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334 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are portals of entry for microbials in the human body?
- nose

- mouth

- skin

- sex

- eyes
what are examples of viruses that can infect the respiratory tract?
- rhinoviruses (cause colds

- myxoviruses (cause flu)
what ar examples of bacteria that can infect the respiratory tract?
- bordetella pertusis

- heamophilus influenza

- streptococcus pneumoniae

- streptococcus pyogenes

- neisseria menengitidis
what are examples of fungi that can infect the respiratory tract?
- candida albicans
how do diseases primarly enter the mouth?
through contaminated food or water
what are examples of waterborne bacteria?
- vibrio cholerae

- E. coli

- giardia
what are examples of foodborne bacteria?
- salmonella

- E. coli

- staphylococcus aureas

- vibrio cholerae

- shigella
how are ways that microbes can enter through the skin?
- some bacteria use enzymes to get through

- some worms burrow through

- abrasions and punctures can be portals of entry
what are examples of ticks or insects that can infect the skin?
- ticks (borrelia brugdorferi) cause lyme disease

- Anopheles mosquitoes (Plasmodium) cause malaria

- Tse Tse fly (T. gambiense) causes sleeping sickness
how do insects and ticks cause microbes to enter through skin?
they serve as vectors to introduce pathogens through skin
what are examples of objects causing microbes to enter through skin?
- rusty nail punctures (clostridium tetani) causes tetanus

- Contaminated needle pricks (HIV) causes AIDS
what are examples of animal bites that cause microbes to enter through skin?
- dog bite (rhabdoviruses) causes rabbis

- human bite: many bacteria and viruses found in the mouth and saliva
what are examples of organisms that can enter the body through sex?
- Treponema pallidum causes syphilis

- neisseria gonorrhea causes gonorrhea

- HIV causes AIDS

- herpes virus causes herpes
what is the covering that protects the eyes?
- Conjuctiva

- this is the outer covering of the eye

- its a barrier, but some bacteria can bind to it
what are examples of microbes entering the body through the eyes?
- haemophilus aegyptius causes pinkeye

- chlamydia trachomatis causes trachoma

- herpes simplex virus (can enter through injury to eye)

- acanthamoeba caused by dirty contact lenses
what are portal of exits in the human body?
- nose

- gastrointestinal tract

- sex
what are examples of organisms that can exit through the respiratory tract?
- airborne: yersina pestis causes bubonic plague

- Touch: rhinoviruses cause common colds
what are examples of organisms that exit through the gastrointestinal tract?
- feces: vibrio cholerae causes cholera

- shigella/salmonella causes dysentery/diarrhea

- poliovirus causes polio
what are examples of organisms that can exit through the body during sex?
- treponema pallidum causes syphilis

- neisseria gonorrhea causes gonorrhea

- HIV causes AIDS

- chlamydia trachomatis causes trachoma

- herpes viruses cause herpes
what are adherence factors?
- aka adhesions

- found on the surface of bacteria and used to stick to tissues and for attachment
what are examples of some bacterial parts that can be considered adherence factors?
- fimbriae

- spikes

- flagella and hooks
how are fimbriae used as adhesion?
- these are used to attach to urogential mucosal epithelial cells

- used by organisms like N. gonorrheae
how are spikes used as adhesion?
- used for attachment to host cell receptors

- found in many viruses
how are flagella and hooks used as adhesion?
- binds to their host cell

- found in many organisms
what are examples of some virulence factors?
- adherence factors

- capsules

- enzymes

- toxins
what are capsule glycocalyx?
- bacteria can produce slimy molecules primarily made of carbs
what are capsules made of?
- they are heat labile structures

- made of polysaccharide and/or proteins
what are capsules used for?
- used to prevent phagocytosis by macrophages and PMN's
what are examples of bacteria that produce capsules?
- streptococcus pneumoniae

- yersinia pestis

- klebssiella pnemoniae

- haemophilus influenzae
what do s. mutans produce and why?
- produce dextran

- this helps it to bind to teeth to produce plaque
what are examples of enzymes that act as virulence factors?
- coagulase

- kinases

- hyaluronidase

- DNase

- hemolysins
what is coagulase?
- produced by staphylococcus aureus

- capable of clotting serum

- converts fibrinogen to fibrin (thus plasma clots)

- may contribute to pathogenesis by inhibiting phagocytosis
what are kinases?
- capable of breaking blood clots

- strepkinase and staphylokinase are proteases that convert plasminogen to plasmin

- this dissolves clots and promotes bacterial spread
what is hyaluronidase?
- produced by streptococci and staphylococci

- known as spreading factor

- breaks down ground substance of connective tissue
what is DNase?
- produced by some streptococci and staphylococci

- degrades DNA

- thick pus contains viscous DNA released from dead phagocytes
what are hemolysins?
- enzymes that are able to break red blood cells

