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215 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What are 4 bacterial mechanisms for evading specific host immune responses?
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capsules
biofilms antigenic variation IgA proteases |
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What bacteria forms biofilms and causes inner ear infections?
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streptococcus pneumoniae causes otitis media
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Define pathogen
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organism or agent that produces disease
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Define opportunistic pathogen
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infects host with weakened immune/compromised immune system
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Define zoonoses
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diseases transmitted from animals to humans
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Define vectors, give 3 examples
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organisms that transmit diseases
mosquitoes, ticks, fleas (anthropods) |
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Define pathogenicity
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ability to produce disease in host
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Define virulence
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degree of pathogenicity
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Define virulence factors or determinants
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genetic, biochemical, or structural features that contribute to virulence
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Define bioterrorism
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the intentional use of a microorganism to harm or kill someone
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How do we measure virulence?
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by it's LD50 (lethal dose 50) value, which corresponds to the # of pathogens that will kill 50% of an experimental group of hosts
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What are the 5 steps of the viral life cycle?
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1. attachment to host cell
2. entry: penetration and uncoating 3. synthesis: replication, transcription and translation 4. virion release |
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What is latent viral infections (latency)?
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virus stops reproducing, remains dormant and can become active again
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What are the three routes that viruses use to spread?
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blood
neuoronal lymphatic |
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What is a synctia?
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caused by viral infection, synctia are multinucleated giant cells formed through the fusion of host cells
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What is cell tropism?
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Viruses and pathogens have cell, tissue and organs specificity and this is determined by host cell recepotrs
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What are the functions of virion surface protein spikes?
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attachment and spread
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What is the function of neuraminidase and where is it found?
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on influenza virus, its an enzyme that aids in release of mature virions from the host cell
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What is the function of hemagluttinin and where is it found?
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on influenza virus, helps bind virions to red blood cells and cause cells to clump together
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Describe the genome of the influence virus
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negative, single stranded RNA virus, carries its own RNA replicase
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Is the influenza virus enveloped or naked?
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enveloped
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What are 4 mechanisms that viruses use to evade host immune response?
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1. block cytokine synthesis
2. block antigen processing and MCH export 3. block or breakdown complement 4. antigen variation |
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Describe antigen variation
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a mechanism to evade host immune response by viruses, common in RNA viruses, the amino acid changes in virion spikes
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Describe how interferons work to inactivate viruses?
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a virus infection induces interferon synthesis and release, interferon binds and releases enzymes that inactiactivate eIF2 (eukaryotic initiation factor) which is required for viral protein synthesis
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Uropathogenic E. Coli uses ______ to bind _______ on human cells
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Uropathogenic E. Coli uses type I pili to bind mannose residues on human cells
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Besides pili, what other adherence factor is used by bacteria?
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capsules
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What do capsules do to prevent host cell responses?
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inhibit phagocytosis and opsonization
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What are 4 species of bacteria that utilize capsules?
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streptococcus pneumoniae, haemophilus influenzae, neisseria meningitidis, pseudomonas aeruginosa
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What are the two different ways that bacteria penetrate host cells? Describe them both
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active penetration - produce lytic substances that alter the host tissue
passive penetration - enter through wounds, insect bites |
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What organism uses coagulase and what does it do??
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staphylococcus - clots fibrinogen in plasma which protects the pathogen from phagocytosis and isolates it from other host defenses
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What organism produces collagenase and what does it do?
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clostridium - breaks down collagen that forms the framework of connective tissue allowing pathogen to spread
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What do hemolysins do?
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lyse erythrocytes and make iron available
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What does immunoglobulin A protease do? What organism produces it?
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staphylococcus pneumoniae - cleaves immunoglobulin A into Fab and Fc fragments
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What does streptokinase do?
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a protein that binds to plasminogen and activates the productoion of plasmin that digests fibrin clots allowing pathogen to move through clotted areas
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What is bacteremia?
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bacteria present in blood stream
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What is septicemia?
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growth and multiplication of bacteria in blood
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What are three mechanisms of evading complement?
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proteases
lengthening O-side chains of LPS capsules |
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Give 4 examples of biofilms and where they inhabit
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streptococcus media - inner ear infection
pseudomonas - lung of cystic fibrosis staphylococcus & enterococcus on heart valves |
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What are three ways that bacteria evade phagocytosis?
