Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
486 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
typically chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects
|
disinfectant
|
|
typically chemical agents that are applied to living tissues
|
antiseptics
|
|
______: there are no living organisms in or on an object
|
sterility
|
|
Deinococcus radiodurans are able to survive:
|
1000X the amount of radiation that would kill a human
|
|
three types of radiation
|
UV light, ionizing, microwave
|
|
_______: water heated under pressure, boiling temp elevated so temp above 100C can be reached
|
autoclaving
|
|
pressure of autoclaving
|
15 lbs per square inch
|
|
temp and time of autoclaving
|
15-20 min, 121 degrees
|
|
Autoclaving DOES NOT kill _____ b/c they have to be sterilized longer and at a higher temp
|
prions
|
|
temp and time for killing prions
|
134 degrees, 18 min
|
|
process used to destroy microbes that caused wine to sour - does not achieve sterility
|
pasteurization
|
|
pasteurization kills _________
|
pathogens
|
|
ex. of pathogens killed by pasteurization
|
salmonella
mycobacterium |
|
flash method for pasteurizing milk
|
heating to 71.6 C for 15-30 seconds
|
|
holding method for pasteurizing milk
|
heat to 62.9 C for 30 minutes
|
|
_______ radiation is lethal in destroying microbes
|
ultraviolet
|
|
UV radiation does NOT penetrate:
|
glass, dirt films, or water
|
|
_____: An excellent sterilizing agent due to its ability to penetrate deep into objects
|
Ionizing Radiation
|
|
_______ radiation will destroy bacterial endospores and both prokaryotic and eukaryotic vegetative cells
|
endospores
|
|
_____ A special group of chemotherapeutic agents used to treat diseases caused by microbes
|
antimicrobial agents
|
|
_______ literally means against life
|
antibiosis
|
|
______ A chemical substance produced by microbes which has the capacity to inhibit or destroy the growth of bacteria
|
antibiotic
|
|
______ drugs: purely made in the labs without microbes
|
synthetic
|
|
_______: made partially in the lab but also uses microbes or other organisms
|
semi synthetic
|
|
______ used Salvarsan to treat syphilis
|
Ehrlich
|
|
Ehrlich used Salvarsan to treat _____
|
syphilis
|
|
______ discovered prontosil, a red dye that inhibits growth of many gram-positive bacteria
|
Domagk
|
|
Domagk discovered protosil, a red dye that inhibits many ________
|
gram-positive bacteria
|
|
________ discovered that the sulfanilamide portion contained antimicrobial activity
|
Fourneau
|
|
Fourneau discovered that the ______ portion contained antimicrobial activity
|
sulfanilamide
|
|
______ toxicity: The antimicrobial agent must harm the microbes without causing significant damage to the host
|
selective
|
|
toxic dosage level causes
|
host damage
|
|
therapeutic dosage level:
|
successfully eliminates the pathogenic organism if the level is maintained
|
|
_________: The range of different microbes against which an antimicrobial agent acts
|
spectrum of activity
|
|
_____ spectrum: agents effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
|
broad
|
|
_____ spectrum: agents effective against a small number of microbes
|
narrow
|
|
Name the 5 modes of action
|
1. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
2. disruption of cell-membrane function 3. inhibition of protein synthesis 4. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis 5. action as antimetabolites |
|
inhibiting a cell wall synthesis ________ damages bacterial and fungal cells
|
selectively
|
|
penicillin and cephalosporin contain a structure called a ________ ring
|
beta-lactam
|
|
the beta-lactam ring attaches to the enzymes that crosslink ______ and prevent ______
|
peptidoglycans; cell wall synthesis
|
|
example of polypeptide antibiotics that disrupt membrane function
|
polymyxins
|
|
_______ act as detergents that distort bacterial cell membranes
|
polymyxins
|
|
polymyxins bind to _____ in the cell membrane
|
phospholipids
|
|
polymyxins are especially effective against _______ which have an outer membrane
|
gram-negative bacteria
|
|
inhibition of protein synthesis is an example of _______
|
selective toxicity
|
|
inhibition of protein synthesis attacks _____ cells without significantly damaging ____ cells
|
bacterial; animal
|
|
Name the aminoglycoside antibiotics
|
-tetracycline
-erythromycin -streptomycin -chloramphenicol |
|
antibiotics bind to the bacterial ______ ribosomal subunit and interfere with ______
|
30S; translation of mRNA
|
|
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis shows differences between the enzymes used by ______ and _____ cells to synthesize nucleic acids
|
bacterial, animal
|
|
antibiotics of the rifamycin family bind to a bacterial _______ and inhibit RNA synthesis
|
RNA polymerase
|
|
substances that affect the utilization of metabolites and prevent metabolic reactions are called ____
|
enzymes
|
|
a reaction to metronidazole causes:
|
Black Harry Tongue coupled with mouth wash or alcohol
|
|
a side effect of rifampin
|
Red Man syndrome - causes orange/red urine
|
|
side effects of antimicrobial agents fall into three categories:
|
1. toxicity
2. allergy 3. disruption of normal microbiota |
|
microorganisms normally acquire antibiotic resistance by genetic changes: (3)
|
1. natural selection
2. chromosomal muation 3. extrachromosomal resistance |
|
example of extrachromosomal resistance
|
r plasmids/factors
|
|
Name the mechanisms of resistance
|
1. alteration of targets
2. alteration of membrane permeability 3. development of enzymes 4. Alteration of an enzyme 5. alteration of a metabolic pathway |
|
Alteration of _____ = affects bacterial ribosomes 30S
|
ribosomes
|
|
alteration of ______: mutation that alters the DNA such that the protein produced or target is modified
