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121 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
what does a positive leukocyte esterase test indicate
bacterial UTI
what does a positive nitrite test indicate
gram-negative bacterial UTI
what is the 2nd leading cause of community-acquired UTI in sexually active women
Staph saprophyticus
what is the leading cause of UTI
E. coli
what organism colonies show metallic sheen on EMB agar
E. coli
what organism have a blue-green pigment and fruity odor; usually nosocomial and drug resistant
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
what infectious agents cause newborn meningitis and can be passed from mom to fetus
Group B strep (agalactiae), E. coli, Listeria
what are the ToRCHeS infections
pass from mom to fetus

Toxoplasma gondii, Rubella
CMV, HIV, Herpes simplex,
Syphilis
what are the neonatal manifestations of Rubella
PDA (or pulm artery hypoplasia)
cataracts
deafness
+/- "blueberry muffin" rash
what organism has neonatal manifestations of hearing loss, seizures
CMV
what bug causes hand-foot-mouth dz
Coxsackievirus type A
what dz does parvovirus B19 cause
erthyema infectiosum
what bug causes blue-white (Koplik) spots on buccal mucosa
measles virus
what is the most common STD in the US
C. trachomatis
what disease has the chandelier sign

what is this sign
PID (pelvic inflammatory dz)

cervical motion tenderness
what is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

what can cause it
infection of the liver capsule and "violin string" adhesions of parietal partioneum to liver

PID can lead to this
what are the 2 most common causes of nosocomial infections
E. coli (UTI)
S. aureus (wound infection)
what org causes chronic, watery diarrhea, w/acid-fast cysts seen in stool, in HIV-positive adults
Cryptosporidium species
what rash has postauricular lymphadenopathy
rubella
what org causes grayish oropharyngeal exudates ("pseudomembranes" may obstruct airway), painful throat
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
what causes bilateral Bell's palsy
Lyme dz
what causes currant jelly sputum
Klebsiella
what org is Bacitracin sensitive
S. pyogenes (Group A)
AKA Group A strep

AKA Group B strep
S. pyogenes

S. agalactiae
what org is optochin sensitive
S. pneumo
what org is novobiocin sensitve
S. epidermidis
what are the alpha-hemolytic strep
S. pneumo and viridans strep

form green ring around colonies on blood agar
what are the beta-hemolytic strep
Group A strep (pyogenes)
Group B strep (agalactiae)

form clear area of hemolysis on blood agar
what are the gamma hemolytic strep
enterococcus and peptostreptococcus (anaerobe)
what is the virulence factor in S. aureus

what does it do
Protein A

bind Fc-IgG, inhibiting complement fixation and phagocytosis
what is S. pneumo the most common cause (4 things)
MOPS
Meningitis
Otitis Media (in kids)
Pneumonia
Sinusitis
what org is assoc w/sepsis in sickle cell anemia, splenectomy, and "rusty sputum"
S. pneumo
what org causes dental caries
S. mutans
what does ASO titer detect
recent S. pyogenes (Group A) infection

no prognostic info
what substance do spores have in their cores

how do you kill spores
dipicolinic acid

autoclave kills spores
how does the tetanus toxin work
blocks glycine release (which is an inhibitory NT) from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord -> spastic paralysis, lockjaw/trismus, risus sardonicus
what does C. perfringens cause

what is the mechanism of action
gas gangrene

MOA: alpha toxin ("lecithinase," a phospholipase) that causes myonecrosis (gas gangrene) and hemolysis
how do you trx C. difficile
metronidazole
what is the only bacterium w/a polypeptide capsule
B. anthracis (capsule contains D-glutamate)
what is the only gram-positive bacteria w/endotoxin
Listeria monocytogenes
what gram-positive rods form long branching filaments resembling fungi
Actinomyces israelii and Nocardia asteroides
what is the reservoir of M. leprae in the US

How do you trx leprosy
armadillos

trx: long-term oral dapsone
what org is from animal bites
Pasteurella species
what bacteria grows pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
lactose-fermenting enteric bacteria
which gram-negative bug is oxidase positive
pseudomonas
What does Haemophilus cause
Epiglottitis ("cherry red" in kids), Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia

does not cause flu
what grows on chocolate agar

what extra factors are required
H. influenzae

requires Factor V and X
what grows on charcoal yeast extract culture w/iron and cysteine
Legionella
what is pontiac fever
mild flulike syndrome from Legionella
what org causes diabetic osteomyeliti
Pseudomas
what bugs inhibits EF-2
C. diphtheriae and Pseudomonas
what causes swimmer's ear (External otitis)
Pseudomonas
how do you trx Legionella
erythromycin
how do you trx pseudomas
aminoglycoside + extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g., piperacillin, ticarcillin)
what is the significance on the capsular antigen (K)

what is the H antigen
related to virulence of the bug

the flagellar antigen found in motile species
what type of E. coli is the only to invade the intestinal mucosa
EIEC
Which E. coli types produce a Shiga-like toxin
EIEC, EHEC

(Invasive, Hemorrhagic)
Which E. coli doesn't produce a toxin

what is it's mechanism of action
EPEC (pathogenic)

MOA: adheres to apical surface, flattens villi -> prevents absorption
what E. coli type produce traveler's diarrhea
ETEC