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1. block
2. leukocidins 3. proteases inactivate complement |
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Once in a phagocytic cells, what do bacteria do to survive? (2 things)
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some prevent phagosome lysosome fusion
some are resistant to the enzyme |
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Which species uses actin tails to escape host cells?
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listeria monocytogenes
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What are the advantages that intracellular pathogens with actin tails have (2)?
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can grow at fairly cold temperatures
can cross the placenta |
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What are three intracellular pathogens?
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legionella pneumophila
mycobacterium tuberculosis |
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What are the 4 exotoxin types?
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membrane disrupting
superanitgens AB specific host site |
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What are the 2 types of membrane-disrupting exotoxins?
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1. pore-forming exotoxins including leukocidins and hemolysins
2. phospholipase |
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How do pore forming exotoxins kill the host cell?
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creates an open channel/pore in host cell membrane causing cytoplasmic contents to leave the cell and water to move in leading to cellular lysis and death of host cell
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How do phopholipase exotoxins kill the host cell?
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removes the polar head from phospholipid part of host cell membrane which destabilizes the cell membrane causing cell to lyse
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What example of superantigen was given in lecture?
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staphylococcal enterotoxin B
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How do superantigens work?
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lock MHC class I and T cell receptor together stimulating T cells to overexpress and release massive amounts of cytokines
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What type of toxin may lead to food poisoning and toxic shock?
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superantigens
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What are the roles of the two subunits of the AB exotoxin?
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A - toxic effect
B - binds target cell, determines the cell type that the toxin will affect |
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Describe the action of the AB extoxin in the cell (4 steps)
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Subunit B binds to membrane receptor on target cell, a conformational change happens at the receptor, a pore is generated the A subunit crosses the membrane through the pore and enters the cell
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What example of AB toxin was given in lecture?
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Diptheria toxin
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How does the Diptheria toxin work?
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enters by receptor-mediated endocytosis, it is internalized into a clarithin-coated pit which pinches off the become a coated vesicle, the coat depolymerizes and the low PH causes AB to separate, the A catalyzes the ADP-ribosylation of EF-2 and inhibits protein synthesis
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What are specific host site toxins?
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toxins that affect a specific host site such as nervous tissue (neurotoxins), intestines (enterotoxins), general tissues (cytotoxins)
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What type of toxin is vibrio cholerae?
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specific host site enterotoxin
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What is the cause of cholera?
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vibrio cholerae
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How does vibrio cholerae work?
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stimulates cAMP, which alters Na & Cl transporters leading to an ion imbalance and H2O loss
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What type of toxin is clostridium botulism?
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specific host site neurotoxin
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How does clostridium botulism work?
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blocks acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction causing flaccid paralysis
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exotoxins are proteins that are often _____
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antigenic
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What is a toxoid?
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inactivated toxin but can still elicit an immune response
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are exotoxins generally stable or unstable?
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unstable, but when they lose their toxicity they can remain antigenic
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what form of toxin is the DTaP vaccine?
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toxoid
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What are the general effects of endotoxins?
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fever, shock, inflammation
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Are the effects from endotoxins direct or indirect?
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indirect
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How do endotoxins induce fever? (2 ways)
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cause macrophages to release endogenous pyrogens that reset the hypothalamic thermo stat
or cause macrophages to release tumor necrosis factor |
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Are exotoxins or endotoxins more toxic and fatal in nanogram quantities?
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exotoxins
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What are endotoxins made of?
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lipopolysaccharide complex on outer membrane, the lipid A portion is toxic
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What are exotoxins made of?
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protein, usually have 2 components
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What type of microbe uses the type III secretion system?
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gram negative pathogens
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What does the type III system use to inject effectors?
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injectisome
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Type III secretion systems inject effectors that aid what 3 things?
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invasion
control host immune response intracellular survival |
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What are the two targets for type III effectors?
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host cell cytoskeleton (actin)
host cell signaling (NFkB) |
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What is the major cause of infantile diarrhea?
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EPEC - Enteropathogenic E. coli
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How does EPEC work?
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binds host cells using bundle forming pili
delivers effectors including protein Tir which is presented on host cell surface and binds bacterial intimin (bacteria is delivering its own receptor) |
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Where is streptomyces often found?
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in soil
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how does bacitracin work?
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inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
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what are antibiotics?
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microbial products that kill or inhibit
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what are antimicrobial agents?
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used to treat disease, to destroy pathogenic microbes or inhibit growth
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Who was credited with discovering selective toxicity?