|
targets
|
|
alteration of targets causes resistance to (3)
|
erythromycin
rifamycin antimetabolites |
|
alteration of targets meaning for binding
|
they can no longer bind anymore
|
|
enzymes catalyze the breaking of the _______ in penicillins and some cephalosporins
|
b-lactam ring
|
|
______: cells infected with viruses produce proteins collectively
|
interferons
|
|
interferon proteins induce neighboring cells to produce ______
|
antiviral proteins
|
|
antiviral proteins protect cells from becoming ___
|
infected
|
|
_____: A parasite capable of causing disease in a host
|
Pathogen
|
|
_____: Any organism that harbors another organism
|
Host
|
|
_____: An association between two (or more) species
|
Symbiosis
|
|
Symbiosis includes: (3)
|
mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism
|
|
_______: both members of the association living together benefit from the relationship
|
mutualism
|
|
_____: One organism, the parasite, benefits from the relationship, the host is harmed
|
parasitism
|
|
examples of parasites
|
bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, helminths
|
|
____: Two species live together in a relationship that one benefits and the other one neither benefits or is harmed
|
commensalism
|
|
_______: means that the microoranisms are present
|
contamination
|
|
_____: refers to the multiplication of any parasitic organisms within or on the hosts body
|
infection
|
|
_____: A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all its normal functions
|
disease
|
|
______: the capacity to produce disease
|
pathogenicity
|
|
_____: refers to the intensity of the disease produced by pathogens, and it varies among different microbial species
|
virulence
|
|
the virulence of a pathogen can increase by _______
|
animal passage
|
|
_____; the weakening of the disease-producing ability of the pathogen
|
attenuation
|
|
______: organisms that live on or in the body but do not cause disease
|
microflora
|
|
two categories of microflora
|
resident
transient |
|
________ microflora: comprise microbes that are always present on or in the human body
|
resident
|
|
________ microflora: microbes that can be present under certain conditions in any of the locations
|
transient
|
|
Human Diseases are caused by: (3)
|
infectious agents
structural/functional genetic defects environmental factors |
|
________ diseases: caused by infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and helminths
|
infectious
|
|
________ diseases: caused by factors other than infectious organisms
|
noninfectious
|
|
_________ diseases are caused by errors in genetic information
|
inherited
|
|
______ diseases are structural and functional defects present at birth
|
congenital
|
|
ex of congenital disease
|
spina bifida
|
|
______ diseases are disorders that develop in one or more body systems as aging occurs
|
degenerative
|
|
ex. of degenerative disease
|
arthritis
|
|
______ diseases lower resistance to infectious diseases and contribute to the severity of infections
|
nutritional deficiency
|
|
ex of nutritional deficiency diseases
|
lack of vitamin B
scurvy |
|
____ diseases are due to excesses or deficiencies of hormones
|
endocrine
|
|
example of endocrine diseases
|
diabetes
goiter |
|
______ diseases can be caused by a variety of factors such as emotional psychogenic or infection
|
mental
|
|
______ diseases such as allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiencies
|
immunological
|
|
_____ diseases involve abnormal cell growth that leads to harmless or cancerous tumors
|
neoplastic
|
|
_____ diseases are caused by medical procedures and/or treatments
|
latrogenic
|
|
ex. of latrogenic diseases
|
leaving medical tools in patients
|
|
______ diseases are those whos cause is unknown
|
idiopathic
|
|
_______: any substance that is poisonous to other organisms
|
bacterial toxin
|
|
______ are soluble substances secreted into host tissues
|
exotoxins
|
|
example of exotoxin that is also an enzyme
|
hemolysin
|
|
_______ are exotoxins that damage white blood cells
|
leukocidins
|
|
endotoxins are a part of the cell wall and are released into host tissues from _____
|
gram negative bacteria
|
|
_____; A critical point in the production of bacterial disease
|
adherence
|
|
________ are proteins that are found on attachment pilli
|
adhesions
|
|
______: the growth of microorganisms on epithelial surfaces, such as skin or mucous membranes or other host tissues
|
colonization
|
|
_______: the ability to invade and grow in host tissues
|
invasiveness
|
|
_______ enzyme that is a spreading factor for invasiveness
|
hyaluronidase
|
|
types of adherance
|
colonization
invasiveness |
|
______: enzyme that digests hyaluronic acid
|
hyaluronidase
|
|
______ a gluelike substance that helps hold the cells of certain tissues together
|
hyaluronidase
|
|
_______: triggers blood plasma clotting, allowing bacteria protection from immune defenses
|
coagulase
|
|
______ dissolves blood clots
|
streptokinase
|
|
viruses can replicate only after they have: (2)
|
attached to cells
penetrated specific host cells |
|
_________: in tissue culture systems, once inside a cell, viruses cause these observable changes
|
cytopathic effect
|
|
_________ infection: occurs when viruses enter a cell and produce infectious offspring
|
productive viral
|
|
______ infection occurs when viruses enter a cell but are unable to express all their genes to make infectious offspring
|
abortive viral
|
|
_______ infections - A weakened immune system allows the virus to multiply
|
latent viral
|
|
example of latent viral infection
|
shingles
|
|
latent viral infections are characteristic of the ______
|
herpesviruses
|
|
