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86 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
1. Bactericidal
2. Bacteriostatic |
1. Bacteria killing
2. Bacterial growth inhibited |
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1. Antiseptics
2. Disinfectants 3. Chemotherapeutic agents |
1. used ON living tissue
2. used on inanimate objects-does not kill spores 3. Destroy bacteria IN living tissue (antibiotics) |
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Antibiotics derived from
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Derived from living organisms (penecillin)
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1.Narrow Range
2. Broad range |
1. Active against gram + and few g -
2. active against many |
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Reqs for antimicrobial efficacy (3)
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1. doesnt harm patient
2. no allergic rxns 3. soluble in body |
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1. inhibits cell wall synthesis P, B, V
2. Alters cytoplasmic membrane P 3. Inhibits protein synthesis T, S, G 4. competitive inhibition T |
1. Penicillin, bacitracin, vancomyosin
2. Polymyxins 3. Tetracycline, stretomycin, gentamicin 4. Trimethoprim |
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Kirby Bauer Procedure
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Determines antimicrobial effectiveness
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1. synergistic
2. additive |
1. 2 drugs are more effective than 1
2. combined effect is no different than 1 alone |
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2 drug combinations
1. synergistic affect 2. additive affect |
1. Sulfisoxazole, Trimethoprim-affect folic acid synthesis
2. Trimethoprim, Tetracycline |
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1. Point mutation
2. Mutations occur at a freq of 3. Genes can be transferred through 3 ways |
1. 1 or more amino acid substitutions occur during translation
2. 1x10^-7 3. Transformation, transduction, conjugation |
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4 Mutation mechanisms
1. Ezymatic 2. Change in 3. Decrease in 4. Overproduction |
1. Alteration in chemical structure of antibiotic
2. Selective permeability of cell 3. Sensitivity of enzymes to inhibiting mechanisms 4. of a natural substrate |
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E Tests
1. E tests detect 2. MIC is found by determining |
1. Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic against an organism
2. Where the growth of an organism intercepts the # strip |
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1. Penicillins and cephalopsporins are known as
2. work by 3. Which means organisms producing beta lactamase are |
1. Beta lactamase antibiotics bc of the lactam ring
2. Preventing cell wall synthesis 3. Resistant to penicillin and cephalosporin |
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1. Beta lactamase test determines
2. Substrate is |
1. If bacteria is resistant to B-lactams
2. nitrocefin-turns pink when hydrolyzed |
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1. Beta lactamase test is used to identify
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1. bacteria that produce B-lactamase which renders antibiotics ineffective
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1. Mutation
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1. change in base seq of gene
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Isolation of a strep resistant mutant from wild type E coli by gradient plate technique
1. Req prep of 2. ____ slanted med lacks strep 3. ____ containing ____ is poured over initial layer 4. ____ is inoculated onto surface 5. High strep concen here means there are |
1. double layered agar plate
2. Lower slanted medium 3. Molten agar containing strep 4. E coli 5. strep resistant mutants are present |
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1. bacteria have a ____ genetic state
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1. haploid
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1. Point mutations
2. Spontaneous mutations 3. Induced mutations |
1. permanent, result from addition, deletion, substitution of bases in a gene
2. chemical and physical components in environment 3. changes resulting from exposure to artificial mutagen |
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1. Conjugation
2. Transduction 3. Transformation |
1. Allow unidirectional transfer of genetic material
2. bacteriophage mediated transfer of material 3. genetic alteration results from introduction of free DNA from environment |