- enchances bacterial spread by breaking blood clots

- some can lyse cells
what are examples of hemoysins that can lyse cells?
- S. pyogenes streptolysin "O"

- "S" release cytoplasmic granules in leukocytes resulting in cell lysis
what are toxins?
they are poisons produced by bacteria and fungi
what is the most detrimental virulence factor?
toxins
what are the two major groups that toxins are divided into?
- endotoxins

- exotoxins
what are endotoxins?
- these are toxins that are part of the cell walls

- they are a major cause of death in hospitals

- they induce fever by releasing pyrogens
what is an example of an endotoxin?
- LPS

- LPS is part of the cell wall of gram negative bacteria

- the lipid A component of LPS is toxic
what are exotoxins?
- great majority of toxins and very important to humans

- released during growth and metabolism

- soluble proteins

- predominately produced by gram positive bacteria

- very immunogenic
which are more toxic - exotoxins or endotoxins?
generally exotoxins are
what are the 3 types of exotoxins?
- enterotoxins

- neurotoxins

- cytotoxins
what are enterotoxins?
these are toxins that act in the intestinal tract
what are examples of enterotoxins?
- cholera toxin

- E. Coli toxin
what does the cholera toxin do?
(produced by vibrio cholerae)

- increases cAMP

- the increase in cAMP results in severe diarrhea
what does the E. coli toxin do?
(produced by e. coli)

- increases cAMP

- causes travelers diarrhea
what are cytotoxins?
- toxins that act on the cells or tissues
what is an example of a cytotoxin?
- diphtheria toxin
what does the diphtheria toxin do?
(produced by corynibacterium diphtheriae)

- toxin coded by a bacteriophage that is found in C. diphtheriae

- inhibits protein synthesis
what are neurotoxins?
- toxins that act on the nervous system
what are examples of neurotoxins?
- botulism toxin

- tetanus toxin
what does the botulism toxin do?
(produced by clostridium botulinum)

- inhibits release of acetalcholine

- results in paralysis

- extremely powerful and minute amounts of it will result in death of patient
what does the tetanus toxin do?
(produced by clostridium tetani)

- known as lockjaw disease

- binds to neural gangliosides and blocks glycine release

- this inhibits nerve impulses to one muscle while the opposing muscle is contracting
what are examples of staphylococcus aureus exotoxins?
- hyaluronidase

- catalase

- exfoliative toxin

- staphylokinase
what does hyaluronidase toxin do?
- break hyaluronic acid and helps spread bacteria
what does the catalase toxin do?
breaks H2O2 ---> H2O + O2
what does the exfoliative toxin do?
- causes intradermal tissue speration
what does the staphylokinase toxin do?
- dissolves fibrin clots, allowing bacteria to spread
what are enterotoxin E and F?
- these toxins are powerful

- normally acquired from contaminated foods

- result in severe cramps, diarrhea, and vomiting

- cause staphylococcus food poisoning
what is TSS-I toxin?
- causes toxic shock syndrome

- in past, has been associated with tampon use
what is impetigo?
- caused by staphylococcus aureus

- causes epidermal swelling and usually break and peel away
what are cutaneous infections?
- caused by staphylococcus aureus

- example would be funcles (boils) that are abscesses resulting inflammation of a hair follicle or sabaccous gland
what is the best defense for non-specific microbes?
- uncompromised (unbroken) skin
how is uncompromised skin a protection from non-specific microbes?
- its tightly packed, so acts as a barrier

- low pH of skin inhibits bacterial growth

- oily substances from sebaceous glands inhibit most bacterial and fungal growth

- salts from sweat act as antimicrobial
what are examples of serious pathogens that can enter through broken skin?
- clostridium perfringenes causes gas gangrene

- clostridium tetani causes tetanus

- rhabdorviruses cause rabies

- plasmodium causes malaria
what are the 3 classifications of the 3 defense lines incase bacteria gains access to tissues?
- first line of defense

- second line of defense

- third line of defense
what is the first line of defense?
- hair

- mucous

- tear (lysozyme)

- cilia
what is the second line of defense?
- phagocytosis

- inflammation

- complement fixation
what is the third line of defense?
- humoral immunity

- T-cell mediated immunity
how does normal flora help protect the body?
- by competing with pathogenic bacteria for available nutrients
what can decrease normal flora?
- antibiotic treatment

- other health reason

(person then susceptible to infections like candida albicanas
what are the body's primary host defenses?
- mucous

- stomach acid and enzymes

- ear wax

- cleansing action
how does mucous protect the body?
- traps microorganisms

- contains lysozyme that hydrolyses the peptiodglycan layer of bacteria
where are lysozymes located?
- mucous

- tears

- saliva
how does stomach acid and enzymes protect the body?
- HCl in the stomach kill bacteria

- enzymes in intestine and stomach discourage bacterial growth
how does ear wax protect the body?
- traps microorganisms and prevents infections
what are the cleansing actions that protect the body?
- flow of urine