________ viral infections involve a continued production of viruses over many months or years
|
persistent
|
|
The ______ virus infects the liver in such a chronic fashion that there may be no outward sings of an infection
|
HBV
|
|
HBV viruses leads to: (2)
|
cirrhosis of liver
liver cancer |
|
most fungal diseases result from fungal spores that are _______ or entered through _____
|
inhaled
cuts/wounds |
|
certain ______ produce mycotoxins
|
fungi
|
|
some ______ invade and reproduce in red blood cells
|
protozoans
|
|
Giardia intestinalis attaches to ______ and ingests _____
|
tissues
cells and tissue fluid |
|
__________: adhesive disk
|
virulence factor
|
|
_______ are extracellular parasites that inhabit intestines or other body tissues
|
helminths
|
|
many helminths release toxic waste products, ________ in their excretions
|
andantigens
|
|
_______: a characteristic of a disease that can be observed by examining the patient
|
sign
|
|
examples of a sign
|
swelling, redness, rashes, coughing, pus, runny nose, vomiting
|
|
______: a characteristic of a disease that can be observed or felt only by the patient
|
symptom
|
|
example of symptoms
|
pain, shortness of breath, nausea, sore throat, headache
|
|
______: a combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and are indicative of a particular disease or abnormal condition
|
syndrome
|
|
_______: even after recovery, some diseases leave after-effects
|
sequelae
|
|
______: time between infection and appearance of signs and symptoms
|
incubation period
|
|
________ phase: a short period during which nonspecific, mild symptoms
|
prodromal
|
|
examples of symptoms during prodromal phase
|
malaise and headache
|
|
______ phase: is a period during which the individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of disease
|
invasive
|
|
_______ a symptom indicating the onset of a disease
|
prodrome
|
|
_____ phase: period of illness during which host defenses and effects of treatment overcome the pathogen
|
decline
|
|
______ period: tissues are repaired, healing takes place, and body regains strength and recovers
|
convalescent
|
|
host defenses that produce resistance against infection can be ____ or _____
|
adaptive or innate
|
|
______ defenses: respond to particular agents called antigens
|
adaptive
|
|
example of adaptive defenses (2)
|
viruses, pathogenic bacteria
|
|
____ defenses: those that act against any type of invading agent
|
innate
|
|
when ____ fails, we become susceptible to infection by pathogens
|
resistance
|
|
Adaptive defenses respond to antigens by producing _____
|
protein antibodies
|
|
______ involve the activation of lymphocytes
|
adaptive defenses
|
|
_______: specific cells of the bodies immune system
|
lymphocytes
|
|
_____ and _____ responses are more effective against succeeding invasions by the same pathogen
|
antibody and cellular
|
|
_______ barriers: skin and mucous membranes and chemicals they secrete
|
physical
|
|
______ barriers: antimicrobial substances in body fluids
|
chemical
|
|
example of chemical barriers
|
saliva, mucus, gastric juices, iron limitation mechanism
|
|
_________ defenses: certain cells that engulf invading microorganisms
|
cellular
|
|
_______: reddening, swelling, and temperature increases in tissues at sites of infection
|
inflammation
|
|
______: elevation of body temperature to kill invading agents and/or inactivate their toxic products
|
fever
|
|
_______ defenses: destroy or impede invading microorganisms
|
molecular
|
|
examples of molecular defenses
|
inteferon and complement
|
|
name the innate defenses
|
physical barriers
chemical barriers cellular defenses inflammation fever molecular defenses |
|
example of chemical barriers
|
high salt content
sweat/sebum acid in stomach lysozyme |
|
name things that inhibit growth of bacteria
|
high salt content
sweat and sebum |
|
acidic pH of stomach is a defense against:
|
intestinal pathogens
|
|
______: cleaves peptidoglycan linkage in bacterial cell wall
|
lysozyme
|
|
lysozymes are present in:
|
tears, saliva and mucus
|
|
blood is a _____ defense
|
cellular
|
|
blood consists of 60% _____ and 40% _____
|
plasma
cells |
|
name the formed elements of blood
|
erthyrocytes, platelets, and leukocytes
|
|
________ are defensive cells important to adaptive and innate host defenses
|
leukocytes
|
|
______: cells that eat/engulf materials
|
phagocytes
|
|
______ patrol/circulate through the body and destroy cells and cellular debris
|
phagocytes
|
|
phagocytes guard the _____ against invasion by microorganisms
|
skin/mucous membrane
|
|
________: "big eaters" that destroy not only microorganisms but also larger particles
|
macrophages
|
|
phagocytes digest and destroy invading microbes and foreign particles by a process called ______
|
phagocytosis
|
|
phagocytic cells must: (4)
|
find
adhere to ingest digest |
|
_______: phagocytes in tissues recognize invading microorganisms
|
chemotaxis
|
|
_______ on the phagocytic cells recognize molecular patterns
|
pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
|
|
phagocytes release _____ that have specific roles in host defenses
|
cytokines
|
|
_______: a class of cytokines that attract additional phagocytes to a site of infection
|
chemokines
|
|
_______: a non-random movement of an organism toward or away from a chemical
|
chemotaxis
|
|
_______: the ability of a phagocyte cell membrane to bind to specific molecules on the surface of microbe
|
adherance
|
|
_________: most common means by which bacteria avoid phagocytosis
|
antiphagocytic capsule
|
|
________: coats microbes with antibodies to aid phagocyte in adherence
|
complement system
|
|
_______: pseudopodia fuse and enclose microorganism within this cytoplasmic vacuole
|
phagosome
|
|