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Paul Ehrlich 1904
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Who identified streptomycin?
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Selman Waksman 1944
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What is selective toxicity?
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antimicrobial agents that can selectively kill pathogens without killing the host
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Who accidently discovered penicillin?
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Alexander Fleming 1928
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If TBG is abnormal, what can be evaluated?
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Free T4
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Name and describe the two different effects that antibacterial drugs can have?
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cidal - kills organism
static - inhibits growth of microorganisms |
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Describe the two different spectrums of antibiotics?
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broad - attack many different pathogens
narrow - attack only a few pathogens |
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what are some considerations when developing a useful antibiotic?
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money, time
is it an allergen or toxic should it be broad or narrow spectrum make sure it doesn't eliminate normal flora how much for effective concentration make sure not inactivated by something |
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What is pseudomembranous colitis?
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an infection of the colon by clostridium difficile overgrowth as a result of elimination of normal flora by antibiotics
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What are 5 things that an antimicrobial cell can target?
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1. cell wall
2. plasma membrane 3. nucleic acid synthesis 4. protein synthesis 5. metabolic enzymes |
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What is the general mechanism that penicillin uses?
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inhibits cell wall synthesis
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What part of penicilin do penicilinases (produced by penicilin resistant bacteria) attack?
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beta lactam ring
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what are the two structural features of penicilin?
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beta-lactam ring and r group
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What is used for transpeptidation that penicilins bind to?
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penicillin binding proteins PBPs
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What does the structure of penicilin resemble? What purpose is it thought to have?
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the peptide side chain of the peptidoglycan subunit, thought to block enzyme that catalyzes the transpeptidation reaction that forms peptidoglycan subunit
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What are 3 cell wall inhibitors?
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penicillin
vancomycin bacitracin |
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What is vancomycin and how does it work?
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antimicrobial agent, a cell wall inhibitor made of glycopeptide it blocks transpeptidation reaction by binding to terminal D-alanine sequence on peptidoglycan
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What is bacitracin and how does it work?
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an antimicrobial agent, a cell wall inhibitor that inhibits carrier for peptidoglycan subunits
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Is penicillin static or cidal? narrow or broad spectrum?
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cidal
broad OR narrow |
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What are 2 types of plasma membrane inhibitors?
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polymyxins
antifungal agents |
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What are polymyxins and how do they work?
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an antimicrobial agent, a plasma membrane inhibitor, it disrupts bacterial lipid bilayer, it is cidal, narrow spectrum and gram -
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What do antifungal agents typically target?
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plasma membrane
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What are imidazoles and how does it work?
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(miconazole) antifungal agents that disrupt fungal membrane permeability and inhibit sterol synthesis
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What is nystatin and how does it work?
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an antifungal agent used to treat Candida infections, it binds to sterols and damages the membrane
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What is an example of the nucleic acid inhibitor?
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quinolones
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What are quinolones and how do they work?
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synthetic antimicrobial agents that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis by binding to DNA gyrase
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What are two examples of quinolones?
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nalidixic acid, ciprofloxacin
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Are quinolones cidal or static, broad or narrow?
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cidal
broad spectrum |
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What is Rifampin and how does it work?
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an antimicrobial agent that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by binding bacterial RNA polymerase
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Is Rifampin broad or narrow, static or cidal?
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cidal, broad
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How does protein synthesis inhibitors distinguish between eukaryotic and prokaryotic microbes?
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take advantage of differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis machinery
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What are the three families of protein synthesis inhibitors presented in class?
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aminoglycosides
tetracyclines macrolides |
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Describe the action of aminoglycosides and give two examples
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cidal
bind 30s causing mRNA misreading streptomycin, kanamycin |
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What are tetracyclines? How do they work, what are they used for?
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static
protein synthesis inhibitors used to treat acne binds 30s, distorts A site and inhibits tRNA binding |
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What are macrolides? How do they work and what are two examples?
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protein synthesis inhibitor that binds 23s rRNA and blocks peptide elongation
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What are sulfonamides and trimethoprim and how do they work?
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metabolic enzyme inhibitors that are structurally similar to metabolic intermediates, bind enzymes for folic acid synthesis and bloc purine & pyrimidine synthesis
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What is Triclosan and how does it work?
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metabolic enzyme inhibitor, it is broad specturm, it binds enoyl-reductase which is an enzyme for fatty acid synthesis
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What are 2 examples of antiviral drugs? How does each work?