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Conjugation
1. Determined by presence of 2. Cells that lack F factor are 3. Cells with F fac and plasmid 4. F fac incorporated into chromosome |
1. Fertility (F factor) factor
2. Recipients of genetic material F- 3. F+ 4. HFR-high freq recombinants |
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Transformation
1.Mix DNA from one strain of 2. DNA donors and DNA recipients |
1.Lysed cells with another of living cells
2. must differ in some way |
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1. Ames Test tests for
2. Organism used 3. S-9 is a |
1. Carcinogenicity
2. HIS- and BIO- Auxotrophic strain of Salmonella typhimurium 3. Homogenous liver enzyme |
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1. Polyhedral head of bacteriophage contains
2. Attachment of bacteriophgs 3. New phages infect other cells which are lysed and produces |
1. nucleic acid
2. Adsorbs onto bacterial cell by tail fibers and base plates 3. clearing or plaque |
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1.Plaque forming Unit (PFU)
2. >300 PFUs 3. <30 PFUs |
1. Number of phages in original x dilution factor
2. TNTC 3. TFTC |
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1. Typhoid fever is caused by
2. Shigellosis caused by 3. Cholera caused by |
1. Salmonella typhi
2. Shigella dysenteriae 3. Vibrio cholerae |
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1. Water isnt tested for pathogens it is tested for presence of
2. E coli indicates |
1. Coliforms (G- rod doesnt produce spores will ferment lactose when incubated)
2. fecal contamination in water |
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1 Presumptive Test Water
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3 different dilutions of water added to lactose broth
broths observed for acid&gas Replicates made |
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2 Confirmed Test Water
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Presumptive + samples streaked onto EMB bc some non coliforms ferment lactose
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3 Completed Test Water
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Pick colony from EMB and inoculate lactose broth
inoculate nutrient agar slant make gram stain |
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UTIs
Two routes of infection |
1. Descending (hematogenous) Tuberculosis, s. aureus, salmonella
2. Ascending (urethra, bladder, ureters, kidney) |
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Causal organisms of UTIs
1. 80% 2. 5-15% 3. Occasionally |
1. E coli
2. Staph saprophyticus 3. Klebsiella and Proteus mirabilis |
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UTIs
1. Dysuria 2. Pyuria 3. Cystitis 4. pylelonephritis |
1. painful urination
2. Leukocytes 3. Inflamed bladder 4. inflamed kidney and renal pelvis |
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UTIs Colony count standards
1. 10^5 mL-significant bacteria 2. 10^4 mL-with pyuria 3. 10^2/2-no symptoms |
1. UTI confirmed
2. UTI suspicious 3. Contamination of UT |
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Saliva pH range is
Main cause of dental caries is |
5.7-7 (avg is 6.7)
sucrose |
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Causal organisms of dental caries (3)
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1. Streptococcus mutants (most important)
2. Lactobacillus acidphilus 3. Actinomyces odontolyticus |
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1.Determining host susceptibility to dental caries uses what procedure
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1. Snyder Test
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1. Snyder Agar pH
2. Agar contains 3. at pH 4.4 (level dental caries form) 4. Yellow color indicates |
1. 4.7
2. glucose and brom cresol green 3. medium turns yellow 4. Acid produced by microorganisms |
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1. Human body contains 10^14 cells 90% which are
2. Intestinal tract at birth 3. IT is 96-99% |
1. bacteria
2. sterile 3. anaerobes-clostridium, strep |
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UT
1. usually ___are sterile |
1. kidneys and bladder
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Genitals
1. Normal flora in females |
1. Lactobacilli and acidic due to glycogen metabolism
Include strep, G- bacilli |
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Normal flora of throat and skin
1. Blood agar identifies 2.Sabourauds Dextrose Agar Selective for 3. Mannitol salt selects for |
1. Alpha and beta homolysis
2. pH 5.6 for yeast and fungi 3. Staphlococci- Throat S. aureus, Skin S. epidermidis |
