• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/277

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

277 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A general term for a complex series of cells, factors, and processes that provide a specific response to antigens.
Immune System
What are the types of immunity?
1. Active immunity
2. Passive immunity
What type of immunity is acquired by contact with antigens, and develops over a long duration of time?
Active immunity
What are the types of active immunity?
1. Naturally acquired
2. Artificially acquired
What type of immunity builds up throughout your life?
Artificially acquired active immunity
How is naturally acquired active immunity developed?
By actual contact with a disease
How is artificially acquired active immunity developed?
By vaccines and toxoids
What are vaccines derived from?
By attenuated (weakened) bacteria from an old culture
Where are toxoids derived from?
The antigens of the bacteria
What type of immunity is acquired when antibodies are transferred from one person to another?
Passive immunity
How type of protection does passive immunity provide and how long does it last?
Immediate / Temporary
What are the types of passive immunity?
1. Naturally acquired
2. Artificially acquired
How is naturally acquired passive immunity developed?
By placental or colostral (liquid prior to milk production in mothers) transfer
How is artificially acquired passive immunity developed?
By the injection of antiserum or antitoxin from an immune person to a susceptible person
When does the immune system develop?
When stem cells undergo transformation to B-lymphocytes or T-lymphocytes
What do both types of lymphocytes colonize?
Lymphoid tissue
What controls the function of lymphocytes?
IR Gene
What is the size of lymphocytes?
10-20 µm
What is the largest part of a lymphocyte cell?
Nucleus
What are the types of lymphocytes?
1. B-cells
2. T-cells
What do B-cells become when they mature?
Bone marrow
What is the function of B-cells?
They produce antibodies in the blood
What do T-cells become when they mature?
Thymus gland
What is the function of T-cells?
They produce factors
Chemical substances that elicit a response by the body's immune system.
Antigens
What are the types of antigens?
1. Non-self antigens
2. Self antigens
3. Auto-antigens
4. Alloantigens
5. Heterophile antigens
What type of antigen is a large, more complex molecule that is not normally present in the body?
Non-self antigen
What are the functional properties of the non-self antigen?
1. Immunogenicity
2. Reactivity
What is immunogenicity?
The ability to stimulate the proliferation (growth) of immune system cells
What is reactivity?
The ability to react with the products of the immune system cells or the cells themselves
What type of antigen exists in some, but not all members of a species?
Alloantigens
Give an example of alloantigens.
Blood type antigens in humans (i.e. A, B, AB, O, Rh+, Rh- antigens)
In reference to antigens, a person's own chemical substances in the body.
Self antigens
Why don't self antigens stimulate an immune response?
Because we have immunological tolerance
What are some examples of objects that the immunological response would recognize as self?
DNA, RNA, Carbohydrates, and fat
What is the immunological response?
Process that recognizes self antigens from non-self antigens
What type of antigen is found in two unrelated species?
Heterophile antigen
What is an example of a heterophile antigen?
Human-horse antiserum
What type of antigen is responsible for your immune system attacking its self?
Auto-antigen
What causes the immune system to attack its self?
Self-tolerance (immunological response) breakdown
A protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen.
Antibody
What are the characteristics of plasma?
1. It has soluble metabolic products
2. It has protein (fiber & globulin) in it
3. Has salts in it
What is serum?
Plasma without fibrin
What is the function of fibrin?
Blood clotting
What are some other terms for globulins?
Gamma globulins or immunoglobulin
What are the five classes of immunoglobulin?
1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgA
4. IgD
5. IgE
What functions do T-cells carry out?
1. Supply the body with chemotactic factors that attract macrophages
2. Produce lymphokines
3. Cause the destruction of cells to which they are sensitized….
What type of T-cells do factors activate?
Th (T-helper)
What type of T-cells do lymphokines activate?
Tk (T-killer)
What is the Th and Ts ratio in a healthy person?
Person with AIDS?"
2:1
1:2
What are the types of immunodeficiencies?
1. Primary-Congenital
2. Secondary
How is a primary-congenital immunodeficiency acquired?
Genetically (inherited)
How is a secondary immunodeficiency acquired?
