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391 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what is the type of toxin for step pyogenes
|
erythrotoxin
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cause of rash in strep pyogenes
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erythrotoxin
|
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where does the rash start for strep pyogenes
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chest, spreads to face
|
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scarlett fever is caused by:
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step pyogenes
|
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gram stain of strep pyogenes
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Gram +
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is strep pyogenes catalase + or -
|
catalase -
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is step pyogenes B-hemolytic
|
yes
|
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what type of agar does strep pyogenes grow on
|
blood agar
|
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what does the capsule of strep pyogenes contribute to
|
prevents phagocytosis and opsonization
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what factor in the cell wall of strep pyogenes allows for typing
|
carbohydrate A
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what two proteins does strep pyogenes have and what do they contribute to
|
F protien binds to pharyngeal epithelium
M protien is for toxicity |
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in what organism can you find the F and M protien
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strep pyogenes
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how do the erythrogenic toxins of strep pyogenes contribute to the rash
|
they cause a cytokine storm; found on lysogenized phages
|
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pastia's lines are characteristic of an infection with:
|
strep pyogenes
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sandpaper skin is characteristic of an infection with:
|
strep pyogenes
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circumoral palor and strawberry tongue are characteristic of an infection with
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strep pyogenes
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lancefield grouping is for:
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lab diagnosis of strep pyogenes...colonies show agglutination with anti-group A antibody
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rubeola causes..
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measles
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genome of rubeola
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- sense ssRNA
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is rubeola highly contagious
|
yes
|
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for replication, what must rubeola virus bring with it
|
RNA-dependant RNA polymerase
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where does rueola replicate
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cytoplasm
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the envelope from rubeola comes from which host cell structure
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plasm membrane
|
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where would you find an H spike and an F spike
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rubeola
|
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what does the H spike of rubeola contribute to
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it binds to CD46 on the host cell
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what does the F spike of rubeola contribute to
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aids in uptake of virus by the host cell and induces cell-cell fusion to make a multinucleated giant cell
|
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with what infection would you see cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis
|
rubeola (measles)
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signs of measles
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cough, coryza, conjuctivitis (with photophobia), fever
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kopliks spots (blueish grey) are pathognomonic for what disease
|
measles (rubeola)
|
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where does the rash for measles start
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face, spreads to trunk
|
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what is the cause of the rash seen in measles
|
T-cells targeting infected endothelial cells
|
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with what disease is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis associated with, and why does it occur
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measles....occurs up to 10 years after initial infection if 1) measles was acquired before 2 years of age and 2)if the virus was defective in the first place (missing the M protein). Signs are first behavioral changes, followed by loss of motor cotrol and coordination
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what Ig do you look for in diagnosing measles
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IgM
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giving vitamin A to malnourished populations infected with this disease is a treatment
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measle (rubeola)
|
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what type of vaccine is administered to someone with measles
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live attenuated
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what is the genome of rubella
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ss + sense linear RNA
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if an organism has an envelope, is it susceptible to environmental damage
|
yes
|
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does the rubella virus need to bring an enzyme with it to replicate
|
yes, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
|
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can rubella cross the placenta
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yes (congenital reubella syndrome)
|
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if someone has rubella, when can they shed it?
