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409 Cards in this Set

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Diphtheria toxin works by?
intracellular protein ribosylation inactivating EF-2
Clostridium perfringens toxin works by?
Lecithinase and cell membrane destruction and cell death. Causes gas gangrene
Pertussis toxin works by?
increased intracellular Gproteins - increases cAMP, insulin, lymphocyte, neutrophil dysfunction. Sensitivity to histamine
EHEC and Shigella toxin work by?
inactivating 60s ribosomal subunits
Group A strep toxin works by?
molecular mimicry leads to rheumatic fever
Agent associated with custard
S aureus
Agent associated with mayo
S aureus
Agent associated with undercooked beef
E coli
Agent associated with fried rice
B cereus
Agent associated with eggs/raw chicken
Salmonella
Agent associated with canned food
C botulinum
Mech of action of Zidovudine (AZT) and zalcitabine
NRTI
Mech of action for Ritonavir
HIV protease inhibitor
Mech of action for Nevirapine and side fx
NNRTIs (non- nucleoside); SJS, TEN, hepatotoxicity
Mech of action for Enfuviratide
Binds gp41 and blocks HIV fusion
What diseases does Pentamidine treat?
PCP prevention/treatment. Also Leishmaniasis and African sleeping sickness
What does Mebendazole treat?
Ascariasis, trichuriasis, hookworm, pin worm
What does nifurtimox treat?
Chagas
What does Ivermectin treat?
Onchocerciasis
What does Metronidazole treat?
Giardia, E histolytica, Trich
How do you treat GC?
Ceftriaxone
How do you treat Chlamydia?
Azithromycin or doxy
What does maculopapular rash, auricular lymphadenopathy, fever and then polyarthritis sound like?
Rubella
What can fetal rubella cause?
deafness, cataracts, PDA
Rx for Treponema?
Penicillin
Rx for Strep?
B lactam
Rx for Legionella? Mechanism?
Erythromycin. Blocks 50S ribosomal subunit.
Rx for Mycoplasma?
Erythromycin. Blocks 50S ribosomal subunit.

Tetracycline. blocks 30S subunit.
What does long, branched lipids make you think of for organism?
Mycobacterium
Method of action of Isoniazid? Toxicity?
like B6 (pyridoxine). Blocks mycolic acid synthesis. Leads to neuropathy, hepatotoxicity
Causes of acute otitis media?
H flu and strep pneumo
What percent of otitis media is typeable hep flu?
10%
Vaccines against toxin?
tetanus, diphtheria
Vaccine for pertussis has?
purified bordetella and detoxified toxin
Vaccine for Hep B has?
inactivated HBsAg
Vaccine with live attenuated viruses?
measles, mumps, rotavirus, Sabin polio, Varicella
Vaccine against Tb (BCG)?
live attenuated M bovis
Vaccine against polio in the US is?
Salk killed virions
Vaccines with capsular polysaccharides are for?
Strep pneumo, Neisseria meningitidis, H flu
5yo boy with PRP antibodies is protected against?
H flu
ASO in the blood suggests infection by what?
Group A Strep. Rheumatic Fever.
spherules in the lungs?
Coccidio
What is an example of a virus that is polycistrionic? It can take a stretch and make different proteins out of it?
A Single strand + sense, linear, nonsegmented. Like echovirus.
What type of virus is CMV?
enveloped double stranded DNA virus
What interesting fact about mycoplasma makes treating it with PCN pointless?
No cell wall!
What can a group A strep skin infection lead to?
post strep glomeruloneophritis
What is Waterhouse Friderchsen syndrome?
Meningococcemia that leads to adrenal gland destruction, DIC, shock
What levels are associated with meningococcus morbidity and mortality?
Cell wall lipooligosaccharide
How does ether influence virii?
can get rid of envelope
What is applying an aniline dye like carbolfuchsin then adding HCL and EtOH testing?
acid fast. Mycolic acid retains the red dye
How does S. aureus resistance to Beta lactams other than penicillin (like methicillin) work?
altered penicillin binding protein
How does resistance to tetracycline and sulfonamides work?
Drug transport out
How does resistance to RNA polymerase help against what drug?
Helps against Rifampin
What is ecthyma gangrenosum?
From pseudomonas sepsis in neutropenic, hospitalized, burn, or catheter patients.

From vascular destruction then subsequent skin necrosis.

Toxins =
Exotoxin A - protein synthesis inhibited
Elastase -
PLC - degrades cell membrane
Pyocyanin - generates ROS
What is strep pyogenes skin manifestations?
Impetigo - golden crust

Erysipelas - well demarcated painful plaque
What is the protection conferred by tetanus vaccine?
Against tetanus toxin
What is the primary virulence factor for pneumococcus?
Capsule. Prevents phagocytosis.
What is quellung reaction?
Seeing capsule swell in vitro when exposed to antibodies to pneumococcus capsule
What mediates C diff destruction?
Toxin A - neutrophil attractant, water loss, diarrhea

Toxin B - actin depolymerization leading to cytoskeleton loss of integrity
What mediates damage by C perfringens?
Toxin to cell membrane = alpha toxin lectithinase
Is C diff part of gut flora?
Yes can be. 2-3% adults. 70% babies
Is Shiga producing bacteria normal gut flora?
No
What does Shiga toxin do?
Ribosomal protein synthesis inhibition
IgA deficiency can lead to?
URIs and giardiaisis.
Where is secretory IgA found between mothers and fetus?
Colostrum
What helps mediate immunity to reinfection by influenza?
antibodies to hemiagglutinin. IgA and IgG.
What are the most common causes for acute orchitis?
Young - GC and chlamydia

Old - E coli
What is the major surface antigen on gram positive?
Teichoic acid - made of peptidoglycan. Teichoic acid induces TNF and IL-1.
What is the major surface antigen on gram negative outer membrane?
LPS. Lipid A induces TNF and IL-1. Polysaccharide is the antigen.
What is the periplasm?
Space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram-negative bacteria. Has beta-lactamases.
Function of bacterial capsule?
protects against phagocytosis. Made of polysaccharide.
What is poilus/fimbria made of?
Glycoprotein
What is spore made of?
Keratin-like. MAde from dipicolinic acid.
Function of glycocalyx? Made of?
Mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces.