Throughout an individual's lifetime
What are the types of primary-congenital immunodeficiency?
1. Swiss
2. Aggamaglobinemia
3. DiGeorge Syndrome
What is the most common primary-congenital immunodeficiency?
Aggamaglobinemia
What occurs in swiss type immunodeficiency?
Bone marrow deficiency
Stem cell deficiency
T-cell and B-cell defects
What occurs in aggamaglobinemia immunodeficiency?
B-cell deficiency
What occurs in DiGeorge Syndrome immunodeficiency?
Thymus fails to develop T-cells
What causes secondary immunodeficiencies?
1. Malignancies, infections & drugs that adversely affect the lymphoid system.
2. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
What causes autoimmune (auto-allergies) diseases?
Immune system cannot recognize "self" from "non-self"
What are some examples of autoimmune diseases?
Myasthenia gravis
Rheumatoid Arthritis
What is an immunological hypersensitivity?
An allergy
What is an altered immune response?
An immune response that does more harm than good
What are the types of hypersensitivity?
1. Type I (Anaphylactic)
2. Type II (Cytotoxic)
3. Type III (Immune Complex)
4. Type IV (Cell-Mediated or Delayed Type)
What types of antibodies and cells cause each hypersensitivity?
1. Type I
· IgE (Antibody)
· Mast cells or Basophils
· Mediators
2. Type II (Cytotoxic)
· IgM & IgG
· Complement"
3. Type III (Immune Complex)
· IgM & IgG
· Complement
4. Type IV (Cell-Mediated or Delayed Type)
· Lymphokines & T-lymphocytes
What do Mast cells or basophils in Type I hypersensitivity do?
Produce histamine
What do mediators do in Type I hypersensitivity do?
Induce smooth muscle contraction
How is type I hypersensitivity controlled?
By limiting contact with allergens
What are the treatments for type I hypersensitivity?
1. Antihistamines
2. Reversing tissue response by using the hormone epinephrine
3. Immune (gene) therapy or "desensitization"
What is the most common treatment for type I hypersensitivity? Best treatment?
1. Antihistamines
2. Immune (gene) therapy or "desensitization"
Protein particles that are released in blood to fight against foreign particles.
Complements
In type II hypersensitivity, what happens when IgG & IgM antibodies combine with compliments?
They destroy the target cells
What are some examples of Type II hypersensitivity?
Blood transfusions and Rh incompatibility
What type of antigens are present in O type blood? Antibodies?
Neither A or B
Anti-A & Anti-B
What type of antigens are present in A type blood? Antibodies?
A
Anti-B
What type of antigens are present in B type blood? Antibodies?
B
Anti-A
What type of antigens are present in AB type blood? Antibodies?
A & B
None
What blood type is the universal donor?
O
What blood type is the universal recipient?
AB
The result of an attack on the donor's red blood cells by the recipient's antibodies.
Transfusion reaction
How is blood type determined?
By an agglutination reaction
Who discovered the presence of the "Rh factor"?
Lansteiner
What is the percentage of Rh+ in the population? Rh-?
Rh+ - 85%
Rh- 15%
When are Rh antibodies produced?
In an Rh- person when they are inoculated with Rh+ RBCs
How many blood transfusions of Rh+ can a Rh- person receive?
1, second transfusion will cause hemolysis
What antibodies can cross the placenta in the case of a Rh- mother with a Rh+ fetus?
IgG
What conditions can a Rh+ fetus suffer with a Rh+ mother?
Anemia, jaundice, and erythroblastosis fetalis
What reaction do the antibodies in type III hypersensitivity cause?
Damaging inflammation
What are some examples of Type III hypersensitivity?
Serum sickness
Hypersensitive pneumonitis "farmer's lungs"
Arthus phenomenon
What are some examples of Type IV hypersensitivity?
Rejection of transplanted tissues
Contact dermatitis such as poison ivy
Chronic diseases such as tuberculosis
Rejection of skin grafts
Tissue grafted from one part of the body to another.
Autograft
Transplant between identical twins.
Isograft
Tissue grafted between members of the same species.
Allograft
Transplant between different species.
Xenograft
What graft methods have a 0% rejection?
Autograft & Isograft
What is a common complication of a bone marrow transplant?
