Micro Final Multiple Choice

Front 1

In which way are viruses like living organisms?

Back 1

They evolve

Front 2

True or False: Bacteriophages grown on a lawn of bacteria form individual colonies which can be counted to determine how many viruses are in the culture.

Back 2

False

Front 3

Viral Spike Proteins are involved in

Back 3

Attachment

Front 4

Bacteriophages that can exhibit lysogenic cycles are called

Back 4

temperate phages

Front 5

Eukaryotic viruses enter host cells through which of the following mechanisms?

Back 5

All of the above
A) Fusion of the viral envelope with the host cell membrane
B) Entry by Endocytosis
C) Injection of Nucleic Adic

Front 6

Which of the following virus types would replicate using an RNA dependent RNA polymerase?

Back 6

dsRNA

Front 7

Viral capsid protein subunits are called

Back 7

Protomers

Front 8

For double stranded RNA viruses, which type of enzyme is used in the production of more genome?

Back 8

RNA dependent RNA polymerase

Front 9

What type of enzyme would produce the genomes for retroviruses?

Back 9

DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Front 10

Single-stranded viruses that have RNA genomes which are the same sequence as the mRNA they produce are called

Back 10

Positive-Strand viruses

Front 11

The envelope of herpesviruses come from which of the following host structures?

Back 11

Endoplasmic Reticulum

Front 12

True or False: The Baltimore system classifies viruses primarily on size and capsid symmetry

Back 12

FALSE

Front 13

A __________ Infection is one in which the virus quits reproducing and remains dormant before becoming active again

Back 13

Latent

Front 14

Attachment of the HIV virus to its host cell requires

Back 14

Specific surface proteins on the HIV virus and specific receptor molecules on the host cell

Front 15

A bacterial cell carrying a prophage is called a

Back 15

Lysogen

Front 16

Which of the following MUST carry an RNA-dependent RNA-polymerase in the nucleocapsid?

Back 16

Negative-stranded RNA viruses

Front 17

Which of the following would not necessarily be needed to complete the life cycle of an RNA virus

Back 17

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Front 18

Which of the following is used to help protect the lungs from infection?

Back 18

All of the above
A) Turbulent airflow deposits airborne pathogens on sticky mucosal surfaces.
B) The mucociliary escalator moves trapped organisms away from the lungs by ciliary action.
C) Coughing and sneezing forcefully expell organisms away from the lungs

Front 19

Phagocytic leukocytes that circulate in the blood and migrate to sites of infection are called

Back 19

Neutrophils

Front 20

______________ is a process by which microorganisms or other particles are coated by serum components, preparing them for recognition and ingestion by phagocytic cells.

Back 20

Opsonization

Front 21

A fever enhances the nonspecific immune response by

Back 21

All of the above
A) Stimulating leukocytes to destroy microbes
B) Enhancing specific activity of the immune system
C) Decreasing the amount of Iron available to microbes
D) Enhancing biostasis

Front 22

Blood cell development occurs in the bone marrow of mammals during the process of

Back 22

Hematopoesis

Front 23

Which of the following immune system cells bind microbial PAMPs leading to the phagocytosis of the microbial cell?

Back 23

Macrophages

Front 24

Pathogen associated molecular patters (PAMPs) include

Back 24

A) Lipopolysaccharide
B) Peptidoglycan
Two of the above

Front 25

Which type of immunity is the result of an individual developing his or her own immune response to a microbial infection?

Back 25

Naturally acquired active immunity

Front 26

Circulating immunoglobulins are part of

Back 26

Humoral Immunity

Front 27

T cells attack

Back 27

All of the above
A) Host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms
B) Transplanted tissue cells from one host to another
C) Cancer cells
D) Macrophages that have become infected

Front 28

B cells that are actively producing antibodies are called

Back 28

Plasma cells

Front 29

Memory B cells are produced during

Back 29

All of the above
A) Vaccination
B) the Primary Immune Response
C) the Secondary Immune Response

Front 30

Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on

Back 30

All of the above
A) Skin cells
B) Antigen-presenting cells
C) Muscle cells

Front 31

The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there

Back 31

Secretion of antibody

Front 32

Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses

Back 32

Shorter lag phase

Front 33

An individual with O blood type can safely receive blood from which of the following donors?

