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486 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
typically chemical agents that are applied to inanimate objects
disinfectant
typically chemical agents that are applied to living tissues
antiseptics
______: there are no living organisms in or on an object
sterility
Deinococcus radiodurans are able to survive:
1000X the amount of radiation that would kill a human
three types of radiation
UV light, ionizing, microwave
_______: water heated under pressure, boiling temp elevated so temp above 100C can be reached
autoclaving
pressure of autoclaving
15 lbs per square inch
temp and time of autoclaving
15-20 min, 121 degrees
Autoclaving DOES NOT kill _____ b/c they have to be sterilized longer and at a higher temp
prions
temp and time for killing prions
134 degrees, 18 min
process used to destroy microbes that caused wine to sour - does not achieve sterility
pasteurization
pasteurization kills _________
pathogens
ex. of pathogens killed by pasteurization
salmonella
mycobacterium
flash method for pasteurizing milk
heating to 71.6 C for 15-30 seconds
holding method for pasteurizing milk
heat to 62.9 C for 30 minutes
_______ radiation is lethal in destroying microbes
ultraviolet
UV radiation does NOT penetrate:
glass, dirt films, or water
_____: An excellent sterilizing agent due to its ability to penetrate deep into objects
Ionizing Radiation
_______ radiation will destroy bacterial endospores and both prokaryotic and eukaryotic vegetative cells
endospores
_____ A special group of chemotherapeutic agents used to treat diseases caused by microbes
antimicrobial agents
_______ literally means against life
antibiosis
______ A chemical substance produced by microbes which has the capacity to inhibit or destroy the growth of bacteria
antibiotic
______ drugs: purely made in the labs without microbes
synthetic
_______: made partially in the lab but also uses microbes or other organisms
semi synthetic
______ used Salvarsan to treat syphilis
Ehrlich
Ehrlich used Salvarsan to treat _____
syphilis
______ discovered prontosil, a red dye that inhibits growth of many gram-positive bacteria
Domagk
Domagk discovered protosil, a red dye that inhibits many ________
gram-positive bacteria
________ discovered that the sulfanilamide portion contained antimicrobial activity
Fourneau
Fourneau discovered that the ______ portion contained antimicrobial activity
sulfanilamide
______ toxicity: The antimicrobial agent must harm the microbes without causing significant damage to the host
selective
toxic dosage level causes
host damage
therapeutic dosage level:
successfully eliminates the pathogenic organism if the level is maintained
_________: The range of different microbes against which an antimicrobial agent acts
spectrum of activity
_____ spectrum: agents effective against both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
broad
_____ spectrum: agents effective against a small number of microbes
narrow
Name the 5 modes of action
1. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
2. disruption of cell-membrane function
3. inhibition of protein synthesis
4. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
5. action as antimetabolites
inhibiting a cell wall synthesis ________ damages bacterial and fungal cells
selectively
penicillin and cephalosporin contain a structure called a ________ ring
beta-lactam
the beta-lactam ring attaches to the enzymes that crosslink ______ and prevent ______
peptidoglycans; cell wall synthesis
example of polypeptide antibiotics that disrupt membrane function
polymyxins
_______ act as detergents that distort bacterial cell membranes
polymyxins
polymyxins bind to _____ in the cell membrane
phospholipids
polymyxins are especially effective against _______ which have an outer membrane
gram-negative bacteria
inhibition of protein synthesis is an example of _______
selective toxicity
inhibition of protein synthesis attacks _____ cells without significantly damaging ____ cells
bacterial; animal
Name the aminoglycoside antibiotics
-tetracycline
-erythromycin
-streptomycin
-chloramphenicol
antibiotics bind to the bacterial ______ ribosomal subunit and interfere with ______
30S; translation of mRNA
inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis shows differences between the enzymes used by ______ and _____ cells to synthesize nucleic acids
bacterial, animal
antibiotics of the rifamycin family bind to a bacterial _______ and inhibit RNA synthesis
RNA polymerase
substances that affect the utilization of metabolites and prevent metabolic reactions are called ____
enzymes
a reaction to metronidazole causes:
Black Harry Tongue coupled with mouth wash or alcohol
a side effect of rifampin
Red Man syndrome - causes orange/red urine
side effects of antimicrobial agents fall into three categories:
1. toxicity
2. allergy
3. disruption of normal microbiota
microorganisms normally acquire antibiotic resistance by genetic changes: (3)
1. natural selection
2. chromosomal muation
3. extrachromosomal resistance
example of extrachromosomal resistance
r plasmids/factors
Name the mechanisms of resistance
1. alteration of targets
2. alteration of membrane permeability
3. development of enzymes
4. Alteration of an enzyme
5. alteration of a metabolic pathway
Alteration of _____ = affects bacterial ribosomes 30S
ribosomes