Graft-versus-host (GVH) disease
What drug can be used to inhibit/reduce transplant rejections?
Cyclosporine
What human organic system is the second leading cause of illness in the USA?
Digestive
How are microbial diseases of the digestive system transmitted?
A fecal-oral cycle
What are the microbial diseases of the mouth?
1. Dental carries (tooth decay)
2. Periodontal disease (ANUG)
What is the main concern with microbe population in the mouth?
Oral disease
What type of oxygen requirements do most bacteria in the mouth need?
Aerobic, facultative anaerobic, & obligate anaerobic
What type of oxygen requirements do bacteria around the teeth usually need?
Aerobic and facultative anaerobic
What type of oxygen requirements do bacteria around the gums usually need?
Obligate anaerobic
What gram reaction do most bacteria in the mouth have?
Gram (+) & Gram (-)
What is plaque comprised of?
Glucans (polysaccharides), protein, and billions of bacteria
What are the oxygen requirements of plaque?
Obligate anaerobic or facultative anaerobic
What bacteria, that is found in the stomach, causes ulcers?
Halobacter pylon
What shape of Gram (+) bacteria are found in the mouth?
Rod & cocci
What shape of Gram (-) bacteria are found in the mouth?
Rod
What oxygen requirements are needed for bacteria in the small intestine & stomach?
Facultative anaerobic
What Gram reaction do bacteria in the small intestine and stomach have?
Gram (-)
What oxygen requirements are needed foe bacteria in the large intestine?
Obligate anaerobic & facultative anaerobic
What is the gram reaction and shape of bacteria in the large intestine?
Gram (-) rod
What bacteria cause tooth decay and are aerotolerant?
Streptococcus & Lactobacilli
To develop dental caries, what conditions must be met?
1. There must be a susceptible tooth with a build-up of plaque
2. Dietary carbohydrates must be present (always sucrose)
3. Acid producing (acidogenic) bacteria must be present
What is an example of a periodontal tissue (gums) disease?
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)
What bacteria causes acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
Leptotricia - gram (-) rod
Treptonema - spirochete
Eikenella - gram (-) rod
What term was used to describe acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) during World War I?
"Trench Mouth"
What conditions contribute to Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
1. Malnutrition
2. Viral infection
3. Excessive smoking
4. Poor hygiene
5. Mental stress
What is the treatment for Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
Antibiotics or treating the area with a traditional remedy of gentian violet
What causes food spoilage?
Food becoming contaminated
What are the factors that affect food spoilage?
1. Water
2. pH
3. Physical Structure (i.e. surface area)
What water activity is required for bacteria, fungi & mold, and yeast to survive?
1. Bacteria 90-100%
2. Fungi & mold 70-90%
3. Yeast <70%
What are the types of water factors affecting food spoilage?
1. Bond water (water in hydrogen bond)
2. Free water (water activity)
At which pH can bacteria, mold, and yeast survive?
1. Bacteria 6.8-7.2
2. Mold >7.2
3. Yeast <6.8
How can food be classified by perishability?
1. Highly perishable
2. Semi-perishable
3. Non-perishable
What enzyme breaks down protein?
Proteinase
What is protein broken down into?
Amino acids
What is amino acid, broken down from protein, broken down into?
Ammonia, H2S & indo 1
What enzyme breaks down carbohydrates?
Amylase
What are carbohydrates broken down into?
Glucose
What is glucose, broken down from carbohydrates, broken down into?
Alcohol acid & gas
What enzyme breaks down lipids?
Lipase
What are lipids broken down to?
3 fatty acids + glycerol
In what food do capsules develop?
milk & bread
What are some pigments of food spoilage?
Red, yellow & orange
What type of spoilage resistance do egg whites have?
They have lysozymes which inhibit Gram (+) bacteria
What type of foods have a spoilage resistance to both gram (+) and gram (-) bacteria?
1. Garlic
2. Onions
3. Radishes
4. Clove oil
What are the types of food-borne diseases?
1. Infection
2. Intoxication
What type of bacteria cause food-borne infections?
Gram (-) rod, facultative anaerobic, Mesophilic
What are some examples of these type of bacteria?
