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263 Cards in this Set

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How does salmonella dublin affect cattle?

septicemia in calves, enteric form in older cattle , pregnant cows may abort

How does salmonella dublin affect pigs?

septicemia and pneumonia in pigs

How does salmonella dublin affect canine and felines?

acute enteritis following stress and acute septicemia and GI in overcrowded unsanitary puppies and kittens (I.e. dirty breeders, kennels, and pet stores)

What is the main affect of Salmonella abortisce equi in mares?

late term abortions

What does Salmonela galliarum cause in poultry?

greenish diarrhea in poultry, leads to dehydration

What is the shape of the pasteurella bacteria and what unique characteristic does it have?

coccobacilli or rods. bipolar staining is a unique characteristic

What is Pasteurella hemolytica usually found in the animal?

GI and respiratory tract (can also be found in the environment)

Is Pasteurella hemolytica pathogenic or non pathogenic?

usually is nonpathogenic, but opportunistic

How can Pasteurella hemolytica infections be prevented?

maintaining a clean environment. proper nutrition and vaccination. avoid overcrowding. colostrum may play an important role in prevention

Are Pasteurella hemolytica infections usually primary or secondary?

secondary.

How does Pasteurella hemolytica affect cattle? What is the name of the disease that this causes?

Respiratory diseases including: upper respiratory illnesses and pneumonia. - shipping fever

How does Pasteurella hemolytica affect sheep?

Respiratory tract problems:fairly high mortality rate in young lambs. colostrum and good sanitation can control this bacteria

what are some causes of pasteurella hemolytica?

dust, damp bedding, poor ventilation.


direct contact with infected individual.


contaminated food or water.


compromised immune system

Where can Pasteurella multocida bacteria be found normally?

Normal flora in the mouth of dogs and cats, and upper respiratory tract of other animals

How is Pasteurella multocida transmitted?

transmitted through cat and dog bites. in rabbits it is generally transmitted through fomites

What are some clinical signs of Pasteurella multocida?

Nasal discharge, respiratory secretions, ocular secretions

What shape are hemophilus?

Rods or coccobacilli

Where can hemophilus be found normally?

common on the MM of the respiratory tract and genital area

What is the main way hemophilus somnus can affect an animal?

may infect the larynx by blocking blood supply. causes swelling which can lead to blockage of the trachea. difficulty swallowing. if left untreated this can cause pneumonia and eventually death

How is hemophilus somnus shed?

Through the urinary tract. urine.

What are the ways to prevent hemophilus somnus?

vaccination. cull. treat signs of H. Somnus early. - -signs can include stiffness, circling, and increased temperature

What is glassers disease?

Bacterial infection affecting weaning pigs caused by Hemophilus suis and Hemophilus parasuis. may also affect adults.

How is Glassers disease spread?

spreads between pigs by oral/nasal secretions

What are the causes of Glassers disease?

unsanitary conditions, respiratory secretions becoming aerosolized, stress

What are some signs of Glassers disease?

appetite loss and fever. followed by: swollen joints/ lame, labored breathing, purple extreme ties, meningitis, coughing, death.

How is Glassers disease treated and controlled?

injectable antibiotics, water meds given to entire herd, vaccines can be given (even with infected herd), keep pigs stress free, clean conditions

What does Hemophilus gallinarum affect?

fowl

What does Hemophilus gallinarum cause?

fowl coryza

What are the clinical signs of fowl coryza?

nasal discharge sneezing and facial swelling. highly contagious

What does Taylorella equigenitalis affect?

equine

What does Taylorella equigenitalis cause?

contagious equine metritis. profuse grayish-white mucopurulent vulvar discharge. decreases fertility

What is the STD stallions can carry and cause decreased fertility in equine?

TAYLORELLA EQUIGENITALIS

What bacteria is known for its "fruity" smell?

PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA

What are the clinical signs for PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA in dogs?

urinary and ear infections

What are the clinical signs for PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA in horses?

eye and reproductive problems

What are the clinical signs for PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA in ruminants?

mastitis, hardware disease and abortion has occurred.

What are the clinical signs for PSEUDOMONAS AERUGINOSA in swine?

necrotic rhinitis and pneumonia

Who is host for Brucella?

cattle

How is brucella typically transmitter?

orally, venereal and skin routes of infection may also occur

What bacteria causes Bang's disease?

Brucella Abortus

Whats another name for bangs disease?

brucellosis

What does Bangs disease cause?

causes abortion at 5-6 months of pregnancy . metritis and retained placenta may also occur with this infection

Is brucella abortus zoonotic?

