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207 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Tb test is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type IV (delayed)
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describe type II hypersensitivity
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Ab coats a target so that cells with Fc receptors (PMNs, monos, etc.)
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ADCC falls into what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type II
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this type of hypersensitivity is due to circulting Ab-Ag complexes
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Type III
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what is ELEK?
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test for toxin production for C. diptheriae
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two ways to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
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India ink and latex agglutination test for Ag
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this bug grows near S. aureus on blood agar
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H. influenzae
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use of Thayer-Martin agar
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grows Neisseria from locations that have normal flora (i.e. genital tract)
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diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis
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growth of N. meningitis from CSF on chocolate agar
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owl's eye inclusions in the urine
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CMV infection
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C. neoformans: urease (+) or (-)?
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urease positive
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acute mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug?
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breast feeding, S. aureus
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chronic mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug?
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perimenopause; no bugs (it is sterile, due to inspissated mucus)
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pernicious anemia is associated with what HLA type?
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DR5
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Chaga's disease is associated with …
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megacolon, megaesophagus, and dilated cardiomyopathy
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a positive tuberculin skin test means that …
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a cell-mediated immune response has occurred (no Ab required!)
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what does P. aeruginosa exotoxin A do?
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ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) EF-2, a GTP binding protein involved in protein synthesis
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what does pertussis toxin do?
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ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) GTP-binding protein that inhibits adenylate cyclase, resulting in ↑cAMP (turns the "off" off)
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what does cholera toxin do?
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ADP-ribosylates (activates) GTP-binding protein that stimulates adenylate cyclase, resulting in ↑cAMP (turns the "on" on)
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etiologic agent that may be involved in membranous GN
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Hep B
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multiple episodes of Neisseria meningitis suggests what immunologic defect?
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C6, C7, C8
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cell-surface markers for B cells
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CD19, CD20, and CD21
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cell-surface markers for T cells
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CD3 (along with CD4 or CD8)
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cell-surface markers for NK cells
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CD56
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two GU bugs that induce endocytosis
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Neisseria and Chlamydia
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most likely bug to cause an epidemic of pediatric diarrhea
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Y. enterocolitica
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ss + RNA virus that causes diarrhea and may have serious neurologic sequellae
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polio
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what is the form of malaria that enters the body through the mosquito bite?
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sporozoite
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schizontes live where?
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liver cells
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1/3 of those with malaria will have what very severe sequellae?
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acute renal failure
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describe blackwater fever
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hemolysis leading to black urine and renal damage (due to malaria)
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rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type II
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asthma and urticaria are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type I
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SLE and vasculitides are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
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Type III
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most common parasitic infxn in the US
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cysticercosis
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condyloma is caused by what virus?
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HPV
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most common bug in acute bacterial prostatitis
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E. Coli
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how does cholera do its dirty work?
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activates adenylate cyclase
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paternity testing is based on …
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genetic allotypes
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definition of isotypes
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IgE, IgM, IgD, etc.
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the crystalline core of eosinophils is composed of …
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major basic protein
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catalase +, gram + cocci that grows well on mannitol salt agar
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S. aureus
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what type of vaccination do we give for measles?
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live virus (kids > 15 mo of age)
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cells that express BOTH CD4 and CD8 are ____ _____
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immature T cells
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painful ulceration on the penis is most likely caused by …
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H. ducreyi (chancroid)
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microscopic findings in chancroid
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pleomorphic rods in "school of fish" pattern
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polyarteritis nodosa is associated with what viral infection?
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Hep B
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how does a superantigen work its magic?
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binds TCR variable region to MHC Class II to induce massive T cell activation
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the name of the specific anti-treponemal test
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FTA-ABS
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what agar is used to grow Legionella?
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buffered charcoal yeast extract
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name some reportable infectious diseases
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MMR, AIDS, gonorrhea, Salmonella, Shigella, syphilis, TB, chickenpox, Hep A and B
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triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
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purpura, eczema, recurrent bacterial infxn
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patients with Wiscott-Aldrich are at increased risk for what cancer?
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NHL
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spirochete with "Shephard's Crook" appearance
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Leptospira
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gram stain and shape of Brucella
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gram (-) cocci
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what type of sensitivity: wheal and flare reactions?