Polysaccharide
What are gram positive rods?
clostridium, corynebacterium, bacillus, listeria
Gram negative coccus?
Neisseria and moraxella
What bugs don't stain well (bacteria)?
Mycoplasm - no wall
Chlamydia - IC
Legionella - use silver- IC
Mycobacteria - high lipids
Rickettsia - IC
Treponema - too thin
Giemsa stains work with?
Borrelia, plasmodium, trypanosomes, chlamydia
PAS stains are for?
Whipple's disease
Ziehl-Neesen stains are for?
acid fast
India ink diagnoses?
Cryptococcus neoformans.

Also mucicarmine for red stain
Silver stains?
Fungi, Legionella
What is VPN mediat (Thayer Martin) for?
Vancomycin - kills gram +
Polymyxin - kills gram-negative
Nystatin - kills fungi

for Neisseria
H flu media?
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)
B pertussis media?
Bordet-Gengou agar (Bordet for Bordetella)
M penumoniae agar?
Eaton's agar
M tuberculosis agar?
Lowenstein-Jensin
Legionella agar?
charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine
Fungi agar?
sabouraud's agar
Obligate aerobes?
Use O2 dpt system for ATP

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Myco tb, Bacillus
Obligate aerobes?
Bacteroides, actinomyes, clostridium

No catalase or superoxide dismutase - foul smelling
Examples of encapsulated bacteria?
Positive quellung
Vaccines = capsule

Klebsiella, Salmonella, Strep pneumo, Hib, meningococcus
What are urease positive bugs?
Proteus, klebsiella, h pylori, ureaplasma
Color of actinomyces?
Yellow sulfur
Color of pseudomonas?
Blue-green
Color of serratia marescens?
red
What from Staph aurerus allows it to avoid immune system?
Binds Fc region of Ig. Prevents opsonization and phagocytosis.
What bacteria produce IgA protease?
Strep pneumo, Hib, Neisseria meningitidis
What does group A strep use to evade immune system?
M protein - prevents phagocytosis
Features of exotoxins?
secreted, polypeptide, from plasmid or bacteriophage, high toxicity.

Induces high titer antibodies called antitoxins
Typical diseases associated with exotoxins?
tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
Features of endotoxin?
Lipopolysaccharide composition from bacterial chromosome, low toxicity, makes fever and shock from TNF and IL-1

Seen with gram negative rods and meningococcemia
What do superantigens do?
bind directly to MHC II and TCR simultaneously and activate large number of T cells to stimulate release of IFN-gamma and IL-2
What exotoxins associated with staph aureus?
TSST-1 = Toxic shock
Enterotoxin = food poisoning
Exfoliatin = staph scalded skin
Which toxins are ADP-ribosylatin?
A component atatches an ADP-ribosyl to a host cell protein, altering protein function

Vibrio cholera - binds Gs - leads to Cl exit

Coryne diphtheria - inhibits Elongation factor - 2; pharyngitis and pseudomembrane

E coli - stimulation of AC, heat stable = GC. Both = diarrhea

Bordetella Pertussis - inhibit Gi, whopping cough; inhibits chemokine receptor = lymphocytosis
Other bacterial exotoxins?
C perfringens - alpha toxin causes gas gangrene

C tetani - blocks release of GABA and glycine

C botulinum - blocks release of ACh.

B anthracis - edema factor = adenylate cyclase

Shigella - shig A topxin = cleaves rRNA (60S), also causes HUS

S pyogenes = ASO
Which toxins are cAMP inducers?
E coli

B anthracis

Cholera

B pertussis
Actions of endotoxin?
Activates macrophages
IL-1
TNF - fever, hemorrhagic tissue necrosis
Nitric oxide

Activates complement alternate pathway
C3a- hypotension, edema
C5a - neutrophil chemotaxis

Activates Hageman factor (Coag - DIC)
What is bacterial transformation?
Feature of Strep pneumo, Hib, meningococcus

pick up DNA from environment
What is bacterial conjugation?
F+ x F = f plasmid sending plasmid through pilus from F + cell to another

Hfr x F = F plasmid incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA. Some flanking DNA might get out with replication. Transfer plasmid and chromosomal.
Differnece between generalized and specialized transduction?
Generalized transduction - packaging event, lytic phage infects bacterium - cleavage of bacterial DNA. Parts of bacterial chromosomal DNA may become packaged in viral capsid. Phage infects another bacterium, transferring those genes.

specialized - exicition event. Lygogenic phage infects bacterium. Viral DNA incorporated. DNA phage excised, gets some flanking DNA. Infect another.
What is transposition?
Segments of DNA that can jump from one location to another. Excision may get some other flanking DNA that can be incorporated into a plasmid.
What 5 toxins are encoded in lysogenic phage?
ABCDE
Shig A
Botulinum
Cholera
Diphtheria
Erythrogenic Strep pyogenes
What bacteria are novobiocin resistant coagulase negative, catalase positive?
Staph Saprophyticus
Bacteria novobiocin sensitive, coag negative, catalase positive?
Staph Epidermidis
Which bacteria are catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin sensitive?
Strep pneumo also bile soluble
Which bacteria are catalase negative, alpha hemolytic, optochin resistant?
Step viridans group. not bile soluble
Which bacteria are beta hemolytic, bacitracin sensitive, catalase negative?
Group A = s pyogenes
Which bacteria are beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant, catalase negative?
Group B strep
B hemolytic bacteria?
Strep pneumo, Staph aureus, Group B strep (step agalactiae),

Listeria monocytogenes
Profile of Staph aureus?
causes skin infections, organ abscesses, pneumonia

acute bacterial endocarditis, osteomyelitis
How is MRSA resistant to methicillin?
Alteration in PBP
Staph epidermidis does?
normal skin flora

infects prosthetic devices and IV catheters by producing adherent biofilms
Step pneumo most common causes of?
MOPS

Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Sinusits

sepsis in sickle cell, splenectomy. Rust colored sputum from pneumonia.
Viridans group strep?
Part of oral flora

Sanguis - subacute bacterial endocarditis

Mutans - dental caries
Strep pyogenes (group A beta hemolytic bacitracin sensitive)?
pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo

Toxigenic - scarlet fever, toxic shock

Immunologic - rheumatic fever, acute GN
Rheumatic fever pentad?
Subq plaques
Polyarthritis
Erythema marginatum
Chorea
Carditis
What can strep agalactiae do?
Remember Beta hemolytic, bacitracin resistant.

group B strep! pneumonia, meningitis, sepsis in babies.
What are enterococci? What do they do?
Enterococci - normal colonic flora. Cause UTI and subacute endocarditis.