Highly zoonotic

What does brucellosis abortus cause in humans?

causes undulant fever in infected people (fever will get really high, then drop, flu like symptoms)

What are some clinical signs of BORDETELLA BRONCHISEPTICA in canines?

tracheobronchitis, exercise intolerance, a honking nonproductive cough, Robitussin DM can assist with coughing, not bacteria

What are some clinical signs of BORDETELLA BRONCHISEPTICA in swine?

tropic rhinitis. upward or lateral deviation of the nose

Who is the host for Moraxella Bovis?

bovine

What does Moraxella Bovis cause?

bovine keratoconjunctivitis.. "PINK EYE"

How is Moraxella Bovis transmitted?

flies carry around ocular discharge

Is Moraxella Bovis zoonotic?

YES

Who is the host for ACTINOMYCES VISCOSUS ?

dogs

What does ACTINOMYCES VISCOSUS cause?

destroys healthy tissues in the body, accumulation of pleural and pericardial fluid

Who is the host for Actinomyces Bovis?

bovine, equine, and swine

What bacteria causes lumpy jaw (bottle jaw) in cattle?

Actinomyces Bovis

What bacteria causes fistulous withers in equine?

Actinomyces Bovis

What is another name horse owners will call fistulous withers?

poll evil

What does Actinomyces Bovis cause in sows?

causes granulomas and mastitis in sows

What does Actinomyces suis cause in swine?

mastitis. mammary duct become abscessed, pus filled cavities occur

How is Leptospira transmitted?

urine

Most common cause of staph infections?
Staph. Aureus
A common gingival flora in dogs?
Staph Intermedius
What does staph intermedium cause?
Cellulitis, Necrotizing fasciitis, Pyoderma, Otitis externa/media
What causes bumble foot in birds?
Staph Aureus
What bacteria is greasy pig disease?
staph hyicus
What genus uses Lance field groups?
Strep
What bacteria forms grey white large colonies?
Bacillus antracis
What causes black leg disease and who does it effect?
Ruminants, Clostridium Chauveoi
Define Scours
diarrhea
How do you treat e.coli?
borad spectrum antibiotics and symptomatic supportive care
What test can be done to differentiate between salmonella and e.coli?
TSI. E.Coli ferments lactose and Salmonella does not.
2 forms of Salmonella
Septic, Enteric
what is the difference between the two forms of salmonella?
Enteric has diarrhea, septic does not
What bacteria causes limberneck?
Clostridium botulinum
Common clinical sign for e. coli
LOCK JAW
Three forms of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
actue, chronic, cutaneous
What does CMT measure?
number of WBC in milk
What is CMT?
California mastitis test
What is the most common cause of mastitis in cows?
Strep Agalactae
Two genus' that produce spores?
bacillus and clostridium
How is bacillus antracis transmitted?
inhalation of spores, contaminated feed, contact with contaminated tissues
What bacteria is normal flora on skin?
staph epidermis
most common opportunistic infection of horses?
strep equi
What is clostridium novyi's host?
ruminants
What bacteria is food poisoning in humans and gastroenteritis in dogs?
clostridium perfringes
What bacteria causes shaker foal syndrome?
clostridium botulinum
Clinical signs of clostridium tetani?
lock jaw, seahorse stance, hyperesthesia, death from respiratory failure
what bacteria causes pulpy kidney disease due to enterotoxemia in sheep?
clostridium perfringes
What bacteria causes "black liver" dz? (infectious necrotic hepatitis)
Clostridium Novyi
Clinical signs of strep agalactiae?
heat, pain, swelling of mammory area, yellow clots in milk, blood clots in milk
Is strep hyicus zoonotic?
Yes, very!
What does staph aureus cause?
bumble foot in birds, mastitis in ruminants, infection in castration incision in horses, canine otitis externa
What bacteria can be used at an anti tumor therapy in humans?
Clostridium novyi
How do you control strep agalactiae?
Intra mammary antibiotic therapy, cull, treat promptly, good sanitation
What bacteria is often a contaminate in clinical samples?
Staph epidermis
Which bacteria often gives a double hemolysis zone on blood agar?
Staph intermedius
Is staph intermedius pathogenic?
Yes. opportunistic bacteria
Is staph epidermis pathogenic?
No. usually non–pathogenic
What bacteria causes black markings on the head, which ultimately may cover the entire body of a pig?
Staph Hyicus – "greasy pig disease"
What genus is classified based on their hemolytic properties on blood agar?
Strep
How is strep agalactiae transmitted?
fomites, towels, hands, cross suckling calves, milking machines
What reagents are used in CMT test?
sodium hydroxide and milk
What bacteria causes mastitis and polyarthritis?
Strep DYSGALACTIAE
Who is host for ZOOEPIDEMICUS?
equine
What is an endospores function?
way for bacteria to protect themselves
What are the three forms of bacillus antracis?
3 forms exist: cutaneous, pulmonary, GI
Clinical signs of clostridium chauveio
fever, lameness, swelling (over heavily muscled areas), crepitation (crackling sounds)
What organ does black disease effect?
Liver. infectious necrotic hepatitis
What bacteria causes hemorrhagic enterotoxemia (difficult to control bleeding) in calves, lambs, and piglets?
clostridium perfringens
What bacteria appears like a tennis racket?
Clostridium tetani
What small pleomorphic rod bacteria uses glucose for growth?
LISTERIA MONOCYTOGENES
What bacteria causes meningoencephalitis known as "circling disease"?
listeria monocytogenes
How can humans contract listeria monocytogenes?
unpasteurized cheese, fruits, vegetables, deli meat
Is listeria monocytegenes motile or non motile?
motile
What does corynebactrum cause?
pyelonephritis inflammation of the kidneys especially seen in females around parturition only ferments glucoseTSI test
Is corynebacterium motile or non motile?
non motile
What bacteria is usually clubbed at one or both ends ?
corynebactrum
What bacteria causes lymphadenitis in sheep?
CORYNEBACTERIUM PSEUDOTUBERCULOSIS
What does RHODOCOSSUS EQUI cause?
infectious pneumonia in foalslesions in the cervical lymph nodesstrangles appearance (same clinical signs)
What does CORYNEBACTERIUM BOVIS ferment?
glucose and maltose
What disease causes diamond disease?
ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE– cutaneous form
How do you treat and prevent ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE?
can be treated with antibiotics penicillin. prevent through vaccine and good sanitation
Is ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE zoonotic?
yes
What is the leading cause of pyogenic (purulent) processes in hooved stock?
ACTINOMYCES PYOGENES
What bacteria produces an enzyme called indole?
E. Coli
how is ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE transmitted?
contaminated food and water
What is a clinical sign for the acute form of ERYSIPELOTHRIX RHUSIOPATHIAE?
pigs walking on tippy toes