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Type I
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what type of sensitivity: berylliosis?
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Type IV (delayed)
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what type of sensitivity: Graves' disease?
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Type II
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patient with chronic cough + tiny yeast in lungs
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Histo
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stain used for fungi
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silver stain
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another name for the acid-fast stain
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Ziehl-Neeson stain
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catalase (-), coagulase (-), optochin sensitive gram (+) cocci w/ greenish discoloration on blood agar
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S. pneumo
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sequence of events in the maturation of a B cell
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heavy chain gene rearrangement > cytoplasmic mu chains > light chain gene rearrangement > IgM on surface > IgG & IgM on surface
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contaminated swimming pools often transmit what virus?
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adenovirus
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major cause of diarrhea in kids under age 2
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rotavirus
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NADPH oxidase produces …
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superoxide anions
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myeloperoxidase produces …
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H2O2 >>> HOCl
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caused of upper lobe pneumonia with cavitation
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K. pneumo
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type of pneumonia associated with artificial ventilation
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P. aeruginosa
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mechanism of action of cycloheximide
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inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
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primary opsonin in the C' system
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C3b
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the electron transport system of bacteria is located in the …
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bacterial plasma membrane
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bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users is usually due to …
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S. aureus
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RBC-sized lung organisms that stain spherical or ovoid-shaped with silver stains
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PCP
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chronic antral gastritis is associated with …
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H. pylori
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in dxing a UTI, you find that the nitrate dipstick is negative. What's the bug?
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Enterococcus (gut streptococci)
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nitrate dipstick is positive for what bugs?
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all the gram (-) enterics - E. Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas
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hepatitis type which is very dangerous in pregnant women
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Hep E
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before mast cells can degraunulate due to allergen exposure and cause a type I hypersensitivity reaction, what must occur?
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sensitization - processing of Ag by APCs, production of IL4 by Th2 cells causing B cells to switch from IgM to IgE, IgE binds to surface of mast cells
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what is the bug that carries and perpetuates Lyme disease?
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Ixodes tick
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most prevalent form of mycobacterium disease in AIDS patients
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TB
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levels of IgM in common variable immunodeficiency
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all Ig low (lack of plasma cells)
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the numbers of B cells in common variable immunodeficiency are …
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normal
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the numbers of B cells in Bruton's agammaglobulinemia are …
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low
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the most common presentation for G6PD hemolysis in Africa is …
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a child who has just eaten beans
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in the body, where can Histo be found?
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intracellularly (not passed between people)
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stain used for PCP
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silver stain
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four bugs that take advantage of people with chronic granulomatous dz
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S. Aureus, S. Aspergillus, Nocardia, Salmonella (all are phagocytosed and not killed)
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lack of C5 causes a susceptibility to what bug?
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Neisseria
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defective chemotactic response predisposes to what type of infection?
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bacterial
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the first three factors involved in the classical C' pathway
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C1, C4, C2
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acute epidydimitis with orchitis is most often caused by …
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N. gonorrhoeae
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at-risk individuals for PCP include AIDS patients and …
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premature infants
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Chlamydia must live intracellularly because …
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it cannot make its own ATP
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S. aureus is a common pathogen of what part of the body?
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nasopharynx
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When B cells undergo isotype switching, they require these two things
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IL-4, and interaction with T cells (CD40 on the B cell interacts with CD40L on the T cell
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state the levels of IgG in hyper-IgM syndrome
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IgM high, eveything else low
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defect in hyper-IgM syndrome
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CD40L on T cells causes B cells to fail to undergo isotype switching
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a defect in IL-2 secretion puts patients at risk for what type of bugs?
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intracellular
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the RNA virus "exception" that replicates in the nucleus
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orthomyxo (influenza)
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the DNA virus "exception" that replicates in the cytoplasm
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pox
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the triad of cutaneous hemorrhage, periventricular calcifications, and deafness suggests which of the TORCHES?
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CMV infection
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most common cause of chronic meningitis
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TB
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deficiency of what C' tends to produce an SLE-like syndrome?
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C4
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The Ig profile for common variable immunodeficiency and X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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low IgM, IgG, IgA
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through where does N. fowleri enter the brain?