________" lysosomes with digestive enzymes fuse with phgosome membrane
|
phagolysosome
|
|
macrophages use metabolic products to kill ingested microbes (5):
|
oxygen to form hydrogen peroxide
nitric oxide superoxide ions hypochlorite ion |
|
______: the bodys defensive response to tissue damage from microbial infection
|
inflammation
|
|
4 cardinal signs of inflammation
|
1. calor
2. rubor 3. tumor 4. dolor |
|
_____: an increase in temperature
|
calor
|
|
______: redness
|
rubor
|
|
______: swelling
|
tumor
|
|
______: pain at infected or injured site
|
dolor
|
|
______: refers to a set of more than 20 large regulatory proteins that play a role in host defense
|
complement
|
|
general functions of complement system
|
1. opsonization
2. membrane attack complexes 3. generate peptide fragments that regular inflammation and immune responses |
|
______: enhances phagocytosis
|
opsonization
|
|
_________: lyse pathogens directly
|
membrane attack complexes
|
|
_______: by releasing histamine during compliment system
|
inflammation
|
|
________: coat bacterial surfaces which enhances phagocytosis during complement system
|
opsonization
|
|
__________: forms and stabilizes hole in the cell during compliment system
|
membrane attack complexes
|
|
molecular defenses involve the action of _____ and complement
|
interferon and complement
|
|
_______: interferes with viral replication in other cells
|
interferon
|
|
three groups of interferons in humans
|
alpha, beta, gamma
|
|
_________ refers to the ability of an organism to recognize and defend itself against infectious agents
|
immunity
|
|
__________: the vulnerability of the host to harm by infectious agents
|
susceptibility
|
|
________ system: consists of various cells, and organs such as the thymus gland, that help provide the host with specific immunity to infectious agents
|
immune
|
|
_____ the study of adaptive immunity an how the immune system responds to specific infectious agents and toxins
|
immunology
|
|
name the types of immunity
|
-innate
-adaptive |
|
______ immunity: exists because of genetically determined characteristics
|
innate
|
|
_____: immunity obtained in some manner other than heredity
|
adaptive
|
|
_______ acquired adaptive immunity is most often obtained by having a specific disease
|
naturally
|
|
_______ acquired adaptive immunity is obtained by receiving an antigen by injection of vaccine or immune serum
|
artificially
|
|
_______: a substance the body identifies as foreign and toward which it mounts an immune response
|
antigen
|
|
large, complex proteins can have several ________ or _______ (areas on the molecule to which antibodies can bind)
|
epitopes
antigenic determinants |
|
______: a small molecule can act as an antigen if it binds to a larger protein molecule
|
hapten
|
|
________: a protein produced in response to an antigen that is capable of binding specifically to the antigen
|
antibody
|
|
_____: the quantity of a substance needed to produce a given reaction
|
titer
|
|
specific immune responses are carried out by ______, which develop from stem cells
|
lymphocytes
|
|
___ lymphocytes: lymphocytes which develop from stem cells as do other which blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
|
B
|
|
___ lymphocytes: stem cells migrate to the thymus, where they undergo differentiation into thymus-derived cells
|
T
|
|
_____ killer cells: found in tissues and circulating in blood and nonspecifically kill cancer cells and viral-infected cells
|
Natural Killer
|
|
lymphocytes give rise to 2 major types of immune responses:
|
1. humoral immunity
2. cell mediated immunity |
|
______ immunity: carried out by antibodies circulating in the blood
|
humoral
|
|
____ immunity: carried out by T cells and occurs at the cellular level
|
cell mediated
|
|
______ regions: determines the particular class that an immunoglobulin belongs to
|
constant
|
|
______ regions: each chain has a particular shape and charge that enable the molecule to bind a particular antigen
|
variable
|
|
what are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins
|
1. IgG
2. IgA 3. IgM 4. IgE 5. IgD |
|
_______: the main class of antibodies found in the blood accounts for as much as 20% of all plasma proteins
|
IgG
|
|
_____: occurs in small amounts in blood and in larger amounts in body secretions (tears, milk, saliva, and mucus)
|
IgA
|
|
_____ found as a monomer on the surface of B cells and is secreted as a pentamer by plasma cells (J chain)
|
IgM
|
|
_____ has a special affinity for receptors on the plasma membranes of basophils in blood or mast cells in tissues
|
IgE
|
|
______: found mainly on B-cell membranes and is rarely secreted
|
IgD
|
|
in humoral immunity, the primary response to an antigen occurs when the antigen is first recognized by ______
|
host B cells
|
|
__________ response: when an antigen (same) recognized by memory cells enters the blood
|
secondary response
|
|
antibodies produced by humoral immune responses eliminate foreign agents in 3 ways:
|
1. neutralization
2. opsoniation 3. immune complexes |
|
cell mediated immunity involves the direct actions of _______ cells
|
T cytotoxic
|
|
________ cells interact directly with other cells that display foreign antigens
|
T cytotoxic
|
|
cell-mediated immunity involves the differentiation and actions of different types of ______ and production of ______
|
t cells
cytokines |
|
types of cytokines
|
lymphokines
interleukins |
|
T cells cannot be activated directly by _______
|
antigens
|
|
macrophages that have processed an antigen, secrete the ________ which activates ______
|
lymphokine
T helper cells |
|
T helper cells secrete ______
|
interleukin-2
(IL2) |
|
IL2 activates ______
|
cytotoxic killer cells
|
|
cytotoxic killer cells act on IL1 and IL2 ?