Salmonella typhi
Enterobacter
E-coli
How is food-borne infection achieved by bacteria?
1. Host ingests food into the digestive system
2. Bacteria lyses, leaving the "lipid A" endotoxin portion of their cell wall in host
What type of bacteria cause food-borne intoxication?
Gram (+) rod, aerobic and facultative
How is food-borne intoxication achieved by bacteria?
They release toxins that are almost always protein
What are the food-borne protein toxins sensitive to?
Antibiotics and pH
What are the treatment options for food-borne intoxication?
Toxoids or antitoxins (antibiotics)
What are the gram (+) bacteria that cause food diseases?
1. Staphylococcus aureus
2. Clostridium perfringens
3. Clostridium botulism
4. Bacillus cereus
What are the oxygen requirements of Staphylococcus aureus?
Aerobic & facultative
What is the enzyme that makes Staphylococcus aureus more virulent?
Coagulase
What does Staphylococcus aureus cause?
Intoxication by enterotoxin
What is the incubation period of Staphylococcus aureus?
1-6 Hours
What are the symptoms of a Staphylococcus aureus intoxication?
nausea, vomiting & diarrhea
What are the characteristics of Clostridium perfringens?
Spore-forming
Gram (+) rod
Obligate anaerobic
What is the incubation period of Clostridium perfringens?
8-12 Hours
What are the symptoms of a Clostridium perfringens intoxication?
Watery diarrhea
What are the characteristics of Clostridium botulism?
Spore-forming
Gram (+) rod
Where is Clostridium botulism bacteria found?
Canned vegetables
What system is the target of Clostridium botulism?
Nervous system
What disease is Clostridium botulism correlated with?
Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)
What type of toxin does Bacillus cereus release?
Enterotoxin
Where is Bacillus cereus commonly found?
Starchy foods like cereal, potatoes & pudding
What are the Gram (-) bacteria that cause food diseases?
1. Salmonella typhi
2. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
3. E-coli
4. Yersina Gastroenteritis
5. Campylobacter jejuni
What is the only Gram (-) bacteria that produces an enterotoxin?
E-coli
What are the groups of E-coli?
1. Enterotoxin producers
2. Entero-invasive
3. Entero-pathogenic
4. Enterohemorrhagic
What is the common cause of traveler's disease?
E-coli enterotoxin
What is the most dangerous group of E-coli?
Enterohemorrhagic
What can enterohemorrhagic bacteria cause?
Kidney Failure
Where is Yersina gastroenteritis commonly found?
Chocolate milk
Where is Campylobacter jejuni commonly found?
Turkey
What are the viral diseases of the digestive system?
1. Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
2. Viral gastroenteritis (caused by rotavirus or Norwalk agent)
What are the protozoan diseases of the digestive system?
1. Giardiasis (caused by Giardia lamblia)
2. Amoebic dysentery (caused by Entamoeba histolytica)
What are the types of low temperature food preservation?
1. Refrigeration - 5*C
2. Freezing
What is the goal of low temperature food preservation?
To inhibit microbial population growth
What are the types of high temperature food preservation?
1. Canning "commercial sterilization"
2. Pasteurization
3. Sterilization
4. Boiling
How is drying achieved?
By plasmolysis
What is released by burning wood in the smoking food preservation method?
Alcohol
Aldehyde
Acid
Keytones
What is the osmotic pressure method of food preservation typically used for?
Jellies, jams & condensed milk
What is the chemical method of food preservation used to prevent?
Fungal growth
What are some examples of chemical food preservation chemicals?
Proponic acid
Sorbic acid
Benzoic acid
What do nitrates/nitrites do to food?
Prevents salmonella
Gives meat a fresh color
What are the characteristics of the radiation food preservation method?
Uses "cold sterilization" (kills all bacteria)
Uses microwaves
Uses ionizing radiation to preserve food
What methods for food preservation are carcinogenic?
Smoking & nitrates/nitrites
What are the types of water sources in microbiology?
1. Ground water
2. Surface water
3. Marine water
What type of water is found in lakes, streams & shallow wells?
Surface water
What type of water is found in deep wells and subterranean springs?