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acyclovir - inhibits DNA polymerase of herpes virus (guanine analog)
tamiflu- blocks neuraminidase |
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What is HAART?
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Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy, a cocktail of anti retroviral agents
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What are two anti-HIV drugs?
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azidothymidine
ritonavir |
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What is azidothmidine and how does it work?
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an anti HIV drugs, it targets reverse transciptase, and is nucleoside analog which aids in DNA chain termination
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What is ritonavir and how does it work?
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an anti HIV drugs, a protease inhibitor, HIV protease processes viral proteins for virion assembly
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what does noscomial mean?
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hospital acquired
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What are 2 examples of superbugs?
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vancomycin resistant enterococcus
methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus |
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What makes MRSA resistant?
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mecA encodes mutant PBP with low affinity for beta-lactams
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What are 4 antibiotic resistance mechanisms?
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1. prevent access to (or altering) the target of the antibiotic
2. degrading the antibiotic 3. altering the antibiotic 4. rapidly extruding the antibiotic |
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what are 4 ways to help prevent emergence of drug resistance?
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1. give drug in high concentrations
2. give 2 or more drugs at same time 3. use drugs only when necessary and take prescribed course 4. don't treat viral infections with antibacterials |
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What were the 3 diseases presented in class that were airborne?
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1. chickenpox/shingles
2. influenza 3. measles, mumps, rubella |
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What were the 2 diseases presented in class that were arthropod-borne diseases?
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1. west nile fever
2. yellow fever |
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what were the 4 direct contact diseases presented in class?
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1. aids
2. common cold 3. monucleosis 4. hepatitis |
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what are the 2 food and water-brone diseases presented in class?
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1. gastroenteritis
2. polio |
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what are the 2 zoonotic diseases presented in class?
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1. ebola hemorrhagic fever
2. rabies |
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what is given along with penicillin to overcome drug resistance?
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clavulanic acid
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What is the causative agent of chickenpox? and what family is this virus part of?
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varicella-zoster virus, part of herpesviridae family
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Describe the physical characteristics of the chickenpox virus (3 things)
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icosahedral symmetry
DNA genome enveloped |
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How does chickenpox virus enter the body?
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inhalation or conjunctiva of the eye
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Chickenpox can be prevented or the infection can be shortened by what type of vaccine? give the name of three of the vaccines
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an attenuated varicella vaccine varivax, or a the drug acyclovir (zovirax or valtrex)
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Describe an attenuated vaccine, including the type of immune response it evokes, and a problem it may pose?
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live but avirulent
evokes humorarl and Tcell mediated response but may revert to virulent form |
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Describe an inactivated vaccine, including the type of immune response it evokes, and a problem it may pose?
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virus that has been killed by chemicals or irradiation
evokes humoral immune response but requires a booster |
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What does a virus-like-particle (VLP) do? give an example
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used in vaccines, a capsid with no genome
example: Gardasil |
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When does an infected person (with latent varicella zoster) reactivate the virus?
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when they become immunocompromised, this may happen because of age, organ transplant, AIDS, stress
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Describe the genome of the influenza virus (4 things)
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RNA genome
segmented negative single stranded |
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Does influenza use host RNA replicase or carry its own?
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carries own RNA replicase
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What is cap snatching?
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Viral mRNA of influenza has a 5' cap which it gets from host cell mRNA
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How does the influenza virions enter host cell?
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viral hemagglutinin proteins attach to galactose sialac acid receptors resulting in endocytosis
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What is antigenic drift?
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happens in influenza viruses
results in minor changes result of mutations in gene for neuraminidase in single strain of flu virus, small geographic region |
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What is antigenic shift?
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happens in influenza virus
results from reassortment of genomes when two different strains of flu virus infect the same host cell and are incorporated into a single new capsid causes epidemics and pandemics |
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What kind of vaccine is MMR?
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attenuated
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What is genome of measles mumps and rubella?
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RNA virus
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What are the causative agents of yellow fever and west nile fever?
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+ssRNA flaviviruses
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Describe the human immunodeficiency virus
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a retrovirus, enveloped, icosahedral, RNA genome
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What is HIV believed to have evolved from?
