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391 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what is the type of toxin for step pyogenes
cause of rash in strep pyogenes
where does the rash start for strep pyogenes
chest, spreads to face
scarlett fever is caused by:
step pyogenes
gram stain of strep pyogenes
Gram +
is strep pyogenes catalase + or -
catalase -
is step pyogenes B-hemolytic
what type of agar does strep pyogenes grow on
blood agar
what does the capsule of strep pyogenes contribute to
prevents phagocytosis and opsonization
what factor in the cell wall of strep pyogenes allows for typing
carbohydrate A
what two proteins does strep pyogenes have and what do they contribute to
F protien binds to pharyngeal epithelium

M protien is for toxicity
in what organism can you find the F and M protien
strep pyogenes
how do the erythrogenic toxins of strep pyogenes contribute to the rash
they cause a cytokine storm; found on lysogenized phages
pastia's lines are characteristic of an infection with:
strep pyogenes
sandpaper skin is characteristic of an infection with:
strep pyogenes
circumoral palor and strawberry tongue are characteristic of an infection with
strep pyogenes
lancefield grouping is for:
lab diagnosis of strep pyogenes...colonies show agglutination with anti-group A antibody
rubeola causes..
genome of rubeola
- sense ssRNA
is rubeola highly contagious
for replication, what must rubeola virus bring with it
RNA-dependant RNA polymerase
where does rueola replicate
the envelope from rubeola comes from which host cell structure
plasm membrane
where would you find an H spike and an F spike
what does the H spike of rubeola contribute to
it binds to CD46 on the host cell
what does the F spike of rubeola contribute to
aids in uptake of virus by the host cell and induces cell-cell fusion to make a multinucleated giant cell
with what infection would you see cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis
rubeola (measles)
signs of measles
cough, coryza, conjuctivitis (with photophobia), fever
kopliks spots (blueish grey) are pathognomonic for what disease
measles (rubeola)
where does the rash for measles start
face, spreads to trunk
what is the cause of the rash seen in measles
T-cells targeting infected endothelial cells
with what disease is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis associated with, and why does it occur
measles....occurs up to 10 years after initial infection if 1) measles was acquired before 2 years of age and 2)if the virus was defective in the first place (missing the M protein). Signs are first behavioral changes, followed by loss of motor cotrol and coordination
what Ig do you look for in diagnosing measles
giving vitamin A to malnourished populations infected with this disease is a treatment
measle (rubeola)
what type of vaccine is administered to someone with measles
live attenuated
what is the genome of rubella
ss + sense linear RNA
if an organism has an envelope, is it susceptible to environmental damage
does the rubella virus need to bring an enzyme with it to replicate
yes, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
can rubella cross the placenta
yes (congenital reubella syndrome)
if someone has rubella, when can they shed it?
7 days before to 4 days after the rash
german measles is a sign of what infection
where does the rash for rubella begin
on the face and spreads to trunk
what is the cause of the rash seen in rubella
immune complex formation
what are the primary targets in the fetus if infected with congenital rubella syndrome
heart, eyes, CNS
what is the best way to diagnose rubella
via serology (IgM)
what type of vaccine do you administer to someone infected with rubella
live attenuated
what is a characteristic of the rash associated with rubella
it never becomes confluent
what is the genome of parvo B19
naked ss linear DNA (can be positive or negative sense)
what is the major transmission method of B19
fecal-oral and blood products
if a virus is naked, is it susceptible to environmental damage
no, because of the outer protein it has
in order for B19 to replicate, what must be occurring in the host
host cell must be undergoing DNA replication
What binds to the erythroid precursor receptor GLOBOSIDE (aka blood group P antigen)
parvo B19
with what infection is erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) associated with
parvo B19
A lacy, slapped cheek rash is associated with what infection
parvo B19
what type of rash would you see in someone affected with parvo B19
lacy, slapped cheek appearance
a patient with anemia may undergo an aplastic crisis if infected with what disease