Hardier than nonenterococcal group D. Lancefiled grouping based on differences in C carbohydrate on cellw all.
What is group D nonenterococcal strep?
S bovis.

Can do subacute endocarditis in colon cancer patients. Also bacteremia.
Describe Diphtheria?
ABCDEFG
ADP ribosylation
Beta=prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphtherium
Elongation factor 2
Granules

Makes pseduomembranous pharyngitis with lymphadenopathy.
toxoid vaccine prevents
What form bacterial spores?
B anthracis, C perfringens, C tetani

B cereus, C botulinum
Clostridia profile?
Gram positive, spore forming, obligate anaerobes.
How does c diff mediate pseudomembranous colitis?
producing cytotoxin, exotoxin that kills enterocytes.
C perfringens produces what toxin?
alpha toxin, a lecithinase (a phospholipase) that can cause myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and hemolysis.
What cells does tetanospasmin affect?
Renshaw cells in spinal cord. Causes spastic paralysis, trismus, and risus sardonicus.
Anthrax profile?
B anthracis - gram positive, spore-forming rod that produces anthrax oxin.

ONLY BACTERIUM WITH A POLYPETPTIDE CAPSULE (contains D-glutamate)

skin form - black eschar with edematous ring

pulm anthrax - mediastinitis, shock, fever, pulm hemorrhage, flulike symptoms
Listeria monocytogenes profile?
Facultative intracellular microbe.

Unpasteurized milk/cheese and deli meats or vaginal transmission.

Cx tumbling motility from actin rockets.

Gram positive with endotoxin.

Cause - amnionitis, septicemia, spontaneous abortion in women; neonatal meningitis; meningitis in IC patients; mild gastroenteritis in healhty
Actinomyces vs nocardia?
Both gram positive rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi

Actino -- anaerobe, oral/facial abscesses

Nocardia - weakly acid fast; pulm infection in IC.
treatment for actinomyces vs nocardia?
SNAP

Solfa = nocardia
Actinomyces = PCN
What is a Ghon complex?
TB granulomas (Ghon focus) with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement. Reflects primary infection or exposure.
M. avium-intracellulare profile?
Disseminated disease in AIDS. Multi drug resistant.
Leprosy profile?
M leprae. Likes cool temperatures and armadillos.

rx: long term dapsone

Leprematous form = failed cell mediated immunity. Vs tuberculoid form.
Differentiate N meningitidis from N gonorrhoeae?
Maltose fermenter = meningococcus
Maltose nonfermenter = gonorrhea
Lactose fermenting enteric bacteria?
Citrobacter, Klebsiella, E coli, Enterobacter, serratia
Which bugs are gram negative coccoid rods?
H flu, B pertussis
Why are gram negative not sensitive to vancomycin or regular penicillin?
Gram negative outer membrane inhibits entry of penicillin G and vancomycin
What is important about neisseria?
both ferment glucose.

Meningococcus -polysaccharide capsule, maltose, vaccine, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

Gonococci - STD, gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID, Fitz-Hugh-Curtis
What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?
Infection of the liver capsule and "violin string" adhesions of parietal peritoneum to liver
H flu profile?
Epiglottitis, Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia.

IgA protease.

Meningitis = Ceftriaxone
Rifampin prophylaxis in close contacts
Legionella pneumophila profile?
Legionnaire's = severe pneumonia and fever
Pontiac fever = mild flulike syndrome

Gram negative rod.

Detected by presence of antigen in urine!!!
No p2p tranmission.

Rx: erythromycin
Pseudomonas profile?
Associated with wound and burn infections.

CYSTIC FIBROSIS pneumonia
Sepsis
External otitis - swimmer's ear
UTI
Drug use
DIABETIC osteomyelitis

Aerobic gram-negative, non lactose-fermenting, oxidase positive.

Grapelike odor

Endotoxin, exotoxin A - inactivates EF-2

Rx: aminoglycoside + extended-spectrum penicillin
Which gram negative rods don't ferment lactose and aren't oxidase positive?
Salmonella, Shigella, Proteus
E coli differential profile?
Invade mucosa: EIEC - Shiga like toxin - dysentery -invasion and toxin

Not invade
EHEC - shiga alone destroys
ETEC - labile toxin/stable toxin
EPEC - no toxin - diarrhea - prevents absorption; adheres to apical surface
Klebsiella profile?
Lactose fermenter.
Pneumonia in ALCOHOLICS. DIABETICS.
Red currant jelly sputum.

Nosocomial UTIs.
Salmonella vs Shigella differential?
Both invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea.

Salmonella - flagella, hematogenous dissemination, produces H2S, prolonged symptoms with antibiox, monocytic response

Shigella - more virulent. move within cell by actin polymerization. no flagella.
Typhoid fever description?
Fever, diarrhea, headache, rose spots on abdomen

can remain in gallbladder chronically
Yersinia enterocolitica profile?
Usu transmitted from pet feces, contaminated milk, or PORK.

Can mimic crohn's or appendicits.
Outbreaks in day care centers
H pylori profile?
Gram negative rod.
Creates alkaline environment.

Rx: metronidazole, bismuth, either tetracycline or amoxicillin
OR
Metronidazole, omeprazole, clarithromycin
Three spirochetes?
BLT
Borrelia - only one to be seen - Wright's or Giemsa
Leptospiroris
Treponema.
Leptospira interrogans profile?
Question mark shaped. Water with animal urine.