- eyeball washing by tears

- secretion of vaginal fluids

- vomiting
what is phagocytosis?
process of engulfing of foreign or large particles into vesicles
what are organisms that can phagocytose pathogens?
- macrophages (also act in processing presentation of antigens to T-cells)

- neutrophils

- polymorphonuclear leukocytes, PMN's
what are the stages of phagocytosis?
- chemotaxis

- formation of phagosome

- formation of phagolysosome

- destruction of pathogen

- removal of debris
what is inflammation?
- powerful non-specific defense mechanism

- almost every day occuring
what does inflammation happen in response to?
- injury

- irritation

- microbial infections

- heat

- radiation
what are the key hallmarks of inflammation?
- dilation

- increased blood vessel permeability
what does inflammation produce?
- edema (swelling)

- erythema (reddening

- heat (enhances phagocytosis and bacterial growth)

- pain
what are the effects from the chemicals released from the inflamed tissue and complement derived peptides?
- increased diapedesis and phagocytosis

- elevation of temperature by pyrogen, which enchances phagocytosis and reduces bacterial growth

- basophils and mast cells release mediators
what are the mediators that basophils and mast cells release during inflammation?
- histamine

- serotonin

- prostaglandins

- bradikinins
what do the basophil and mast cell mediators act as?
- act as vasodialators and increase vessel permeability
what does inflammation increase?
- phagocytosis

- diapedesis
where can the complement system be directed?
- specific or non-specific antigens
what is the complement system composed of?
- 20 blood proteins working in a cascade to lyse cellular antigens and neutralize viruses
where are complement proteins made?
- in the liver hepatocytes, lymphocytes, and monocytes
what does the complement system enhance and mediate?
- enhances phagocytosis

- mediates tissue inflammation
what are the two pathways for the complement system?
- the classical pathway

- the alternate pathway
what does the classical pathway require?
- presence of antibodies (IgM or IgG)

- classical component protein
what is the cascade order for the classical pathway?
C1

C4

C2

C3

C5

C6

C7

C8

C9
how is the classical system initiated?
- when IgM or IgG antibodies bind to a membrane of an antigen

- components of C1, C4, C2 act as initiation and magnification phases
what kind of pathway is the classical pathway?
- fast and very effective pathway in lysing cellular antigens
what are the steps in the classical pathway?
- recognition of antigens by IgM or IgG

- activation of C1q and formation activated complex C1qrs

- follwed by enzymatic activation of C4, C2, C3 and C5 by breaking each protein to "a" and "b" sub-units

- C4a, C2a, C3a, and C5a sub-units are released to the surrounding

- "b" sub-units bind and form the membrane complex

- Once C5 binds to the membrane attack complex, then C6, C7, C8, C9 bind and cell lysis occurs
what is the activation of the alternate pathway?
can be activated by:

- complex bacterial

- fungal

-plant polysaccharides

- C-reactive protein

-tumors

- C3i

*DOESN'T REQUIRE ANTIBODIES
what are the complement components required in the alternate pathway?
- factors B, D, P (properdin)

- C3, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
where are complement proteins made?
- in the liver hepatocytes, lymphocytes, and monocytes
what does the complement system enhance and mediate?
- enhances phagocytosis

- mediates tissue inflammation
what are the two pathways for the complement system?
- the classical pathway

- the alternate pathway
what does the classical pathway require?
- presence of antibodies (IgM or IgG)

- classical component protein
what is the cascade order for the classical pathway?
C1

C4

C2

C3

C5

C6

C7

C8

C9
how is the classical system initiated?
- when IgM or IgG antibodies bind to a membrane of an antigen

- components of C1, C4, C2 act as initiation and magnification phases
what kind of pathway is the classical pathway?
- fast and very effective pathway in lysing cellular antigens
what are the steps in the classical pathway?
- recognition of antigens by IgM or IgG

- activation of C1q and formation activated complex C1qrs

- follwed by enzymatic activation of C4, C2, C3 and C5 by breaking each protein to "a" and "b" sub-units

- C4a, C2a, C3a, and C5a sub-units are released to the surrounding

- "b" sub-units bind and form the membrane complex

- Once C5 binds to the membrane attack complex, then C6, C7, C8, C9 bind and cell lysis occurs
what is the activation of the alternate pathway?
can be activated by:

- complex bacterial

- fungal

-plant polysaccharides

- C-reactive protein

-tumors

- C3i

*DOESN'T REQUIRE ANTIBODIES
what are the complement components required in the alternate pathway?
- factors B, D, P (properdin)

- C3, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9
what acts in the initiation and magnification of the alternate pathway?
- C3b and magnesium
what is the alternate pathway like?
- slower and less specific than the classical pathway
what is the cascase of the alternate pathway?
- C3 occasionally is activated producing C3i

-Factor B binds to C3i producing C3iB complex

- C3iB then converts C3 ---> C3a ad C3b; and C3b binds to targe cell

- followed by binding of factor B to C3B bound on the membrane producing C3bB complex

- Factor D further cleaves C3bBb and then properdin binds and makes the complex stable on the membrane

- C3bBb acts as a C3 convertase and further splits C3 ---> C3a and C3b

- C3B binds ---> C3bBb properdin complex giving C3bBbC3b, which acts as C5 convertase

- from this point the process proceeds as the classical complement pathway
what are the functions of the complement system?
- Enhances phagocytosis by opsonization

- Mediates lysis of cellular antigens.