parvo B19
hydrops fetalis can occur in someone infected with
parvo B19
a giant pronormoblast could be seen in microscopy of what infection
parvo B19
what is the genome of HHV-6
ds linear DNA
is HHV6 envoeloped
you better believe it
where does the HHV6 virus bud from, and how does it move
buds from nucleus, moves to other cells via fusion....can see inclusions in BOTH cytoplasm and nucleus
exanthem subitum (roseola) can be seen in a person infected with
what is the course of disease in HHV6
very high fever for 3-5 days, followed by roseola rash on fash
what is the cause of the rash seen in roseola, from HHV6
immune complex formation
what is the genome of varicella-zoster
ds linear DNA
dew drop on a rose petal is
varicella vesicular rash. starts on face and trunk and moves outward
what is the cause of vesicle formation in varicella
replication of the virus
what is Reye's Syndrome a complication of
varicella...children under 12 (associated with aspirin use)
how is a zoster infection different than a varicella infecion
zoster has pain associated with the rash
what is characteristic of the lesions seen in varicella
they are mixed (not all one type)
one should not use aspirin if infected with
Ramsay-Hunt syndrome affecting the ear is associated with..
smallpox is caused by an infection with
variola virus
what is unique about the replication of the variola virus
it is a ds linear DNA virus, but replicates in the cytoplasm (it brings all its enzymes with it)
what is the source of the 2 membranes seen in variola virus
first it buds from the golgi, then the host plasma membrane
what are Guarnieri's bodies
inclusion bodies seen in someone infected with the variola virus
what does the disease smallpox (variola) manifest as
prodromal period of flu-like symptoms, viremia through the blood, fever falls and rash begins on face, hands, feet, palms, and soles
a variola virus infection has what type of lesions...
deep, same stage lesions (not mixed)
varicella-zoster: mixed or same lesions
variola: mixed or same lesions
same lesions (deep)
major mechanism of transmission for coxsackie A16
genome of coxA16
+ ssRNA
hand, foot, and mouth disease is seen in a person infected with
where are the vesicular eruptions found in someone infected with coxA16
hands, palate, and feet
are antibiotics effective againts coxA16
gram and shape of actinomyces
gram + rod, filamentous and branching
where is actinomyces found
normal flora of the oral cavity and vagina of some women
is actinomyces opportunistic
you bet
if someone goes to the dentist, what is one infection they can get
actinomyces, via trauma or dental work
lumpy jaw can be seen in infection with
an acute infection with actinomyces causes...
a chronic actinomyces infection causes
abscess formation
yellow, sulfuric granules can be seen in an infection with
cutaneous expression may appear as single or multiple indurated swellings which become soft and supparate centrally in an infection with..
sulfur granules..
this organism grows as a whitish to rust-brown molar tooth
gram and shape of pasteurella multocida
gram - cocobacillus; exhibits bipolar staining
how does one get infected with pasteurella multocida
lick, bite, or scratch from an infected animal
hyaluronan capsule is a virulence factor for what organism
pasteurella multocida...aids adherence, is anti-phagocytic, protects against dessication
ToxA protein contributes to tissue necrosis for what organism
pasteurella multocida
where does the abscess form if someone is infected with pasteurella multocida
at the site of the bite
pastuerella multocida: soft or hard abscess
soft in chronic reaction
actinomyces: soft or hard abscess
hard in chronic reaction
is pasteurella multocida catalase + or -
+, thus it can detox O2 radicals
gram and shape of staph aureus
gram + cocci
can staph aureus ferment MSA
capsules are present on 90% of which organism
staph aureus
Protein A and teichoic acids are virulence factors for:
staph aureus. protien A inhibits antibody mediated clearing and blocks complement mediated opsonization
exfoliative toxins on a lysogenized phage is a toxigenic virulence factor for
staph aureus
toxic shock toxin acts as a superantigen and functions as a virulence factor for
staph aureus
coagulase (which causes clumping of neutrophils) acts as a virulence factor for
staph aureus
folliculits, furuncles, carbuncles, and impetigo (pustular eruptions) is the clinical expression of a cutaneous infection with
staph aureus
scalded skin syndrome and toxic shock syndrome are seen with an infection by
staph aureus