Flulike sx, fever, HA, abdominal pain, jaundice, photophobia with conjunctivitis.
What is Weil's disease?
Severe form of leptospirosis with jaundice, azotemia from the liver, kidney dysfunction; fever, hemorrhage, and anemia
What is the pathogenesis for Lyme disease?
Caused by Borrelia burgdorferi - transmitted by Ixodes

Present with erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding bull's eye red rash with central clearing.

Mice are important reservoirs. Deer required for life cycle.

rx: doxy, ceftriaxone
Stages of Lyme disease?
1 = erythema chronicum migrans, flulike symptoms

2= neurologic and cardiac manifestations

3= chronic monoarthritis, and migratory polyarthritis
Treponemal pertenue?
Yaws. Infection of skin, bones, joints --> healing with keloids. Leading to severe limb deformities.

Disease of the tropics. Not an STD, but VDRL positive.
What is t pallidum?
primary syphilis - painless shancre

2ndary - disseminated disease with palms and soles rash, condyloma lata.

Tertiary - gummas, aortitis, neurosyphilis = tabes dorsalis, Argyll Robertson
(accomodates but doesn't react)
VDRL vs FTA?
Both test for syphilis.
FTA is much more specific. Positive if acitve or successfuly treated. Antibody test.

VDRL = nonspecific antibody reacting with beef cardiolipin.
VDRL false positives?
VDRL
Viruses (mono,hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Leprosy and lupus
Bartonella profile?
Zoonotic.
Cat scratch fever. Bacillary angiomatosis in IC patients (looks like Kaposis)
Borrelia profile?
Lyme disease.
Zoonotic.
Tick bite - Ixodes
Brucella profile?
Brucellosis/undulant fever
Symptoms include profuse sweating and joint and muscle pain.
from dairy products, contact wiht animals
Tularemia profile?
Francisella tularensis
Tick bite; rabbits

ulceroglandular (the most common type representing 75% of all forms), glandular, oropharyngeal, pneumonic, oculoglandular, and typhoidal
Yersinia pestis disease?
Plague

from flea bite, rodents, prairie dogs
bubonic - with buboes
pneumonic
septicemic
Pasteurella disease?
Cellulitis!

from animal bite
What is Gardnerella vaginalis like?
Pleomorphic, gram-variable rod = vaginosis with fishy smell; nonpainful. Mobiluncus, an anaerobe, is also involved.
Associated with sexual activity, but not an STD. Bacterial vaginosis cx by overgrowth of certain bacteria in vagina.

rx: Metronidazole

Look for clue cells
Rickettiae genus profile?
OBLIGATE INTRACELELULAR ORGANISMS

need CoA and NAD+.
All except Coxiella = arthropod vector. = headache, fever, rash
Coxiella = atypical - aeorosol and pneumonia

ALL TREATMENT = TETRACYCLINE
Contrast ricketssial diseases and profiles?
Typhus - rash on trunk spreads
Ricketssia - hands and feet and spreads

ROMSF tick- Rickettsia ricketsii
Endemic typhus flea - R typhi
Endemic typhus with louse - R prowazekii
Erlichiosis
Q fever - Coxiella burnetti - inhaled aerosol
What diseases have palm and sole rashes?
Coxsackievirus A (hand, foot, and mouth)

RMSF

Syphilis

Small pox
What is Weil-Felix reaction?
Pts with rickettsial antibodies presented to Proteus - cross react and agglutinate.

NOT COXIELLA
Chlamydia profile?
CANNOT MAKE OWN ATP.
Obligate intracellular organisms causing mucosal infections.

2 forms:
1) elementary body is infectious and enters cell
2) Reticulate body replicates in cell by fission
Chlamydia trachomatis?
reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, nongonococcal urethritis, PID

A-C = africa, blindness, chronic infection
D-K = urethritis, neonatal pneumonia/conjunctivitis
L = lymphangranuloma venereum

Rx: erythromycin
Mycoplasma pneumoniae background?
atypical pneumonia
X ray looks bad
high titer of cold agglutinins (IgM)
Eaton's agar
MEMBRANE HAS CHOLESTEROL
Eaton's agar
Donovanosis?
Granuloma inguinale from Calymmatobacterium granulomatis.

Small, painless nodules appear after about 10–40 days of the contact with the bacteria
Name a bacteria also oxidase positive and sensitive to gastric pH that isn't pseudomonas?
V cholera
Causes for chlamydia pneumoniae and c psittaci?
atypical pneumonia. transmitted by aerosol. C psittaci - notable for an avian reservoir.
Which fungi are transmitted by inhalation of asexual spores?
Coccidio and histo
Histoplasmosis profile?
Mississippi and Ohio river valleys. Pneumonia.

In macrophage filled with it.
From bird or bat droppings.
Blastomycosis profile?
Inflammatory lung disease. See in skin and bone.
Forms granulomatous nodules.
Broad-base budding
Coccidiomycosis profile?
Pneumonia and meningitis; can disseminate to bone and skin.

Spherules.
Paracoccidiomycoseis?
Budding yeast with captain's wheel formation
Systemic mycoses non opportunistic cx?
Dimorphic
cold = mold
hot = yeast (coccidio = spherule)

Rx: fluconazole/ketoconazole = local
Amp B = systemic
What is tinea versicolor?
Malassezia furfur. Degradation of lipids produces acids that damage melanocytes and cause hypopigmented patches.

tx: topical miconazole, selenium sulfide

Spaghetti and meatballs look
Tinea pedis, cruris, corporis, capitis profile?
Pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring, caused by dermatophytes.

See mold hyphae, not dimorphic.
Rx: topical azoles
Candida albicans profile?
Yeast with pseudohyphae. Germ tube formation at 37 degrees = dx.

Oral thrush, vulvovaginitis - higher with DM, diaper rash, endocarditis in IVDU, disseminated candidiasis.
rx: nystatin for superficial infection; amp B for serious sytemic infection
Aspergillus profile?
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, lung cavity aspergilloma (fungus ball)

esp CGD and IC pts

Acute angle branches
Not dimorphic
Cryptococcus neoformans profile?
Cryptococcal meningitis, cryptococcus

Narrow based budding

Heavily encapsulated yeast. Not dimorphic.
Found in soil, pigeon droppings.
Soap bubble lesions in brain
Mucor and Rhizopus profile?
Mucormycosis. Mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae wide angles.