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7 days before to 4 days after the rash
|
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german measles is a sign of what infection
|
rubella
|
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where does the rash for rubella begin
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on the face and spreads to trunk
|
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what is the cause of the rash seen in rubella
|
immune complex formation
|
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what are the primary targets in the fetus if infected with congenital rubella syndrome
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heart, eyes, CNS
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what is the best way to diagnose rubella
|
via serology (IgM)
|
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what type of vaccine do you administer to someone infected with rubella
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live attenuated
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what is a characteristic of the rash associated with rubella
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it never becomes confluent
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what is the genome of parvo B19
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naked ss linear DNA (can be positive or negative sense)
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what is the major transmission method of B19
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fecal-oral and blood products
|
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if a virus is naked, is it susceptible to environmental damage
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no, because of the outer protein it has
|
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in order for B19 to replicate, what must be occurring in the host
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host cell must be undergoing DNA replication
|
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What binds to the erythroid precursor receptor GLOBOSIDE (aka blood group P antigen)
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parvo B19
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with what infection is erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) associated with
|
parvo B19
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A lacy, slapped cheek rash is associated with what infection
|
parvo B19
|
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what type of rash would you see in someone affected with parvo B19
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lacy, slapped cheek appearance
|
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a patient with anemia may undergo an aplastic crisis if infected with what disease
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parvo B19
|
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hydrops fetalis can occur in someone infected with
|
parvo B19
|
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a giant pronormoblast could be seen in microscopy of what infection
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parvo B19
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what is the genome of HHV-6
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ds linear DNA
|
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is HHV6 envoeloped
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you better believe it
|
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where does the HHV6 virus bud from, and how does it move
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buds from nucleus, moves to other cells via fusion....can see inclusions in BOTH cytoplasm and nucleus
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exanthem subitum (roseola) can be seen in a person infected with
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HHV6
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what is the course of disease in HHV6
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very high fever for 3-5 days, followed by roseola rash on fash
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what is the cause of the rash seen in roseola, from HHV6
|
immune complex formation
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what is the genome of varicella-zoster
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ds linear DNA
|
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dew drop on a rose petal is
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varicella vesicular rash. starts on face and trunk and moves outward
|
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what is the cause of vesicle formation in varicella
|
replication of the virus
|
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what is Reye's Syndrome a complication of
|
varicella...children under 12 (associated with aspirin use)
|
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how is a zoster infection different than a varicella infecion
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zoster has pain associated with the rash
|
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what is characteristic of the lesions seen in varicella
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they are mixed (not all one type)
|
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one should not use aspirin if infected with
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varicella-zoster
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Ramsay-Hunt syndrome affecting the ear is associated with..
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varicella-zoster
|
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smallpox is caused by an infection with
|
variola virus
|
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what is unique about the replication of the variola virus
|
it is a ds linear DNA virus, but replicates in the cytoplasm (it brings all its enzymes with it)
|
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what is the source of the 2 membranes seen in variola virus
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first it buds from the golgi, then the host plasma membrane
|
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what are Guarnieri's bodies
|
inclusion bodies seen in someone infected with the variola virus
|
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what does the disease smallpox (variola) manifest as
|
prodromal period of flu-like symptoms, viremia through the blood, fever falls and rash begins on face, hands, feet, palms, and soles
|
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a variola virus infection has what type of lesions...
|
deep, same stage lesions (not mixed)
|
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varicella-zoster: mixed or same lesions
|
mixed
|
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variola: mixed or same lesions
|
same lesions (deep)
|
|
major mechanism of transmission for coxsackie A16
|
fecal-oral
|
|
genome of coxA16
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+ ssRNA
|
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hand, foot, and mouth disease is seen in a person infected with
|
coxA16
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where are the vesicular eruptions found in someone infected with coxA16
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hands, palate, and feet
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are antibiotics effective againts coxA16
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negatory
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gram and shape of actinomyces
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gram + rod, filamentous and branching
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where is actinomyces found
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normal flora of the oral cavity and vagina of some women
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is actinomyces opportunistic
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you bet
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if someone goes to the dentist, what is one infection they can get
|
actinomyces, via trauma or dental work
|
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lumpy jaw can be seen in infection with
|
actinomyces
|
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an acute infection with actinomyces causes...
|
cellulitis
|
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a chronic actinomyces infection causes
|
abscess formation
|
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yellow, sulfuric granules can be seen in an infection with
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actinomyces
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cutaneous expression may appear as single or multiple indurated swellings which become soft and supparate centrally in an infection with..
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actinomyces
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sulfur granules..