Ground water
What water source is virtually free of microorganisms?
Ground water
What may the microbial population in surface water reflect?
1. The air through which the rain has passed
2. Any meat packing plant near the stream
3. Any sewage treatment facilities nearby
In what water source do microorganisms play an important role in aquatic life cycle?
Surface water
What conditions may water possess?
1. Contaminated
2. Polluted
3. Potable
What type of bacteria is usually present in contaminated and polluted water?
Heterotrophic (ex. coliform)
Why does unpolluted water have a lower number of microbes than polluted water?
Because unpolluted water have fewer organic materials (feces, waste, etc.) for bacteria to feed on.
What types of organisms would you find in polluted water?
1. Heterotrophic
2. Coliforms (E-coli, Enterobacter & Streptococcus)
3. Proteus
4. Pseudomonas
What types of organisms would you find in marine water?
1. Vibrio & viruses
2. Halophilic
3. Psychrophilic
4. Barophilic
What are the types of water pollution?
1. Physical
2. Chemical
3. Biological
What type of pollution is the biggest concern?
Biological
The amount of oxygen that microorganism require to decompose the organic matter in water.
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
How is Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) determined?
Immediate amount of oxygen dissolved - oxygen dissolved after 5 days at 20*C = BOD
As BOD increases, quality of the water ____________.
Decreases
As BOD increases, the amount of organic matter _____________.
Increases
As BOD increases, the amount of heterotrophic bacteria _____________.
Increases
What is the source of pathogens in biological pollution?
Feces & urine of infected people or animals
What are the characteristics of Giardiasis?
Causes cysts
Found in animal reservoirs
What type of organism causes Ascariasis?
Roundworm
What are the types of enteric viruses found in water?
1. Infectious hepatitis A
2. Enteroviruses
What are the characteristics of hepatitis A?
"Chlorine resistant
What is an example of an enterovirus found in water?
Polio virus
What are the common types of bacteria found in water?
1. Salmonella
2. Shigella
3. Cholera
4. Leptospira
5. Tularemia
Who are typical "carriers" of salmonella?
Animals/pets
What does Salmonella typhi cause?
Typhoid fever
What species of Shigella is found in water?
Shigella dysenteriae
What species of Cholera is found in water?
Bacillary dysentery
Vibrio cholera
What species of Tularemia is found in water?
Formcisula tularcesis
What methods are used for water quality evaluation?
1. Membrane filter technique
2. Standard plate count
3. Direct microscopic count
4. Indicator organisms
What two methods for water quality evaluation are most commonly used?
Most Probable Number (MPN) & membrane filters
What are the types of indicator organisms from broad to specific?
1. Total coliforms
2. Fecal coliforms
3. Fecal streptococcus
What are the steps, in order from first to last, that a water treatment center uses on water?
1. Sedimentation/Coagulation
2. Filtration
3. Disinfection
What chemical is used in the mixing tank of a water treatment facility during sedimentation?
Aluminum sulfate
What type of filter do water treatment facilities use?
Sand
What types of disinfections are used on water?
1. Chlorine (common)
2. Fluoride
3. Oxidizing agents
4. Ozone
What is an acceptable plate count in drinking and bottled water?
< 500/ml
What are the acceptable total coliform levels in drinking, recreational, shellfish, and bottled water?
Drinking water <1/100ml
Recreational water 1000/100ml
Shellfish 70/100 ml
Bottled water <1/100ml
What are the acceptable fecal coliform levels in recreational & shellfish?
Recreational water 200/100ml
Shellfish 14/100 ml
What are the waste water treatments?
1. Primary
2. Secondary
3. Tertiary
What occurs in primary waste water treatment?
The water goes through sedimentation allowing the sludge to settle out
What occurs in secondary waste water treatment?
1. Oxidation of organic matter is accomplished by biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
2. Sludge system and trickling filters are activated
3. Liquid effluent is chlorinated
What type of treatment is tertiary treatment?
Advanced treatment necessary due to domestic, agricultural & industrial waste
What chemicals are removed in tertiary waste water treatment?
Nitrate
Phosphate
Carbonate
Water with a high amount of organic matter.
Eutrophic
Water with a low amount of organic matter.
