Micro Uf Cop Exam 2 Part 3 Of 3

Front 1

This organism has Developed as a major killer in Western countries

Back 1

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 2

What is the purpose of Ames test?

Back 2

use of bacterial genetics to help screen for substances that might cause cancer
i. Looks for damage to bacterial DNA by looking for metabolic activity being affected by mutation (damage) to DNA
ii. Histidine + = carcinogen

Front 3

how does tryptophan operon work?

Back 3

Tryptophan operon – when tryptophan present, operon turned off

Front 4

What are the important features of genetic code?

Back 4

a. Universal
b. Remains unchanged
c. Initiation codon
i. AUG (Met)
d. Termination codons
i. UAA, UAG, UGA

Front 5

intentionally modifying genomes of organisms, by natural and artificial processes, for practical purposes

Back 5

Recombinant DNA technology

Front 6

Functions of recombinant DNA technology?

Back 6

i. Eliminate undesirable phenotypic traits in humans, animals, plants, microbes
ii. Combine beneficial traits of two or more organisms to create valuable new organisms
iii. Create organisms that synthesize products human need

Front 7

different techniques used in Recombinant DNA technology.

Back 7

1) PCR
2)Gel Electrophoresis and the Southern Blot

Front 8

Polymerase chain reaction
a) Large number of identical molecules of DNA produced in vitro
b) Critical to amplify DNA in a variety of situations
c) Epidemiologists use to amplify genome of unknown pathogen (West Nile virus)
d) Amplify DNA from Bacillus anthracis spores in 2001 to identify source of spores
e) All of the above

Back 8

e) all of the above

Front 9

Type of Recombinant DNA technology that separates DNA Molecules:

Back 9

Gel Electrophoresis and the Southern Blot

Front 10

How does electrophoresis work?

Back 10

Electrophoresis involves separating molecules based on electrical charge, size and shape

Front 11

what are 3 artifical methods of inserting DNA into cells?

Back 11

Artificial methods
1.Electroporation – make membrane more responsive
2.Protoplast fusion – fuse two cells, so cell membranes are fused
3.Injection – gene gun and microinjection

Front 12

concerned with transmission, spread, control and prevention of infectious disease in populations

Back 12

Epidemiology:

Front 13

disease stays in population at low frequency; ex: common cold

Back 13

Endemic:

Front 14

epidemic over wide area (may be entire world).

Back 14

Pandemic: 1918-1919: influenza pandemic killed 20 million people worldwide

Front 15

sudden outbreak in disease above typical level

Back 15

Epidemic:

Front 16

all reported cases of disease, illness + deaths

Back 16

Morbidity:

Front 17

reported deaths due to a disease

Back 17

Mortalitity:

Front 18

where disease is typically found

Back 18

Reservoir

Front 19

Name 3 examples of what reservoir could be?

Back 19

1) Inanimate: found primarily in inanimate habitats
2) Animate: humans are effective reservoirs for many
Example: bacteria can stay in the gallbladder for long periods of time
3) Carrier: infected but not obviously diseased

Front 20

most common route of infection

Back 20

Airborne diseases:

Front 21

microbes inside human cells, protected from immune cells

Back 21

Intracellular life of bacteria

Front 22

Give an example of intracellular bacteria?

Back 22

Example: Chlamydia = obligate intracellular parasite

Front 23

bacteria in the blood (not cells), just inside the body not individual cells, easier to grow and spread but under constant attack form the immune system

Back 23

Extracellular life:

Front 24

Analyze the growth in different media and the microbiological products and provide a number for each type of bacteria

Back 24

Biotyping-

Front 25

Using antibodies to detect characteristic antigens on the bacteria and subdivide bacteria below the species level.

Back 25

Serotyping-

Front 26

A technique of bacterial typing which differentiates between bacteria or strains of bacteria by their susceptibility to one or more bacteriophages

Back 26

Phage typing-

Front 27

as the overall profile of antimicrobial susceptibility results of a microbial species to a battery of antimicrobial agents.

Back 27

Antibiogram patterns-

Front 28

What is the significance of possessing capsule, endospores, and/or flagella for the bacteria.