|
causes undifferentiated cells to become natural killer cells
|
|
Three vaccines that immunize against sever diseases that are recommended in US
|
1. DTaP
2. Poliomyelitis 3. MMR |
|
vaccine that prevents against whooping cough and tetanus
|
DTap
|
|
______ vaccine prevents against rubella, measles and mumps
|
MMR
|
|
ready-made antibodies are introduced into an unprotected individual is called ______
|
acquired passive artificial immunity
|
|
because antibodies are found in serum, these products are often called ______
|
antisera
|
|
passive immunization is established by administering a preparation such as _______, or ________
|
gamma gobulin, or hyperimmune serum
|
|
__________ disorder: A condition that results from an inappropriate or inadequate immune response
|
immunological
|
|
_________: the immune system reacts in an exaggerated or inappropriate way to a foreign substance
|
hypersensitivity
|
|
four types of hypersensitivity:
|
-immediate
-cytotoxic -immune complex -cell mediated |
|
________ hypersensitivity: anaphylaxis results from a prior exposure to a foreign substance called an allergen
|
immediate
|
|
______ hypersensitivity: elicited by antigens on cells, that an immune system recognizes as foreign
|
cytotoxic
|
|
_______ hypersensitivity: elicited by antigens in vaccines, on microbes, or on a persons own cells
|
immune complex
|
|
_______ hypersensitivity: triggered by exposure to foreign substances from the environment, infectious disease agents, transplanted tissues, and bodys own tissues and cells
|
cell-mediated
|
|
_______ disorders represent a form of hypersensitivity in which the body's immune system responds to its own tissues as if they were foreign
|
autoimmune
|
|
ex. of localized anaphylaxis
|
hay fever
|
|
______: means "out of place" refers to localized allergic reactions
|
atopy
|
|
______ immune reactions occur first at the site where the allergen enters the body
|
atopic
|
|
if the allergen enters the skin, it causes a ________ reaction, characterized by redness, swelling, and itching
|
wheal and flare
|
|
________: seasonal alleric rhinitis, common type of atopy
|
hay fever
|
|
hay fever can be distinguished from the common cold by the increased numbers of ________ in nasal secretions
|
eosinophils
|
|
______ anaphylaxis is life threatening
|
generalized
|
|
generalized anaphylaxis needs immediate treatment with ______
|
epinephrine
|
|
________ anaphylaxis: airways become severely constricted and filled with mucus secretions
|
respiratory
|
|
ex. of respiratory anaphylaxis
|
asthma
|
|
________: blood vessles suddenly dilate and become more permeable, causing an abrupt and life-threatening drop in blood pressure
|
anaphylactic shock
|
|
cytotoxic hypersensitivity - specific antibodies react with cell surface antigens interpreted as ______ by the immune system
|
foreign
|
|
cytotoxic hypersensitivity leads to: (3)
|
phagocytosis
natural killer cell activity complement-mediated lysis |
|
Normal human red blood cells have genetically determined ________ that form the basis for different blood types
|
surface antigens
|
|
________ can occur when matching antigens and antibodies are present int he patients blood at the same time
|
transfusion reaction
|
|
A and B antigens determine the _____ group system
|
ABO
|
|
______ disease of newborn: red blood cells can have Rh antigens in addition to the ABO blood group
|
hemolytic
|
|
Rh positive =
|
blood with Rh antigens
|
|
Rh negative =
|
blood without Rh antigens
|
|
Hemolytic disease occurs when:
|
Rh-negative women caries an Rh-positive fetes and produces anti-Rh antibodies
|
|
treatment for hemolytic disease
|
Rhogam = anti-Rh antibodies (IgG)
|
|
Immune complex hypersesitivity results from the formation of _______ complexes that persist or are continuously formed
|
antigen-antibody
|
|
Immune Complex Hyper: ____ antibodies combine with antigen in the blood to form an immune complex and activate complement
|
IgG
|
|
result of immune complex hypersensitivity
|
basophils and mast cells release histamine
|
|
________: large doses of antitoxin sera were used to immunize people pasively against infectious diseases such as diptheria
|
serum sickness
|
|
_______ reaction: local reaction seen in the skin after subcutaneous or intradermal injection of an antigenic substance
|
arthus reaction
|
|
ex of arthus reaction
|
rheumatoid arthritis
lupus erythematosus |
|
________ hypersensitivty: reactions take more than 12 hours to develop
|
cell mediated
|
|
_____ cells release various cytokines which cause inflammatory reactions that attract macrophages to the site
|
TH1
|
|
_____ cells are used in cell mediated hypersensitivity
|
TH1
|
|
result of cell mediated hypersensitivity:
|
patches of raw, reddened skin in eczema, swelling and granulomatous lesions
|
|
example of cell mediated disorders (3)
|
-contact dermatitis
-tuberculin hypersensitivity -granulomatous hypersensitivity |
|
________: occurs in sensitized individuals on second or subsequent exposure to allergens such as oils from poison ivy, rubber, certain metals, dyes and soaps
|
contact dermatitis
|
|
_______ hypersensitivity: occurs in sensitized individuals exposed to tuberculin in a tuberculin skin test
|
tuberculin
|
|
_______ hypersensitivity: most serious and usually occurs when macrophages have engulfed pathogens but have failed to kill them
|
granulomatous
|
|
example of granulomatous hypersensitivity
|
allergy to metals
|
|