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through the cribriform plate
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during which phase of bacterial growth do spores form?
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stationary phase
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triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome
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eczema, thrombocytopenia, and repeated infections
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transmission of Wiscott-Aldrich
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X-linked
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a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class I turns into a …
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CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
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a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class II turns into a …
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CD4+ Th lymphocyte
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gram (-) septic shock is mediated by what part of the gram (-) membrane?
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Lipid A
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the vaginas of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized by …
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bugs of the skin (e.g. Staph)
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the vaginas of women of child-bearing age are colonized by …
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lactobacillus, candida, and Strep
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gastric cancer has been linked to what bug?
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H. pylori
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population of cells responsible for DTH reaction
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CD4+ T cells
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where does HSV2 hang out during the asx times of the disease?
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sacral ganglia
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patients with Lyme arthritis commonly have what HLA association?
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HLA-DR4
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the bugs that undergo natural transformation
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Haemophilus, Neisseria, Step, Helicobacter
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virus associated with polyarteritis nodosa
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Hep B
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what type of hypersensitivity is poison ivy exposure?
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DTH (Type IV)
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name some type III hypersensitivity reactions
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SLE, glomerulonephritis
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how to differentate common variable immunodeficiency from X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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in CVI, the B cell count is normal
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at what age does common variable immunodeficiency often present?
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2nd-3rd decades
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when does ADA deficiency commonly present?
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early in life
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the infectious form of Crypto
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encapsulated budding yeasts (it is a monomorphic fungus)
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transmission form of Histo
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septate hyphae with micro- and macroconidia
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type of streptococcus which can cause rash on palms and soles
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S. moniliformis ("rat-bite fever")
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Ig used in the response against encapsulated bacteria
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IgG (especially subclass 2)
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loss of MHC Class I expression would make cells invincible to killying by what type of T lymphocyte?
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CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
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what is beta-2-microglobulin?
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a signalling molecule of MHC I
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transmembrane protein of HIV
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Gp41
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surface protein of HIV which may bind Ab
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Gp120
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outer membranes exist in gram (-/+) bacteria
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-
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toxin which ADP-ribosylates the Gs protein to permanently turn it on
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cholera toxin
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toxin which ADP-riboxylates the Gi protein to permanently turn it off
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pertussis toxin
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Blasto infection is acquired by …
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inhalation of spores
|
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live virus vaccines
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MMR, sabin polio, yellow fever
|
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killed virus vaccines
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salk polio, rabies, rotavirus, flu, HepA/B
|
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what blood component works in concert with Ab to clear encapsulated bacteria?
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C'
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ADCC is used against what type of cell?
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host cell (not bacteria!)
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what is a reagin?
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an immunogen that stimulates an IgE response
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the immunogen in quinine-mediated hemolysis
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RBC+quinine (not just quinine because it cannot elicit a response by itself, which is the definition of an immunogen)
|
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where do superAg bind?
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invariant region of beta chain of TCR and MHC Class II molecules of APCs
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psoas abscess ("cold abscess") is associated with what bug?
|
TB (tuberculous osteomyelitis)
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what mechanism allows a B cell to express both IgD and IgM?
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alternative mRNA splicing
|
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toxic metabolite that causes problems in SCID
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deoxyadenosine
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which type of virus, in its infective form, can be diretly translated?
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ss (+) RNA
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how is Lyme diagnosed in the lab?
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look for IgG or IgM Ab
|
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acid-fast bugs that cause diarrhea in the immunocompromised
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Cryptosporidium and Isospora
|
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what does a "western blot for HIV" actually look for?