Back 28

All are virulence factors
i. Capsules can prevent phagocytosis
ii. Endospores can survive harsh living conditions
iii. Flagella – locomotion

Front 29

Light repair –

Back 29

opens thymine dimers

Front 30

Dark repair –

Back 30

removal of wrong base + replacement

Front 31

-(generalized & specialized) excision of DNA segment that contains the damage & synthesis of a new strand

Back 31

Excision repair

Front 32

-retrieval of missing information by genetic recombination when both strands are damaged

Back 32

Recombination repair

Front 33

induction of many genes (~15) after DNA damage of interruption

Back 33

SOS response-

Front 34

last resort of a bacterial cell before it dies. Used to fill in gaps w/a random sequence when a DNA template in not available

Back 34

Error-prone repair-.

Front 35

the differences in the length of the DNA fragments among the different strains of a specific organism produced on cleavage w/one or more restrictions endonucleases.

Back 35

RFLP-restriction fragment length polymorphism-

Front 36

is a type of hybridization that uses a labeled complementary DNA or RNA strand (i.e., probe) to localize a specific DNA or RNA sequence in a portion or section of tissue

Back 36

In Situ Hybridization-

Front 37

In this type of analysis, the DNA sample is broken into pieces (digested) by restriction enzymes and the resulting restriction fragments are separated according to their lengths by gel electrophoresis

Back 37

RFLP

Front 38

T/F: most virulent forms of disease concentrated in hospital environment

Back 38

True

Front 39

Infection may lead to what 3 outcomes?

Back 39

Infection may lead to:
No disease,
Mild, general symptoms,
Or specific clinical symptoms

Front 40

relative ability to cause disease

Back 40

Virulence -

Front 41

the number of organisms required to bring down half of the population w/ the dz

Back 41

Infectious dose (50) ID50:

Front 42

the number of microbes it takes to kill half of the population

Back 42

Lethal dose (50) LD50

Front 43

Koch's Postulates consist of what 4 things?

Back 43

. Observation
2. Isolation
3. Re-infection
4. Re-observation, Re-isolation

Front 44

Koch's Postulates are not done for w/c organisms?

Back 44

Mycobacterium leprae: organism grows too slow
Treponemma pallidum: needs a tissue from the host to grow
Polymicrobic infections

Front 45

Bacteria can cause diseases in one these two ways:

Back 45

By Invasion
By Producing Toxic products

Front 46

what are 3 degrees of invasiveness & give examples of organisms that fall in each degree?

Back 46

No invasion - highly toxic, food borne toxin; Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus
Minimal invasion - potent toxin; Corynebacterium diphtheriae; Clostridium tetani
Highly invasive - little or no toxin; Shigella strains; Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Front 47

For an organism to invade, it must do or get what 3 things?

Back 47

Attachment
Obtaining nutrients
Avoid host defenses

Front 48

Attachment of an organism may be important for what 3 things?

Back 48

Transport of toxins
Translocation - transport to the submucosal area or circulatory system
Cellular penetration

Front 49

what is a critical nutrient w/c helps in bacterial invasion?

Back 49

Iron is a critical nutrient, often a limiting factor

Front 50

what are the names of iron binding proteins in the bacteria & in the host called?

Back 50

Bacteria - iron-binding proteins (siderophores)
Host - iron-binding proteins (transferrin, lactoferrin)

Front 51

what does the host do to iron during an infection?

Back 51

Host - transfer of iron from circulation to the liver during infection

Front 52

Give 2 examples of how an organism can avoid Antibody detection?

Back 52

Rapid antigenic change - Neisseria gonorrhoeae Borrelia spp.
Precipitation of antibody (protein A of Staphylococcus aureus

Front 53

Give 3 examples of how an organism avoids the action of phagocytic cells?

Back 53

Leukocidins - attack phagocytic cells (Staphylococcus aureus)
Survival within phagocytic cells (facultative intracellular parasites (Mycobacterium tuberculosis; Salmonella typhi)
Antiphagocytic capsules

Front 54

This bacterial defense attacks phagocytic cells? name the organism that can do this?

Back 54

Leukocidins - attack phagocytic cells (Staphylococcus aureus)

Front 55

Give an example of 2 organisms that can survive w/n the phagocytic cells & therefore avoid attack?

Back 55

Survival within phagocytic cells (facultative intracellular parasites (Mycobacterium tuberculosis; Salmonella typhi)

Front 56

These toxins attack surfaces

Back 56

Cytolytic toxins -

Front 57

entry is required into the cell for w/c 2 toxins?

Back 57

Exotoxins, enterotoxins -

Front 58

Talk about the A-B toxin activity? what is the function of each?