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actinomyces
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this organism grows as a whitish to rust-brown molar tooth
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actinomyces
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gram and shape of pasteurella multocida
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gram - cocobacillus; exhibits bipolar staining
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how does one get infected with pasteurella multocida
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lick, bite, or scratch from an infected animal
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hyaluronan capsule is a virulence factor for what organism
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pasteurella multocida...aids adherence, is anti-phagocytic, protects against dessication
|
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ToxA protein contributes to tissue necrosis for what organism
|
pasteurella multocida
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where does the abscess form if someone is infected with pasteurella multocida
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at the site of the bite
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pastuerella multocida: soft or hard abscess
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soft in chronic reaction
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actinomyces: soft or hard abscess
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hard in chronic reaction
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is pasteurella multocida catalase + or -
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+, thus it can detox O2 radicals
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gram and shape of staph aureus
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gram + cocci
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can staph aureus ferment MSA
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yes
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capsules are present on 90% of which organism
|
staph aureus
|
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Protein A and teichoic acids are virulence factors for:
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staph aureus. protien A inhibits antibody mediated clearing and blocks complement mediated opsonization
|
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exfoliative toxins on a lysogenized phage is a toxigenic virulence factor for
|
staph aureus
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toxic shock toxin acts as a superantigen and functions as a virulence factor for
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staph aureus
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coagulase (which causes clumping of neutrophils) acts as a virulence factor for
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staph aureus
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folliculits, furuncles, carbuncles, and impetigo (pustular eruptions) is the clinical expression of a cutaneous infection with
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staph aureus
|
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scalded skin syndrome and toxic shock syndrome are seen with an infection by
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staph aureus
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scalded skin syndrome's (ritter's disease) localized rash is due to
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the toxin. it is made locally, then gets into and spreads via the blood
|
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neonates are most susceptible to scalded skin syndrome because they express
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GM 4 ganglioside
|
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a positive nikolsky's sign (cutaneous blister with clear fluid) is indicative of an infections with
|
staph aureus
|
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do staph aureus eruptions leave scars
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no
|
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what induces the production of the toxic shock toxin of staph aureus
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quorum sensing
|
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why are there certain strains of staph aureus that are resistant to methicillin
|
penicillin binding protien 2 is altered
|
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gram and shape of pseudomonas
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gram - bacilli
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is pseudomonas oxidase + or -
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+
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is pseudomonas opportunistic
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indeedally doo
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pyocyanin and pyochelin are virulence factors for
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
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Exotoxin A contributes to tissue necrosis for what bug
|
pseudomonas aeuginosa
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what does exotoxin A specifically do
|
inhibits protein synthesis
|
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efflux pumps can be seen as a virulence factor for what organism
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
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ecthyma gangrenosa is associated with what infection
|
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
|
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what is characteristic of ecthyma gangrenosa
|
it is a deep seeded ulcer (that can look black)
|
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swimmer's ear is associated with
|
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
|
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pseudomonas can cause eye infections such as
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keratitis (corneal inflammation) and endopthalmitis (pain, edema, and blurred vision)
|
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is pseudomonas aeuroginosa easily grown
|
you know it
|
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what are characteristic of a culture of pseudomonas aeuroginosa
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fruity aroma, flourescence under UV, produces oxidase, and is a lactose nonfermenter
|
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a fruity aroma is associated with
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pseudomonas aeuroginosa
|
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a blue-green pigment is associated with
|
pseudomonas aeuroginosa
|
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a gram (-) organism that is oxidase (+) is...(note: it is not common for a gram - organism to be oxidase +)
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
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candida albincans is a...
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yeast fungus with pseudohyphae
|
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where is candida albicans found
|
normal body flora in the skin, mouth, and vagina
|
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what causes disease in an infection with candida albicans
|
overgrowth
|
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overgrowth of this organism causes disease
|
candida albincans
|
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people with diabetes are at risk of developing an infection with
|
candida albicans
|
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where can candidiasis show up
|
oral thrush, diaper rash, between fingers, under nails
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what organism grows on sabouraud dextrose agar
|
candida albicans
|
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gram and shape of bartonella
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intracellular gram - rod; no bipolar staining
|
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main resevoir of bartonella
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cats
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cat scratch fever is associated with
|
bartonella
|
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what is a finding in cat scratch fever associated with bartonella
|
painless swelling of axillary lymph nodes
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if an animal handler shows very swollen axillary lymph nodes, you can suspect an infection with
|
bartonella
|
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bacillary angiomatosis is associated with
|
bartonella
|
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bacillary angiomatosis associated with bartonella is characterized by
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proliferative, NEOVASCULAR, CUTANEOUS lesions....above the skin
|
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are there antibiotics for cat scratch fever
|
no sir-ee bob
|
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gram and shape of nocardia
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gram + rod-shaped with branching
|
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if an organism if branching and also partially acid-fast (mycolic acid) it is most likey
|
nocardia (not to be confused with actinomyces which also branches, but is not acid fast)
|
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if an organism, such as nocardia, is acid fast, you will find
|
mycolic acid
|
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is nocardia opportunistic
|
yahoo!!