Oligotrophic
What are the components and their respective percentages of milk?
1.Carbohydrates-4.8% 2. Fat-3.8%
3.Protein-3.5% 4. Water-87%
5.Salt-0.65% 6.Vitamin & Mineral
What carbohydrates are present in milk?
Lactose
What enzyme breaks down lactose?
Lactase
What are the types of protein in milk?
1. Caesin
2. Albumin
What are the cofactors in milk that help the enzymes to be active?
Vitamins and minerals
What are the types of bacteria in milk?
1. Non-pathogen lactic acid producers
2. Pathogen lactic acid producers
What are the types of non-pathogen lactic acid producers?
1. Streptococcus lactis
2. Leuconostoc species
3. Lactobacilli species
What are the types of pathogen lactic acid producers?
1. Micrococcus species
2. Mycobacterium species
3. Coliforms
Which group of lactic acid producers causes bubbling or souring of milk?
Non-pathogens
What do non-pathogenic bacteria cause in milk?
1. Gas production
2. Ropiness
3. Pigment discoloration
Why causes ropiness in milk?
The production of capsules in bacteria
What type of bacteria produce capsules in milk?
Gram (-) rod shaped
What bacteria cause pigment discoloration in milk?
Serratia marcegens
Pseudomonas syneynea
What are the types of milk?
1. Raw
2. Pasteurized
What test must be performed on raw milk before it is sent to the dairy plant?
Reductase test
What dye is used in the reductase test?
Methylene Blue
What tests are done at the dairy plant?
1. Reductase test
2. Standard plate count
3. Direct microscopic count
4. Coliform test
5. Most Probable Number (MPN)
By law, what test must be performed by dairy plants daily and reported to the FDA?
Direct microscopic count
What is the goal of pasteurization?
To eliminate/kill pathogenic microbes, especially those causing TB & Q fever
What test is performed to see if milk is free of bacteria that cause TB & Q fever?
Phosphatase test
The phosphatase enzyme is active until you reach what temperature?
Pasteurization temperature
What are the coliform acceptable levels for Grade A pasteurized, certified raw, and certified pasteurized milk?
1. Grade A pasteurized 10/ml
2. Certified raw 10/ml
3. Certified pasteurized 1/ml
What happens when a virus enters the human body?
1. Macrophages prevent the invading viral antigen from stimulating the Th (T-helper) cell. Macrophages produce Interleukin 1 (IL1) which activates more Th and increases body temperature which enhances the immune response.
2. The activated Th produces Interleukin 2 (IL2) which stimulates other Th and Tk (T killers) to grow and divide. The Th secretes B-cell growth factor (BCGF) which causes B-cells to multiply.
3. Th produces another lymphokine called B-cells differentiation factor (BCDF) which instructs some B-cells to produce Ab (antibodies).
4. Th produces gamma interferon (IF) which has multiple effects including activating Tk, increasing Ab production by B-cells, & localizing macrophages at site of infection (to kill invaders).
5. Ts suppresses immune system
What are the mechanisms that are believed to cause autoimmune diseases?
1. The antigen may be sequestered in certain tissues causing it to never be marked as "self" in the fetus or as a newborn. Later in life, it is anatomically separated or develops as a result of injury or surgery. The antigen then becomes exposed and the immune system responds negatively to it.
2. Normal body proteins are altered to antigenic forms by drugs, chemicals, or infectious agents. (Ex. By taking too much aspirin, an allergy later develops)
3. Normal body proteins cross-react until antibodies that were once produced for foreign antigens are now produced for "self" antigens due to similarity to foreign ones.
What are the characteristics of hypersensitivities?
1. Immune reactions may do more harm than good. 2. Interaction of an antigen with the humoral or cellular immune system, or sometimes both. 3. Allergens (dust, pollen, penicillin, etc.) cause allergic reactions (asthma, hives, itching, etc.) 4. If the allergies are modified cells with surface antigens, they may stimulate immunological disorders such as rheumatic fever, pernicious anemia, or rheumatoid arthritis.
How does bacteria cause tooth decay?