What is microbiology?

Microbiology refers to the study of all living things that are microscopic in size.

All microbes cause dz. T/F

F

What is counter stain?

Safranin

Why do endospores exist?

protection

First person to demonstrate the powers of microscopy. "The father of microbiology"

Anton J. van Leeuwenhoek

Among the first to help disprove spontaneous generation.. Used Meat and maggots.

Francesco Redi

Developed cowpox vaccine which gave cross-immunity to smallpox.

Edward Jenner

Pasteurization. He also developed the anthrax vaccine and rabies vaccines.

Louis Pasteur

Proved that following boiling and isolating food from air, no microbes would grow in it.

Lazzaro Spallanzani

First to prove that bacteria causes disease and First to stain bacteria with dyes

Robert Koch

What are host physical defense mechanisms?

Physical barriers:


Hair, Mucous membranes, Skin

What are host chemical defense mechanisms?

Chemical barriers: Saliva , Sebum, Tears, Hydrochloric acid in the stomach, Sweat, Blood

What are host biological defense mechanisms?

Biological barriers: Normal flora; Phagocytosis: Monocytes; Inflammatory response: Brings heat, blood, histamines, etc.; Immunity: T and B cells

Lab samples obtained by: conjunctival or corneal scrapings should be stored at?

room temp

Lab samples of milk should be stored at?

refrigerated

ENRICHED MEDIA

a basic nutrient media along with some extra nutrients, which may include: ex. blood, serum, or egg

SELECTIVE MEDIA

Contains antibacterials (salts or antibiotics) so only select bacteria will grow

DIFFERENTIAL MEDIA

it can grow more than one microorganism at a time to differentiate the twoused to distinguish between 2 types of microorganismsboth should grow but they will have different reactions to the media

ENRICHMENT MEDIA:

contains nutrients that encourage some bacteria to grow OR contains an inhibitors that suppresses other bacteria in competition.

Enriched media is the same as enrichment media. T/F

F

ALPHA HEMOLYSIS:

partial with a narrow band of greenish or slimy discoloration

BETA HEMOLYSIS:

complete clear zone

GAMMA HEMOLYSIS:

no change in hemolysis

What kind of media is a blood agar?

an enriched media and a differential media

What kind of media is MACCONKEY AGAR?

a selective media and a differential media. contains crystal violet: suppresses the growth of gram positive bacteria. contains bile salts: supports some gram negative bacteria.

T/F: lactose fermenting organism growth pinkish red colonies on Macconkey agars.