scalded skin syndrome's (ritter's disease) localized rash is due to
the toxin. it is made locally, then gets into and spreads via the blood
neonates are most susceptible to scalded skin syndrome because they express
GM 4 ganglioside
a positive nikolsky's sign (cutaneous blister with clear fluid) is indicative of an infections with
staph aureus
do staph aureus eruptions leave scars
what induces the production of the toxic shock toxin of staph aureus
quorum sensing
why are there certain strains of staph aureus that are resistant to methicillin
penicillin binding protien 2 is altered
gram and shape of pseudomonas
gram - bacilli
is pseudomonas oxidase + or -
is pseudomonas opportunistic
indeedally doo
pyocyanin and pyochelin are virulence factors for
pseudomonas aeruginosa
Exotoxin A contributes to tissue necrosis for what bug
pseudomonas aeuginosa
what does exotoxin A specifically do
inhibits protein synthesis
efflux pumps can be seen as a virulence factor for what organism
pseudomonas aeruginosa
ecthyma gangrenosa is associated with what infection
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
what is characteristic of ecthyma gangrenosa
it is a deep seeded ulcer (that can look black)
swimmer's ear is associated with
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
pseudomonas can cause eye infections such as
keratitis (corneal inflammation) and endopthalmitis (pain, edema, and blurred vision)
is pseudomonas aeuroginosa easily grown
you know it
what are characteristic of a culture of pseudomonas aeuroginosa
fruity aroma, flourescence under UV, produces oxidase, and is a lactose nonfermenter
a fruity aroma is associated with
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
a blue-green pigment is associated with
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
a gram (-) organism that is oxidase (+) is...(note: it is not common for a gram - organism to be oxidase +)
pseudomonas aeruginosa
candida albincans is a...
yeast fungus with pseudohyphae
where is candida albicans found
normal body flora in the skin, mouth, and vagina
what causes disease in an infection with candida albicans
overgrowth of this organism causes disease
candida albincans
people with diabetes are at risk of developing an infection with
candida albicans
where can candidiasis show up
oral thrush, diaper rash, between fingers, under nails
what organism grows on sabouraud dextrose agar
candida albicans
gram and shape of bartonella
intracellular gram - rod; no bipolar staining
main resevoir of bartonella
cat scratch fever is associated with
what is a finding in cat scratch fever associated with bartonella
painless swelling of axillary lymph nodes
if an animal handler shows very swollen axillary lymph nodes, you can suspect an infection with
bacillary angiomatosis is associated with
bacillary angiomatosis associated with bartonella is characterized by
proliferative, NEOVASCULAR, CUTANEOUS lesions....above the skin
are there antibiotics for cat scratch fever
no sir-ee bob
gram and shape of nocardia
gram + rod-shaped with branching
if an organism if branching and also partially acid-fast (mycolic acid) it is most likey
nocardia (not to be confused with actinomyces which also branches, but is not acid fast)
if an organism, such as nocardia, is acid fast, you will find
mycolic acid
is nocardia opportunistic
how does nocardia cause infection
commonly found in environment, it enters wounds along with soil
cutaneous nocardiosis is characterized by
sinus tracts, pustules, fever, and tender lymph nodes
direct aspirates of the skin would be a useful way to diagnose an infection with
how would you diagnose someone with nocardia
do an analysis of direct aspirate from the skin
what is the drug of choice to treat nocardia infections
if a colony grows dry, wrinkled, and very chalk-like appearance, you can assume it is
gram variable, pleomorphic, microaerophilic, and capnophilic are words to describe
what organism is a capnophile
who is at risk of getting infected with erysipelothrix
people who scale fish
erysipeloid is seen in
if someone has a very violet colored lesion and had handled animals, you can suspect
erysipelas is caused by
strep pyogenes
what is erysipelas
a systemic infection with distinct borders
what organism is resistant to sulfonamides
is strep pyogenas (group A step) B-hemolytic
is strep pyogenes (GAS) catalase + or -
carbohydrate A in cell walls is a virulence factor for
strep pyogenes (GAS)
what is the activity of streptococcal toxic shock toxin
acts as superantigen, suppresses IgM
step S and strep O antigen....tell me about them
on strep pyogenes (GAS)