|
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how does nocardia cause infection
|
commonly found in environment, it enters wounds along with soil
|
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cutaneous nocardiosis is characterized by
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sinus tracts, pustules, fever, and tender lymph nodes
|
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direct aspirates of the skin would be a useful way to diagnose an infection with
|
nocardia
|
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how would you diagnose someone with nocardia
|
do an analysis of direct aspirate from the skin
|
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what is the drug of choice to treat nocardia infections
|
sulfonamides
|
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if a colony grows dry, wrinkled, and very chalk-like appearance, you can assume it is
|
nocardia
|
|
gram variable, pleomorphic, microaerophilic, and capnophilic are words to describe
|
erysipelothrix
|
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what organism is a capnophile
|
erysipelothrix
|
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who is at risk of getting infected with erysipelothrix
|
people who scale fish
|
|
erysipeloid is seen in
|
erysipelothrix
|
|
if someone has a very violet colored lesion and had handled animals, you can suspect
|
erysipelothrix
|
|
erysipelas is caused by
|
strep pyogenes
|
|
what is erysipelas
|
a systemic infection with distinct borders
|
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what organism is resistant to sulfonamides
|
erysipelothrix
|
|
is strep pyogenas (group A step) B-hemolytic
|
yes
|
|
is strep pyogenes (GAS) catalase + or -
|
-
|
|
carbohydrate A in cell walls is a virulence factor for
|
strep pyogenes (GAS)
|
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what is the activity of streptococcal toxic shock toxin
|
acts as superantigen, suppresses IgM
|
|
step S and strep O antigen....tell me about them
|
on strep pyogenes (GAS)
O is immunogenic and causes hemolysis. it is oxygen labile and will cause deep seeded infections S is not immunogenic, and will cause superficial infections |
|
the ASO test is used to diagnose
|
step pyogenes (GAS)...looks for strep O toxin
|
|
which includes connective tissue damage: erysipelas or erysipeloid
|
erysipelas
|
|
what is impetigo
|
pustules which rupture and crust, NOT SYSTEMIC (no fever)
|
|
is impetigo systemic
|
no. would see it with a strep pyogenes GAS infection
|
|
Well defined borders and system: erysipelas or erysipeloid
|
erysipelas (seen in strep pyogenes GAS infection)
|
|
A violet-red appearance: erysipelas or erysipeloid
|
erysipeloid (seen in erysipelothrix infection_
|
|
Necrotizing fasciitis has fluid-filled bullae. what infection
|
strep pyogenes GAS
|
|
fluid-filled bullae and systemic. what infection
|
strep pyogenes GAS
|
|
if your patient experiences unexplained hypotensive shock, you should immediately think an infection with
|
strep pyogenes GAS
|
|
gram and shape of clostridium
|
gram + rod; forms spores; anaerobic
|
|
does clostridium form spores
|
yes
|
|
are most clostridium infections endogenous or exogenous
|
exogenous (not from normal flora)
|
|
is clostridium anerobic or aerobic
|
anaerobic (infects necrotic wounds and deep wounds)
|
|
how does infection occur with clostridium
|
spores get into wounds
|
|
peopple with diabetes and poor circulation are at risk of getting infected with
|
clostridium
|
|
alpha toxin (a phospholipase C) is a virulence factor for
|
clostridium...it is hemolytic, but MAINLY CLEAVES PHOSPHOLIPIDS IN CELL MEMBRANE
|
|
what disease bullae are crepitant
|
clostridium
|
|
what disease has gas-filled bullae
|
clostridium
|
|
what causes gas gangrene
|
costridium
|
|
what grows on egg yolk agar
|
clostridium...EYA without antitoxin shows precipitation
|
|