- Neutralizes viruses.

- Enhances inflammatory responses
what is the function of the C3a componment of the complement system?
- is a potent petide which causes release of histamine from mast cells.

- Mediates vasodialation, increases capillary permeability

- Enhances chemotaxis of phagocytes and inflammation
whats the function of C2a, C3a, C4a and C5a of the complement system?
- function as cytotoxins and stimulate inflammation
whats the function of C3a and C5a of the complement system?
- are powerful anaphylotoxins
what are the two types of specific immunity?
- humoral immunity

- cell mediated immunity
what is thehumoral immunity mediated by?
- mediated by B-cells (plasma cells)

- plasma cells secrete antibodies
what is cell mediated immunity mediated by?
- primarly T cells

- natural killer (NK-cells)

- killer cells (K-cells)
what are the two types of immunity?
- inherent immunity (natural resistance to diseases)

- acquired immunity
what are the two sub-types of acquired immunity?
- active immunity (developed by host)

- passive immunity (not developed by host)
what are the two sub-types of active immunity?
- natural (infections)

- artificial (vaccines)
what are the the sub-types of passive immunity?
- natural (mother to fetus)

- artifical (use of immune serum)
how are macrophages involved in specific immunity?
- detect invading antigens, process and present them to T-cells
how are t-cells involved in specific immunity?
- produced cytokines that regulate the immune system

- some directly participate in specific immunity
how are cytokines involved in specific immunity?
- activate B-cells and the activated B-cells differentiate to plasma cells, which produces the antibodies
what are antigens?
- molecules (mostly proteins) that are capable oto elicit antibody response
what are the types of molecules that can be antigens?
- proteins

- nucleic acids

- lipoproteins

- glycoproteins

- complex carbs
what is antibody?
- a protein, or neutralizing immunoglobulin, which is produced in response to an antigen
what is hapten?
- a low molecular weight substance that cannot elicit an antibody on its own but will if bound to a larger molecule
how much molecular weight should a molecule have to act as an antigen?
about 10,000 MW
what are stem cells?
progenitors of all the immune cells
where are stem cells found?
- in the bone marrow
what cells are orginated from stem cells?
- granulocytes

- mononuclear leukocytes

- others
which granulocytes are originated from stem cells?
- basophils ( about 0.5%)

- eosinophils (about 1-3%)

- neutrophils (about 55-90%
which mononuclear leukocytes are originated from stem cells?
- monocytes (about 3-7%)

- lymphocytes (about 20-35%)
which "others" are originated from stem cells?
- erythrocytes

- platlets
where are basophils found?
- in blood and contain large granules
what are basophils known as when they enter a specific tissue?
they are then knows as mast cells
where are mast cells found?
- in aereolar tissue along blood vessels, mucous membranes, lungs and gastrointestinal tract
what do mast cells secrete?
- histamine

- seratonin

- heparin
what is the function of mast cells?
- when secreted hormones, they cause vasodilation during inflammation at the site of infection and causes constriction of lungs

- also involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
what are neutrophils?
- PMN's

- they are the first white blood cells to arrive at the site of infection
what is the primary function of neutrophils?
- phagocytosis
what do neutrophils contain?
- digestive enzymes and other chemicals used to degrade substances
how many PMN's are in circulation?
about 25 billion
what is the lifespan of a neutrophil?
- about 8 days
what do eosinophils contain?
- peroxidase and digestive enzymes
what are eosinophils involved in?
- allergic reactions

- destruction of parasitic worms and fungi
where do monocytes originate?
- in the bone marrow
whats the largest white blood cells?
monocytes (macrophages)
wht are monocytes called after they differentiate?
- after differeentiation monocytes become macrophages
what do macrophages secrete?
- many cytokines (IL-1, TNF)
what is the function of macrophages?
- their secretion is involved in assisting, inhibiting, or mediating immune reactions

- act as cellular house keepers mopping up messes created by infection and inflammation

- Macrophages are phagocytic and are able to process and present partially digested antigens in association with MHC (class I or class II) molecules to B-cells and T-helper cells.
what are dendritic cells?
- they are a different type of cell that processes antigens to lymphocytes
where do platelets (thrombocytes) originate?
- bone marrow, from giant multinucleate cell called megakaryocyte
what does the megakaryocyte cell break into?
- irregular shaped pieces and bits of cytoplasm and nucleus
what are platelets involved in?
- blood clotting