Back 58

A – B type; Exotoxins, enterotoxins – B is required for entry into cells; A is required for toxin activity

Front 59

Name 3 organisms that release endotoxins when they die & can cause a sepsis rxn?

Back 59

E coli, Salmonella, Shigella

Front 60

Fxn of Interferon G

Back 60

- Activates monocytes and macrophages, may contribute to vascular damage

Front 61

Fxn of TNF in infection?

Back 61

Contributes to fever, hypotension, hemorrhages in organs, increased breathing and heart rate

Front 62

Fxn of IL-1 in infection?

Back 62

Causes fever by stimulating prostaglandin release in hypothalamus; contributes to hypotension

Front 63

the 3 differences between exotoxins & endotoxins?

Back 63

Endotoxins cause fever, they are weakly toxic & weakly immunogenic.
Exotoxins don't cause fever, they are highly toxic & highly immunogenic

Front 64

Three functions of pili?

Back 64

Pili promote adhesion
prevent phagocytosis
Promote blood clotting

Front 65

Typhus fever, caused by bacterium _________ ________ is transmitted by _________ _________. This is an example of w/c type of transmission?

Back 65

Rickettsia prowazekii,
body lice
Arthropod-borne diseases:
Carried by arthropod = vector

Front 66

Give 2 examples of food poisoning intoxication?

Back 66

Ex 1: Botulism. Bacteria grown in food forms toxin. Cooking kills bacteria, but not toxin
Ex. 2: Staphylococcal food poisoning (due to heat stable enterotoxin). Often transmitted by food handlers

Front 67

Give 4 examples of how new diseases originate

Back 67

Existed for a long time, but discovered recently; Lyme disease
Disease results from mutation/recombination of existing organisms; : influenza
Disease originates by crossing species boundaries from some other animal. Ex: AIDS, probably moved from primates into humans. Also Hanta virus, summer of 1993
Disease results from ecological changes; deforestation, road construction, etc.

Front 68

Name 4 adherence factors of bacteria?

Back 68

Adherence factors:
Glycocalyx
Adherence Proteins
Lipoteichoic acids
Fimbriae (pili)

Front 69

Explain what is the nucleic acid sequence analysis?

Back 69

Probes are used to localize specific nucleic acid sequences that are unique to a genus, species, or subspecies. These sequences are then amplified so that millions of copies are produced, then the amplified genetic material is sequenced to define the precise identity of the isolate.

Front 70

What is found in the periplasmic space?

Back 70

Enzymes involved in transport, degradation, & synthesis

Front 71

How can peptidoglycan be degraded?

Back 71

Lysozyme

Front 72

What is the function of the outer membrane?

Back 72

It’s found in gm- bacteria & it maintains the bacterial structure & is a permeability barrier to large molecules

Front 73

LPS is a powerful stimulator of innate & immune responses, what does it do?

Back 73

Activates B cells & induces macrophage, dendritic cells to release IL-1 & IL-6, TNF. It can also cause fever & shock

Front 74

Define biofilm & give 2 examples of organisms that may have it?

Back 74

It’s a polysaccharide w/c establishes a bacterial community & protects them from antibiotics & host defenses. These can be seen P aeroginosa & S. mutans seen in tooth plaque

Front 75

Describe the cytoplasmic membrane of prokaryotes? What is the exception?

Back 75

It has a lipid bilayer similar to eukaryotic membranes but it contains no steroids. Mycoplasmas are the exception

Front 76

What is the function of cytoplasmic membranes in bacteria?

Back 76

They are responsible for many of the functions attributable to organelles in eukaryotes like electron transport & energy production

Front 77

Define transition mutation?

Back 77

In w/c one purine is replaced by another purine or pyrmidine replaced by another pyrmidine

Front 78

Define transversion mutation?

Back 78

A purine is replaced by a pyrmidine or vice versa

Front 79

A mutation in a w/c a change in the DNA level does not result in any change of amino acid in the encoded protein.

Back 79

Silent mutation

Front 80

A mutation w/c results in a different aa being inserted in the protein.

Back 80

Missense mutation

Front 81

A mutation that changes a codon encoding an aa to a stop codon.