O is immunogenic and causes hemolysis. it is oxygen labile and will cause deep seeded infections

S is not immunogenic, and will cause superficial infections
the ASO test is used to diagnose
step pyogenes (GAS)...looks for strep O toxin
which includes connective tissue damage: erysipelas or erysipeloid
what is impetigo
pustules which rupture and crust, NOT SYSTEMIC (no fever)
is impetigo systemic
no. would see it with a strep pyogenes GAS infection
Well defined borders and system: erysipelas or erysipeloid
erysipelas (seen in strep pyogenes GAS infection)
A violet-red appearance: erysipelas or erysipeloid
erysipeloid (seen in erysipelothrix infection_
Necrotizing fasciitis has fluid-filled bullae. what infection
strep pyogenes GAS
fluid-filled bullae and systemic. what infection
strep pyogenes GAS
if your patient experiences unexplained hypotensive shock, you should immediately think an infection with
strep pyogenes GAS
gram and shape of clostridium
gram + rod; forms spores; anaerobic
does clostridium form spores
are most clostridium infections endogenous or exogenous
exogenous (not from normal flora)
is clostridium anerobic or aerobic
anaerobic (infects necrotic wounds and deep wounds)
how does infection occur with clostridium
spores get into wounds
peopple with diabetes and poor circulation are at risk of getting infected with
alpha toxin (a phospholipase C) is a virulence factor for is hemolytic, but MAINLY CLEAVES PHOSPHOLIPIDS IN CELL MEMBRANE
what disease bullae are crepitant
what disease has gas-filled bullae
what causes gas gangrene
what grows on egg yolk agar
clostridium...EYA without antitoxin shows precipitation
the nagler reaction would be used to show infection with
clostridium (antitoxin againts lecithinase is included in media plate)
if egg yolk agar has antitoxin, no precipitation of
if egg yolk agar does not have antitoxin, there will be precipitation of
double-zone hemolysis on an agar plate demonstrates
clostridium...alpha and beta hemolysins
what shoes double zone hemolysis on blood agar and why
clostridium, because of alpha and beta hemoysins
gram and shape of vibrio
gram - curved rod that is motile
what type of water is vibrio found in
salt water
who is at risk for infections with vibrio
water sport players
which organism is halophilic
the RTX toxin is a virulence factor for what organism
what does the RTX toxin do for vibrio
forms pores in red blood cells of the host organism
what does an infection with vibrio look like
skin breakdown, ulceration, and necrotizing fasciitis; can infect the blood stream and casue septic shock
gram and shap of fransicella tularensis
gram negative rod that shows bipolar staining
what organism requires an external source of cysetein for growth
hunters are at risk for
phase variation of LPS is a virulence factor for
francisella; causes a DTH reaction because of the weak LPS
symptoms that arise from an infection with francisella are a result of
cell mediated hypersensitivity
ulceraoglandular and oculoglandular tularemias are due to
duh....francisella tularemia
what is ulceraoglandular tularemia
swelling of lymph nodes, kind lesions at bite site, ULCERATES with necrotic center and raised border
what grows on blood (chocolate) cysteine agar
what type of media would you grow francisella on
blood (chocolate) cysteine agar
what is leishmania
a flagellated protozoan
how is leishmania transmitted
via a sand fly vector
what are the life-cycle stages of leishmania
when vector bites animal, it is a PROMASTIGONE (no replicative)