________: the killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or on an object
|
sterilization
|
|
______: the reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms to the point where they pose no danger of disease
|
disinfection
|
|
______: a chemical agent that can safely by used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth
|
antiseptic
|
|
_______: a chemical agent used on inanimate objects to destroy microorganisms
|
disinfectant
|
|
most ______ and _____ do NOT kill spores
|
disinfectants
bactericides |
|
____________: an agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria
|
bacteriostatic agent
|
|
_______ an agent that kills bacteria, but do not kill spores
|
bactericide
|
|
_______ an agent that inactivates viruses
|
viricide
|
|
______ an agent that kills fungi
|
fungicide
|
|
_______ an agent that kills bacterial endospores or fungal spores
|
sporocide
|
|
__________: uses = hand washing, laundering, sanitizing kitchen and dairy equipment
|
soaps and detergents
|
|
_______ dissolve lipids, disrupt membranes, denature proteins, and inactivate enzymes in high concentrations
|
surfactants
|
|
_______ act as wetting agents in low concentrations
|
surfactants
|
|
_________ are cationic and anionic detergents used to sanitize utensils and launder clothes
|
surfactants
|
|
_______ are used for food preservation
|
acids
|
|
_______ are found in soaps
|
alkalis
|
|
_______ are used to prevent gonococcal infections, disinfect skin and inanimate objects, and inhibit algal growth
|
heavy metals
|
|
_____ detergents are used to sanitize utensils
|
cationic
|
|
_____ detergents are used to launder clothes and clean household objects
|
anionic
|
|
ammonium compounds are sometimes used as antiseptics on ______
|
skin
|
|
_______ is used to prevent gonococcal infections
|
silver nitrate
|
|
______ compounds are used to disinfect skin and inanimate objects
|
mercury
|
|
________ is used to inhibit algal growth
|
copper
|
|
______ is used to inhibit fungal growth
|
selenium
|
|
______ alcohol is used to disinfect skin
|
isopropyl
|
|
name oxidizing agents used as antimicrobial agents
|
hydrogen peroxide, potassium permanganate
|
|
______ is used to clean puncture wounds
|
hydrogen peroxide
|
|
_____ is used to disinfect instruments
|
potassium permanganate
|
|
dye that is used to clean wounds
|
acridine
|
|
dye that is used to treat protozoan and fungal infections
|
crystal violet
|
|
_____ heat is used to sterilize glassware and metal objects; open flame is used to incinerate microorganisms
|
dry
|
|
____ heat is used for autoclaving sterilizes media, bandages, and many kinds of hospital and laboratory equip not damaged by heat and moisture
|
moist
|
|
_______ kills pathogens in milk, dairy products and beer
|
pasteurization
|
|
_______ used to keep fresh foods for a few days, does not kill most microorganisms
|
refridgeration
|
|
_______ used to keep food fresh for several months - doesnt kill microorganisms
|
freezing
|
|
_____ light used to reduce the number of microorganisms in air in operating rooms, and animal rooms
|
UV
|
|
_____ radiation used to sterilize plastics and pharmaceutical products to preserve food
|
ionizing
|
|
______ radiation cannot be used reliably to destroy microbes except in special media-sterilizing equipment
|
microwave
|
|
name the three general types of radiation
|
UV light
microwave ionizing |
|
cephalosporins are the _____ spectrum agents of _______
|
broad
bacteroides |
|
lincomycin, and clinamycin are ______ spectrum agents of ______
|
narrow
bacteroides |
|
chloramphenicol are ______ spectrum agents of _____
|
broad
yeasts |
|
nystatin are ________ spectrum agents of ________
|
narrow
yeasts |
|
gentamicin and ampicillin are ____ spectrum agents of ______
|
broad
gram + bacteria |
|
penicillin and erythromycin are ______ spectrum agents of _____
|
narrow
gram + bacteria |
|
karamycin are ____ spectrum agents of _____
|
broad
gram - bacteria |
|
polymyxins are _____ spectrum agents of _____
|
narrow
gram - bacteria |
|
tetracyclines are _____ spectrum agents of _____ and ____
|
broad
streptococci, staphyloccoci |
|
streptomycin are ____ spectrum agents of _____
|
narrow streptococci
|
|
vancomycin are _____ spectrum agents of _____
|
narrow
staphyloccoi |
|
spectrum of tobramycin
|
mycobacteria, gram -
|
|
spectrum of streptomycin
|
mycobacteria
gram - |
|
spectrom of isoniazid
|
mycobacteria
|
|
spectrum of polymyxins
|
gram -
|
|
spectrim of penicillins
|
gram -
gram + chlamydias |
|
spectrum of sulfonamides
|
gram -
gram + |
|
spectrum of tetracyclines
|
gram -
gram+ chlamydias rickettsias |
|
side effect of tetracyclines
|
discolored teeth
|
|
spectrum of cephalosporins
|
gram -
gram + |
|
the ________ ring inhibits peptidoglycan
|
b-lactamase
|
|
the b=lactamase ring inhibits peptidoglycan in _____ organisms
|
gram +
|
|
name the agents the inhibit cell wall synthesis
|
penicillin
cephalosporins carbapenems bacitracin imipenem |
|
agents that interfere with cell membrane function
|
polymyxins
tyrocidins |
|
name the antimetabolites
|
sulfonamides
isoniazid ethambutol nitrofurantoin |
|
name the agents that inhibit protein synthesis
|
streptomycin
gentamicin tetracyclines chloramphenicol erythromycin |
|
name the agents that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
|
rifampin
quinolones |
|
black hairy tongue is caused by a reaction to the drug _____
|
metronidazole
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from penicillium notatum