DKA pts and leukemic.
Fungi also prolif in blood wessels.
Rhinocerebral, frontal lobe abscesses
Pneumocystis jiroveci profile?
Yeast. Inhaled.
Diffuse bilateral CXR appearance.
Dx by lung biopsy or lavage

Identified by methenamine silver stain of lung tissue

Rx: bactram, pentamidine, dapsone
Sporothrix schenkii profile?
Yeast forms, unequal budding

dimorphic fungus
Rose gardeners
Ascending lymphangitis
rx: itraconazole or potassium iodide
Giardia profile?
Bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling, fatty diarrhea

Cysts in water = transmission

Dx = trophozoites or stool

Rx: Metronidazole
Entameoba histolytica profile?
Amebiasis: bloody diarrhea, liver abscess, RUQ pain,

cysts in water = transmission

dx: serology, stool, RBCs in cytoplasm of entamoeba

rx: metronidazole and iodoquinol
Cryptosporidium profile?
Diarrhea in AIDS

Cysts in water = transmission
dx = cysts on acid fast
rx: prevention with water filtering in cities
Toxoplasma gondii profile?
Brain abscess in HIV (ring enhancing)

congenital = chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications

Cysts in meat or cat feces.

dx: serology, bx

rx: sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
Naegleria fowleri profile?
Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis

Transmission - swimming in freshwater lakes, enter via cribriform plate

Dx: amoebas in spinal fluid
Trypanosoma gambiense/rhodesiense/brucei profile?
African sleeping sickness
Transmitted: tsetse fly, painful bite

dx: blood smear
T cruzi profile?
Chagas disease
Periorbital edema, dilated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus

transmission: reduviid bug
dx: blood smear
tx: nifurtimox
Leishmania donovani?
Visceral leishmaniasis, hepatosplenomegaly

transmission: sandfly
dx: macrophages containing "amastigotes"
rx: sodium stibogluconate
Difference between p vivax and ovale and falciparum?
Malaria - cyclic fever, HA, anemia, splenomegaly

Vivax/ovale - cycles occur every other day

falciparum - parasitized RBCs can occlude capillaries in brain (cerebral malaria)

transmission - anopheles
dx - blood smear
Babesia profile?
Babesiosis - fever and hemolytic anemia

transmission: ixodes
dx: blood smear, no RBC pigment like maltese cross

rx: quinine, clindamycin
Trichomonas vaginalis?
vaginitis; foul smelling, greenish discharge, itching and burning, strawberry cervix

transmission: STD
dx: trophozoites on wet mount
rx: metronidazole
Enterobius vermicularis (pin worm)?
food contaminated with eggs. intestinal infection. Anal pruritus.

dx: scotch tape test

rx: bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
Ascaris lumbricoides?
Roudnworm.

Eggs visible in feces.
Intestinal infection
Rx: bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
Trichinella spiralis?
undercooked meat, pork; inflammation of muscle (larvae encyst in muscle), periorbital edema

rx: bendazoles
What is Romana's sign?
Eyelid infammation with Chagas
Strongyloides background?
Larvae penetrate skin; intestinal infections; vomiting diarrhea, and anemia

tx: bendazoles or ivermectin
Hookworks (ancylostoma duodenale, necator americanus)?
Larvae penetrate feet skin; intestinal infection can cause anemia.

rx: bendazoles or pyrantel pamoate
Dracunculus medinensis?
drinking water; skin inflammation and ulceration

rx: niridazole
Onchocerciasis?
transmitted by female blackflies; hyperpigmented skin and river blindness. Possible allergy to microfilaria.
Loa loa infection?
transmitted by deer fly, horse fly, and mango fly;

causes swelling in skin (can see worm crawling in conjunctiva)
rx: diethylcarbamazine
Wuchereria bancrofti?
Female mosquito; causes blockage of lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)
9mo-1yr for elephantiasis

Diethylcarbamazine
Toxocara canis?
Food contaminated with eggs; causes granulomas (blindness in retina) and visceral larva migrans.

rx: diethylcarbamazine
Taenia solium profile?
Ingestion of larvae from undercooked pork = intestinal tapeworm

Eggs = cysticercosis and neurocysticercosis (swiss cheese brain)

rx: praziquantel or bendazoles for neurocysticercosis
Echinococcus granulosus?
Eggs in dog feces when ingested can cause cysts in liver; causes anaphylaxis if echinococcal antigens are released from cysts (surgeons inject ethanol before removal to neutralize antigens)
rx: bendazoles
Diphyllobothrium latum?
ingestion of larvae in raw freshwater fish. Vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in anemia
Schistosoma profile?
Snails = host; cercariae penetrate skin of humans; causes granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of spleen and liver.
s mansoni = portal hypertension

Infection from s hematobium - hematuria/bladder squamous cell cancer
Rx: praziquantel
Clonorchis sinensis organism?
undercooked fish; causes inflammation of the biliary tract --> pigmented gallstones. Also associated with cholangiocarcinoma.

rx: praziquantel
Paragonimus vestermani?
Undercooked crab meat, inflammation and 2ndary bacterial infection of the lung, hemoptysis.

rx: praziquantel
What does recombination mean?
Exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology.
What does reassortment mean?
When viruses with segmented genomes (influenza) exchange segments. High frequency recombination. Cause of worldwide flue pandemics.
What does complementation mean?
When 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a nonfunctional protein. The nonmutated virus "complements" the mutated one by making a functional protein that serves both proteins.
What is phenotypic mixing?
Simultaneous infection of a cell with 2 viruses. Genome of virus A can be covered by virus B redetermining infectivity. But progeny will have type A coat encoded by its type A genetic material.
Difference between live and attenuated vaccines?
Live - induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity; no booster needed; only MMR can be given to HIV +