- releasing chemicals for inflammation reactions
where do red blood cells originate?
- bone marrow
what is the function of red blood cells?
- to carry oxygen and carbon dioxide
what can red blood cells be a target of?
- can be a target of immune reactiions

ex. transfusion of wrong blood type
what are the lymphoid organs?
- thymus gland

- lymph nodes

- spleen

- lymphatic vessels

- bone marrow

- tonsil
what is the thymus gland?
- a lymphoid organ where T-cells mature

- it exhibits a high rate of activity and growth until puberty and then starts to shrink in size
what happens if the thymus is removed in neonates?
- severe immunodeficiency
what happens if the thymus is removed in adults?
- its not as severe since adults have developed enough T-cells
where are lymph nodes located?
- along the lymphatic channels and blood vessels
where does major aggregations of lymph nodes occur?
- under the armpit

- groin

- neck
where does the initial encounter between lymphocytes and microbes occur?
- occur in the lymph nodes
what are lymph nodes used for?
- as filtering materials
what is the spleen?
- organ with similar structure and function as the lymph nodes
does the blood circulate in the spleen or lymph nodes?
- in the spleen
what cells are located in the spleen?
- B-cells

- T-cells

- macrophages
what happens if the spleen is removed in children?
- severe immunodeficiency
what happens if the spleen is removed in adults?
- doesn't affect their immunity too drastically
what are some other lymphoid tissues?
- tonsils

- breasts

- intestinal tract
where are the tonsils located?
- in the pharynx
what are the tonsils for?
- to provide active lymphocytes
in pregnant and lactating women, what do breast act as?
- act as temporary sites of antibody - producing lymphoid tissues
what parts of the intestinal tract function against intestinal pathogens?
- appendix

- lacteals (lymphatic vessels)

- peyer's patches
which cells are known as lymphcytes?
- B and T-cells
where do B and T-cells originate and mature?
- in primary lymphoid organs (bone marrow and thymus)

- originate in the bone marrow

- mature in the thymus
where do lymphocytes migrate after maturing?
- to specific areas of secondary lymphoid organs (nodes, spleen)
whats the function of lymphocytes?
- key for specific immunity

- work in close association with macrophages
where do B-cells originate and mature?
- in the bone marrow
what do differentiated B-cells (plasma cells) produce?
- produce specific antibodies
what is the function of B-cells?
- they have membrane bound IgM and IgD antibodies

- involved in humoral immunity (antibody production)

- in few instances, they are able to process antigens and present the processed antigens to T-cells, leading to their activation
how does B-cell activation happen
- may be in a T-cell dependent of T-cell independent manner
what do pre-committed B-cells (with specific clonal specificity) do?
- they bind to antigen via membrane bound antibodies or presented by macrophages
what happens in T-cell dependent B-cell activation?
- cytokines produced by macrophages and T-cells activate B-cells
what do activated B-cells do?
- they divide by mitosis to generate a large number of geneticlly identical daughter cells
what do the daughter cells that B-cells generate end up becoming?
- some become plasma

- others become memory cells
how much antibodies can plasma secrete?
- 2000 per second
what are memory cells stored for?
- for a quick response in a subsequent same antigen response
how many antibodies does each activated B-cell produce?
- only one type of antibody thats able to bind to the antigen it was produced for
how does antigen-antibody binding work?
- its very specific

- the eliciting antigen binds to the antigen binding site of the antibody

- this is similar to enzyme-substrate binding characteristics
where is the antigen binding site?
- in the hypervariable region of the antibody
what are cross reactive antibodies?
- this happens in some cases with antigen-antibody binding

- happens when the eliciting antigen has a close structural similarity to other antigens
what are the five classes of antibodies (immunoglobulins)?
- IgM

- IgA

- IgD

- IgE

- IgG
what is a typical antibody composed of?
- 2 light chains

- 2 heavy chains
what is the MW of IgM?
1,200,000
what is the first antibody produced in response to antigen?
- IgM
is IgM a pentamer or monomer?
- can be both
what % of serum antibody does IgM constitute for?
5-10%
where is IgM found?
- in membranes of B-cells
what is IgM involved in?
- agglutination

- precipitation

- compliment fixation

- phagocytosis
what is the MW of IgG?
- 150,000
which antibody is the major antibody?
IgG
what % of serum antibody does IgG constitute for?
80-90%
is IgG a pentamer or monomer?
- mainly found as a monomer, but can be dimer
what is IgG involved in?
- agglutination

- precipitation

- compliment fixation

- phagocytosis

- can also cross to the placenta and protect fetus

- also found in breast milk
what is the MW of IgA?
160,000
is IgA a monomer, pentamer, or dimer?
- mainly monomer
- present in secretions in the body's inner mucosal surfaces as a dimer
whats the MW of IgD?
- 180,000
where is IgD found?
- on the membrane of B-cells
what is IgD involved in?
- B-cell activation
what is the MW of IgE?
- 190,000
is IgE a monomer, pentamer, or dimer?
- normally found in trace amounts as monomer
what is IgE involved in?
- involved in allergic reactions
what do the CD's do?
- CD2: promotes adhension between T-cells or their target cells