alteration of ______: mutation that alters the DNA such that the protein produced or target is modified
targets
alteration of targets causes resistance to (3)
erythromycin
rifamycin
antimetabolites
alteration of targets meaning for binding
they can no longer bind anymore
enzymes catalyze the breaking of the _______ in penicillins and some cephalosporins
b-lactam ring
______: cells infected with viruses produce proteins collectively
interferons
interferon proteins induce neighboring cells to produce ______
antiviral proteins
antiviral proteins protect cells from becoming ___
infected
_____: A parasite capable of causing disease in a host
Pathogen
_____: Any organism that harbors another organism
Host
_____: An association between two (or more) species
Symbiosis
Symbiosis includes: (3)
mutualism, commensalism, and parasitism
_______: both members of the association living together benefit from the relationship
mutualism
_____: One organism, the parasite, benefits from the relationship, the host is harmed
parasitism
examples of parasites
bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, helminths
____: Two species live together in a relationship that one benefits and the other one neither benefits or is harmed
commensalism
_______: means that the microoranisms are present
contamination
_____: refers to the multiplication of any parasitic organisms within or on the hosts body
infection
_____: A disturbance in the state of health wherein the body cannot carry out all its normal functions
disease
______: the capacity to produce disease
pathogenicity
_____: refers to the intensity of the disease produced by pathogens, and it varies among different microbial species
virulence
the virulence of a pathogen can increase by _______
animal passage
_____; the weakening of the disease-producing ability of the pathogen
attenuation
______: organisms that live on or in the body but do not cause disease
microflora
two categories of microflora
resident
transient
________ microflora: comprise microbes that are always present on or in the human body
resident
________ microflora: microbes that can be present under certain conditions in any of the locations
transient
Human Diseases are caused by: (3)
infectious agents
structural/functional genetic defects
environmental factors
________ diseases: caused by infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, and helminths
infectious
________ diseases: caused by factors other than infectious organisms
noninfectious
_________ diseases are caused by errors in genetic information
inherited
______ diseases are structural and functional defects present at birth
congenital
ex of congenital disease
spina bifida
______ diseases are disorders that develop in one or more body systems as aging occurs
degenerative
ex. of degenerative disease
arthritis
______ diseases lower resistance to infectious diseases and contribute to the severity of infections
nutritional deficiency
ex of nutritional deficiency diseases
lack of vitamin B
scurvy
____ diseases are due to excesses or deficiencies of hormones
endocrine
example of endocrine diseases
diabetes
goiter
______ diseases can be caused by a variety of factors such as emotional psychogenic or infection
mental
______ diseases such as allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiencies
immunological
_____ diseases involve abnormal cell growth that leads to harmless or cancerous tumors
neoplastic
_____ diseases are caused by medical procedures and/or treatments
latrogenic
ex. of latrogenic diseases
leaving medical tools in patients
______ diseases are those whos cause is unknown
idiopathic
_______: any substance that is poisonous to other organisms
bacterial toxin
______ are soluble substances secreted into host tissues
exotoxins
example of exotoxin that is also an enzyme
hemolysin
_______ are exotoxins that damage white blood cells
leukocidins
endotoxins are a part of the cell wall and are released into host tissues from _____
gram negative bacteria
_____; A critical point in the production of bacterial disease
adherence
________ are proteins that are found on attachment pilli
adhesions
______: the growth of microorganisms on epithelial surfaces, such as skin or mucous membranes or other host tissues
colonization
_______: the ability to invade and grow in host tissues
invasiveness
_______ enzyme that is a spreading factor for invasiveness
hyaluronidase
types of adherance
colonization
invasiveness
______: enzyme that digests hyaluronic acid
hyaluronidase
______ a gluelike substance that helps hold the cells of certain tissues together
hyaluronidase
_______: triggers blood plasma clotting, allowing bacteria protection from immune defenses
coagulase
______ dissolves blood clots
streptokinase
viruses can replicate only after they have: (2)
attached to cells
penetrated specific host cells
_________: in tissue culture systems, once inside a cell, viruses cause these observable changes
cytopathic effect
_________ infection: occurs when viruses enter a cell and produce infectious offspring
productive viral
______ infection occurs when viruses enter a cell but are unable to express all their genes to make infectious offspring
abortive viral
_______ infections - A weakened immune system allows the virus to multiply
latent viral
example of latent viral infection
shingles
latent viral infections are characteristic of the ______
herpesviruses