Back 81

Nonsense mutation

Front 82

All of the following can be found in mitochondria and prokaryotes except:

(A) ATP-generating mechanism
(B) Circular DNA
(C) Cell wall
(D) Electron transport system
(E) Ribosome

Back 82

(C) Cell wall

Front 83

Bacteria differ from viruses because bacteria

(A) Have DNA and RNA
(B) All of these
(C) Can live without a host
(D) Have cells

Back 83

(B) All of these

Front 84

Which of the following is not a variation of light microscopy?

(A) Phase-contrast microscopy
(B) Electron microscopy
(C) Bright-field microscopy
(D) Dark-field microscopy
(E) Fluorescent microscopy

Back 84

(B) Electron microscopy

Front 85

The fluid mosaic model describes:

(A) Gram negative outer membrane
(B) Cell membrane
(C) Cytoplasm
(D) Cell wall

Back 85

(B) Cell membrane

Front 86

At which growth temperature bacteria grow at the fastest rate.

(A) Minimum temperature
(B) Optimum temperature
(C) Maximum temperature

Back 86

B) Optimum temperature

Front 87

This is not an internal structure of bacteria

(A) Nucleoid
(B) Ribozome
(C) Plasmid
(D) Fimbriae

Back 87

(D) Fimbriae

Front 88

Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids?

(A) Lipids
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Nucleic acids

Back 88

(B) Proteins

Front 89

Only bacteria have cell wall

(A) True
(B) False

Back 89

(B) False

Front 90

generate ATP from ADP

Back 90

substrate level phosphorylation

Front 91

in the absence of oxygen, substrate level phosphorylation represents the primary means of energy production, is this true or false?

Back 91

True

Front 92

this cellular mechanism serves as the final common pathway for the complete oxidation of aa, FA, & CHO

Back 92

TCA cycle

Front 93

Enzymes may expedite chemical reactions by increasing the activation energy.

(A) False
(B) True

Back 93

(A) False

Front 94

For most organisms this molecule acts as the sole informational molecule and carries the genetic blueprint for the cells.

(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) RNA and Protein
(D) DNA and RNA
(E) Protein

Back 94

(B) DNA

Front 95

This microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with an ultra violet light and is an excellent diagnostic tool.

(A) Phase-contrast microscope
(B) Electron microscope
(C) Darkfield microscope
(D) Fluorescence microscope

Back 95

D) Fluorescence microscope

Front 96

Which of the following is not a eukaryote?

(A) Fungi
(B) Bacteria
(C) Plants
(D) Animals
(E) Algae

Back 96

(B) Bacteria

Front 97

. A denatured protein maintains its:

(A) Primary structure
(B) Structural integrity (3D), but it loses its function
(C) Tertiary structure
(D) Quaternary structure
(E) Secondary structure

Back 97

(A) Primary structure

Front 98

Cell division occurs in prokaryotes by:

(A) Mitosis
(B) Budding
(C) Binary fission
(D) Meiosis

Back 98

(C) Binary fission

Front 99

Proteins are involved in all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) Catalyze chemical processes
(B) Regulate cellular processes
(C) Provide structural support
(D) Serve as hereditary materials
(E) All answers are correct

Back 99

(D) Serve as hereditary materials

Front 100

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion

(A) Can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration
(B) Does not require ATP (energy)
(C) Requires transporter proteins (carriers)
(D) Can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration
(E) Requires ATP (energy)

Back 100

(C) Requires transporter proteins (carriers)

Front 101

We discussed two processes for synthesizing ATP. Which process requires proton gradient across the membrane

(A) Oxidative phosphorylation
(B) Substrate level phosphorylation

Back 101

(A) Oxidative phosphorylation

Front 102

Nitrogen bases are building blocks of:

(A) None of these
(B) Nucleotides
(C) Deoxyribose
(D) Ribozomes
(E) Lipids

Back 102

(B) Nucleotides

Front 103

What is the purpose of buffer in culture media?

(A) To increase the pH
(B) To maintain pH at a certain level
(C) To keep the bacteria under control
(D) To separate microorganisms from one another
(E) To decrease the pH

Back 103

(B) To maintain pH at a certain level

Front 104

Which forces/bonds are involved in quaternary structure of proteins?

(A) Hydrogen bond, S-S bridges, Van der Waals forces, peptide bonds
(B) Hydrogen bond, S-S bridges, Van der Waals forces, peptide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions
(C) Hydrogen bond, S-S bridges, peptide bonds
(D) Hydrogen bond, S-S bridges, Van der Waals forces, hydrophobic interactions

Back 104

(B) Hydrogen bond, S-S bridges, Van der Waals forces, peptide bonds, and hydrophobic interactions

Front 105

If the structure is incorrect, then it follows that the ___________ will subsequently be incorrect.