the nagler reaction would be used to show infection with
|
clostridium (antitoxin againts lecithinase is included in media plate)
|
|
if egg yolk agar has antitoxin, no precipitation of
|
clostridium
|
|
if egg yolk agar does not have antitoxin, there will be precipitation of
|
clostridium
|
|
double-zone hemolysis on an agar plate demonstrates
|
clostridium...alpha and beta hemolysins
|
|
what shoes double zone hemolysis on blood agar and why
|
clostridium, because of alpha and beta hemoysins
|
|
gram and shape of vibrio
|
gram - curved rod that is motile
|
|
what type of water is vibrio found in
|
salt water
|
|
who is at risk for infections with vibrio
|
water sport players
|
|
which organism is halophilic
|
vibrio
|
|
the RTX toxin is a virulence factor for what organism
|
vibrio
|
|
what does the RTX toxin do for vibrio
|
forms pores in red blood cells of the host organism
|
|
what does an infection with vibrio look like
|
skin breakdown, ulceration, and necrotizing fasciitis; can infect the blood stream and casue septic shock
|
|
gram and shap of fransicella tularensis
|
gram negative rod that shows bipolar staining
|
|
what organism requires an external source of cysetein for growth
|
francisella
|
|
hunters are at risk for
|
francisella
|
|
phase variation of LPS is a virulence factor for
|
francisella; causes a DTH reaction because of the weak LPS
|
|
symptoms that arise from an infection with francisella are a result of
|
cell mediated hypersensitivity
|
|
ulceraoglandular and oculoglandular tularemias are due to
|
duh....francisella tularemia
|
|
what is ulceraoglandular tularemia
|
swelling of lymph nodes, kind lesions at bite site, ULCERATES with necrotic center and raised border
|
|
what grows on blood (chocolate) cysteine agar
|
francisella
|
|
what type of media would you grow francisella on
|
blood (chocolate) cysteine agar
|
|
what is leishmania
|
a flagellated protozoan
|
|
how is leishmania transmitted
|
via a sand fly vector
|
|
what are the life-cycle stages of leishmania
|
when vector bites animal, it is a PROMASTIGONE (no replicative)
after that, when vector bites us, we get AMASTIGOTE (replicative form) |
|
what is the replicative life-cycle stage of leishmania called
|
AMASTIGOTE
|
|
oriental sore AKA
|
cutaneous leishmaniasis
|
|
cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by
|
red papule at bite (DTH), ulcerating skin sores
|
|
do cutaneous leshmaniasis leave scars
|
YES
|
|
Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis (espundia) looks like
|
obliteration of the nasal septum and buccal cavity
|
|
presence of amastigote in specimens signifies infection with
|
leishmania
|
|
gram and shape of MOTTS (mycobacterium other than tuberculosis)
|
Gram +, acid fast pleomorphic rod
|
|
what kind of water is MOTTS found in
|
salt water AND FRESH WATER
|
|
what is a virulence factor for MOTTS
|
trehalos dimycolate
|
|
trehalos dimycolate is a virulence factor for
|
MOTTS
|
|
TYPE I MOTTS infection
|
verrucal lesion (warts)
|
|
verrucal lesions are what type of MOTTS
|
TYPE I
|
|
TYPE II MOTTS infection
|
subcutaneous granuloma
|
|
subcutaneous granuloma is what type of MOTTS
|
TYPE II
|
|
TYPE III MOTTS infection
|
deep infection
|
|
deep infection is characteristic of what type of MOTTS
|
TYPE III
|
|
which type of MOTTS infection has a high infectious dose
|
TYPE II
|
|
TYPE IV MOTTS infection
|
non-caseating granuloma (local)
|
|
a local, non-caseating granuloma is characteristic of what MOTTS infection
|
TYPE IV
|
|
what mycobacterium secies can cause infection from a contaminated aquarium and is very common amongst the MOTTS
|
Mycobacterium mariunum
|
|
what colonies exhibit very highly colored colonies
|
MOTTS
|
|
describe sporotrix schenckii
|
DIMORPHIC fungi
|
|
which is a dimorphic fungi: sporothrix or tenia-causing fungi
|
sporothrix
|
|
how is sporothrix transmitted
|
via traumatic implantation, like through a rose thorn
|
|
sporothrix can casue...