- CD3: helps transduce signal when Ag-MCH complex binds to TCR

- CD4: promotes adhesion to APC B-cells probably binding to MCH

- CD5: promotes adhension vius infected cells probably binding to MHC I
what does LFA-1 do?
- promotes cell-cell adhesion
which antibodies activate the classical complement system?
- IgG and IgM
how can antibodies enhance phagocytosis?
- by opsonization (coating the antigen with antibody)
can antibodies affect viruses?
- yes, by neutralizing them and making them non-pathogenic
what does the production of cytokines from t-cells do?
- activates and regulates the immune system
what do suppressor t-cells do?
- involved in suppression and modulation of the immune system
what do cytotoxic T-cells do?
- kill virus infected and tumor cells
what are the 3 main types of T-cells?
- T-helper cells (Cd4)

- T-cytotoxic cells (CD8)

- T-suppressor cells (CD8)
what are mature T-cells capable of recognizing difference between?
- self

- non-self
what are substances that are recognized as non-self?
- immunogenic

(sometimes even self antigens can be seen as non-self, in which case they too will be attacked as if they were foreign antigens
what do T-helper (CD4) cells do?
either by direct contact or production of cytokines:

- help B-cells to recognize the antigens

- help other T-cells to recognize antigens

- constitute 65% of T-cell population
what do T-cytotoxic cells (CD8) do?
- recognize endogenously produced antigens and kill target cells

- activated T-cytotoxic cells deliver cytokines to attack the target cell membrane and kill it by apoptosis
what cells do T-cytotoxic cells kill when they produce their antigens?
- fungi

- protozoa

- mycobacteria

- cancer cells

- virus-infected cells

- grafted cells
what do T-suppressor cells (CD8) do?
- used to restrict uncontrolled immune responses

- regulate production of antibodies
what are delayed hypersensitivity T cells (Td)?
- cells involved in some delayed responses to antigens

ex. tuberculin, contact dermatitis, due to poison ivy or poison oak
what are Killer (K) and Natural killer (NK) cells?
- immune cells found in the blood, spleen, and lungs

- able to kill tumor cells and virus infected cells
how do T-cells function in a different manner than B-cells?
- The T-cells act in direct contact with the antigen, whereas the B-cells produce antibodies that react with the antigen
how does activation of T-cells happen?
- when they react with processed antigens presented by antigen presenting cells such as macrophages and dendritic cells
what do the T-cells do once they're activated?
- they differentiate to one of the subsets (T-helper, T-cytotoxic, or delayed hypersensitivity T-cells)
what types of cells can activated T-cells become?
- either effector cells or memory cells
how long do memory cells live?
- up to 70 years
how many genes do lymphocytes use to produce large number of specific receptors?
- about 500 genes
what is the clonal selection theory?
- states that undifferentiated lymphocytes undergo genetic mutations and recombinations as they proliferate in the embryo and create large variations

( this is explaining how lympocytes create the variety of specific receptors)
what is the ultimate genetic variation?
- is to create variation in the amino acid sequences in the T-cell receptors, hence, the shape and specificity of the T-cell receptor will be different for each lymphocyte clone

- theoretically, this will give about a billion clones of lymphocytes
what are some plasma proteins?
- antibodies

- complement proteins

- kinins

- clotting factors
what are antibodies?
- proteins secreted by plasma cells
what are complement proteins?
- set of about 20 proteins that are used in specific and non-specific immunity
what are kinins?
- peptides derived from kininogens and serum proteins
what are the functions of kinins?
- induce vasodilatation

- increase permeability of blood vessels at site of infection

- act as chemoattractants for macrophages

- stimulate pain receptors
what are clotting factors?
- plasma proteins which work in a cascade to form blood clots
what are some types of cytokines?
- cytokines

- interferons

- tumor necrosis factor

- lymphotoxins

- perforins
what are cytokines?
- proteins produced by B-cells, T-cells, and macrophages which are used in specific immunity
what are interferons?
- proteins like y-interferon and B-interferon, which are used to inhibit viral replication
what are tumor necrosis factor?
- this is a cytokine used to kill tumors and activate leukocytes to kill bacteria
what are lymphotoxins?
- these kill cells by fragmenting DNA
what are perforins?
- proteins that are aable to introduce holes on membranes of target cells, leading to lysis of the target cells
how does the immune system act under normal conditions?
- its well coordinated and recognizes difference between self and non-self
what happens when an immune system goes wrong?
- can promote diseases rather than prevent them
what are hypersensitivities?
- when the immune system goes wrong and we get an autoimmune disease
what are the 4 types of hypersensitivites?
- Type I: Immediate (< 30 min)