Back 105

Function

Front 106

One of the most important polymers to know is the ___________which is made of peptidoglycan.

Back 106

Bacterial Cell Wall

Front 107

T/F Peptidoglycan, as a cell wall structural component, is unique to Bacteria.

Back 107

True.

Front 108

Peptidoglycan acts like a ___________ in the body, but it’s also a good target for ___________.

Back 108

Antigen (4:54); Antimicrobial Agents

Front 109

___________ attacks Peptidoglycan and, therefore, interrupts the formation of cell walls in dividing Bacterial cells.

Back 109

Penicillin

Front 110

Lipids are made of ___________ and ___________. They contain both a hydrophobic and hydrophilic region (or group), so they are called ___________.

Back 110

Glycerol, Fatty Acids; Amphipathic

Front 111

An Amphipathic molecule can easily separate a ___________ phase or ___________ phase from the hydrophobic phase.

Back 111

Liquid, Soluble

Front 112

Lipids are the best materials with which to make ___________ due to their ability to separate and maintain hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.

Back 112

Plasma (Cell) Membranes

Front 113

Most lipids are:
a. Monoglycerides
b. Diglycerides
c. Triglycerides
d. Evenly dispersed between a. and b.

Back 113

c. Triglycerides

Front 114

Phospholipids are ___________ with a ___________ attached and are an integral component of ___________.

Back 114

Diglycerides (or Fatty Acids), Phosphate Group, Cell Membranes

Front 115

these are groups of one or more structural genes expressed from a particular promoter & ending at a transcriptional terminator

Back 115

operons

Front 116

ka jumping genes

Back 116

transposons

Front 117

T/F: transposons are present in prokaryotes only.

Back 117

False: they are present in both prok & euko

Front 118

characteristics of cloning & expression vectors?

Back 118

They can be used to deliver DNA sequences into receptive bacteria. therefore they must allow foreign DNA to be inserted into them but still must be able to replicate normally in a bacterial or uk host

Front 119

Which of the following mechanisms requires energy?

(A) Simple diffusion
(B) Osmosis
(C) Active transport
(D) Facilitated diffusion

Back 119

(C) Active transport

Front 120

Which of the following statements about a gram-negative cell wall is not true?

(A) It protects the cell from osmotic lysis.
(B) It maintains the shape of the cell.
(C) It contains an endotoxin
(D) It has teichoic acids.

Back 120

(C) It contains an endotoxin

Front 121

The type of bond holding Na+ and Cl- ions in NaCl is a (n):

(A) Double bond.
(B) Covalent bond.
(C) Hydrogen bond.
(D) Ionic bond

Back 121

(D) Ionic bond

Front 122

Which of the following is not a kingdom in the five-kingdom system?

(A) Monera
(B) Plant
(C) Virus
(D) Animal
(E) Fungi

Back 122

(C) Virus

Front 123

All of the following are true about starch and cellulose except they are:

(A) Digested by many bacteria and fungi.
(B) Digested by animals
(C) Produced by plants.
(D) Polymers of glucose

Back 123

(B) Digested by animals

Front 124

What are the hallmarks of a cell?

(A) Self feeding
(B) Disease causing
(C) Self sufficient
(D) Presence of RNA and ribosome in the cell
(E) Having cell wall

Back 124

(A) Self feeding

Front 125

Which of the following is not related to bacterial cell wall

(A) Not all bacteria have cell wall
(B) Controls water balance
(C) All of these are related to bacterial cell wall
(D) Preserve the shape of bacteria
(E) Made of peptidoglycan

Back 125

C) All of these are related to bacterial cell wall

Front 126

This microscope uses an ultraviolet light source.

(A) Compound light microscope
(B) Electron microscope
(C) Dark field microscope
(D) Fluorescence microscope

Back 126

D) Fluorescence microscope

Front 127

Which of the following mechanisms generate ATP using an electron transport chain?