________ viral infections involve a continued production of viruses over many months or years
persistent
The ______ virus infects the liver in such a chronic fashion that there may be no outward sings of an infection
HBV
HBV viruses leads to: (2)
cirrhosis of liver
liver cancer
most fungal diseases result from fungal spores that are _______ or entered through _____
inhaled
cuts/wounds
certain ______ produce mycotoxins
fungi
some ______ invade and reproduce in red blood cells
protozoans
Giardia intestinalis attaches to ______ and ingests _____
tissues
cells and tissue fluid
__________: adhesive disk
virulence factor
_______ are extracellular parasites that inhabit intestines or other body tissues
helminths
many helminths release toxic waste products, ________ in their excretions
andantigens
_______: a characteristic of a disease that can be observed by examining the patient
sign
examples of a sign
swelling, redness, rashes, coughing, pus, runny nose, vomiting
______: a characteristic of a disease that can be observed or felt only by the patient
symptom
example of symptoms
pain, shortness of breath, nausea, sore throat, headache
______: a combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and are indicative of a particular disease or abnormal condition
syndrome
_______: even after recovery, some diseases leave after-effects
sequelae
______: time between infection and appearance of signs and symptoms
incubation period
________ phase: a short period during which nonspecific, mild symptoms
prodromal
examples of symptoms during prodromal phase
malaise and headache
______ phase: is a period during which the individual experiences the typical signs and symptoms of disease
invasive
_______ a symptom indicating the onset of a disease
prodrome
_____ phase: period of illness during which host defenses and effects of treatment overcome the pathogen
decline
______ period: tissues are repaired, healing takes place, and body regains strength and recovers
convalescent
host defenses that produce resistance against infection can be ____ or _____
adaptive or innate
______ defenses: respond to particular agents called antigens
adaptive
example of adaptive defenses (2)
viruses, pathogenic bacteria
____ defenses: those that act against any type of invading agent
innate
when ____ fails, we become susceptible to infection by pathogens
resistance
Adaptive defenses respond to antigens by producing _____
protein antibodies
______ involve the activation of lymphocytes
adaptive defenses
_______: specific cells of the bodies immune system
lymphocytes
_____ and _____ responses are more effective against succeeding invasions by the same pathogen
antibody and cellular
_______ barriers: skin and mucous membranes and chemicals they secrete
physical
______ barriers: antimicrobial substances in body fluids
chemical
example of chemical barriers
saliva, mucus, gastric juices, iron limitation mechanism
_________ defenses: certain cells that engulf invading microorganisms
cellular
_______: reddening, swelling, and temperature increases in tissues at sites of infection
inflammation
______: elevation of body temperature to kill invading agents and/or inactivate their toxic products
fever
_______ defenses: destroy or impede invading microorganisms
molecular
examples of molecular defenses
inteferon and complement
name the innate defenses
physical barriers
chemical barriers
cellular defenses
inflammation
fever
molecular defenses
example of chemical barriers
high salt content
sweat/sebum
acid in stomach
lysozyme
name things that inhibit growth of bacteria
high salt content
sweat and sebum
acidic pH of stomach is a defense against:
intestinal pathogens
______: cleaves peptidoglycan linkage in bacterial cell wall
lysozyme
lysozymes are present in:
tears, saliva and mucus
blood is a _____ defense
cellular
blood consists of 60% _____ and 40% _____
plasma
cells
name the formed elements of blood
erthyrocytes, platelets, and leukocytes
________ are defensive cells important to adaptive and innate host defenses
leukocytes
______: cells that eat/engulf materials
phagocytes
______ patrol/circulate through the body and destroy cells and cellular debris
phagocytes
phagocytes guard the _____ against invasion by microorganisms
skin/mucous membrane
________: "big eaters" that destroy not only microorganisms but also larger particles
macrophages
phagocytes digest and destroy invading microbes and foreign particles by a process called ______
phagocytosis
phagocytic cells must: (4)
find
adhere to
ingest
digest
_______: phagocytes in tissues recognize invading microorganisms
chemotaxis
_______ on the phagocytic cells recognize molecular patterns
pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
phagocytes release _____ that have specific roles in host defenses
cytokines
_______: a class of cytokines that attract additional phagocytes to a site of infection
chemokines
_______: a non-random movement of an organism toward or away from a chemical
chemotaxis
_______: the ability of a phagocyte cell membrane to bind to specific molecules on the surface of microbe
adherance
_________: most common means by which bacteria avoid phagocytosis
antiphagocytic capsule
________: coats microbes with antibodies to aid phagocyte in adherence
complement system
_______: pseudopodia fuse and enclose microorganism within this cytoplasmic vacuole
phagosome
________" lysosomes with digestive enzymes fuse with phgosome membrane
phagolysosome