|
FIXED ulcerative lesions, and may progress to from sinus tracts and cord-like (hard) lymphatics
|
|
gram and shape of bacillus anthracis
|
gram + rod; forms spores
|
|
how is bacillus anthracis transmitted
|
via contact with or consumption of infected animal products
|
|
which organism has a polypeptide (amino acids) capsule
|
bacillus anthracis
|
|
what are the virulence factors for bacillus anthracis
|
edema factor (EF), lethal factor (LF), and Protective antigen. All are exotoxins
EF is an adenylate cyclase that causes an increas in cAMP and LF is a zinc metalloprotease that triggers apoptosis. EF and LF act as A-subunits. Protective antigen binds to target tissue and acts as a B-subunit |
|
What does protective antigen do for bacillus anthracis
|
allows for binding to host (B subunit)
|
|
What do edema factor and lethal factor do for bacillus anthracis
|
act as the A subunit....increase cAMP and cause apoptosis, respectively
|
|
Clinical expression of bacillus anthrasis
|
erythematous papule, has a central necrosis, progresses to a black eschar
accompanied by painful lymphadenopathy and MASSIVE EDEMA |
|
massive edema is characteristic of
|
bacillus anthracis
|
|
edema from a bacillus anthracis infection is due mainly to which exotoxin
|
lethal factor
|
|
how long is the treatment for bacillus anthracis
|
60 days because of it's ability to form spores
|
|
genome of orf virus
|
ds DNA
|
|
what is unique about the orf virus replicative style
|
it is dsDNA, but replicates in the cytoplasm
|
|
where is orf virus commmonly found
|
sheep and farm animals
|
|
with what is the orf virus often confused
|
a bite of the Brown recluse spider
|
|
where are the lesions found for an Orf virus
|
hands, arm, or face
|
|
are orf virus lesions found in groups or solitary
|
solitary, and they are red to violet
|
|
what is the only way to test for the presence of the orf virus
|
PCR
|
|
describe the neovascular lesion caused by pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
a papule below the skin and scooped out appearance
|
|
a papule below the skin with a scooped out lesion is characteristic of a neovascular lesion by which organism
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
describe the neovascular lesion of bartonella hensalae
|
a papule above the skin
|
|
a papule above the skin is characteristic of a neovascular lesion caused by which organism
|
bartonella hensalae
|
|
tinea corporis
|
ringworm; on nonhairy, smooth skin
|
|
tinea pedis
|
on feet
|
|
tinea cruris
|
jock itch, groin
|
|
tinea capitis
|
scalp hair (endothrix in hair shaft, ectothrix on surface of hair)
|
|
tinea barbae
|
beard hair
|
|
tinea unguium
|
nail
|
|
organisms causing tineas are monormorphic or dimorphic
|
monomorphic
|
|
is malassezia furfur monomorphic or dimorphic
|
dimorphic
UNIQUE because it is a yeast on the skin, and the mold is pathogenic |
|
if the mold or yeast pathogenic for malassezia furfur
|
mold
|
|
what is the virulence factor for malassezia furfur
|
azaleic acid (it degrades melanin)
|
|
azaleic acid is the virulence factor for which organism
|
malassezia furfur (it degrades melanin)
|
|
Tinea versicolor is characteristic of an infection with
|
malassezia furfur
|
|
what does an infection with malassezia furfur look like
|
hyper, but more commonly hypopigmented skin. infection of the stratum corneum
|
|
how does one diagnose malassezia furfur
|
KOH clears out our cells and you'll see the yeast and hyphae will be in the affected area
|
|
genome of HPV
|
ds circular DNA; nonenveloped
|
|
what proteins do damage for HPV
|
E6 binds to p53 and E7 binds to rB
|
|
what microscopic finding is characteristic of an HPV infection
|
koilocyte
|
|
what strains of HPV are bad
|
16 and 18
|
|
genome of molluscum contagiosum virus
|
ds linear, double envelope, replicate in cytoplasm
|
|
how is molluscum contagiousum transmitted
|
via contact sports or sharing towels or communal swimming pools
|
|
lesions that rand in color from skin color to white, yellow, and translucent are characteristic of
|
molluscum contagiosum (they are found on the lower abdomen)
|
|
genome of HSV
|
ds linear DNA, enveloped
|
|
gingivostomatitis is characteristic of an infection with
|
HSV
|
|
HSV infections shows up as
|
cold cores (gingivostomatitis) the 1st time, and genital herpes are multiple, small group
|
|
which HSV mainly causes oral problems upon reactivation
|
HSV 1
|
|
HSV1 mainly causes
|
oral problems
|
|
which HSV mainly causes genital problems
|
HSV2
|
|
HSV2 usually causes
|
genital problems
|
|
multinucleated giant cells with COWDRY TYPE A inclusion bodies is diagnostic of an infection with
|
HSV
|
|
purulent conjunctivitis is caused by bacteria or virus?