after that, when vector bites us, we get AMASTIGOTE (replicative form)
what is the replicative life-cycle stage of leishmania called
oriental sore AKA
cutaneous leishmaniasis
cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by
red papule at bite (DTH), ulcerating skin sores
do cutaneous leshmaniasis leave scars
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (espundia) looks like
obliteration of the nasal septum and buccal cavity
presence of amastigote in specimens signifies infection with
gram and shape of MOTTS (mycobacterium other than tuberculosis)
Gram +, acid fast pleomorphic rod
what kind of water is MOTTS found in
salt water AND FRESH WATER
what is a virulence factor for MOTTS
trehalos dimycolate
trehalos dimycolate is a virulence factor for
TYPE I MOTTS infection
verrucal lesion (warts)
verrucal lesions are what type of MOTTS
TYPE II MOTTS infection
subcutaneous granuloma
subcutaneous granuloma is what type of MOTTS
TYPE III MOTTS infection
deep infection
deep infection is characteristic of what type of MOTTS
which type of MOTTS infection has a high infectious dose
TYPE IV MOTTS infection
non-caseating granuloma (local)
a local, non-caseating granuloma is characteristic of what MOTTS infection
what mycobacterium secies can cause infection from a contaminated aquarium and is very common amongst the MOTTS
Mycobacterium mariunum
what colonies exhibit very highly colored colonies
describe sporotrix schenckii
which is a dimorphic fungi: sporothrix or tenia-causing fungi
how is sporothrix transmitted
via traumatic implantation, like through a rose thorn
sporothrix can casue...
FIXED ulcerative lesions, and may progress to from sinus tracts and cord-like (hard) lymphatics
gram and shape of bacillus anthracis
gram + rod; forms spores
how is bacillus anthracis transmitted
via contact with or consumption of infected animal products
which organism has a polypeptide (amino acids) capsule
bacillus anthracis
what are the virulence factors for bacillus anthracis
edema factor (EF), lethal factor (LF), and Protective antigen. All are exotoxins

EF is an adenylate cyclase that causes an increas in cAMP and LF is a zinc metalloprotease that triggers apoptosis. EF and LF act as A-subunits. Protective antigen binds to target tissue and acts as a B-subunit
What does protective antigen do for bacillus anthracis
allows for binding to host (B subunit)
What do edema factor and lethal factor do for bacillus anthracis
act as the A subunit....increase cAMP and cause apoptosis, respectively
Clinical expression of bacillus anthrasis
erythematous papule, has a central necrosis, progresses to a black eschar

accompanied by painful lymphadenopathy and MASSIVE EDEMA
massive edema is characteristic of
bacillus anthracis
edema from a bacillus anthracis infection is due mainly to which exotoxin
lethal factor
how long is the treatment for bacillus anthracis
60 days because of it's ability to form spores
genome of orf virus
ds DNA
what is unique about the orf virus replicative style
it is dsDNA, but replicates in the cytoplasm
where is orf virus commmonly found
sheep and farm animals
with what is the orf virus often confused
a bite of the Brown recluse spider
where are the lesions found for an Orf virus
hands, arm, or face
are orf virus lesions found in groups or solitary
solitary, and they are red to violet
what is the only way to test for the presence of the orf virus
describe the neovascular lesion caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa
a papule below the skin and scooped out appearance
a papule below the skin with a scooped out lesion is characteristic of a neovascular lesion by which organism
pseudomonas aeruginosa
describe the neovascular lesion of bartonella hensalae
a papule above the skin
a papule above the skin is characteristic of a neovascular lesion caused by which organism
bartonella hensalae
tinea corporis
ringworm; on nonhairy, smooth skin
tinea pedis
on feet
tinea cruris
jock itch, groin
tinea capitis
scalp hair (endothrix in hair shaft, ectothrix on surface of hair)
tinea barbae
beard hair
tinea unguium
organisms causing tineas are monormorphic or dimorphic
is malassezia furfur monomorphic or dimorphic

