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89 Cards in this Set

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acid fast microorganisms stain what color with the acid fast stain?
red
Color of gram positive cells
purple
murein/peptidoglycan peptide crosslinks form between what sugars?
N-acetylmuramic acid
between what amino acids does transpeptidation occur
D-alanine to D-alanine
where do the peptide chains form in gram neg. organisms?
diaminopimelic acid and D-alanine
what are the 3 components of LPS
Lipid A, Core, and O antigen
What organisms have LPS?
gram negative bacteria
What is the probable function of the O antigen?
it is hydrophillic ( imparts resistance to hydrophobic compounds such as bile salts and antibiotics)
What transport mechanism uses the proton movie force (symport)
active transport
how do gram neg. bacteria allow for entry of small esential hydrophilic molecules
porins
what are siderophores?
chelating compounds that bind iron
where does oxidative metabolism take place in bacterial cell?
the cytoplasmic membraine
MOA of β-lactams
Interfere with cell wall cross-linking through interaction with penicillin-binding proteins (transpeptidases); *auto*lysis
list the β-lactams
Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, monobactams
MOA of bactracin
inhibits the generation of a membraine lipid carrier required for the transfer of murein monomeric units from the cytoplasm to the growing chain
MOA of Glycopeptides
binds to D-ala-D-ala terminal amino acids on disaccharide subunits blocking their addition to the growing chain of disaccharides (murein)
list Glycopeptides
vancomycin
MOA of Imidazoles
Blocks synthesis of ergosterol required for fungal cell wall integrity
list Imidazoles
fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, posaconazole
-conazole
MOA of Echinocandins
Blocks β-glucan synthesis, a major constituent of fungal cell walls
list echinocandins
caspofungin, mycofungin
-fungin
MOA of lipopeptides
Forms channels in cell membranes of Gram-positive bacteria resulting in K+ leakage and metabolic death
list lipopeptides
daptomycin
MOA of polyene
Bind to sterols in eukaryotic cell membranes, leading to membrane leakiness and, at high levels, lysis
MOA of Sulfonamids
Competitive inhibitor of dihydropteroate synthesis; blocks synthesis of tetrahydrofolate and cell-linked metabolic pathways (folate antagonist)
list sulfonamids
sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine
sulfa--
MOA of trimethoprim
Inhibition of bacterial dihydrofolate reductase
MOA of aminoglycosides
Bind to 30S subunit of bacterial ribosome; cause translational misreading and inhibit elongation of protein chain; kill by blocking initiation of protein synthesis
list aminoglycosides
gentamicin, tobramycin, streptomycin, amikacin, neomycin
Aminoglycosides Tackle Susceptible Gram Negatives
MOA of macrolides
Bind to ribosome 50S subunit; inhibit protein synthesis at chain elongation step
list macrolides
erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin
--thromycin
MOA of chloramphenecol
same as macrolides (binds to 50s subunit)
MOA of Rifampin
Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase and blocks transcription (synthesis of RNA) at initiation step
MOA of Metronidazole and nitrofurans
anearobic bacteria and protozoa partially reduce to unstable nitro groups which are incorporated into DNA and lead to strand breakage
MOA of fluoroquinolones
Interfere with DNA replication by inhibiting the action of DNA gyrase and/or topoisomerase IV
list fluoroquinolones
ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, gatifloxacin, moxifloxacin, gemifloxacin
-floxacin
MOA of linezolid
blocks the formation of the initiation complex---inhibits protein synthesis (usually at 50s)
MOA of tetracycline
inhibits tRNA binding to ribosome (30s)
MOA of nalidixic acid
inhibits DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
protein synthesis inhibitors are generally _____ except aminoglycosides which are ____
bacteriostatic, bactericidal
what surface protein can bateria change to avoid immune recognition
pillin
purpose of DNA gyrase
supercoiling of bacterial DNA
purpose of topoisomerase I
relaxes supercoils by making single-strand breaks in the DNA
what is phase variation
change in flagellar proteins
what is the electron aceptor and product of lactic acid fermentation
pyruvate-> lactate
what is the electron aceptor and product of ethanol fermentation
acetyl CoA-> ethanol
how does attenuation work?
Atenuation sequences occur on DNA with segments A, B, C, and D if the ribosome stalls allowing a stem-loop structure to form between B and C then transcription will be able to continue, but if the ribosome continues quickly from A to B allowing a stem-loop structure to form between C and D then the ribosome will be kicked off the DNA and transcription is terminated
what is an induceable enzyme?
the transcription of the enzyme is controlled by an operon sequence and a repressor protein
what does an inducer do?
causes a confirmational change in the repressor protein causing it to detach from the operon and transcription can continue
aminoglycosides work better on areobes or anaerobes?