(A) Fermentation
(B) Oxidative phosphorylation
(C) Substrate level phosphorylation
(D) glycolysis
(E) Krebs cycle

Back 127

B) Oxidative phosphorylation

Front 128

A medium that contains crystal violet inhibits growth of gram-positive bacteria. This medium is:

(A) Enriched
(B) Differential
(C) Selective

Back 128

(C) Selective

Front 129

Bioremediation means all of the following EXCEPT:
(1) Use of bacterial enzyme to break down toxins into less harmful substances
(2) Use of microbes to remove toxic waste
(3) Use of enzymes in drain cleaners to remove clogs
(4) Use of bacterial enzymes in detergents
(5) Use of bacterial enzyme to extract energy from oil

Back 129

5) Use of bacterial enzyme to extract energy from oil

Front 130

Which of the following group of organisms uses glucose as their carbon and energy source?
(1) Photoautotrophs
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Chemoautotrophs
(4) Photoheterotrophs
(5) Chemolithotrophs

Back 130

(2) Chemoheterotrophs

Front 131

Identify the FALSE statement
(1) Gram staining procedure is a type of differential staining procedure
(2) In Gram staining procedure Gram+ cells are blue (purple) and Gram- cells appear red (pink)
(3) Gram staining procedures can differentiate cells with thick peptidoglycan from the cells with thin
peptidoglycan layer
(4) Gram staining procedure is the most important staining procedure in microbiology
(5) None of the above is false

Back 131

5) None of the above is false

Front 132

A peptide bond:
1. is a covalent bond
2. holds the primary structure of protein together
3. is between two hydrogen groups
4. is between a carbon and a nitrogen
5. is between two sugar molecules
(1) 1, 2, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(3) 2, 3, 5
(4) 1, 4, 5
(5) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Back 132

(1) 1, 2, 4
1. is a covalent bond
2. holds the primary structure of protein together
3. is between two hydrogen groups
4. is between a carbon and a nitrogen
5. is between two sugar molecules

Front 133

Which of the following statements about the enzymes is FALSE?
(1) Each enzyme carries a specific function
(2) Enzymes increase the activation energy
(3) Enzymes increase the rate of the reactions
(4) Enzymes are made of protein
(5) Enzyme activity is affected by both pH and temperature

Back 133

(2) Enzymes increase the activation energy

Front 134

Which of the following is not a general feature of active transport?
(1) Requires a carrier protein
(2) Requires a form of energy
(3) Can move molecules against a concentration gradient
(4) All of the above are characteristics of active transport

Back 134

4) All of the above are characteristics of active transport

Front 135

What is an amphipathic molecule. Give an example.
(1) A molecule that contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups such as LIPIDS.
(2) A molecule that contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups such as POLYSACCHARIDES.
(3) A molecule that contains quaternary structure such as PROTEINS.
(4) A molecule that is hold together by hydrophobic interactions such as PROTEINS
(5) A molecule that contains hydrophobic groups such as LIPIDS

Back 135

1) A molecule that contains both hydrophobic and hydrophilic groups such as LIPIDS.

Front 136

One can see unstained and live specimen using this type of light microscope
(1) phase-contrast microscope
(2) electron microscope
(3) bright-field microscope
(4) dark-field microscope
(5) fluorescence microscope

Back 136

1) phase-contrast microscope

Front 137

Mannitol salt agar contains mannitol sugar, a pH indicator, and high concentration of salt (7.5% sodium
chloride). Sugar could be fermented by some organisms, and high salt content is inhibitory to some
bacteria. This medium is an example of a ___________ medium.
(1) Differential
(2) Selective
(3) Enriched
(4) selective and differential
(5) Enriched and Selective

Back 137

(4) selective and differential

Front 138

Which of the followings cannot be killed by autoclave:
(1) Bacterial spores
(2) Protozoan cycst
(3) Pathogens
(4) Gram positive bacteria with thick cell wall
(5) Autoclave kill all of the above

Back 138

5) Autoclave kill all of the above

Front 139

Chemiosmosis involves the
(1) generation of proton gradient
(2) formation of acids and alcohol
(3) formation of carbon dioxide
(4) chemical breakdown of glucose

Back 139

1) generation of proton gradient

Front 140

A bacterial cell is found to be motile and resistant to high temperature and phagocytosis. What
structure does this cell probably have?
(1) Endospore, flagella, capsule
(2) Endospore, pili, capsule
(3) Flagella, pili, plasmid
(4) Endospore, capsule, ribosome
(5) Flagella, pili, capsule