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1. biofilms
2. microbial mats |
1. composed of populoations or communities of microorganisms adhering to surface
2. specialized micro communities composed of photosynthetic prokaryotes |
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1. 2 benefits of biofilms
2. 3 disadvantages of biofilms |
1. water treatment, septic systems
2. dental caries, contamination of surfaces, resistant to antibiotics |
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5 Formation steps of biofilms
1. Reversible 2. Irreversible 3. Growth 4. Exopolmer 5. Attachment |
1. Reversible adsorption of bacteria
2. Irrev. attachment of bacteria 3. Growth and div of bacteria 4. Production and biofilm form 5. Attachment of other organisms to biofilm |
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DNA Isolation Purpose of each step
1. Salt solution 2. Detergent 3. Meat tenderizer 4. Ethanol |
1. Neutralizes neg charge of DNA phosphates
2. Removes cell membrane and allows access to DNA 3. Destroys enzymes which digest DNA; heat enhances this 4. separation of layers DNA-white stringy matter rises into alcohol layer protein and debris in bottom |
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Classification of Streptococci
Hemolytic activity 1. Alpha 2. Beta 3. Non hemolytic or |
1. Incomplete. Strep viridans, s. pneumoniae, s. oralis
2. Complete. S. pyogenes, S. agalactiae, S. equisimilis 3. Gamma. Few pathogenic |
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Lancefield Groups divided by
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Serological testing of extractable C substance in cell wall with antiserum
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Strep Groups
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. Isolated from man, S. pyogenes (beta)
2. From cattle, man. S. agalactiae (beta) causes diseases of newborns 3. from animals. S. equisimilis (beta) 4. Intestinal tract. Enterococci, enterococcous faecalis (alpa) and S. bovis (alpha) |
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1. Hemolysins
2. Leucocidans 3. Erythrogenic toxin (group A) 4. Hyaluronidase |
1. dissolve RBCs
2. Destroy leukocytes 3. Scarlet fever 4. dissolves hyaluronic acid (connective tissue cement) |
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1. Streptokinase
2. Nucleases |
1. dissolves blood clots
2. depolymerize DNA |
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Tests to Differentiate Streptococci
1. Hemolysis 2. Bacitracin Group A Group B/C |
1. Stab inoculate blood agar O hemolysin
2. Place disc on area of inoculation. Group A - Inhibition of growth Group B/C - Growth around disc |
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Bacitracin
1. Camp |
1. Group B. S. agalactiae produces peptide (synergistic) with B-hemolysin of s. aureus to produce zone of hemolysis
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Bacitracin
1. Sodium Hippurate |
1. S. agalactiae produces enzyme hippuricase. enzyme hydroles into sodium benzoate and glycine
Ninhydrin used to ID glycine product |
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Bile Esculin Test
1. Group 2. Hydrolyzes 3. 6.5% NaCl broth or SF med |
1. Group D Alpha/Gamma strep
2. Group D hydrolize esculin to esculetin which reacts to produce black color 3. Group D enterococci grow but Group D non entero do not |
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S. pneumoniae characteristics
1. Gram 2. Fastidious 3. Grown best on 4. Form 5. Serotypes |
1. G + diplococci
2. lyse spontaneously with age 3. Blood and choc agar 4. Form polysaccharide capsules resistant to phagocytosis 5. Serotypes (83) based on capsule composition |
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5 Tests differentiate S. pneumoniae
1. O 2. Q 3. B 4. I 5.M |
1. Optochin test
2. Quellung (neufield) rxns 3. Bile solubility tests 4. Inulin fermentation 5. mouse virulence test |
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Differentiate s. pneumoniae
1. Optochin Test |
1. s. pneumon. is inhibited by optochin or P disc (EHTYLHYDROCUPRIENE HYDROCHLORIDE)
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Differentiate s. pneumoniae
2. Quellung (neufield) rxns |
2. Capsular swelling rxn
pneumococci capsule mixed with antiserum. capsule swells around s. pneumon |
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Staph characteristics
1. Gram ___ divide in ___ plane(s) Catalase ____ |
G + cocci in clusters
divide in 2 or more planes Catalase positive |
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4 tests to ID staph organisms
1. M 2. D 3. N 4. C |
1. Mannitol Salt