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monkey virus in Africa
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HIV life cycle: virus binds to the _____ host cell and enters the host cell by ______ a single complementary strand of DNA is synthesized which serves as a template for synthesis of a ______ which can be inserted into the host chromosome as a _______ which is transcribed and translated forming mature virus taking ______ as their envelope
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virus binds to the CD4+ host cell and enters the host cell by endocytosis a single complementary strand of DNA is synthesized which serves as a template for synthesis of a dsDNA which can be inserted into the host chromosome as a provirus forming mature virus taking host membrane as their envelope
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What are 3 things that contribute to the pathogenicity of HIV?
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1. deplete T cells
2. may destroy or disable dendritic cells 3. virus mutates rapidly and evades immune system |
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What 2 things defines AIDS?
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1. HIV infection
2. less that 200 CD4+ T cells per microliter of blood |
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What is the major cause of the common cold and give its characteristics
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rhinovirus
+ssRNA, naked, icosahedral |
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What is the receptor involved with common cold?
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intercellular adhesion molecule 1 (iCAM1)
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What virus causes mono, what family is this part of and what does it target?
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Epstein-Barr virus, a member of herpesviridae
it targets mouth epithelial cells and then B cells |
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What can chronic infection of mononucleosis lead to?
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Burkitt's lymphoma
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What happens to B cells during mononucleosis?
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rapidly proliferate and take on an atypical shape called downey cells
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What is hepatitis and what is it caused by?
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an inflammation of the liver caused by 11 different viruses: 2 herpesviruses and 9 hepatotropic viruses
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How are hepatotropic viruses transmitted?
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fecal -oral, blood, or sexual
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What is the treatment for hepatitis A & B? What can chronic hepatitis B & C lead to?
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vaccine and recombinant interferon
hepatocellular carcinoma |
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What is the symptom of hepatitis?
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jaundice from build up of bilirubin
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What is gastroenteritis, what causes it and describe what causes it
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inflammation of the stomach or intestine caused by rotavirus and Noro virus which is a stable, naked, icosahedral, dsRNA virus
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What does the enterotoxin that rotavirus produce promote?
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promotes fluid secretion
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What portion of the world population is infected with tuberculosis, how man deaths per year?
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1/3 of world population
2-3 million deaths per year |
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What causes tuberculosis? and how is it transmitted?
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mycobacterium tuberculosis, it is inhaled and a person becomes infected when the it is phagocytosed into lung cells
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How does tuberculosis survive intracellulary? and what is the host response to it?
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it has mycolic acids in the cell wall
host response is to produce tubercles which are masses of cells that can liquify and spread bacteria to blood and organs leading to death |
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What is the vaccine against tuberculosis named and what is it made from?
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BCG - Bacille Calmette-Guerin
an attenuated avirulent form of m. bovis |
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How is tuberculosis diagnosed?
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bloody sputum, chest x-ray, culture, or acid-fast staining
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How is tuberculosis treated?
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antimicrobial therapy taken daily for 6-9 months, isoniazid and rifampin
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What is isoniazid and how does it work?
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inhibits mycolic acid synthesis, a tuberculosis treatment
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What are the two streptoccal bacteria that cause disease? and what 3 things can they infect?
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streptococcus pyogenes (group A beta hemolytic) or streptococcus pneumoniae
infect skin (impetigo), throat, and lung |
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How do you diagnose strep infections and how do you treat them?
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strep test and culture
treat with antibiotics such as penicillins or erythromycin |
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What are 5 virulence determinants of streptococcus?
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M protein
capsule streptokinase hemolysins leukocydins |
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What causes necrotizing fascitis?
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Group A streptococci, produces tissue destroying protease
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What causes whooping cough/pertussis? What are its virulence factors?
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bordetella pertussis
pili, siderophores, PTx AB exotoxin (A subunit is ADP-ribosyl transferase) |
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How do you treat whooping cough/pertussis?
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antibiotics: tetracycline, erthromycin
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What causes meningitis?
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viruses
fungi bacteria: haemophilus influenzae, streptococcus pneumoniae, neisseria mengitidis |
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What is the leading cause of meningococcal disease in children and young adults? describe how it works and its virulence determinants
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neisseria meningitidis, can cross mucosal barrier into blood, it causes inflammation due to the endotoxin lipopolysaccharide, virulence determinants include pili & capsules
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what are the unique physical characteristics of neisseria meningitidis?
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has type IV pili
gram - diplococci has capsular polysaccaride |
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How do you diagnose and treat meningitis?