Back 33

Type O

Front 34

True or False: All the antibodies released from a particular B lymphpocyte will have the same antigen binding sites

Back 34

False

Front 35

The limitation on microbial YIELD (total cells resulting) at high nutrient levels is

Back 35

The build up of toxic waste molecules

Front 36

Binary Fission occurs at the maximum rate during the ____________ phase.

Back 36

Exponential

Front 37

Which of the following is most likely NOT a reason why cells enter stationary phase?

Back 37

Their biochemical reactions are at equilibrium

Front 38

Given a log phase bacterial culture with 10 cells and a generation time of 30 minutes, how many cells will there be in one hour?

Back 38

40

Front 39

Autolysins are involved in

Back 39

degrading the glycosidic bonds between peptidoglycan molecules

Front 40

The penicillin binding proteins

Back 40

link peptidoglycan strands together

Front 41

Balanced growth occurs during the ___________ phase

Back 41

Exponential phase

Front 42

The process by which all living cells, spores, and acellular entities are either destroyed or removed from on object or habitat is called

Back 42

Sterilization

Front 43

The reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe is called

Back 43

Sanitiztion

Front 44

Heating food and beverages to a temperature below boiling in order to control microbial growth is called

Back 44

Pasteurization

Front 45

When antiseptics and disinfectants are compared, disinfectants are generally

Back 45

more toxic

Front 46

From the heat killing experiment shown at the right, the D value would be

Back 46

1 minute

Front 47

Which of the following influences (s) the efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?

Back 47

All of the above
A) Concentration of the agent
B) Duration of Exposure
C) Temprature

Front 48

True of False: The main reason iodine works so well as an antiseptic is that it's also a strong disinfectant

Back 48

FALSE

Front 49

Which of the following metabolic processes can be classified as catabolic?

Back 49

breaking down glucose to pyruvate

Front 50

A reaction that requires input of energy is ____________

Back 50

Anabolic

Front 51

The synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate, using the machinery of ATP synthase would include

Back 51

All of the above
A) photophosphorylation
B) Oxidative Phosphorylation
C) Substrate level phosphorylation

Front 52

If an enzyme consists of a protein component and a non protein component, the non-protein component is reffered to as the

Back 52

Coenzyme

Front 53

Enzymes catalyze a reaction by

Back 53

decreasing the activation energy of the reaction

Front 54

Which of the following molecules has the greatest ability to accept electrons?

Back 54

Oxygen

Front 55

Which molecule often links catabolic and anabolic processes in the cell

Back 55

ATP

Front 56

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the ATP generating in glycolysis AND the TCA cycle

Back 56

Both are examples of substrate-level phosphorylation

Front 57

Which of the following is NOT produced by glycolysis

Back 57

Carbon dioxide

Front 58

Which of the following is NOT produced by the TCA cycle

Back 58

All of the above
A) CO2
B) GTP
C) NADH
D) carbon dioxide

Front 59

Which products of the TCA cycle transfer electrons to the electron transport chain?

Back 59

NADH and FADH2

Front 60

In fermentation the final electron acceptor is

Back 60

E) two of these
Endogenous and usually pyruvate

Front 61

What causes the rotor of ATP synthase to spin?

Back 61

PMF

Front 62

Which of the following is TRUE of oxidative phosphorylation?

Back 62

involves an electron transport chain

Front 63

TRUE or FALSE: Many enzymes catalyzed reactions are freely reversible; however, some key steps require separate enzymes for the reverse reaction in order to provide for independent regulation of anabolic and catabolic pathways

Back 63

TRUE

Front 64

Which molecule usually acts as n electron donor in biosynthesis reactions?