1. Sucrose from food is split by enzymes into glucose & fructose
2. Glucose is transformed into dextran
3. Streptococcus mutans adheres to the tooth surface
4. Bacteria ferments fructose into acid
5. Acid breaks down the calcium phosphate salt in hydroxyapatite (the major compound in the enamel of the teeth.
How much time passes before clinical signs are exhibited in the types of hypersensitivity?
1. Type I (Anaphylactic) <30 minutes
2. Type II (Cytotoxic) 5-12 Hours
3. Type III (Immune Complex) 3-8 Hours
4. Type IV (Cell-Mediated or Delayed Type) 24-48 Hours
What are some reactions from type I hypersensitivity?
1. Hives 2. Hot flashes
3. Burning sensation 4. Blood pressure drop
5. Severe headache 6. Death by asphyxiation
7. Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
8. Capillary breakage in skin, eyes, and internal organs
What actions can be taken to prevent tooth decay?
1. Using fluoride and applying a polymer to cover pits and fissures in the tooth
2. Modifying your diet
3. Combining bacteria to inhibit the enzyme activity that produces glucan & dextron
What are the symptoms of Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?
1. Punched out ulcers that first appear along the gingival margin and inter-dental papillae that spreads to the soft palate and tonsil area
2. A foul odor in the mouth
3. Bad taste that comes from gases produced by anaerobic bacteria
What are the contamination factor in food microbiology?
1. Air (airborne organisms)
2. Soilborne
3. Waterborne (especially in shellfish)
4. Rodent or Arthropods (foot & body parts)
5. Human handling of food (poor hygiene)
Explain the different perishables & give examples of each.
1. Highly perishable - foods that have to be refrigerated
Ex. Meat, poultry, eggs, vegetables, fruits, milk & milk products
2. Semi-perishable - Foods that spoil at an intermediate rate
Ex. Apples & Potatoes
3. Non-perishables - canned and dry goods
Ex. Rice, cereal, dry beans, dry figs
What types of toxins are released to cause intoxications?
1. Exotoxins (synthesized inside bacteria)
2. Enterotoxin (targets digestive system)
3. Neurotoxin (targets nervous system)
What are the methods for food preservation?
1. Low temperature 5. Osmotic pressure
2. High temperature 6. Chemical
3. Drying 7. Nitrates & nitrites
4. Smoking 8. Antibiotics
9. Radiation
What types of organisms would you find in unpolluted water?
1. Bacillus & Clostridium from the air
2. Yeast & mold spores from the air
3. Autotrophic bacteria
4. Free-living protozoa (ex. Paramecium)
What are the waterborne pathogens and what bacteria cause them?
1. Anaerobic dysentery (aka amebiasis) - caused by Entamoeba histolycia
2. Giardiasis - caused by Giardia lamblia
3. Cryptosporidiosis - caused by Cryptosporidium
4. Ascariasis - caused by Ascaris lumbricoides
How are bacteria introduced to milk?
1. Udder and flank of cow during milking
2. Dust from the air
3. Unclean equipment and utensils
4. Workers handling milk (most common)
What are some examples of pathogenic bacteria in milk & what do they cause?
*Staphylococcus aureus causes Bovine mastitis
*Brucella species cause Brucellosis
*Coxiella burnetii causes Q fever
*Gram (-) bacteria cause enteric diseases
*Tuberculosis
What are the correct method to pasteurization?
1. Holding Temperature (Classical) - 69.2*C for 30 minutes
2. High Temperature Short Time (HTST) - 72*C for 15 seconds
3. Ultra High Temperature (UHT) - 140*C for 5 seconds or less
In the area of injection, swelling and reddening increase with every injection and eventually the area becomes necrotic (the tissue dies).
Arthus phenomenon
Organisms that usually co-exist with intestinal pathogens in human intestinal tract that are used to determine fecal contamination of water.
Indicator organisms
What is the minimum time that must be allowed pass in a reductase test before the milk turn clear to pass the test?
5.5 Hours
What are the standard plate count acceptable levels for Grade A raw, Grade A pasteurized, certified raw, and certified pasteurized milk?
1. Grade A raw 200,000/ml
2. Grade A pasteurized 20,000/ml
3. Certified raw 10,000/ml
4. Certified pasteurized 500/ml