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gram stain spinal fluid and culture
treat with antibiotics prevent with capsular polysaccaride vaccine |
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What agent causes the Plague, and what are the two different forms of it?
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caused by yersinia pestis
*bubonic is caused by flea bite *pneumonic is transfered from person to person and is almost 100% fatal if not treated early |
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What agent causes lymes disease and how is it transmitted?
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the spirochete borrelia burgdorferi
transmitted by ticks |
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What are the three stages of lymes disease and describe each
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"localized" the first 7-10 days shows up as a bulls eye rash with flu like symptoms, is most treatable with an antibiotic
"disseminiated" may last weeks or months causes muscle pain and arthritis "late" stage lasts years and affects the nervous system |
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What is the causative agent of anthrax? and what are its virulence factors?
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bacillus anthracis
capsule and 3 part AB toxin |
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What are the three parts of the anthrax exotoxin? How do they kill cells?
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protective antigen
edema factor - fluid release lethal factor - prevents NFkB from working |
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What are the two different ways that anthrax is transmitted and how is it treated?
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cutaneous- through a cut
pulmonary - inhaled spores treated with the antibiotic ciprofloxacin |
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Who discovered the helicobacter pylori and its role in gastritis and peptic ulcer disease?
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Barry Marshall and J. Robin Warren
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what are the virulence factors of helicobacter pylori, what can it increase the risk for?
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flagella
urease (which converts urea to ammonia) cytotoxins increase risk for adenocarcinoma |
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How do you treat helicobacter pylori infections?
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bismuth subsalicylate (pepto bismol) to reduce stomach acid with antibiotics
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What are the two major species of staphylococcal diseases and which is more invasive and virulent?
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staphylococcal aureus (more invasive and virulent)
staphylococcal epidermias |
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What 4 things can staph infections cause?
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boils, carbuncles, toxic shock syndrome, food poisoning
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Where does clostridium botulism sometimes grow? How can you treat botulism?
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in anaerobic foods (cans)
treat with antitoxin but still 30% fatality rate |
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Describe the poliovirus
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naked, icosahedral, +ssRNA
stable in food and water multpilies in throat and intestinal cells |
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What is the recommended vaccine for polio?
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the inactivated/killed vaccine, but there is an attenuated vaccine too
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Describe ebola virus, what it causes, and potential reservoirs
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zoonotic disease
filamentous RNA virus associated with hemorrhagic fever fruit bat may be reservoir |
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Describe rabies virus
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a zoonotic disease
enveloped RNA genome multiplies in animal salivary glands targets muscle cells and spread via the CNS to the brain forming Negri bodies |
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How fast does the rabies virus move through nervous system? What symptoms does it cause?
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moves about 10-20mm per day
symptoms are paralysis, hydrophobia |
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What strain of yeast is used to ferment must for wine?
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saccharomyces
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What determines whether wine is dry or sweet?
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the sugar concentration of the must
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How is bio-based plastic produced and what is it called? What microbe is used in this process?
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polylactide
dextrose from corn is fermented to lactic acid, purified, and polymerized e. coli lactobacillus is used |
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How is cheese made from milk?
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A starter culture of lactococcus & enzyme rennin is added to milk aiding in curd formation then curd is ripened using microbial action
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What microbe is used in swiss cheese formation?
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propionibacterium
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What is used in roquefort cheese formation?
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penicillium roquforti
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What 2 bacteria are ingested as probiotics?
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lactobacillus
bifidiobacterium |
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What are the three major fermentations used in food and beverage production?
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lactic
propionic ethanolic |
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What is used in the starter culture for yogurt? describe the process
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lactobacillus and streptococcus,
the lactose in mile is hydrolyzed to glucose and fermented to lactic acid |
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When do anitbiotics accumalte in the growth curve? This makes them ____ metabolites
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accumulate during stationary phase
making them SECONDARY metabolites |
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What is used in roquefort cheese formation?
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penicillium roquforti
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What 2 bacteria are ingested as probiotics?
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lactobacillus
bifidiobacterium |
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What are the three major fermentations used in food and beverage production?
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lactic
propionic ethanolic |
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What is used in the starter culture for yogurt? describe the process
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lactobacillus and streptococcus,
the lactose in mile is hydrolyzed to glucose and fermented to lactic acid |
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When do anitbiotics accumalte in the growth curve? This makes them ____ metabolites
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accumulate during stationary phase
making them SECONDARY metabolites |