Back 140

1) Endospore, flagella, capsule

Front 141

You have isolated a cell with a peptidoglycan cell wall. What other structure can you safely assume
this cell has?
(1) a nucleus
(2) a mitochondrion
(3) a cell membrane
(4) a chloroplast
(5) all of the above

Back 141

(3) a cell membrane

Front 142

Staining is an important part of smear preparation. Which of the following staining procedures uses
more than one stain
(1) Capsule stain
(2) Staining for Tuberculosis agent
(3) Spore stain
(4) All of the above
(5) None of the above

Back 142

(4) All of the above

Front 143

A bacterium that can grow with or without the presence of oxygen is called a(n).
(1) Facultative anaerobe
(2) Obligate aerobe
(3) Obligate anaerobe
(4) Microaerophile
(5) None of the above

Back 143

(1) Facultative anaerobe

Front 144

List the followings in the order of MOST resistant to LEAST resistant to antimicrobial agents
a. Endospore b. Protozoa c. Viruses d. TB agent
(1) a, d, b, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) b, a, d, c
(4) d, b, a, c
(5) b, d, a, c

Back 144

(1) a, d, b, c
a. Endospore b. Protozoa c. Viruses d. TB agent

Front 145

The advantage of unsaturated fats (lipids) is that they make cell membranes more ___________. Unsaturated bonds cause a ___________ in the ___________ of the lipid, making it more advantageous in the cell membrane.

Back 145

Fluid; Kink, Tails

Front 146

Which of the following is not a saturated fatty acid, thereby making a plasma membrane more fluid?
a. Oleic
b. Palmitic
c. Stearic
d. Myristic
e. All of these are saturated

Back 146

a. Oleic

Front 147

Saturated Fatty Acids are problematic because they form rigid structures; these are exceedingly dangerous if their deposition occurs on ___________.

Back 147

Arterial Walls

Front 148

Which of the following is not a Sterol molecule (steroidal)?
a. Cholesterol
b. Vitamin D
c. Hormones
d. Some components of animal cell membranes
e. All of these are Sterols

Back 148

e. All of these are Sterols

Front 149

Sterols are important because they prevent fats from ___________ the ___________ of cells and, in addition, they are present in all Animal and Mycoplasmic Bacteria ___________.

Back 149

Hardening, Plasma Membrane, Cell Membrane (Plasma Membrane)

Front 150

___________ and ___________ are polymers of nucleotides.

Back 150

DNA, RNA

Front 151

Which of the following is a specific function of RNA and not DNA?
a. Carries genetic blueprint for cell
b. Interprets information onto protein molecules
c. Act as informational molecules
d. Required for protein synthesis
e. All of these are common functions for RNA and DNA

Back 151

b. Interprets information onto protein molecules

Front 152

All nucleotides have three components, a ___________, a ___________, and a ___________.

Back 152

Nucleotide Base, Sugar (Ribose or Deoxy-Ribose), Phosphate

Front 153

All nucleotides require a nucleotide base; there are ___________ nucleotide bases.
20.

Back 153

Five

Front 154

Which of the following statements is not True about nucleotide bases?
a. Adenine and Guanine are Purines
b. Cytosine, Uracil, and Thymine are Pyrimidines
c. All Purines can be found in DNA and RNA
d. The only Pyrimidine that is common to both DNA and RNA is Cytosine
e. All of these statements are True

Back 154

e. All of these statements are True

Front 155

Bioremediation refers to:

(A) Using microbes to clean up pollution
(B) Using microbe to study diseases
(C) Using microbe in vaccine development
(D) Rehabilitating wayward bacteria

Back 155

(A) Using microbes to clean up pollution

Front 156

Which of the following is not part of the cell membrane?

(A) Fatty acids
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Sugars
(D) Amino acids

Back 156

(B) Nucleic acids

Front 157

All of the following statements about cellulase are true except which one?

(A) It is a carbohydrate
(B) Some bacteria make it.
(C) It is a protein.
(D) It is used to degrade cellulose

Back 157

(A) It is a carbohydrate

Front 158

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

(A) Pasteur--proof of biogenesis
(B) Ehrlich--chemotherapy
(C) Jenner--vaccination
(D) Koch--aseptic surgery

Back 158

(D) Koch--aseptic surgery

Front 159

Negative stain makes cells appear light against a dark background

(A) True
(B) False

Back 159

(A) True

Front 160

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bacteria?