|
penicillin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces venezuelae
|
chloramphenicol
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces griseus
|
streptomycin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces mediterranei
|
rifampsin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces aureofaciens
|
tetracycline
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces orientalis
|
vancomycin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces antibioticus
|
vidarabine
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces antibioticus
|
vidarabine
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from micromonospora
|
gentamicin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from bacillus licheniformis
|
bacitracin
|
|
which antibiotic do we receive from bacillus brevis
|
tyrocidin
|
|
name the first generation penicillins
|
cephalothin
cefazolin cephalexin |
|
name the 2nd generation penicillins
|
cefuroxime
cefaclor |
|
name the third generation penicillins
|
cephtazidime
ceftriaxone |
|
name the 4th generation penicillins
|
cefepime
|
|
name the skin microflora
|
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus lactobacillus species propionibacterium acnes pityrosporon ovale |
|
name the mouth microflora
|
streptococcus salivarius
streptococcus pneumoniae streptococcus mitis streptococcus sanguis streptococcus mutans streptococcus epidermidis streptococcus aureus |
|
name the upper respiratory tract microflora
|
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus streptococcus mitis streptococcus pnemonia moraxella catarrhalis lactobacillus haemophilus influenzae |
|
name the intestine microflora
|
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus streptococcus mitis enterococcus species lactobacillus species clostridium species eubacterium limosum |
|
name the internal tissues and organs that are normal microbe-free
|
middle and inner ear
sinuses internal eye bone marrow muscles brain and spinal cord ovaries and testes |
|
name the body fluids that are usually microbe free
|
blood
cerebrospinal fluid saliva prior to secretion urine in kidneys and bladder semen prior to urethra |
|
_____ disease: in which symptoms develop rapidly and that runs its course quickly
|
acute disease
|
|
______ disease: disease in which symptoms develop slowly and disease is slow to disappear
|
chronic
|
|
_____ disease: disease in which symptoms appear and or reappear long after infection
|
latent
|
|
______ infection: infection confined to a small region of the body
|
local
|
|
______ infection: infection is confined region from which pathogens travel to other regions of the body
|
focal infection
|
|
_______ infection: infection in which the pathogen is spread throughout the body - usually by blood or lymph
|
systemic
|
|
_______: presence and multiplication of pathogens in the blood
|
septicemia
|
|
______: presence but not multiplication of bacteria in blood
|
bacteremia
|
|
________: presence but not multiplication of viruses in blood
|
viremia
|
|
_______: presences of toxins in blood
|
toxemia
|
|
the ______ is the peak of disease
|
acme
|
|
______ period: no signs or symptoms
|
incubation
|
|
______ phase: vague symptoms
|
prodromal
|
|
_______ phase: most severe signs and symptoms
|
invasive
|
|
_______ phase: declining signs and symptoms
|
decline
|
|
what are the three formed elements of the blood
|
red blood cells
white blood cells platelets |
|
_______ are known as red blood cells
|
erythrocytes
|
|
________ are known as white blood cells
|
leukocytes
|
|
name the types of white blood cells (5)
|
basophil
eosinophil neutrophil monocyte lymphocyte |
|
name the steps of phagocytosis
|
1. Adherence
2. Ingestion 3. Digestion 4. Exocytosis |
|
name the parts of the lymphatic system
|
palatine tonsil
right lymphatic duct thymus thoracic duct appendix jugular vein spleen aggregated lymphatic follicle |
|
all areas of the body are drained by the _____ and ______ ducts
|
lymphatic
thoracic |
|
the _______ duct drains 70% of lymphatic system
|
thoracic
|
|
name the cells of the medulla
|
B cells
plasma cells macrophages |
|
name the cells of the inner cortex
|
t cells
dendritic cells |
|
name the cells of the outer cortex
|
B cells
follicular dendritic cells macrophages |
|
name the pathway of lymph flow through a lymph node
|
1. afferent lymphatic vessel
2. subcapsular sinus 3. trabecular sinus 4. medullary sinus 5. effert lymphatic vessel |
|
name the steps of inflammation and healing (11)
|
1. cut allows bacteria under skin
2. damaged cells release histamine and badykinin 3. capillaries dilate and bring more blood, skin becomes red and warm 4. capillaries become more permeable, allowing swelling 5. blood clotting occurs, scab forms 6. bacteria multiply in cut 7. phagocytes enter tissue by moving through blood vessels 8. phagocytic cells engulf tissue debris and bacteria 9. larger blood vessels dilate, increasing blood supply 10. dead cells and debris removed, epithelial cells begin to grow underneath scab 11. scar tissue replaces cells |
|
when skin is penetrated, damaged cells release ______ and ______
|
histamine and badykinin
|
|
scar tissue is a type of _____ tissue
|
connective
|
|
_______ is a process when phagocytes move through the walls of blood vessels
|
dilapedisis
|
|
what is the cell source of alpha interfereon
|
leukocytes
|
|
what is the cell source of beta-interferon
|
fibroblasts
|
|
what is the cell source of gamma interferon