Killed - only humoral, but stable
Which vaccines are live attenuated?
smallpox, yellow fever, chicken pox, Sabin's polio virus, MMR
Vaccines are killed viruses?
Rabies, influenza, salk Polio, HAV
Recombinant virus vaccines?
HBV, HPV
DNA virus that isn't double strand?
Parvoviridae
DNA virus that isn't linear?
Papilloma and polyoma and hepadna.
These are circular and supercoiled except hepadna is incomplete.
What is the double strand RNA virus?
Reovirus
What viruses are infectious purified? Which ones aren't?
Purified nucleic acids of most dsDNA and +strand ssRNA (mRNA) = infxs
exception: HBV and poxviruses

Naked - strand ssRNA and dsRNA = not. Need enzymes from the complete virion.
Which viruses aren't haploid?
ALL ARE HAPLOID

except
retroviruses = two copies of ssRNA
Where do virii replicate?
DNA - nucleus
except - pox

RNA - cytoplasm
except - influenza and retro
What are the naked/noneveloped viruses?
CPR PAPP

Calcivirus, Picorna, Reo, Parvo, Adeno, Papilloma, Polyoma
Where do enveloped viruses acquire envelopes? Exception?
Plasma membrane
Hepadna virus = nuclear membrane
Which are the DNA enveloped viruses?
Herpesviruses, HBV, Pox virus
Which DNA viruses have nucleocapsid?
Adenovirus, Polyomavirus, Papilloma
DNA viruses list?
HHAPPPPy

Hepadna, Herpes, adeno, polyoma, pox, papilloma, parvo
Why doesn't pox replicate in the nucleus?
Carries its own DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
Which DNA virus isn't icosahedral?
Pox. It's complex.
Adenovirus profile?
Not enveloped.

Causes febrile pharyngitis, pneumonia, and pink eye
Parvovirus profile?
No envelope. SS-linear negative strand.

B19 virus - aplastic crises in SCD. Slapped cheeks rash - erythema infectiosum (fifth disease). RBC destruction in fetus leads to hydrops fetalis and death.
Papillomavirus?
Causes HPV - warts, CIN, cervical cancer.

warts = 6 and 11
cancer = 16 and 18
Polyomavirus profile?
Not enveloped. DS-circular

JC virus - PML in HIV
Poxvirus profile?
Largest DNA virus.
Causes smallpox
Vaccinia - cowpox
Molluscum contagiosum
HSV-1 profile?
Gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, herpes labialis.

Transmission - respiratory secretions, saliva
HSV-2 profile?
Herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes.

From sexual contact, perinatal.
VZV profile?
Shingles, encephalitis, pneumonia.

From respiratory secretions

reamins dormant in trigeminal and dorsal root ganglia
EBV profile?
Causes infxs mono, Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

Infects B cells. See atypical lymphocytes (T cells)

from respiratory secretions, saliva

Positive Monospot = sheep agglutination
CMV profile?
Congenital infection, mononucleosis (negative monospot), pneumonia.

Infected cells = owl's eye

route - congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, transplant
HHV-6 profile?
Roseola: high fevers for several days that can cause szs, followed by diffuse macular rash
HHV-8 profile?
Kaposi's sarcoma (HIV pts)

from sexual contact
What is the Tzanck test used for?
smear from an opened vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells. Used for HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV.

Also Cowdry A infections.
Reovirus profile?
No envelope. DS linear. Icosahedral (double).

Reovirus = colorado tick fever
Rotavirus
Rotavirus profile?
A reovirus.
#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children
segmented dsRNA

villous destruction with atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na and water
Picornavirus profile?
No envelope. SS+ linear. Icosahedral.

PERCH
Polio
Echo - aseptic meningitis
Rhino
Coxsackievirus - aspetic meningitis, herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease, myocarditis
HAV
Hepevirus profile?
No envelope.
SS + linear
Icosahedral
HEV
Calicivirus profile?
No envelope. SS + linear. Icosahedral.

Norwalk virus - viral gastroenteritis
Flaviviruses profile?
Yes envelope. SS + linear. Icosahedral.

HCV
Yellow fever
Dengue
St. Louis encephalitis
West Nile
Yellow fever profile?
Transmitted by Aedes mosquitos.

Symptoms: high fever, black vomitus, and jaundice. Councilman bodies (acidophilic inclusions) may be seen in liver.
Togavirus profile?
Yes Envelope. SS+ linear. Icosahedral.

Rubella
Eastern equine encephalitis
Western equine encephalitis
Rubella profile?
Togavirus. German (3-day) measles. Fever, lymphadenopathy, arthralgias, fine truncal rash.

Mild dz in children
serious TORCH infection
Retrovirus profile?
Yes envelope. SS + linear. Icosahedral.

Reverse transcriptase
HIV - AIDS
HTLV - T cell leukemia
Coronavirus profile?
envelope. SS + linear. Helical.

Coronavirus = common cold and SARS
Orthomyxoviruses?
Envelope. SS negative!! linear.
8 segments.
Helical structure.
Influenza
Influenza profile?
Contain hemagglutinin (viral entry)
Neuraminidase (promotes progeny virion release)

Pts at risk for fatal bacterial superinfection.

killed viral vaccine = major mode of protection
Paramyxovirus profile?
Envelope. SS - linear, nonsegmented. Helical.

Parainfluenza = croup
RSV = bronchiolitis in babies
Rubeola (Measles)
Mumps

all contain surface F (fusion proteins) that cause respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells.

Palivizumab used in RSV to neutralize F protein.
Rubeola/measles virus profile?
Paramyxovirus that causes measles.

Dx: Koplik spots - red spots with blue-white center on buccal mucosa

SSPE = subacute sclerosing panencephalitis years later.
Encephalitis
Giant cell pneumonia (immunosuppressed)

Rash spreads head to two

cough, coryza, conjunctivitis!!!
Mumps profile?
Paramyxovirus

Symptoms: Parotitis, Orchitis, aseptic Meningitis. Sterility possible after puberty.
Rhabdovirus profile?
Envelope. SS negative linear. Helical.

Rabies
Rabies profile?
Negri bodies are cx cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by rabies. Bullet-shaped capsid.

Progression: fever, malaise --> agitation, photophobia, hydrophobia --> paralysis, coma --> death

Bat, raccoon, skunk
Filoviruses profile?
Envelope. ss negative linear. Helical. Ebola/marburg hemorrhagic fever.
Arenavirus profile?
Envelope. Single strand negative sense. Circular. 2 segments. Helical.