Back 64

NADPH

Front 65

____________ reactions are used to replace TCA cycle intermediates that have been used to provide carbon skeletons for amino acid biosynthesis

Back 65

anaplerotic

Front 66

Which of the following was important for Calvin to determine the pathway of the Calvin Cycle?

Back 66

D) All of these were important

Front 67

TRUE or FALSE: Catabolism and anabolism use the same high energy electron activated carriers

Back 67

FALSE

Front 68

Which of the following is/are needed for the synthesis of large cellular molecules?

Back 68

E) All of these are needed

Front 69

Which of the following is the BEST description of the field of Microbiology?

Back 69

The study of living organisms too small to be seen without magnification

Front 70

Cells with a relatively simple structure, that do not have a true membrane-bound nucleus are referred to as

Back 70

Prokaryotes

Front 71

TRUE or FALSE: since viruses are considered to be acellular, they are NOT included in any of the Domains of life.

Back 71

TRUE

Front 72

Eukryotic organelles that arose by endosymbiosis include

Back 72

E) None of these

Front 73

Which of the following observations by Francesco Redi refutes the idea of spontaneous generation?

Back 73

covered pieces of meat did not produce maggots spontaneously

Front 74

Which of the following is NOT one of Koch's postulates?

Back 74

The microorganism is present in some individuals and some diseased individuals

Front 75

Why did no bacteria grow in the broth during Pasteur's experiment?

Back 75

The neck of the flask was bent

Front 76

Small internal structures are best visualized with a

Back 76

Transmission electron microscope

Front 77

As the magnification of a series of objective lenses increases, the working distance

Back 77

decreases

Front 78

TRUE or FALSE: The main limitation when using the light microscope is resolution rather than magnification

Back 78

TRUE

Front 79

In the Gram-staining procedure, the primary stain is

Back 79

Crystal Violet

Front 80

Acidic dyes bind to cellular molecules that are

Back 80

Positively Charged

Front 81

In microscopy, the lens or magnet that focuses the illumination source at the sample is called the

Back 81

Condenser

Front 82

The term used to describe bacteria that have a rod shape is

Back 82

bacillus

Front 83

Bacterial cells of the same species that are variable in shape are called

Back 83

pleomorphic

Front 84

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Procaryotic Plasma membrane?

Back 84

Determine and maintain cell shape

Front 85

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the periplasmic space:

Back 85

It is located between the plasma membrane and outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.

Front 86

What hold the long chain of sugar to each other in Peptidoglycan?

Back 86

small polypeptides

Front 87

The function of the ribosome in the Bacterial cell is to

Back 87

synthesize proteins

Front 88

TRUE or FALSE Gram negative bacteria stain pink because the purple stain cannot get into the cells.

Back 88

FALSE

Front 89

Bacterial granules that serve as strong locations for organic or inorganic materials are called

Back 89

Inclusions

Front 90

Ribosomal RNA synthesis; ribosome construction

Back 90

Nucleous

Front 91

Entry point for protein sorting in the Eukaryotic cell

Back 91

Rough ER

Front 92

Organelle where polymers are degraded so their subunits can be reused

Back 92

Lysosome

Front 93

The liquid portion inside a Eucaryotic cell that is not inside any of the organelles is called

Back 93

The cytocol

Front 94

Which of the following is/are part of the eukaryotic Cytoplasm ?

Back 94

All of these

Front 95

In eukaryotes, which cytoskeleton components from the spindle apparatus that separates chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis?

Back 95

Microtubules

Front 96

Energy that comes from light, electrons come from inorganic donors and carbon comes from CO2

Back 96

Photolithoautotroph

Front 97

Energy comes from organic molecules, electrons come from organic donors and carbon comes from organic molecules

Back 97

Chemoorganoheterotroph

Front 98

Energy comes from inorganic chemicals, electrons come from inorganic donors and carbon comes from organic molecules

Back 98

Chemolithoheterotroph

Front 99

Which of the following is NOT an example of a growth factor?