macrophages use metabolic products to kill ingested microbes (5):
oxygen to form hydrogen peroxide
nitric oxide
superoxide ions
hypochlorite ion
______: the bodys defensive response to tissue damage from microbial infection
inflammation
4 cardinal signs of inflammation
1. calor
2. rubor
3. tumor
4. dolor
_____: an increase in temperature
calor
______: redness
rubor
______: swelling
tumor
______: pain at infected or injured site
dolor
______: refers to a set of more than 20 large regulatory proteins that play a role in host defense
complement
general functions of complement system
1. opsonization
2. membrane attack complexes
3. generate peptide fragments that regular inflammation and immune responses
______: enhances phagocytosis
opsonization
_________: lyse pathogens directly
membrane attack complexes
_______: by releasing histamine during compliment system
inflammation
________: coat bacterial surfaces which enhances phagocytosis during complement system
opsonization
__________: forms and stabilizes hole in the cell during compliment system
membrane attack complexes
molecular defenses involve the action of _____ and complement
interferon and complement
_______: interferes with viral replication in other cells
interferon
three groups of interferons in humans
alpha, beta, gamma
_________ refers to the ability of an organism to recognize and defend itself against infectious agents
immunity
__________: the vulnerability of the host to harm by infectious agents
susceptibility
________ system: consists of various cells, and organs such as the thymus gland, that help provide the host with specific immunity to infectious agents
immune
_____ the study of adaptive immunity an how the immune system responds to specific infectious agents and toxins
immunology
name the types of immunity
-innate
-adaptive
______ immunity: exists because of genetically determined characteristics
innate
_____: immunity obtained in some manner other than heredity
adaptive
_______ acquired adaptive immunity is most often obtained by having a specific disease
naturally
_______ acquired adaptive immunity is obtained by receiving an antigen by injection of vaccine or immune serum
artificially
_______: a substance the body identifies as foreign and toward which it mounts an immune response
antigen
large, complex proteins can have several ________ or _______ (areas on the molecule to which antibodies can bind)
epitopes
antigenic determinants
______: a small molecule can act as an antigen if it binds to a larger protein molecule
hapten
________: a protein produced in response to an antigen that is capable of binding specifically to the antigen
antibody
_____: the quantity of a substance needed to produce a given reaction
titer
specific immune responses are carried out by ______, which develop from stem cells
lymphocytes
___ lymphocytes: lymphocytes which develop from stem cells as do other which blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
B
___ lymphocytes: stem cells migrate to the thymus, where they undergo differentiation into thymus-derived cells
T
_____ killer cells: found in tissues and circulating in blood and nonspecifically kill cancer cells and viral-infected cells
Natural Killer
lymphocytes give rise to 2 major types of immune responses:
1. humoral immunity
2. cell mediated immunity
______ immunity: carried out by antibodies circulating in the blood
humoral
____ immunity: carried out by T cells and occurs at the cellular level
cell mediated
______ regions: determines the particular class that an immunoglobulin belongs to
constant
______ regions: each chain has a particular shape and charge that enable the molecule to bind a particular antigen
variable
what are the 5 classes of immunoglobulins
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE
5. IgD
_______: the main class of antibodies found in the blood accounts for as much as 20% of all plasma proteins
IgG
_____: occurs in small amounts in blood and in larger amounts in body secretions (tears, milk, saliva, and mucus)
IgA
_____ found as a monomer on the surface of B cells and is secreted as a pentamer by plasma cells (J chain)
IgM
_____ has a special affinity for receptors on the plasma membranes of basophils in blood or mast cells in tissues
IgE
______: found mainly on B-cell membranes and is rarely secreted
IgD
in humoral immunity, the primary response to an antigen occurs when the antigen is first recognized by ______
host B cells
__________ response: when an antigen (same) recognized by memory cells enters the blood
secondary response
antibodies produced by humoral immune responses eliminate foreign agents in 3 ways:
1. neutralization
2. opsoniation
3. immune complexes
cell mediated immunity involves the direct actions of _______ cells
T cytotoxic
________ cells interact directly with other cells that display foreign antigens
T cytotoxic
cell-mediated immunity involves the differentiation and actions of different types of ______ and production of ______
t cells
cytokines
types of cytokines
lymphokines
interleukins
T cells cannot be activated directly by _______
antigens
macrophages that have processed an antigen, secrete the ________ which activates ______
lymphokine
T helper cells
T helper cells secrete ______
interleukin-2
(IL2)
IL2 activates ______
cytotoxic killer cells
cytotoxic killer cells act on IL1 and IL2 ?