|
bateria
|
|
watery conjunctivitis is caused by bacteria or virus
|
virus
|
|
in regards to conjunctivitis, what does Haemophilus influenzae present with
|
purulent discharge; more of an annoyance than pain; pink eye
|
|
haemophilis grows on
|
chocolate agar
|
|
chocolate agar would be used to grow which organisms that causes pink eye
|
haemophilis
|
|
in regards to conjunctivities, what does adenovirus present with
|
water conjunctivitis
|
|
in regards to conjunctivitis, HSV type 1 shows what in the eyes
|
dendritic infiltrate
|
|
dendritic infiltrate to the eyes is characteristic of what organism...feels like a foreign body in the eye
|
HSV type 1
|
|
what is acanthamoeba castellani
|
an amoeba....duh
|
|
how does one get infected with acnthamoeba castellani
|
direct contact, in a hot tub
|
|
ring infiltrates with keratitis are characteristic of an infection with
|
acanthamoeba castellani
|
|
does it take a long time or short period of time to develop acanthamoeba castellani
|
long time....months; treatment is ineffective
|
|
how is chlamydia transmitted
|
usually via autoinocculation
|
|
describe chlyamydia trachomatis
|
obligate intracellular (does not make its own ATP). it is the leading cause of preventable ocular blindness
|
|
where is the infection for endophthalmitis
|
in the vitreous and aqueous humor. pressure builds up and blurd vision
|
|
what eye disease show no external symptoms
|
endophthalmitis
|
|
is bacillus cereus aerobic or anaerobic
|
aerobic...it is found everywhere in the environment
|
|
what is the virulence factor fo bacillus cereus
|
ceriolysin
|
|
a reacivation of cytomegalovirus causes what ocular problem
|
retinitis and chorioretinitis (damage is in the back of the eye and shows punched out scars)
|
|
what is the most common post-transplant infection of the eye
|
cytomegalovirus (seen via DFA)
|
|
Toxoplasm gondii
|
is a protozoa, found in normal GI of cat, can cross placenta, causes retinitis
|
|
Romana's sign is characteristic of infection with
|
Trypanosoma cruzi
|
|
what is Romana's sign
|
swollen face and eyes associated with Trypanosoma cruzi
|
|
where is trypanosoma cruzi found
|
in the feces of redovid bugs...can cause cardiovascular disease later on in life
|
|
what are signs
|
signs can be seen and can be measured:
fever, skin eruptions, chest sounds, swollen lymph nodes, granuloma, abscess |
|
what are symptoms
|
symptoms are feelings, and the patient experience:
malaise, myalgias, soreness, headache, chills, cramps, nausea |
|
selective media
|
rules out other organisms; doesn't allow some to grow, allows others to grow
|
|
differential media
|
something is added to the media that allows for the identification of one bacteria amongst others
|
|
MSA
|
salt inhibits everything from growing except staph
|
|
non-selective media
|
allows everything to grow (blood agar)
|
|
for extremely virulent organisms, how do you detect them
|
Direct flourescent antibody stain
|
|
biotyping is
|
looking for the presence or absence of biochemical markers, like enzymes
|
|
EMB (eosin methylene blue) agar detects what type of gram stains
|
gram -
|
|
bubbles on a catalase test
|
organism has catalse, and can break hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen
|
|
clearn colonies on MacConkey agar mean
|
organisms is a non-fermenter
|
|
the use of monoclonal antibodies to identify antigens present of specific microorganisms is
|
serotyping...has nothing to do with patients serum
|
|
which has nothing to do with the patient's serum: serotyping or serolgical analysis
|
serotyping (use monoclonal antibodies to detect antigen)
|
|
the use of antibiotic disks is
|
antibiograms
|
|
the most common serolgical screening assay used is
|
ELISA
|
|
if a person has seroconverted, what does that mean
|
he has antibodies to the pathogen, and thus indicates the person has been infected
|
|
what is the SAFEST method for diagnosing virulent microbes
|
Molecular Diagnosis (PCR, in situ hybridization)
|
|
sterilization
|
eliminates ALL VIABLE MICROORGANISMS, including viruses
|
|
disinfection
|
physical or chemical process used to destroy vegetative pathogens....just reduce the numbers
|
|
a bacteriostatic agent
|
prevents grown of bacteria (inhibits reproduction)
|
|
a bacteriocidal agent
|
destroys bacteria
|
|
what is selective toxicity
|