(A) All are pathogenic
(B) Most possess cell walls
(C) Cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan
(D) All are unicellular

Back 160

(A) All are pathogenic

Front 161

What is/are the important biological function(s) of polysaccharides?
a. energy storage
b. structural support
c. enzymatic activity
d. information storage

(A) a and c
(B) a and b
(C) b and c
(D) b and d
(E) c and d

Back 161

(B) a and b
a. energy storage
b. structural support

Front 162

The idea of spontaneous generation postulated that:

(A) Living organisms could arise from non-living material
(B) Organisms could spontaneously evolve into more advance organisms
(C) Organisms could evolve into next generation of organisms
(D) Organisms could spontaneously arise from other living organisms

Back 162

A) Living organisms could arise from non-living material

Front 163

Which of the following does not contribute to the hydrophobic interaction?

(A) Proximity of hydrophobic molecules
(B) Exclusion of water
(C) Increase in entropy
(D) Ionic interaction between hydrophobic molecules

Back 163

(D) Ionic interaction between hydrophobic molecules

Front 164

Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes
(B) A cell can produce many endospores.
(C) Endospores are for reproductio
(D) Endospores are easily stained in a Gram stai
(E) A cell produces one endospore and keeps growin

Back 164

A) Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes

Front 165

The importance of Purines and Pyrimidines is their ability to form ___________, and this is directly related to their function.

Back 165

Ring Structures

Front 166

Nucleic Acids are composed of repeating units of ___________, which is referred to as a ___________.

Back 166

Sugar-Phosphate, Sugar-Phosphate Backbone

Front 167

A ___________ is connected to every Sugar in a Sugar-Phosphate Backbone (this repeating unit is called a ___________ or RNA or DNA).

Back 167

Nitrogen Base, Strand

Front 168

Which of the following statements is not True about RNA and DNA structures?
a. RNA can form single-stranded molecules
b. RNA can form double-stranded molecules
c. DNA can form single-stranded molecules
d. DNA can form double-stranded molecules
e. All of these statements are True

Back 168

b. RNA can form double-stranded molecules. There is no double-stranded RNA

Front 169

Which of the following polymers is/are rich in Nitrogen? (more than one is possible)
a. Lipids
b. Nucleic Acids
c. Polysaccharides
d. Proteins

Back 169

b. Nucleic Acids d. Proteins

Front 170

Proteins are polymers of ___________ and are rich in Nitrogen. Proteins are the most ___________ polymer and ___________ molecule of the cell.

Back 170

Amino Acids; Abundant, Versatile

Front 171

T/F Nitrogen is found in all Amino Acids.

Back 171

True.

Front 172

T/F Though Proteins are exceedingly important to cell structure and function, they are only about 10% of the total dry weight of a typical cell.

Back 172

False. Proteins comprise about 55% of the dry weight of a cell

Front 173

Proteins are made of a single __________which usually fold into a __________ shape.

Back 173

Polypeptide, Globular

Front 174

T/F Primary-structured Proteins are non-functioning molecules.

Back 174

True. Only when it folds into the proper globular function does it become active and functional

Front 175

During which stage of bacterial growth (growth curve) the bacteria cells are most sensitive to antibiotic
penicillin.
(1) Log phase
(2) Lag phase
(3) Stationary phase
(4) Death phase

Back 175

(1) Log phase

Front 176

Within a three-day period at a large hospital five hemodialysis patients developed high fever, very low
blood pressure and systemic shock. Bacterial cultures showed that each of the patients was infected with a
different species of gram negative bacteria and that the infections were not related. How could all five
patients have the same symptoms?
(1) Fever and shock are symptoms of most bacterial infections
(2) In blood infections the blood pressure drops because the active
transport system of the bacteria works against the heart.
(3) These symptoms are common in hemodialysis because the isotonic dialysis fluids cause the patient's red
blood cells to undergo osmotic lysis.
(4) All of these bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide
(5) It is impossible to know why all five patients developed these symptoms.

Back 176

(4) All of these bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharide

Front 177

The terminal electron acceptor in respiration may be:
a. oxygen b. nitrate
c.. NAD d. an organic molecule
(1) a, b, and d
(2) a, b, and c
(3) a and c
(4) c and d
(5) a, b, c, and d

Back 177

(1) a, b, and d
a. oxygen b. nitrate
c.. NAD d. an organic molecule