causes undifferentiated cells to become natural killer cells
Three vaccines that immunize against sever diseases that are recommended in US
1. DTaP
2. Poliomyelitis
3. MMR
vaccine that prevents against whooping cough and tetanus
DTap
______ vaccine prevents against rubella, measles and mumps
MMR
ready-made antibodies are introduced into an unprotected individual is called ______
acquired passive artificial immunity
because antibodies are found in serum, these products are often called ______
antisera
passive immunization is established by administering a preparation such as _______, or ________
gamma gobulin, or hyperimmune serum
__________ disorder: A condition that results from an inappropriate or inadequate immune response
immunological
_________: the immune system reacts in an exaggerated or inappropriate way to a foreign substance
hypersensitivity
four types of hypersensitivity:
-immediate
-cytotoxic
-immune complex
-cell mediated
________ hypersensitivity: anaphylaxis results from a prior exposure to a foreign substance called an allergen
immediate
______ hypersensitivity: elicited by antigens on cells, that an immune system recognizes as foreign
cytotoxic
_______ hypersensitivity: elicited by antigens in vaccines, on microbes, or on a persons own cells
immune complex
_______ hypersensitivity: triggered by exposure to foreign substances from the environment, infectious disease agents, transplanted tissues, and bodys own tissues and cells
cell-mediated
_______ disorders represent a form of hypersensitivity in which the body's immune system responds to its own tissues as if they were foreign
autoimmune
ex. of localized anaphylaxis
hay fever
______: means "out of place" refers to localized allergic reactions
atopy
______ immune reactions occur first at the site where the allergen enters the body
atopic
if the allergen enters the skin, it causes a ________ reaction, characterized by redness, swelling, and itching
wheal and flare
________: seasonal alleric rhinitis, common type of atopy
hay fever
hay fever can be distinguished from the common cold by the increased numbers of ________ in nasal secretions
eosinophils
______ anaphylaxis is life threatening
generalized
generalized anaphylaxis needs immediate treatment with ______
epinephrine
________ anaphylaxis: airways become severely constricted and filled with mucus secretions
respiratory
ex. of respiratory anaphylaxis
asthma
________: blood vessles suddenly dilate and become more permeable, causing an abrupt and life-threatening drop in blood pressure
anaphylactic shock
cytotoxic hypersensitivity - specific antibodies react with cell surface antigens interpreted as ______ by the immune system
foreign
cytotoxic hypersensitivity leads to: (3)
phagocytosis
natural killer cell activity
complement-mediated lysis
Normal human red blood cells have genetically determined ________ that form the basis for different blood types
surface antigens
________ can occur when matching antigens and antibodies are present int he patients blood at the same time
transfusion reaction
A and B antigens determine the _____ group system
ABO
______ disease of newborn: red blood cells can have Rh antigens in addition to the ABO blood group
hemolytic
Rh positive =
blood with Rh antigens
Rh negative =
blood without Rh antigens
Hemolytic disease occurs when:
Rh-negative women caries an Rh-positive fetes and produces anti-Rh antibodies
treatment for hemolytic disease
Rhogam = anti-Rh antibodies (IgG)
Immune complex hypersesitivity results from the formation of _______ complexes that persist or are continuously formed
antigen-antibody
Immune Complex Hyper: ____ antibodies combine with antigen in the blood to form an immune complex and activate complement
IgG
result of immune complex hypersensitivity
basophils and mast cells release histamine
________: large doses of antitoxin sera were used to immunize people pasively against infectious diseases such as diptheria
serum sickness
_______ reaction: local reaction seen in the skin after subcutaneous or intradermal injection of an antigenic substance
arthus reaction
ex of arthus reaction
rheumatoid arthritis
lupus erythematosus
________ hypersensitivty: reactions take more than 12 hours to develop
cell mediated
_____ cells release various cytokines which cause inflammatory reactions that attract macrophages to the site
TH1
_____ cells are used in cell mediated hypersensitivity
TH1
result of cell mediated hypersensitivity:
patches of raw, reddened skin in eczema, swelling and granulomatous lesions
example of cell mediated disorders (3)
-contact dermatitis
-tuberculin hypersensitivity
-granulomatous hypersensitivity
________: occurs in sensitized individuals on second or subsequent exposure to allergens such as oils from poison ivy, rubber, certain metals, dyes and soaps
contact dermatitis
_______ hypersensitivity: occurs in sensitized individuals exposed to tuberculin in a tuberculin skin test
tuberculin
_______ hypersensitivity: most serious and usually occurs when macrophages have engulfed pathogens but have failed to kill them
granulomatous