- Type II: Cytotoxic (5-12 hr)

- Type III: Immune-complex (3-8 hr)

- Type IV: Cell-mediated (24-48 hr)
what is Type I hypersensitivity?
- immediate adverse reaction in response to a presensitized exogenous antigen

- this allergy is also known as atopic anaphylaxis

- there may be a genetic component to this type

- this type can last over a lifetime, can be outgrown, or can develop suddenly
what are examples of Type I allergins?
- hay fever

- pollen

- dust

- mold spores

- animal hair

- formalin

- drugs
what is atopic anaphylaxis?
- chronic local allergy like hay fever or asthma
what are examples of cytokines that basophils and mast cells have?
- histamine

- seratonin

- leukotrines

- platelet activating factor

- prostaglandings

- bradikinins
where do the cytokines mediate increase?
- in the capillary permeability

- dilation

- mucous secretion

- smooth muscle constriction
where do the cytokines mediate decrease?
- in the central nervous system activity
each mast cell carries how many IgE binding sites?
- 30,000 - 100,000
what leads to degranulation?
- IgE bridged by an antigen leads to degranulation
what does degranulation of mast cells release?
- cytokines that cause rashes, itching, redness, sneezing, tears, and diarrhea
what are some allergies that occur as a result of drugs?
- sodium metabisulfite (sulfite)

- tetrazine yellow dye

- monosodium glutamate

- penicillin, sulfa drugs, and aspirin
what is sodium metabisulfite?
- its added to wine and vegetables as a preservative

- some people become allergic to this and have asthma-like attacks as well as anaphylaxis
what is tetrazine yellow dye?
- added as a colorant to foods and tablets

- can cause asthma, rhinitis, and hives
what is monosodium glutamate?
- a flavor enhancer

- can cause burning sensation, tightness and numbness in chest and neck
when can penicillin, sulfa drugs, and aspirin be allergins?
- can be allergins when processed by the liver and release haptinic molecules
what are some treatments of allergens?
- avoidance of allergen

- corticosteroids

- cromolyn

- antihistamines, aspirin, epinephrine, theophylline
how do corticosteroids help treat allergens?
- keep the plasma cell from synthesizing IgE and inhibit T cells
how does cromolyn help treat allergens?
- acts on the surface of mast cell; no degranulation
how do antihistamines, aspirin, epinephrine help treat allergens?
- counteract the effects of cytokines on targets
what is type II hypersensitivity triggered by?
- IgG or IgM bound to target cells, which leads to complete fixation and cell lysis
whats an example of type II hypersensitivity?
- destruction of the red blood cells in a wrong blood transfusion
what does anti-Rh antibody production result from?
- from transfusions of unmatched Rh
what happens if the father is Rh+ and mother is Rh-?
- if the child is Rh+ then, this will lead to Erythroblastosis fatalis, which results in a massive lysis of red blood cells of the fetus by maternal anti-Rh+ antibodies

- usually occurs in the second pregnancy as a result of a presensitized mother
what does type III hypersensitivity involve?
- involves excess Ag-Ab complexes not phagositozed by macrophages deposited in basal membranes or epithelial cells
what doe the free floating Ag-Ab complexes in type III do?
- they can be deposited in tissues or organs, creating an immune complex reaction, which triggers complement fixation and inflammation
what are examples of type III hypersensitivity?
- Arthus

- serum sickness

- glomerulonephritis
what is arthus?
- localized immune complex reaction formed in the vicinity of repeated antigen injection in rabbits
what is serum sickness?
- injection of horse IgG to humans which results in fever, itchy rashes, and swollen painful joints
what is glomerulonephritis?
- immune complex reaction that damages the glomeruli
what is type IV hypersensitivity?
- mediated by T-cells

- commonly known as delayed-type hypersensitivity
what do the reactions of type IV hypersensitivity result from?
- result from migration of macrophages and T-cells to an infection site in a pre-sensitized host
what can type IV hypersensitivity be due to?
- infectious agents

- contact dermatitis

- graft rejection
what is an example of the "infectious agents" for type IV hypersensitivity?
- best example of this is the tuberculosis skin test which is known as the tuberculin test (PPD)

- other similar tests include leprosy, syphilis, histoplasmosis, toxoplasmosis, and candidiasis
what is type III hypersensitivity mediated by?
- mediated by Td class of T-cells which release cytokines that increase the inflammatory reaction leading to swelling
what is contact dermatitis?
- common types are caused by contact with poison oak, poison ivy, cosmetics and metals in jewelry (mostly nickel)

- also exposure to latex
what does allergic contact dermatitis arise due to?
- due to haptens that combine with proteins in the skin
what is the immune system supposed to react to and be tolerant to?
- react to: foreign antigens

- tolerate to: self antigens
what is autoimmunity?
- this is what happens in some instances when people can develop immunity against self
how does autoimmunity happen?
- in most cases it is not clear why tolerance to self is lost

