine with another purine, or a pyrimidine with another pyrimidine is called
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Point mutation
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what is the mutation which results in the substitution of a different amino acid?
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Missense mutation
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what is the mutation which a base-pair substitution changes an amino acid codon into a stop codon
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Nonsense mutation
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what type of mutation: deletion or addition of one or several nucleotides?
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Frameshift mutation
Results in a knockout mutation |
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which mutation is considered a knockout mutation?
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frameshift mutation
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which type of mutation: segments of DNA that can move spontaneously from one site to another in the same or different DNA molecules in a process
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Transposition
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induced mutation occurs in the presence of a __________
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mutagen
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how do chemical mutagens work?
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they act by altering the hydrogen-bonding properties of the nitrogenous bases purines and pyrimidines
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nitrates(NO3) and nitrites(NO2) once in the body form nitrosamines which are determing agents known to cause birth defects, cancer, and mutation in lab animals. what are some food which have these products?
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hot dogs, cold cuts, salad bars
NO3 and NO2 as perservatives or flavoring agents |
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Nitric acid converts amino (-NH2) groups to keto (C=O) groups, by converting cytosine to___1____, which then pairs with adenine rather that ____2____
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1. uracil
2. guanine |
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what is the largest group of chemical mutagens
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alkaylating agents
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what are highly reactive chemicals that add alkyl group (short chains of carbon atoms) onto the nitrogenous bases, altering their hydrogen-bonding properties?
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Alkaylating agents
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T or F alkaylating agents are compounds used in cancer therapy
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True
even though evidence now exist that the use of some of these agents will cause new cancers to arise more than 10 years after they have been used successfully in treating the original cancer |
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what resembles the purine and pyrimidine bases and are incorporated into DNA in place of the natural bases during DNA replication?
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Base Analog
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what inserts itself or intercalate between adjacent base pairs in the replication fork in DNA synthesis and also causes frameshift mutations
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Acridine derivative
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how does light repair or photoreactivation work
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in the presence of visible light an enzyme can break the covalent bond of thymine dimers
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how does dark repair or excision repair work?
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an enzyme excises the damaged segment from a single strand of DNA and another enzyme synthesizes a complementary strand
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DNA ligase is and example of ....
A. light Repair B. Dark Repair C. both D. neither |
Dark repair/ excision repair
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T or F during x-rays this causes single and double stranded breaks in DNA and alteration to the bases. Double stranded breaks results in deletions which are lethal
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True
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T or F strong radiation can rip through both strands of a DNA molecule causing irreparable damage
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True
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what is the most critical molecule to the cell
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DNA
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what is the most important function which a cell does
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able to repair damaged DNA
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T or F cell damage can lead to cell death or cancer
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True
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what is defined as the probability that a mutation will occur in a given gene each time a cell divides and is generally expressed as a negative exponent per cell division?
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rate of mutation
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DNA is transferred as Naked DNA
A. DNA-mediated transformation B. Transduction C. conjugation D. none |
A. DNA mediated transformation
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DNA is transferred by a bacterial virus is called
A. DNA-mediated transformation B. Transduction C. conjugation D. none |
B. transduction
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DNA is transferred between bacteria that are in contrast with one another is called?
A. DNA-mediated transformation B. Transduction C. conjugation D. none |
C. Conjunction
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what is the movement of genetic information between organisms?
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gene transfer
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what are sex cells which unite to form zygotes of a new individual?
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gametes
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T or F gene transfer is a essential part of bacterias life cycle
|
False
gene transfer is not an essential part of bacterias life cycle |
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combining of genes from two different cells is called?
|
recombination
the resulting cell is called the recombinant |
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some viruses have bacteria as their host, and are thus called what?
|
bacteriophages
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plasmids range in size from ____ to _______ bases
|
1000 to 30,000
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T or F extrachromosomal piece of double stranded DNA is called Plasmids
|
True
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T or F plasmids multiplies independently of the chromosomes
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True
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which type of plasmid conjugates with other bacteria of similar species and transfer genetic information
|
F plasmids
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which type of plasmid codes for the synthesis sex or F pilus
|
F plasmids
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Which type of plasmids carry genes that code for antibiotic resistance
|
R plasmids
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F plasmids which are donor are
A. Male B. Female C. Both D. neither |
Male
F+ contain a plasmid called a fertility plasmid |
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F plasmids which are recipient are considered
A. male B. female C. both D. neither |
Female
F- lack the F plasmid |
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Restriction or modification enzymes:
degrades entry of foreign DNA into cell |
Restriction enzyme
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Restriction or modification enzymes:
present in virtually all species of prokaryotes |
restriction enzyme
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Restriction or modification enzymes:
absent in eukaryotes |
restriction enzyme
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Restriction or modification enzymes:
this enzyme adds methyl group to adenine and cytosine |
modification enzymes
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