example of granulomatous hypersensitivity
allergy to metals
________: the killing or removal of all microorganisms in a material or on an object
sterilization
______: the reduction of the number of pathogenic microorganisms to the point where they pose no danger of disease
disinfection
______: a chemical agent that can safely by used externally on living tissue to destroy microorganisms or to inhibit their growth
antiseptic
_______: a chemical agent used on inanimate objects to destroy microorganisms
disinfectant
most ______ and _____ do NOT kill spores
disinfectants
bactericides
____________: an agent that inhibits the growth of bacteria
bacteriostatic agent
_______ an agent that kills bacteria, but do not kill spores
bactericide
_______ an agent that inactivates viruses
viricide
______ an agent that kills fungi
fungicide
_______ an agent that kills bacterial endospores or fungal spores
sporocide
__________: uses = hand washing, laundering, sanitizing kitchen and dairy equipment
soaps and detergents
_______ dissolve lipids, disrupt membranes, denature proteins, and inactivate enzymes in high concentrations
surfactants
_______ act as wetting agents in low concentrations
surfactants
_________ are cationic and anionic detergents used to sanitize utensils and launder clothes
surfactants
_______ are used for food preservation
acids
_______ are found in soaps
alkalis
_______ are used to prevent gonococcal infections, disinfect skin and inanimate objects, and inhibit algal growth
heavy metals
_____ detergents are used to sanitize utensils
cationic
_____ detergents are used to launder clothes and clean household objects
anionic
ammonium compounds are sometimes used as antiseptics on ______
skin
_______ is used to prevent gonococcal infections
silver nitrate
______ compounds are used to disinfect skin and inanimate objects
mercury
________ is used to inhibit algal growth
copper
______ is used to inhibit fungal growth
selenium
______ alcohol is used to disinfect skin
isopropyl
name oxidizing agents used as antimicrobial agents
hydrogen peroxide, potassium permanganate
______ is used to clean puncture wounds
hydrogen peroxide
_____ is used to disinfect instruments
potassium permanganate
dye that is used to clean wounds
acridine
dye that is used to treat protozoan and fungal infections
crystal violet
_____ heat is used to sterilize glassware and metal objects; open flame is used to incinerate microorganisms
dry
____ heat is used for autoclaving sterilizes media, bandages, and many kinds of hospital and laboratory equip not damaged by heat and moisture
moist
_______ kills pathogens in milk, dairy products and beer
pasteurization
_______ used to keep fresh foods for a few days, does not kill most microorganisms
refridgeration
_______ used to keep food fresh for several months - doesnt kill microorganisms
freezing
_____ light used to reduce the number of microorganisms in air in operating rooms, and animal rooms
UV
_____ radiation used to sterilize plastics and pharmaceutical products to preserve food
ionizing
______ radiation cannot be used reliably to destroy microbes except in special media-sterilizing equipment
microwave
name the three general types of radiation
UV light
microwave
ionizing
cephalosporins are the _____ spectrum agents of _______
broad
bacteroides
lincomycin, and clinamycin are ______ spectrum agents of ______
narrow
bacteroides
chloramphenicol are ______ spectrum agents of _____
broad
yeasts
nystatin are ________ spectrum agents of ________
narrow
yeasts
gentamicin and ampicillin are ____ spectrum agents of ______
broad
gram + bacteria
penicillin and erythromycin are ______ spectrum agents of _____
narrow
gram + bacteria
karamycin are ____ spectrum agents of _____
broad
gram - bacteria
polymyxins are _____ spectrum agents of _____
narrow
gram - bacteria
tetracyclines are _____ spectrum agents of _____ and ____
broad
streptococci, staphyloccoci
streptomycin are ____ spectrum agents of _____
narrow streptococci
vancomycin are _____ spectrum agents of _____
narrow
staphyloccoi
spectrum of tobramycin
mycobacteria, gram -
spectrum of streptomycin
mycobacteria
gram -
spectrom of isoniazid
mycobacteria
spectrum of polymyxins
gram -
spectrim of penicillins
gram -
gram +
chlamydias
spectrum of sulfonamides
gram -
gram +
spectrum of tetracyclines
gram -
gram+
chlamydias
rickettsias
side effect of tetracyclines
discolored teeth
spectrum of cephalosporins
gram -
gram +
the ________ ring inhibits peptidoglycan
b-lactamase
the b=lactamase ring inhibits peptidoglycan in _____ organisms
gram +
name the agents the inhibit cell wall synthesis
penicillin
cephalosporins
carbapenems
bacitracin
imipenem
agents that interfere with cell membrane function
polymyxins
tyrocidins
name the antimetabolites
sulfonamides
isoniazid
ethambutol
nitrofurantoin
name the agents that inhibit protein synthesis
streptomycin
gentamicin
tetracyclines
chloramphenicol
erythromycin
name the agents that inhibit nucleic acid synthesis
rifampin
quinolones
black hairy tongue is caused by a reaction to the drug _____
metronidazole
which antibiotic do we receive from penicillium notatum