LCMV = lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

Lassa fever encephalitis = mice
Bunyavirus profile?
Envelope. sS-. circular. 3 segments. Helical.

California encephalitis
Sandfly/Rift Valley fevers
Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever
Hantavirus - hemorrhagic fever, pneumonia
Deltavirus profile?
Envelope. SS negative. Circular. Helical.

HDV.
Arboviruses?
Transmitted by arthropods
Dengue
Yellow fever
Flavivirus, Togaviurs, Bunyavirus
Hepatitis viruses differential?
Signs: fever, jaundice, elevated AST and ALT

HAV = RNA picornavirus. Fecal-oral
HBV = DNA hepadna. Sexual, parental, maternal. Long incubation. Carriers.
HCV = RNA flavivirus. Primarily transmitted via blood.
HDV = delta agent = defective virus requiring HBsAg as envelope. Can coinfect with HBV or superinfect (with worse prognosis)
HEV (RNA hepevirus) = transmitted enterically and causes water-borne epidemics. Resembles HAV in course. High mortality in PREGNANT WOMEN. Epidemics.
How does HBV replicate?
Cellular RNA polymerase transcribes RNA from DNA template. Reverse transcriptase transcribes DNA genome from RNA intermediate.

But the virion enzyme is a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
What does HBeAg signify? What does HBeAb signify?
HBeAg signifies infectivity. Anti-HBe signifies low transmissibility.
Differences in liver enzymes between hepatitis from virus and EtOH?
EtOH = high AST
viral = high ALT
What are some features of HIV?
What are the envelope proteins - gp41 and gp120

p24= capsid

Reverse trasncriptase = pol

p17 = matrix protein
What does HIV bind on T cells? Macrophages?
T cells - CD4 and CXCR4

Macrophages - CD4 and CCR5
Replication of HIV?
Reverse transcriptase synthesizes dsDNA from RNA; dsDNA integrates into host genome
How do you diagnose HIV?
presumptive = ELISA
Rule in = Western Blot
AIDS diagnosis?
<200 CD4
HIV with AIDS indicator condition
CD4/CD8 ratio < 1.5
What are the four stages of HIV infection?
Flulike
Feeling fine
Falling count
Final crisis

in latent phase, virus replicates in lymph nodes
Why are babies positive born to infected HIV mothers when they're actually not?
anti-gp120 crosses the placenta
What are neoplasms associated with HIV?
Kaposi's, invasive cervical carcinoma (HPV), primary CNS lymphoma, non-Hodgkin's
How does HIV encephalitis happen?
late in HIV course. Virus gains CNS access via infected macrophages. Microglial nodules with multinucleated giant cells.
What is the structure of prions that causes messing up?
Beta pleated form
What are normal flora in the body?
Skin - staph eidermidis
Nose - staph epidermidis, S aureus
Oropharnyx- viridans group strep
Dental plaque - strep mutans
Colon - B fragilis > e coli
Vagina - lactobacillus, colonized by e coli and group B strep
Which bugs cause food poisoning?
vibrio parahaemolyticus and v vulnificus - contaminated seafood. V vulnificus - also cause wound infections from contact with contaminated water or shell fish

b cereus = reheated rice

S aureus = mayonnaise, custard, meat

C perfringens = reheated meat

C botulinum = improper canned food

E coli O157:H7 = undercooked meat

Salmonella - poultry, meat, eggs
Which pneumoniac agents are associated with postviral pneumonia?
Staph, H flu
Pneumonia agent with cystic fibrosis?
Pseudomonas
Sickle cell and osteomyelitis?
Salmonella
Prosthetic replacement and osteomyelitis?
S aureus and S epidermidis
What are diagnostic markers of UTIs?
positive leukocyte esterase test = bacterial UTI

positive nitrite test = gram-negative bacterial UTI
Serratia marescens features?
UTI. some strains produce a red pigment. Often nosocomial and drug resistant.
Enterobacter cloacae?
Often nosocomial and drug resistant
Klebsiella pneumoniae features for UTI?
large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies.
Proteus mirabilis features for UTI?
motility causes swarming on agar; produces urease; associated with struvite stones
What are the Torch infections?
Toxo
Rubella
CMV
HIV
Herpes simplex virus
Syphilis
Toxo neonatal manifestations?
Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
Rubella neonatal manifestations?
PDA (or pulmonary artery hypoplasia), cataracts, deafnes +/- blueberry muffin rash
CMV neonatal manifestations?
Hearing loss, seizures
HIV neonatal manifestations?
Recurrent infxns, diarrhea
HSV neonatal manifestations?
Encephalitis, herpetic lesions
Syphilis neonatal manifestations?
Often results in stillbirth; hydrops fetalis. If child survives, presents with facial abnormalities (notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla), saber shins
Rash begins at head and moves down. Postauricular lymphadenopathy?
Rubella virus
Rash beginning at head and moving down; rash preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and blue-white (Koplik) spots on buccal mucosa?
Measles virus - paramyxovirus
No rash. Can present with parotitis, meningitis (orchitis or oophoritis in young adults)?
Mumps virus
Rash begins on trunk; spreads to face and extremities with lesions of different age?
VZV
A macular rash over body appears after several days of high fever; usually affects infants?
HHV-6 / roseola
"Slapped cheek" rash on face later appears over body in reticular, "lace-like" pattern. (Can casue hydrops fetalis in pregnant women)
Parvovirus B19 = erythema infectiosum
Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash with fever and sore throat.
Strep pyogenes. Scarlet fever.
Vesicular rash on palms and soles; ulcers in oral mucosa?
Coxsackievirus type A. Hand-foot-mouth disease.
Noninflammatory, malodorous discharge (fishy smell); positive whiff test, clue cells?
Gardnerella vaginalis
Nosocomial risk factors?
Newborn nursery - CMV, RSV
Urinary cath - E coli, Proteus, mirabilis