- may be due to loss of T-suppressors or viral infections
what is systemic lupus erythematosus?
- patient produces antibodies to many organs and tissues (kidneys, bone marrow, skin, joints, muscles etc)
what happens with rheumatoid arthritis condition?
- autoantibodies (IgM) against other antibodies will be deposited and bind to synovial membrane of the joints and activate macrophages to release cytokines

- inflammation will result and destruction of tissue and joint will occur
what is multiple sclerosis?
- paralyzing neuromuscular disease with lesions in the insulating myelin sheath that surrounds neurons in the white matter of the central nervous system
what is multiple sclerosis caused by?
- autoantibodies and T-cells
what is myasthenia gravis?
- neuromuscular autoimmunity which arises due to autoantibodies to acetalcholine receptor
what does myasthenia gravis affect?
- affects skeletal muscles

- first ones to be felt are muscles of the eye and throat

- eventually can progress to complete skeletal muscle function loss resulting in death
what results when the pancreas is targeted by autoantibodies?
- type I diabetes

- type II diabetes
what is type I diabetes?
- insulin dependent

- results because of autoantibodies and T-cells that destroy the insulin-producing cells
what is type II diabetes?
- non-insulin dependent

- when sufficient insulin is produced but the cellular receptors available for insulin are few
what can cause type II diabetes?
- reduction of the insulin receptors may be due to autoantibodies that compete for the available receptors
what do agglutination reactions occur as a result of?
- result of cross-linking antibodies called agglutinins, which bind to agglutinogens and form visible clumps
what are some common tests that use the agglutination tests as diagnostic tests?
- determining blood types

- rapid plasma reagin (RPR) is used to test for presence of antibodies to syphilis

- cold agglutinin, run at 4-20 degrees, is used to diagnose Mycoplasma pneumonia
what are some latex agglutination tests that are commonly used for diagnostic purposes?
- pregnancy hormone in urine

- yeast and bacteria such as Staphylococci, streptococci, and gonococci

- rheumatoid arthritis
what type of test is available to diagnose certain viral diseases?
- viral agglutination tests
what is used to perform viral agglutination tests?
- red blood cells that naturally react with viral antigens

- to perform these tests, red blood cells and known viruses and the test serum are added
how is the viral agglutination test read?
- if no agglutination: positive

- if agglutination occurs: means the patient serum doesn't have antibodies, therefore the virus has reacted with the red blood cells and agglutinates them
what do precipitation reactions occur as a result of?
- as a result of soluble antigens known as precipitogen that react with antibodies and precipitate forming an insoluble substances
where are precipitation reaction tests used?
- in veneral disease research Lab (VDRL)
what are common dyes that are used in diagnostic tests?
- fluroescein isothiothionate

- rodamine
what are the two methods for the fluorescent antibody test?
- direct method

- indirect method
what happens in the direct method for the fluorescent antibody test?
- a primary antibody labeled with a dye is used and then examined with a fluorescent microscope
what happens in the in-direct method for the fluorescent antibody test?
- in this method, the antigen is bound to the antibody

- then a fluorescent dye labeled secondary antibody is added and examined with a fluorescent microscope
the fluorescent antibody test is commonly used to diagnose which diseases?
- syphilis

- strep throat

- lyme disease
what is the ELISA test?
- this is also known as enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

-
what is done in the ELISA test?
= in this assay an enzyme-antibody complex is used as indicator for the reactions that may occur
what are the enzymes that are commonly used in the ELISA test?
- horse radish peroxidase

- alkaline phosphatase
what do the enzymes in the ELISA test release?
- both enzymes release a chromogen when they are exposed to their substrate
ELISA test can be run in a ______ or _______ way.
direct ; indirect
what is the procedure for the direct method for the ELISA test?
- The antibody is adsorbed on an ELISA well.

- The test antigen is added which will bind to the adsorbed antibody.

- An antibody linked to an enzyme is added. This will sandwich the antigen.

-A substrate to the bound enzyme is added. In a positive test color change will occur.
for the ELISA test, which method, direct or indirect, is more sensitive?
the indirect method
what is procedure for the indirect method for the ELISA test?
- The antigen is adsorbed on an ELISA well.

- The test sample is added. If an antibody is present it will bind to the adsorbed antigen.

- An enzyme linked secondary antibody (e.g. goat antihuman IgG) is added. If the test sample had an antibody, the enzyme linked secondary antibody will bind to the primary antibody.

- A substrate to the bound substrate is added. If the secondary antibody is bound a color change will occur.
what does the western blot test test for?
- the presence of antibodies in a test sample
what is the procedure for the western blot test?
- Test strips are prepared by electrophoresing the test antigen.

-The test strips containing the antigen of interest are incubated with a test serum.

-The test strips are then developed using a radioactive or colorimetric label.

- The test sample is then compared with a positive control.