Back 99

A source of Carbon

Front 100

Involves one molecule moving WITH the gradient and another molecule moving AGAINST the gradient

Back 100

Secondary Active Transport

Front 101

Used for large polar molecules that the microbe want to come in and they do so by moving from a high concentration to low concentration

Back 101

Facilitated diffusion

Front 102

Microbes in an iron limited environment will secrete ___________ externally to bind ferric iron

Back 102

Siderophores

Front 103

What was the conclusion of Avery's experiment (1944)?

Back 103

That DNAse distroyed the transforming principle.

Front 104

In Griffith's Transformation experiment (1928), what became transformed

Back 104

R-bacteria were transformed to S-bacteria

Front 105

If DNA from a particular species contains 30% Adenine, how much Guanine does it contain?

Back 105

20%

Front 106

Transcription produces which of the following?

Back 106

Transfer RNA

Front 107

Which of the following is TRUE in a DNA double helix?

Back 107

The two DNA strands are complementary

Front 108

The fact that replication forks each contain a leading and a lagging strands means that DNA replication is

Back 108

a symmetrical

Front 109

For the single stand of DNA 5'-CCGGTTAA-3' what would be the opposite strand

Back 109

5' -TTAACCGG-3'

Front 110

The region of DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to start transcription is the

Back 110

Promoter

Front 111

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of RNA molecules?

Back 111

They are vary stable and last a long time

Front 112

The genetic code is said to be ______________ because more than one codon can specify an amino acid

Back 112

degenerate

Front 113

Which tRNA binding site is the entry point for the tRNAs in the ribosome?

Back 113

The A site

Front 114

TRUE or FALSE: The stop codons do not specify amino acids but the start codon does

Back 114

TRUE

Front 115

Which of the following is TRUE regarding bacterial transcription?

Back 115

Sigma factor must be released to enter elongation

Front 116

The main reason why DNA replication has to be asymmetrical is that

Back 116

DNA polymerase uses the 3' hydroxyl group from the nucleotide just added

Front 117

During replication the 2 strands of the DNA molecule are unwound from one another by enzymes called

Back 117

helicases

Front 118

The strand of the DNA double helix from which RNA polymerase reads is called the

Back 118

template strand

Front 119

TRUE or FALSE: Both the Lac and Trp operons are under negative control

Back 119

TRUE

Front 120

When bound to the DNA, the repressor protein usually prevents attachment of the RNA polymerase to the

Back 120

Promoter

Front 121

An activator protein that cannot bind to the activator binding site if a particular substance is present in the bacterial cell

Back 121

TWO of the above

Front 122

The presence of a particular substance in the bacterial cell causes an operon to be transcribed

Back 122

inducible gene

Front 123

The tryptophan operon co-repressor _________________

Back 123

is tryptophan

Front 124

Thymine Dimers are fixed by

Back 124

Nucleotide excision repair

Front 125

Mutations allowing for a substitution of one purine for another or a pyrimidine from another is called a

Back 125

Transition mutation

Front 126

What type of mutation converts a codon for one amino acid to a stop codon?

Back 126

Nonsense mutation

Front 127

Which type of mutation involves a single base substitution that changes a codon for one amino acid into a codon for another?

Back 127

TWO of the above

Front 128

When bacterial genes are transferred to another bacterium by a virus, it is called

Back 128

Transduction

Front 129

Lysine auxotrophs

Back 129

Are unable to produce lysine and can only grow on media with lysine

Front 130

Complementary DNA (cDNA) molecules are produced using

Back 130

reverse transcriptase

Front 131

A DNA molecule used to carry a foreign gene into a host organism, is called a

Back 131

Vector

Front 132

Which of the following best describes the basis for separation of DNA fragments during agrose gel electrophoresis

Back 132

The smallest fragments will migrate fastest

Front 133

The purpose of southern blotting technique is to

Back 133

Detect specific DNA fragments from a mixture of DNA molecules

Front 134

In the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), each cycle increases the DNA copy number

Back 134

exponentially