ability of a drug to kill the pathogen before it kills the host (high is good)
|
|
bacteria cell wall synthesis inhibitors
|
beta-lactam, glycopeptides
|
|
bacteria acid fast cell wall inhibitors
|
isoniazid, ethambutol
|
|
beta lactam is used to
|
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
|
|
glycopeptides are used to
|
inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
|
|
augmentin is used to
|
act as a decoy as part of augmentin so beta-lactamase of the bacteria binds to it, and then penicilling kills the organism
|
|
inhibitors of bacterial protein synthesis
|
aminoglycosides, tetracycline
|
|
aminoglycoside is used to
|
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
|
|
tetracycline is used to
|
inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
|
|
inhibitors of bacterial nucleic acid synthesis
|
quinolone, rifampin andrifamycin
|
|
quinolone is used to
|
inhibit bacterial DNA replication
|
|
what drug do you use on an anaerobic organism
|
metronidazole
|
|
bacterial antimetabolites are
|
sulfonamides and trimethoprim
|
|
sulfonamides and trimethoprim are used as
|
bacterial antimetabolites
|
|
inhibitors of bacterial cytoplasmic membrane function
|
polymyxins and lipopeptides
|
|
polymixins and lipopeptides function to
|
inhibit function of bacterial cytoplasmic membranes
|
|
what drug inhibits viral attachtment
|
enfuviritide
|
|
enfuviritide does what
|
prevents viral attachment
|
|
what drugs inhibit viral uncoating
|
amantadine and rimantatine
|
|
amantadine and rimantatine do what
|
inhibit viral uncoating
|
|
what drugs inhibit viral nucleic acid synthesis
|
AZT and acyclovir
|
|
AZT and acyclovir do what
|
inhibit viral nucleic acid synthesis
|
|
what inhibits viral protein synthesis
|
interferon
|
|
interferon does what
|
inhibits viral protein synthesis
|
|
what drug inhibits viral assembly
|
ritovir
|
|
ritovir does what
|
inhibits viral assemble
|
|
what drug inhibits viral release
|
zanamivir
|
|
what is a viral prodrug
|
acyclovir and gancuclovir
|
|
what are examples of antifungal drugs
|
polyenes and azoles
|
|
polyenes and azoles do what
|
are antifungal
|
|
what drug inhibits parasitic DNA replication
|
chloroquine
|
|
chloroquine does what
|
inhibits parasitic DNA replication
|
|
what drug inhibits parasitic folic acid biosynthesis
|
pyrimethamine
|
|
pyrimethamine inhibits
|
parasitic folic acid biosythesis
|
|
what drug inhibits parasitic protein sythesis
|
paramomycin
|
|
paramomycin inhibits
|
parasictic protein synthesis
|
|
what drug inhibits parasitic transport
|
mebendazole
|
|
mebendazole inhibits
|
parasitic transport
|
|
what drugs inhibit parasitic neurmuscular action
|
pyrantel pamoate and peperazine
|
|
pyrantel pamoate and piperazine inhibit
|
parasitic neuromuscular action
|
|
attack rate is a measure of
|
infectivity in humans
|
|
case fatality rate is a measure of
|
virulence in humans
|
|
sensitivity
|
ability to detect people with the disease
low sensitivity results in many false negatives if test +, you have it if test -, you might still have it |
|
specificity
|
ability to detect people without the disease
low specificity results in many false positives if test -, don't have it if test +, might still have it |
|
incubation period
|
interval between time of exposure and development of symptoms
|
|
prodromal period
|
early feeling of "not well"
|
|
clinical disease
|
full expression of signs and symptoms
|
|
recovery period
|
remission of signs and symptoms; may also be a stage of disability
|
|
primary case
|
the individual(s) who bring the disease into the population
|
|
secondary case
|
people infected by the primary
|
|
point source outbreak
|
all exposed at one time; cases occur suddenly; cases occur WITHIN ONE INCUBATION PERIOD; steep upsloe, gradual downslope; associated with consumption of contaminated food or water
|
|
propagated outbreak
|
person to person outbreak; secondary cases appear one incubation period after peak of first wave; associated with disease transmitted via the respiratory route
|
|
primary prevention
|
prevent exposures and or infections (as opposed to secondary prevention which is blocking transmission and limitting progression)
|
|
secondary prevention
|
block transmission to other and limit progression (as opposed to primary prevention which is preventing exposure)
|