(toxigenic)
Which E. coli cause dysentery
EIEC, EHEC

the same that produce the Shiga-like toxin
b/w Shigella and Salmonella, which is more virulent
Shigella
where can S. typhi remain chronically in the body
gallbladder
what are the types of spirochetes
Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema
which of the spirochetes is the only one that can be visualized using aniline dyes in light microscopy
Borrelia (big size)
which bug is question mark-shaped
Leptospira interrogans
what is the vector for Borrelia burgdorferi

what else is it a vector for
tick, Ixodes

also a vector for Babesia
how do you trx Lyme dz
doxycycline, ceftriazone
what are Argyll-Robertson pupils

assoc w/what dz?
constrict w/accomodation, but NOT reactive to light

tertiary syphilis
How is FTA-ABS used and interpreted
it's more specific for treponemes, than VDRL

turns positive earliest in dz, and remains positive the longest
what are the VDRL false positives
VDRL
Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever
Lupus and leprosy
how can you get Brucella and what does it cause
from dairy products (unpasteurized)

causes undulant fever
what causes cat scratch fever
Bartonella species
when do you see clue cells
w/bacterial vaginosis from Gardnerella vaginalis
how do you treat Rickettsiae
tetracycline
differentiate the rashes of Rickettsia and Typhus
Rickettsial rashes starts on hands and feet

Typhys rash starts centrally and spreads outward W/O involving palms or soles
what causes Q fever
Coxiella burnetii

from inhaled aersols
what is the trx for Rickettsial diseases and vectors
tetracycline
when is the Weil-Felix reaction negative
w/Coxiella infection
how is the Chlamydial cell wall ununsual
lacks muramic acid
which org has a high titer of cold agglutinins and of what Ig
Mycoplasmia pneumoniae

IgM cold agglutinins
What is the only org w/a bacterial membrane containing cholesterol
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
what org has frequent outbreaks in military recruits and persons
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
what is the only live attenuated vaccine that can be given to HIV-positive patients
MMR
what are the live attenuated viral vaccines
smallpox, yellow virus fever, chickenpox, Sabin's polio virus, MMR
what are the killed viral vaccines
Rabies, Influenza, Salk Polio, HAV
where do DNA viruses replicate

what are the exceptions
nucleus

except poxvirus
where do RNA viruses replicate

what are the exceptions
in the cytoplasm

except influenza and retroviruses
where do herpesviruses get their envelopes
from the nuclear membrane

(usually viruses get their envelopes from the plasma membrane when they exit the cell)
what virus causes aplastic crises in sickle cell dz
parvovirus
what does HHV-4 cause
EBV virus -- mono, Burkitt's
what virus causes PML in HIV pts
Polyomavirus, specifically JC virus
what is the most common cause of sporadic encephalitis in the US
HSV-1
What does HHV-6
Rosela

(high fevers for several days that can cause seizures, followed by diffuse macular rash)
whats is Tzanck test used for
to id HSV-1,2 and VZV

a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells
what causes the "kissing disease"
EBV (mono)
what has a positive Monospot test

what has a negative Monospot test

what is the monospot test
positive: EBV

negative: CMV

heterophil antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep RBCs
what are the 5 picornaviruses
Poliovirus
Echovirus
Rhinovirus
Coxsackievirus
HAV
what does echovirus cause
aseptic meningitis

(a picornavirus)
where do you see Councilman bodies
yellow fever, in the liver
what causes German (3-day) measles

what type of a virus is it
Rubella virus

a togavirus
what drug is used in RSV

what is the mechanism of action
Palivizumab

RSV a paramyxovirus and has surface F (fusion) protein which causes respiratory epithelial cells to fuse and form multinucleated cells
Palivizumab neutralizes F protein
what finding is diagnostic for measles
Koplik spots
red spots w/blue-white center on buccal mucosa
what is the clinical presentation of measles

how does the rash spread
Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis

Rash spreads from head to toe
what are the main Sx of mumps

what type of virus is
Parotitis, Orchitis, aseptic Meningitis
(orchitis: inflammation of the testes)

a paramyxovirus
where do you see Negri bodies

what are they
in Rabies

cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons
what types of viruses are the 5 hepatitis viruses
HAV: picornavirus
HBV: hepadnavirus
HCV: flavivirus
HDV: deltavirus
HEV: hepevirus
what does IgG HAVAb mean

what does IgM HAVAb mean
IgG: prior infection; protective against reinfection
IgM: best test to detect active Hep A
what is the best test to detect active Hep A
IgM HAV Ab
what does HBsAg mean

what does HBsAb mean
Ag: antigen found on HBV surface; continued presence indicates carrier state

Ab: provides immunity to Hep B
continuous presence of what indicates carrier state for Hep B
HBsAg
what Ab provides immunity to Hep B
HBsAb
what does IgM HBcAb indicate

what does IgG HBcAb indicate
IgM: recent disease

IgG: chronic dz
when is antibody is positive during the window period
HBcAg
what is the signficance of HBeAg
important indicator of active viral replication and therefore transmissability
what does a high level of HBeAg mean
High infectivity
what does HBeAg indicate
low transmissability
what are the envelope proteins for HIV
gp41 and gp120
when is an AIDS diagnosis made
when CD4+ counts are <200
how does HIV virus gain access to CNS to cause HIV encephalitis
via infected macrophages
microglial nodules w/multinucleated giant cells
when do you see CMV retinitis in HIV pts
when CD4+ count <50
where do viruses replicated in the latent phase of HIV infection
in the lymph nodes