penicillin
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces venezuelae
chloramphenicol
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces griseus
streptomycin
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces mediterranei
rifampsin
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces aureofaciens
tetracycline
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces orientalis
vancomycin
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces antibioticus
vidarabine
which antibiotic do we receive from streptomyces antibioticus
vidarabine
which antibiotic do we receive from micromonospora
gentamicin
which antibiotic do we receive from bacillus licheniformis
bacitracin
which antibiotic do we receive from bacillus brevis
tyrocidin
name the first generation penicillins
cephalothin
cefazolin
cephalexin
name the 2nd generation penicillins
cefuroxime
cefaclor
name the third generation penicillins
cephtazidime
ceftriaxone
name the 4th generation penicillins
cefepime
name the skin microflora
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus
lactobacillus species
propionibacterium acnes
pityrosporon ovale
name the mouth microflora
streptococcus salivarius
streptococcus pneumoniae
streptococcus mitis
streptococcus sanguis
streptococcus mutans
streptococcus epidermidis
streptococcus aureus
name the upper respiratory tract microflora
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus
streptococcus mitis
streptococcus pnemonia
moraxella catarrhalis
lactobacillus
haemophilus influenzae
name the intestine microflora
staphylococcus epidermidis
staphylococcus aureus
streptococcus mitis
enterococcus species
lactobacillus species
clostridium species
eubacterium limosum
name the internal tissues and organs that are normal microbe-free
middle and inner ear
sinuses
internal eye
bone marrow
muscles
brain and spinal cord
ovaries and testes
name the body fluids that are usually microbe free
blood
cerebrospinal fluid
saliva prior to secretion
urine in kidneys and bladder
semen prior to urethra
_____ disease: in which symptoms develop rapidly and that runs its course quickly
acute disease
______ disease: disease in which symptoms develop slowly and disease is slow to disappear
chronic
_____ disease: disease in which symptoms appear and or reappear long after infection
latent
______ infection: infection confined to a small region of the body
local
______ infection: infection is confined region from which pathogens travel to other regions of the body
focal infection
_______ infection: infection in which the pathogen is spread throughout the body - usually by blood or lymph
systemic
_______: presence and multiplication of pathogens in the blood
septicemia
______: presence but not multiplication of bacteria in blood
bacteremia
________: presence but not multiplication of viruses in blood
viremia
_______: presences of toxins in blood
toxemia
the ______ is the peak of disease
acme
______ period: no signs or symptoms
incubation
______ phase: vague symptoms
prodromal
_______ phase: most severe signs and symptoms
invasive
_______ phase: declining signs and symptoms
decline
what are the three formed elements of the blood
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets
_______ are known as red blood cells
erythrocytes
________ are known as white blood cells
leukocytes
name the types of white blood cells (5)
basophil
eosinophil
neutrophil
monocyte
lymphocyte
name the steps of phagocytosis
1. Adherence
2. Ingestion
3. Digestion
4. Exocytosis
name the parts of the lymphatic system
palatine tonsil
right lymphatic duct
thymus
thoracic duct
appendix
jugular vein
spleen
aggregated lymphatic follicle
all areas of the body are drained by the _____ and ______ ducts
lymphatic
thoracic
the _______ duct drains 70% of lymphatic system
thoracic
name the cells of the medulla
B cells
plasma cells
macrophages
name the cells of the inner cortex
t cells
dendritic cells
name the cells of the outer cortex
B cells
follicular dendritic cells
macrophages
name the pathway of lymph flow through a lymph node
1. afferent lymphatic vessel
2. subcapsular sinus
3. trabecular sinus
4. medullary sinus
5. effert lymphatic vessel
name the steps of inflammation and healing (11)
1. cut allows bacteria under skin
2. damaged cells release histamine and badykinin
3. capillaries dilate and bring more blood, skin becomes red and warm
4. capillaries become more permeable, allowing swelling
5. blood clotting occurs, scab forms
6. bacteria multiply in cut
7. phagocytes enter tissue by moving through blood vessels
8. phagocytic cells engulf tissue debris and bacteria
9. larger blood vessels dilate, increasing blood supply
10. dead cells and debris removed, epithelial cells begin to grow underneath scab
11. scar tissue replaces cells
when skin is penetrated, damaged cells release ______ and ______
histamine and badykinin
scar tissue is a type of _____ tissue
connective
_______ is a process when phagocytes move through the walls of blood vessels
dilapedisis
what is the cell source of alpha interfereon
leukocytes
what is the cell source of beta-interferon
fibroblasts