Respiratory therapy equipment - Pseudomonas

Work in renal unit - HBV
HIV - Dermatologic - superficial vascular proliferation - bx neutrophilic inflammation?
Bartonella hensalae and bacillary angiomatosis
HIV - Superficial - lymphocytic inflammation?
Kaposi's
HIV - neurologic - encephalopathy - reactivation of latent virus; resulting in demyelination?
JC virus (cause of PML)
HIV - neurologic - many ring-enhancing lesions on imaging?
Toxoplasma gondii
HIV - neurologic - retinitis - cotton-wool spots on funduscopic exam?
CMV
HIV - oncologic - hairy leukoplakia - often on lateral tongue?
EBV
HIV - non-hodgkins lymphoma - often on oropharynx?
EBV
HIV - respiratory - interstitial pneumonia - bx reveals cells with intranuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion bodies?
CMV
HIV - respiratory - pleuritic pain, hemoptysis, inifiltrates on imaging?
Aspergillus
When to think of MAC with HIV?
CD4 < 50
Positive PAS stain?
Whipple's disease
Bacteria associated with protein M?
Group A strep
What property allows hep c not to confer immunity to host?
Changing envelope structure of its envelope
Which bacteria can grow in bile and 6.5% NaCl?
enterococci and E faecium
Organisms associated with Reiter's syndrome?
Chlamydia, shigella, salmonella, yersinia, campylobacter
What are the invasive gut bacteria?
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia enterocolitis, EIEC, Campylobacter jejuni
Which bacteria produce exotoxin after ingestion?
ETEC, EHEC, shigella, vibrio cholera.
Bacteria with preformed exotoxin?
B cereus, S aureus. No P2p.
Primary focus of crypto infection is where?
Lungs
Pathogen responsible a lot of the times for aseptic meningitis?
Enterovirus, a picornavirus
Is staph epidermidids associated with skin infections?
No
Virulence factor of Group B strep?
resists ingestion by phagocytes
Pathogen responsible for chancroid?
haemophilus (coccobacillus) ducreyi
Skin findings with cocccidio?
Red nodules on shins with lung findings
Pathogen associated with osteomyelitis and SCD?
salmonella
P falciparum can be visualized on blood smear with what?
Giemsa stain
NRTIs cause anemia how?
decrease erythrocyte production
Cause of molluscum contagiosum?
Pox virus (MC)
Cause for endometritis?
Usu post delivery. Usu bacteroides. Foul smelling
Most common viral encephalitis?
HSV-1
Most common bacterial meningitis?
S pneumo
Best method for sterilizing C diff bedpan?
121C steam for 15 min (saturated)
Coagulase can be detected by beads coated with?
Fibrinogen and IgG
Antibodies against measles would be against what antigen?
Hemagglutinin
Fremitus can suggest?
Lobar pneumonia
HIV related renal finding?
FSGS (also SCD, heroin)
Entameba findings?
Bloody diarrhea, liver abscess
Aspergillus spreads by?
Vascular invasion
Virulence factor for group A strep?
strep pyogenes has M protein - inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation
Sputum culture and candida?
Probably a mouth contaminant!
Hep C envelope and immunogenicity?
Antigenic structure changes so it's wily!
What is susceptible to optochin and bile?
S pneumo
Risk factors for candida?
antibiotics, DM, steroids, contraception, immunocompromise
What HIV product is glycosylated?
env - gp160 cleaved to...
120 - for absorption
41 - fusion backbone
HiB pathogenicity?
PRP capsule
What grows on blood agar with bile and salt?
Enterococci. Group D strep like s bovis can't grow on the salt
MacConkey agar grows?
Enteric bacteria
What grows on cysteine-tellurite agar?
C diphtheria
Important factor for Shiga infection?
Mucosal invasion
Difference between reassortment and recombination?
segmented, ssRNA can reassort (like flu)

recombination seems to be more common with crossing over
Hep B infant prognosis?
Increased risk for chronic infection, increased viral rate, milder liver injury
Mucor typically affects?
DKA. DM.

see sinuses
E coli virulence factor for neonatal meningitis?
Capsule
E coli O antigen? Heat labile toxin? Fimbria?
O = cell wall polysaccharide = gram neg identification

ETEC = heat labile
Fimbria = virulence factor for UTI
BK virus is what?
A Papova virus, causes hemorrhagic cystitis and nephropathy
HIV pts big risk of what type of malignancies?
EBV lymphoma (non-Hodgkins)
C perfringens toxin does what?:
Lecithinase. Degrades phospholipid
Thayer Martin media has?
for gonococcus

Vanco

Colistin (polymyxin)

Bactram
Hep B prodrome presents as?
Joint pain, serum sickness like with fever
TB infection presents with what immunologic response?
Type IV hypersensitivity
HbsAg looks like what?
envelope - has spheres and tubules 22nm
Number one cause of meningitis?
Strep pneumo
C perfringens can cause what issues?
Gas gangrene and toxin like diarrhea
H flu gets to meninges how?
Pharynx, lymphatics, meninges
N meningitis path to meninges?
Pharynx, blood, choroid plexus, meninges
ETEC toxins?
Labile toxin - cAMP - activates Gs

Stable toxin - cGMP
MMR vaccine is live or killed?
Live
What vaccines are killed?
rabies and HepA
What allows for TB intracellular proliferation?
Sulfatide virulence factor
Dx aspergillus?
Serologic
Dx mucor?
biopsy
Treating lyme disease?
Ceftriaxone, PCN, doxy
How does Flu vaccine mediate resistance?
Hemagluttinin - preventing viral entry; humoral
Staph Aureus major virulence factor?
Protein A. Inhibits binding of Fc portion of Ig. Not allowing opsonization and phagocytosis
S pyogenes major virulence factor?
Prevents phagocytosis
Number 2 cause of UTI?
Staph saprophyticus
Mycoplasma can cause what blood reaction?
cold agglutinin
What can cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
Adenovirus -normal

BK virus - a polyoma virus in transplant pts
Tetanosplamin action?
Prevents release of nts inhibiting inhibitory neurons.
Most important discriminating prognostic factor for PSGN?
Age
Segmented viruses?
Rota. Orthomyxo
EHEC specific factos?
Doesn't ferment sorbitol. Doesn't produce glucuronidase.
Mechanism of C diff toxin?
exotoxin disrupting the cytoskeleton