T

What kind of media is a CHOCOLATE AGAR

an enriched media

REAGENTS USED IN GRAMS STAINING PROCESS:

1. crystal violet stain - 1 min


2. iodine solution (also known as a "mordant") - 1min


3. decolorizer (AKA 95% alcohol) - 10 s


4. Safranin (counterstain) - 1 min

Gram- positive: bacteria are those that are stained

dark blue or "purple"

gram-negative: bacteria are those that take up the counterstain and are stained

pink or red

Psychrophiles

Temperature requirements of bacteria: Psychrophiles (cold lovers) 0 to 30 degrees C

Mesophiles

Mesophiles 20 to 40 degrees C acceptable, optimal is 35 to 37 degrees C


Mesophiles are the most common type of bacteria growing in the 35 - 37 temp range.


Psychrophiles and mesophiles can be eliminated with pasteurization

Thermophiles

40 - 80 degrees C


Many may survive pasteurization

Capnophilic

can survive with both Oxygen AND Carbon Dioxide

Microaerophilic

they thrive in an environment with lower oxygen concentrations


Think high-elevation, for example.

Binary fission

Asexual reproduction by a separation of the body into two new bodies.

Mycology

study of fungus

__________ are smaller than RBC & WBC but small that ________

bacteria, viruses

When obtaining a dermatophyte sample where should you sample from?

Obtain sample from the periphery of the lesion

Sabouraud’s agar is commonly used for

fungus samples

You should Incubate fungus at _____ temperature for 21 to 30 days

room

Fungal assay dermatophyte test medium causes what color change for a positive reaction?

red

T/F: Woods lamp test is always 100% accurate

F

T/F: Bacteria do not posses a nucleus, while fungus are eukaryotic organisms with a well defined nucleus

T

Fungi are heterotrophs, what does that mean?

rely on outside sources for food

A mass of hyphae (generally tangled) is called __________

mycelium

In the structure of mold, the filaments that may be divided are called:

septate

Do molds contain chlorophyll

no

T/F: ALL molds require less moisture than bacteria

T

T/F: ALL molds are strict aerobes

T

lactophenol cotton blue (LPCB) is usually used to stain what?

mold

T/F: ALL molds are gram negative

F- positive

T/F: Yeasts contain granules for storage of energy unlike molds.

true

Yeasts require vitamin___ for growth

B

saprophytes

- fungus that lives on dead or dying tissue

How do fungus cause Exogenous infections

contact with infected animals, fomites, or lesions

T/F: Molds and yeasts are generally larger than bacteria

T

Endothrix refers to

dermatophyte infections of the hair that invade the hair shaft and internalize into the hair cell.

Common cause of ringworm

Microsporum canis

a form of ringworm that does not fluoresce

Microsporum gypseum

This bacteria Affects pigs and sheep and Causes chronic lesions

Microsporum nanum

who does Trichophyton mentagrophytes affect?

Affects ALL

Most common dermatophyte of horses. "horse ringworm"

Trichophyton equinum

where is Trichophyton equinum found?

Seen in the saddle area

The most common dermatophyte of cattle. AKA: Cattle ringworm fungus

Trichophyton verrucosum

what does Sporothrix schenckii cause?

Causes nodules in the lymphatics


The nodules then ulcerate and release pus

who does Sporothrix schenckii affect?

all

This is the most common systemic mycosis of dogs

Histoplasma capsulatum

how do you dx Histoplasma capsulatum?

examine monocytes

How is Histoplasma capsulatum tx?

sulfur bath

Candida albicans causes what in humans?

thrush

What does Blastomyces dermatitidis cause?

Primarily affects the lungs


May also cause weight loss and ocular and nasal discharge

where is Coccidioides immitis

desert of americas

Aspergillus fumigatus causes what in horses and dogs?

horses: Upper respiratory disease


dogs: Local form localizes in the sinuses

Virology

study of viruses

PROTEIN COAT OF VIRUS is AKA

capsid

Biogenesis

LIVING ORGANISMS CAN ONLY COME FROM OTHER LIVING THINGS

Germ Theory

SOME INFECTIOUS DISEASES ARE CAUSED BY TINY MICROORGANISMS INVADING THE HOST

Facultative Anaerobes

CAN TOLERATE WITH OR WITHOUT OXYGEN

Microaerophilic

O2 AT LOWER CONCENTRATIONS

cell membrane does what?

CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANECONTROLS PASSAGE OF MATERIALS IN AND OUT OF THE CELL

cell wall does what?

maintains shape

Cytoplasm does what?