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Ab to HIV Ag
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B7 on an APC interacts with ___ on a T cell
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CD28
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a genetic deficiency in ___ confers immunity to macrophage-tropic HIV
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CCR5, a chemokine receptor required for the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells
|
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ringworm of the hair and scalp transmitted by cats and dogs
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Microsporum canis
|
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most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis
|
adenovirus
|
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type of cell that produces IL-2 and IFN-g
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Th1 cells
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type of cell that produces IL-1 and TNF-g
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macrophage
|
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type of cell that secretes IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10
|
Th2 cells
|
|
most common route of transmission of C. jejuni
|
poultry
|
|
a defect in NADPH oxidase causes …
|
chronic granulomatous disease
|
|
turns off the Gi protein via ADP-ribosylation
|
B. pertussis
|
|
do Th2 cells recognize carrier or hapten in a vaccine?
|
carrier
|
|
Graft-vs-host disease is mediated by …
|
CD8 Tc from the graft attacking the host
|
|
pathogenicity of Giardia is mediated by …
|
ventral sucking disc
|
|
germ tube formation is used to identify …
|
C. albicans
|
|
the RPR test is used for …
|
detection of T. pallidum antibody
|
|
how do we visualize T. pallidum?
|
immunoflourescence staining (has replaced darkfield microscopy)
|
|
three important genera of acid-fast organisms
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Nocardia, Mycobacteria, Cryptosporidium
|
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organisms that are not acid-fast stain ___ with acid-fast stain
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blue
|
|
the HIV pol gene codes for ….
|
RT and integrase
|
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how does the P. aeruginosa exotoxin work?
|
like diptheria toxin - ADP-ribosylates EF-2
|
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bullous pemphigoid is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
|
II
|
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RA is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
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III
|
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ABO incompatibility is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
|
II
|
|
Myasthenia gravis is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
|
II
|
|
serum sickness is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction
|
III
|
|
erythema chronicum migrans usually affects what part of the body?
|
groin, axilla, thigh
|
|
the toxin of P. aeruginosa is most similar to what other toxin?
|
Diphtheria
|
|
what is the mechanism of diphtheria and pseudomonas toxins?
|
ADP-ribosylate EF-2
|
|
what differentiates pseudomonas and diphtheria toxins?
|
pseudomonas works in the liver, and diphtheria works on nerves and heart
|
|
patient living in the southwest who develops ARDS and dies
|
hantavirus
|
|
animal that spreads hantavirus
|
deer mouse
|
|
describe a patient with SSPE
|
ataxic, optic atrophy, oligoclonal bands on tap, cerebral atrophy, early death
|
|
two most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils
|
IL-8 and C5a
|
|
why are patients continually susceptible to reinfection with N. gonorrheae?
|
changes in its antigenic coat
|
|
to determine the strain of S. aureus, what lab test should be done?
|
bacteriophage sensitivity
|
|
a rash on hands and feet indicates …
|
tertiary syphilis, RMSF, or Coxsackie
|
|
stain used to diagnose PCP
|
silver stain
|
|
a patient with Y. enterocolitica that secondarily develops arthritis has which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
|
Type III
|
|
to what type of disease is a patient with Bruton's susceptible to?
|
bacterial
|
|
cause of pinkeye
|
S. pneumo
|
|
common cause of neonatal meningitis; present in mom's flora
|
Listeria
|
|
make the dx: small intracellular yeast growing at RT as a mold, has hyphae with micro and macro-conidia
|
histo
|
|
AIDS patient with multiple visual field deficits and decreased visual acuity - bug?
|
CMV infection
|
|
underlying mechanism responsible for hypersensitivity to penicillin
|
Ab against drug bound to RBC surface
|
|
abrupt loss of resistance to an abx in a bacteria is due to …
|
loss of a plasmid
|
|
the swelling of a bee sting is due to …
|
local vasodilation
|
|
immunization induces the proliferation of which type of T cell?
|
Th cell
|
|
S. pyogenes is differentiated from the other types of beta-hemolytic strep by its sensitivity to …
|
bacitracin
|
|
CMV is most often seen in the …
|
immunocompromised
|
|
blood components involved in the Arthus reaction
|
preformed Ab and C'
|
|
when does an Arthus rxn occur?
|
reimmunization (e.g. tetanus booster)
|
|
coating of latex beads with __ and __ can be used to ID gram (+) cocci
|
IgG and fibrinogen
|
|
where in the US is coccidio found in the soil?
|
southwestern US
|
|
protective measles antibody is to what epitope on the measles virus surface?
|
hemagglutinin
|
|
what type of organism tends to affect women with self-induced abortions?
|
anaerobes (e.g. Clostridia)
|
|
normal Ab production but recurrent bacterial infections suggests a problem with what WBC?
|
neutrophils
|