UNIQUE because it is a yeast on the skin, and the mold is pathogenic
if the mold or yeast pathogenic for malassezia furfur
what is the virulence factor for malassezia furfur
azaleic acid (it degrades melanin)
azaleic acid is the virulence factor for which organism
malassezia furfur (it degrades melanin)
Tinea versicolor is characteristic of an infection with
malassezia furfur
what does an infection with malassezia furfur look like
hyper, but more commonly hypopigmented skin. infection of the stratum corneum
how does one diagnose malassezia furfur
KOH clears out our cells and you'll see the yeast and hyphae will be in the affected area
genome of HPV
ds circular DNA; nonenveloped
what proteins do damage for HPV
E6 binds to p53 and E7 binds to rB
what microscopic finding is characteristic of an HPV infection
what strains of HPV are bad
16 and 18
genome of molluscum contagiosum virus
ds linear, double envelope, replicate in cytoplasm
how is molluscum contagiousum transmitted
via contact sports or sharing towels or communal swimming pools
lesions that rand in color from skin color to white, yellow, and translucent are characteristic of
molluscum contagiosum (they are found on the lower abdomen)
genome of HSV
ds linear DNA, enveloped
gingivostomatitis is characteristic of an infection with
HSV infections shows up as
cold cores (gingivostomatitis) the 1st time, and genital herpes are multiple, small group
which HSV mainly causes oral problems upon reactivation
HSV1 mainly causes
oral problems
which HSV mainly causes genital problems
HSV2 usually causes
genital problems
multinucleated giant cells with COWDRY TYPE A inclusion bodies is diagnostic of an infection with
purulent conjunctivitis is caused by bacteria or virus?
watery conjunctivitis is caused by bacteria or virus
in regards to conjunctivitis, what does Haemophilus influenzae present with
purulent discharge; more of an annoyance than pain; pink eye
haemophilis grows on
chocolate agar
chocolate agar would be used to grow which organisms that causes pink eye
in regards to conjunctivities, what does adenovirus present with
water conjunctivitis
in regards to conjunctivitis, HSV type 1 shows what in the eyes
dendritic infiltrate
dendritic infiltrate to the eyes is characteristic of what organism...feels like a foreign body in the eye
HSV type 1
what is acanthamoeba castellani
an amoeba....duh
how does one get infected with acnthamoeba castellani
direct contact, in a hot tub
ring infiltrates with keratitis are characteristic of an infection with
acanthamoeba castellani
does it take a long time or short period of time to develop acanthamoeba castellani
long time....months; treatment is ineffective
how is chlamydia transmitted
usually via autoinocculation
describe chlyamydia trachomatis
obligate intracellular (does not make its own ATP). it is the leading cause of preventable ocular blindness
where is the infection for endophthalmitis
in the vitreous and aqueous humor. pressure builds up and blurd vision
what eye disease show no external symptoms
is bacillus cereus aerobic or anaerobic is found everywhere in the environment
what is the virulence factor fo bacillus cereus
a reacivation of cytomegalovirus causes what ocular problem
retinitis and chorioretinitis (damage is in the back of the eye and shows punched out scars)
what is the most common post-transplant infection of the eye
cytomegalovirus (seen via DFA)
Toxoplasm gondii
is a protozoa, found in normal GI of cat, can cross placenta, causes retinitis
Romana's sign is characteristic of infection with
Trypanosoma cruzi
what is Romana's sign
swollen face and eyes associated with Trypanosoma cruzi
where is trypanosoma cruzi found
in the feces of redovid bugs...can cause cardiovascular disease later on in life
what are signs
signs can be seen and can be measured:

fever, skin eruptions, chest sounds, swollen lymph nodes, granuloma, abscess
what are symptoms
symptoms are feelings, and the patient experience:

malaise, myalgias, soreness, headache, chills, cramps, nausea
selective media
rules out other organisms; doesn't allow some to grow, allows others to grow
differential media
something is added to the media that allows for the identification of one bacteria amongst others
salt inhibits everything from growing except staph
non-selective media
allows everything to grow (blood agar)
for extremely virulent organisms, how do you detect them
Direct flourescent antibody stain
biotyping is
looking for the presence or absence of biochemical markers, like enzymes
EMB (eosin methylene blue) agar detects what type of gram stains
gram -
bubbles on a catalase test
organism has catalse, and can break hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
clearn colonies on MacConkey agar mean
organisms is a non-fermenter
the use of monoclonal antibodies to identify antigens present of specific microorganisms is
serotyping...has nothing to do with patients serum
which has nothing to do with the patient's serum: serotyping or serolgical analysis
serotyping (use monoclonal antibodies to detect antigen)
the use of antibiotic disks is
the most common serolgical screening assay used is
if a person has seroconverted, what does that mean
he has antibodies to the pathogen, and thus indicates the person has been infected
what is the SAFEST method for diagnosing virulent microbes
Molecular Diagnosis (PCR, in situ hybridization)
eliminates ALL VIABLE MICROORGANISMS, including viruses
physical or chemical process used to destroy vegetative pathogens....just reduce the numbers
a bacteriostatic agent
prevents grown of bacteria (inhibits reproduction)
a bacteriocidal agent
destroys bacteria
what is selective toxicity
ability of a drug to kill the pathogen before it kills the host (high is good)
bacteria cell wall synthesis inhibitors
beta-lactam, glycopeptides
bacteria acid fast cell wall inhibitors
isoniazid, ethambutol
beta lactam is used to
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
glycopeptides are used to
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
augmentin is used to
act as a decoy as part of augmentin so beta-lactamase of the bacteria binds to it, and then penicilling kills the organism
inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis
aminoglycosides, tetracycline
aminoglycoside is used to
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
tetracycline is used to
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
inhibitors of bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
quinolone, rifampin andrifamycin
quinolone is used to
inhibit bacterial DNA replication
what drug do you use on an anaerobic organism
bacterial antimetabolites are
sulfonamides and trimethoprim
sulfonamides and trimethoprim are used as
bacterial antimetabolites
inhibitors of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane function
polymyxins and lipopeptides
polymixins and lipopeptides function to
inhibit function of bacterial cytoplasmic membranes
what drug inhibits viral attachtment
enfuviritide does what
prevents viral attachment
what drugs inhibit viral uncoating
amantadine and rimantatine
amantadine and rimantatine do what
inhibit viral uncoating
what drugs inhibit viral nucleic acid synthesis
AZT and acyclovir
AZT and acyclovir do what
inhibit viral nucleic acid synthesis
what inhibits viral protein synthesis
interferon does what
inhibits viral protein synthesis
what drug inhibits viral assembly
ritovir does what
inhibits viral assemble
what drug inhibits viral release
what is a viral prodrug
acyclovir and gancuclovir
what are examples of antifungal drugs
polyenes and azoles
polyenes and azoles do what
are antifungal
what drug inhibits parasitic DNA replication
chloroquine does what
inhibits parasitic DNA replication
what drug inhibits parasitic folic acid biosynthesis
pyrimethamine inhibits
parasitic folic acid biosythesis
what drug inhibits parasitic protein sythesis
paramomycin inhibits
parasictic protein synthesis
what drug inhibits parasitic transport
mebendazole inhibits
parasitic transport
what drugs inhibit parasitic neurmuscular action
pyrantel pamoate and peperazine
pyrantel pamoate and piperazine inhibit
parasitic neuromuscular action
attack rate is a measure of
infectivity in humans
case fatality rate is a measure of
virulence in humans
ability to detect people with the disease

low sensitivity results in many false negatives

if test +, you have it
if test -, you might still have it
ability to detect people without the disease

low specificity results in many false positives

if test -, don't have it
if test +, might still have it
incubation period
interval between time of exposure and development of symptoms
prodromal period
early feeling of "not well"
clinical disease
full expression of signs and symptoms
recovery period
remission of signs and symptoms; may also be a stage of disability
primary case
the individual(s) who bring the disease into the population
secondary case
people infected by the primary
point source outbreak
all exposed at one time; cases occur suddenly; cases occur WITHIN ONE INCUBATION PERIOD; steep upsloe, gradual downslope; associated with consumption of contaminated food or water
propagated outbreak
person to person outbreak; secondary cases appear one incubation period after peak of first wave; associated with disease transmitted via the respiratory route
primary prevention
prevent exposures and or infections (as opposed to secondary prevention which is blocking transmission and limitting progression)
secondary prevention
block transmission to other and limit progression (as opposed to primary prevention which is preventing exposure)