REGULATES THE FLOW OF MATERIALS IN AND OUT OF THE CELLA BARRIER THAT ALLOWS THEM TO SELECTIVELY INTERACT WITH THEIR ENVIRONMENT

Endogenous infection

INFECT TISSUE, PROBLEM WITH IMMUNE COMPROMISE

what are conidia

spores

What is Endocytosis

CELL TAKES IN MATERILASFROM THE OUTSIDE BY ENGULFING AND FUSING THEM WITH ITS PLASMA MEMBRANE

Urea tubes color change means:


Pink= ?


No color change=?

pink= hydrolyze


no color change= negative

When is Mueller - Hinton used?

GENERAL PURPOSE, USED PRIMARILY FOR AGAR DIFFUSION ANTIMICROBIAL SENSITIVITY TEST

What do you use in a Catalase Test

H2O2

What is a positive rxn for the catalase test?

bubbles

What reagent do you use for a coagulase test?

rabbit plasma

what is a positive rxn for the coagulase test?

clumping

What is a positive rxn for the oxidase test?

deep purple within 60 s

CAUSES MILD DIARRHEA WITH WHITE FECES IN POULTRY

Salmonella Pullorum

How is Eubacterium Sui transmitted?

sexually transmitted

How is borrelia anserine transmitted?

ticks

infectious canine hepatitis is caused by

Adenovirus 1

Infectious tracheobronchitis is caused by

adenovirus 2

What does PAILLOMAVIRUSES cause?

warts on lips and muzzle of dogs

Is PARVOVIRAL ENTERITIS and DNA or RNA virus?

DNA

What causes FELINE PANLEUKOPENIA (feline distemper) ?

Parvovirus (DNA virus)

Aujeszky's disease (Au-jesz-kees) AKA "mad itch"

PSEUDORABIES:

INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITIS is caused by

herpes virus

2 forms of INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITIS?

Respiratory form- aerosolized


Genital form- STD

What causes FELINE RHINOTRACHEITIS

herpesvirus

What virus causes MAREKS DISEASE

herpes virus

Who does MAREKS DISEASE affect?

poultry

What are the signs of EQUINE RHINOPNEUMONITIS

SIGNS: usually mild but can progress


fever serous nasal discharge, malaise, pharyngitis, cough


virus can lead to abortions

What virus causes "raised neck" and URI symptoms in birds?

AVIAN INFECTIOUS LARYNGOTRACHEITIS

What kind of virus causes cowpox?

a poxvirus

A poxvirus of sheep and goats

CONTAGIOUS ECTHYMA

Rabies is a DNA or RNA virus?

RNA

Incubation period of up to______ for rabies

6 months

FOOT AND MOUTH DISEASE is a highly contagious _______virus

A picornavirus

who does foot and mouth dz affect?

hooved animals Cattle, goats, sheep

A reovirus that is transmitted by flies

BLUE TONGUE

A coronavirus ssually seen in farrowing piglets

transmissible gastroenteritis

This virus causes GI disturbances, anorexia, V/D, fever, conjunctivitis, and "hard pad" in dogs

canine distemper

What does equine influenza cause?

URI symptoms. Fever, hacking cough, watery nasal discharge

3 strains of EQUINE ENCEPHALOMYELTITIS

EEE, WEE, Venezuean

How is EQUINE ENCEPHALOMYELTITIS transmitted?

mosquitos

What clinical signs does bovine viral diarrhea cause?

Depression, anorexia, bloat, fever, increased heart rate and respiration, and profuse foul smelling diarrhea (with mucus and blood)

How is coccidia transmitted?

TRANS: passed in feces of infected animalsingestion of feces or of intermediate host

How is giardiasis transmitted?

TRANS: fecal - oral


directly or indirectly via contaminated water or food

What kind of parasite are oxacara canis (dogs), Toxacara cati (cats), Toxascaris leonina (dogs & cats)?

roundworms

Ancyclostoma spp. is what kind of worm?

hook worm

What does anclystoma cause?

SIGNS: black tarry diarrhea, anemia

What kind of worm is Trichuris vulpis

whipworm

Dipylidium caninum is what kind of worm?

tapeworm

How is Dipylidium caninum transmitted?

eggs are passed and eaten by a flea, mouse, or other animal. Consumption of intermediate host

Dirofilaria immitis is

heart worm

How is Dirofilaria immitis transmitted?

mosquitos

Ctenocephalides felis is what?

fleas

Fleas transmit __________, the tapeworm

Dipylidium canimun

Dermacentor spp. and Rhipicephalus are both geniuses of what?

ticks

burrowing mite

Sarcoptes scabei

With Otodectes cynotis you may see what clinical signs?

head shaking and scratching/ aural hematoma