what is the cell source of gamma interferon
t lymphocytes and natural killer cells
name the steps by which interferons act
1. virus infects cell
2. signal sent to host cell nucleus
3. viral replication activates host cell gene for interferon
4. interferon is synthesized and released
5. interferon binds to surface of neighboring cell
6. cell is stimulated to produce antiviral protein
7. antiviral proteins block viral replication
name the physical barriers
hair
secretions
epithlium
name the phagocytes
fixed macrophage
neutrophil
free macrophage
eosinophil
monocyte
name the inflammatory responses
1. blood flow increased
2. phagocytes activated
3. capillary permeability increased
4. complement activated
5. clotting reaction walls off region
6. regional temperature increased
7. specific defenses activated
how does a fever happen
when body temperature rises about 37 degrees celcius in response to pyrogens
interferons are released and activated by ______ and ________
lymphocytes and marcophages
Peyers patches and nodules in digestive trace contains ______% B cells, and ____% T cells
60; 25
spleen contains ______% B cells and ______% T cells
45; 45
the lymph nodes contain _____%B cells and _____% T cells
20, 70
the thymus is _____% B cells and ______% T cells
1; 99
Stem cells --> thymus ---> ______ cell ---> lymph node
T
two types of T cells in bone marrow
Th - CD4
Th - CD8
stem cells --> adult bone marrow --> ____ cell ---> lymph node
B
the _______ is where the B cells develop in chicken
bursa of fabricius
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgG
1 unit
Yes
75-85
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgM
5
Yes
5-10
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgA
1 or 2
yes by alternative pathway
10
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgE
1, no, 0.005
number of units, activation of complement, and percentage of total blood for IgD
1
No
0.2
describe the structure of an antibody
4 polypeptide chains
two identical light chains (200 AA)
two identical heavy chains (400 AA)
cytotoxic T cells releases destructive enzymes called ______
perforin
name the types of T cells
helper
cytotoxic
memory
blood type A has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
A, Anti-B
blood type B has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
B, Anti-A
blood type AB has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
A and B; Neither anti-A nor anti-B
blood type O has ____ antigens on erythrocytes, and ______ antibodies in serum
neither A nor B; AntiA and AntiB
describe the cause and effect of hemolytic disease in newborns
Rh-negative mother, Rh-positive fetus - breaks in placental membrane at delivery allow Rh antigens to enter maternal circulation - Anti-Rh antibodies enter fetal circulation and the fetal red blood cells are destroyed
A positive tuberculin skin test will show:
measure 5mm or more raised skin
type I hypersensitivity =
immediate
main mediator of immediate hypersensitivity
IgE
reaction time of immediate hypersensitivity
seconds to 30 minutes
nature of reaction for immediate hypersensitivity
local wheal and flare, airway restriction, anaphylactic shock
therapy for immediate hypersensitivity
desensitization, antihistamines, steroids
type II hypersensitivity =
cytotoxic
main mediators of cytotoxic hypersensitivity
IgG, IgM
reaction time for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
variable, usually hours
nature of reaction for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
clumping of erythrocytes, cell destruction
therapy for cytotoxic hypersensitivity
steroids
type III hypersensitivity =
immune complex
main mediators for immune complex hypersensitivity
IgG, IgM
reaction time for immune complex hypersensitivity
3 to 8 hours
nature of reaction for immune complex hypersensitivity
acute inflammation effects
therapy for immune complex hypersensitivty
steroids
Type IV hypersensitivity =
cell-mediated
main mediators for cell-mediated hypersensitivity
t cells
reaction time for cell mediated hypersensitivity
24 hours to 4 or more weeks
nature of reaction for cell mediated hypersensitivity
cell-mediated cell destruction
therapy for cell-mediated hypersensitivity
steroids
streptococcus pyogenes causes the disease ____ and ____
scarlet fever, erysipelas
propionibacterium acnes caused the disease ___
acne
rubella virus causes ____
rubella
rubeola virus causes _____
measles
varicella-zoster virus causes ____ & ____
chickenpox; shingles
small pox virus causes ____
small pox
HPV causes ___
warts
mucor and rhizopus species causes _____
zygomycosis
cercariae of schistosomes causes ____
swimmers itch
neisseria gonorrhoeae causes _____
ophthalmia neonatorum
adenovirus causes _____
epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
enterovirus causes ____
acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis
loa loa causes ____
loaiasis
clostridium perfringens causes ___
gas gangrene
afipia felis and bartonella causes ____
cat scratch fever
streptobacillus moniliformis causes ___
rat bite fever
sarcoptes scabiei causes ____
scabies
fly larvae causes _____
myiasis