aerobes because it is not taken up under anaerobic conditions
nitrofurantoin is only useful in what type of infection
urinary tract
mechanism of resistance to b-lactams
Hydrolysis of β-lactam ring by β-lactamase
mechanism of resistance to methicillin and penicillins
Change in penicillin-binding protein (transpeptidase); not on a plasmid
mechanism of resistance to tetracycline
Efflux pump pushes drug out of cell
mechanism of resistance to aminoglycosides
Enzymatic modification of DRUG by plasmid encoded enzyme; drug has reduced affinity for ribosome, and transport into cell is reduced
mechanism of resistance to sulfonamides
Sulfanilamide-resistant dihydropteroate synthase
mechanism of resistance to trimethoprim
Trimethoprim-resistant dihydrofolate reductase
mechanism of resistance to erythromycin /macrolides
Enzymatic modification (methylation by methylase) of 23S ribosomal RNA
mechanism of resistance to chloramphenicol
Acetylation of hydroxyl groups of chloramphenicol transacetylase; interference with transport into cell
mechanism of resistance to oxazolidinones
Point mutations in 23S ribosomal RNA; not on a plasmid
mechanism of resistance to quinolones (fluoroquinolones and naladixic acid)
Mutations in genes encoding DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV and/or eflux pumps; not on a plasmid
mechanism of resistance to vancomycin
change in binding site (from D-ala-D-ala terminal amino acids to D-ala-D-lactate
mechanism of tolerance to b-lactams
lack of autolysin
gram neg. adhesions and their ligand
pili(fimbriae) to glycolpids, surface protein (invasin) to integrins, capsules
gram + adhesions and their ligands
surface protein to fibronectin, capsules
list 6 ways that bacteria avoid complement activation
1.Coat with capsule (e.g., staphylococci) 2.Coat with IgA antibodies 3.Coat with Sialic acid on LPS 4.Apply appropriate inhibitor of activation to surface: bind factor H ; bind decay-accelerating factors ; mimic component C4bp
5.Cover up target of membrane attack complex (e.g., E. coli, salmonellae) 6.Inactivate complement chemotaxin C5a; activate surface of plasminogen to plasmin which cleaves C3b
how do bacteria inhibit phagocyte recruitment and function?
increase cAMP preventing mobilization or produce C5a peptidase which inactivates the chematactic product of the complement cascade
how do some bacteria kill neutrophils and macrophages?
leukocidin exotoxins
how does protein A reduce opsinization?
binds IgG at the Fc portion so that phagocytic cells can't use the antibodies to get a grip
name 4 ways in which bacteria survive phagocytosis
1. inhibition of phagosome fusion with lysosome 2. escape into the cytoplasm (e.g. listeriolysin forms pores in the phagosome) 4.inherant resistance to lysosomal enzymes 5.inhibit lysosomal oxidative killing (e.g catalase breaks down H2O2)
how do superantigens work?
bind to Vb domain on TCR which makes the TCR more likely to bind to the MHC despite a lack of TCR-MHC antigen compatability
how do trypanosomes evade antigen recognition in sleeping sickness?
Trypanosomes are covered with a thick protein coat called variable surface glycoprotein, which undergoes periodic antigenic changes during the infection
what causes relapsing feaver?
borreliae undergo antigenic variation of their major surface antigen
what is the difference between antigenic shift and antigenic drift
minor changes in virus antigens which occur every 2-3 years is drift; majoir antigenic changes which take place ~10yrs is antigenic shift
what viral proteins change in antigenic variation
hemeagglutinin and neuraminidase
what is the function of staphlokinase?
it cleaves host plasminogen into plasmin which then degrades both IgG and the complement protein C3b
what are the A-B toxins?
shiga, diptheria, cholera, and tetanus
what does diptheria toxin do?
ADP ribosylates elongation factor 2
describe the MOA of heat-labile enterotoxin of Escherichia coli, and pertussis toxin ?
ADP ribosylates a G protein that stimulates adnylate cyclase, increading CAMP
what toxins cleave intracellular proteins responsible for the fusion of intracellular vesicles with the plasma membrane?
Botulinum and tetanus toxins
what type of toxins modulate actin?
type III cytotoxins
what are the pattern recognition receptors?
endotoxin from Gram-negative bacteria, lipoteichoic acid from Gram-positive bacteria, lipoglycans from the mycobacteria, and mannans from yeast
by what pathway does exotoxin activate complement?
alternative pathway
What is the Waterhouse-Friderich syndrome?
adreanal insufficiency resulting from DIC
how does endotoxicity result in DIC?
Endotoxin contributes to coagulation of blood in three ways: clotting factor XII (the so-called Hageman factor) is activated to set off the intrinsic clotting cascade; platelets release the contents of their granules, which are involved in clotting; and neutrophils release proteins known to stabilize fibrin clots.
what is the order of release of sepsis mediators?
C5a, then tumor necrosis factor α (TNF-α) triggers the release of interleukin 1 (IL-1) and IL-6 (IL-6 does not cause shock)
name some membrane damaging toxins and their MOA
lipase (eg. Lecithinase), hemolysins
what type of toxin is Staph aureus's a-toxin?
a homoggenous pore former
what type of toxin is streptolysin O?
heterogenous pore former