|
t lymphocytes and natural killer cells
|
|
name the steps by which interferons act
|
1. virus infects cell
2. signal sent to host cell nucleus 3. viral replication activates host cell gene for interferon 4. interferon is synthesized and released 5. interferon binds to surface of neighboring cell 6. cell is stimulated to produce antiviral protein 7. antiviral proteins block viral replication |
|
name the physical barriers
|
hair
secretions epithlium |
|
name the phagocytes
|
fixed macrophage
neutrophil free macrophage eosinophil monocyte |
|
name the inflammatory responses
|
1. blood flow increased
2. phagocytes activated 3. capillary permeability increased 4. complement activated 5. clotting reaction walls off region 6. regional temperature increased 7. specific defenses activated |
|
how does a fever happen
|
when body temperature rises about 37 degrees celcius in response to pyrogens
|
|
interferons are released and activated by ______ and ________
|
lymphocytes and marcophages
|
|
Peyers patches and nodules in digestive trace contains ______% B cells, and ____% T cells
|
60; 25
|
|
spleen contains ______% B cells and ______% T cells
|
45; 45
|
|
the lymph nodes contain _____%B cells and _____% T cells
|
20, 70
|
|
the thymus is _____% B cells and ______% T cells
|
1; 99
|
|
Stem cells --> thymus ---> ______ cell ---> lymph node
|
T
|
|
two types of T cells in bone marrow
|
Th - CD4
Th - CD8 |
|
stem cells --> adult bone marrow --> ____ cell ---> lymph node
|
B
|
|
the _______ is where the B cells develop in chicken
|
bursa of fabricius
|
|
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgG
|
1 unit
Yes 75-85 |
|
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgM
|
5
Yes 5-10 |
|
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgA
|
1 or 2
yes by alternative pathway 10 |
|
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgE
|
1, no, 0.005
|
|
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgD
|
1
No 0.2 |
|
describe the structure of an antibody
|
4 polypeptide chains
two identical light chains (200 AA) two identical heavy chains (400 AA) |
|
cytotoxic T cells releases destructive enzymes called ______
|
perforin
|
|
name the types of T cells
|
helper
cytotoxic memory |
|
blood type A has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
|
A, Anti-B
|
|
blood type B has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
|
B, Anti-A
|
|
blood type AB has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
|
A and B; Neither anti-A nor anti-B
|
|
blood type O has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
|
neither A nor B; AntiA and AntiB
|
|
describe the cause and effect of hemolytic disease in newborns
|
Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus - breaks in placental membrane at delivery allow Rh antigens to enter maternal circulation - Anti-Rh antibodies enter fetal circulation and the fetal red blood cells are destroyed
|
|
A positive tuberculin skin test will show:
|
measure 5mm or more raised skin
|
|
type I hypersensitivity =
|
immediate
|
|
main mediator of immediate hypersensitivity
|
IgE
|
|
reaction time of immediate hypersensitivity
|
seconds to 30 minutes
|
|
nature of reaction for immediate hypersensitivity
|
local wheal and flare, airway restriction, anaphylactic shock
|
|
therapy for immediate hypersensitivity
|
desensitization, antihistamines, steroids
|
|
type II hypersensitivity =
|
cytotoxic
|
|
main mediators of cytotoxic hypersensitivity
|
IgG, IgM
|
|
reaction time for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
|
variable, usually hours
|
|
nature of reaction for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
|
clumping of erythrocytes, cell destruction
|
|
therapy for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
|
steroids
|
|
type III hypersensitivity =
|
immune complex
|
|
main mediators for immune complex hypersensitivity
|
IgG, IgM
|
|
reaction time for immune complex hypersensitivity
|
3 to 8 hours
|
|
nature of reaction for immune complex hypersensitivity
|
acute inflammation effects
|
|
therapy for immune complex hypersensitivty
|
steroids
|
|
Type IV hypersensitivity =
|
cell-mediated
|
|
main mediators for cell-mediated hypersensitivity
|
t cells
|
|
reaction time for cell mediated hypersensitivity
|
24 hours to 4 or more weeks
|
|
nature of reaction for cell mediated hypersensitivity
|
cell-mediated cell destruction
|
|
therapy for cell-mediated hypersensitivity
|
steroids
|
|
streptococcus pyogenes causes the disease ____ and ____
|
scarlet fever, erysipelas
|
|
propionibacterium acnes caused the disease ___
|
acne
|
|
rubella virus causes ____
|
rubella
|
|
rubeola virus causes _____
|
measles
|
|
varicella-zoster virus causes ____ & ____
|
chickenpox; shingles
|
|
small pox virus causes ____
|
small pox
|
|
HPV causes ___
|
warts
|
|
mucor and rhizopus species causes _____
|
zygomycosis
|
|
cercariae of schistosomes causes ____
|
swimmers itch
|
|
neisseria gonorrhoeae causes _____
|
ophthalmia neonatorum
|
|
adenovirus causes _____
|
epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
|
|
enterovirus causes ____
|
acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
|
|
loa loa causes ____
|
loaiasis
|
|
clostridium perfringens causes ___
|
gas gangrene
|
|
afipia felis and bartonella causes ____
|
cat scratch fever
|
|
streptobacillus moniliformis causes ___
|
rat bite fever
|
|
sarcoptes scabiei causes ____
|
scabies
|
|
fly larvae causes _____
|
myiasis
|