2 .DNA + methyl green 3. Novobiocin 4. Coagulase |
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ID Staph
1. Mannitol salt % NaCl... |
7.5% NaCl, Phenol Red, Mannitol
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ID Staph
DNA + Methyl green 1. pH 2. Stable complex of |
pH 7.5
Stable complex of polymerized DNA and methyl green DNA---> Nucleotides + phosphate methyl green released, fades at pH 7.5 clear zone DNase produced |
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ID Staph
Novobiocin |
Mueller Hinton Agar
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ID Staph
Coagulase 1. Mix 2. Clumping indicates |
1. Mix plasma and bacteria on slide
2. Indicates organism is + for coagulase Plasma (fibrinogen) ---> Fibrin clot |
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3 species most freq encountered in microbiology
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1. S. aureus
2. S. epidermidis 3. S. saprophyticus |
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S. aureus
1. Causes 2. Virulence factors (4) L, H, C, E 3. Non toxic factors (2) D, L |
1. acne
2. Leukocidins-lyse WBCs hemolysins-lyse RBCs coagulase-clots plasma enterotoxin 3. DNase-depolymerize DNA Lipases-dissolves clots |
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S. aureus
1. Coagulase 2. DNase 3. Mannitol 4. Novobiocin |
1. positive
2. positive 3. positive 4. SENSITIVE |
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S. epidermidis
1. predominant organism on 2. Normally 3. Grows well on |
1. skin and mucosal surfaces
2. non pathogenic 3. biosynthetic material |
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S. epidermidis
1. Coagulase 2. DNase 3. Mannitol 4. Novobiocin |
1. Negative
2. Negative 3. Negative 4. sensitive |
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S. saprophyticus
1. Coagulase 2. DNase 3. Mannitol 4. Novobiocin |
1. Negative
2. Negative 3. Positive/negative 4. RESISTANT |
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Immunology defined as
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ability to resist infection due to natural or acquired defense mechanisms
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Natural defenses of host (4)
1. D 2. M 3. B 4. P |
1. Defense that protects against any pathogen
2. Mechanical barriers-skin 3. Biochemical-sweat glands 4. Phagocytosis |
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Acquired Defenses of host
Specific immunity responds in 2 ways 1. C 2. H 3. Following exposure to an antigen antibodies called ___ are produced |
1. cell mediated - T lymphocytes
2. Humoral-production of antibodies by B cells 3. immunoglobulin (IgA, IgG) |
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Diagnostic Immunology involves the interaction of ____ in the direct or indirect detection of antigens/diseases
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antigen-antibody
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1. Agglutination
2. Antibodies that combine with antigens are called |
1. clumping of an antigen
2. agglutinins |
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1. Agglutination Direct
2. Indirect 3. Hemagglutination |
1. Detect Ab to antigens
2. Ab reacts with antigen attached to latex beads then agglutination occurs 3. antigen or antibody mediated clumping of RBCs |
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Immunology
Complement Fixation rxns designed to accurately measure |
amount of antigen or titer (amt) of antibody in test rxn
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1.Neutralization rxns-harmful effects of exotoxin or viral gene product are blocked by
2. Antitoxins neutralizing 3. Schick test: if a serum has neutralizing antibodies against a virus |
1. antibody
2. antibody. antitoxins can provide passive immunity 3. they will block viral mediated hemagglutination |
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1. Immunofluorescence
2. Fluorescent antibody Techniques Direct 3. Indirect |
1. ID of antigens with fluorescently labeled antibodies
2. Detect antigens, epitopes with labeled antibody 3. Detect presence/absence of antibodies |
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Fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS)
1. a type of clow cytometry where cells in a suspension are detected based on |
1. specific type of flurscent antibody tag
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ELISA stands for
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Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
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ELISA similar to fluorescence antibody technique except the tag is
1. Direct ELISA 2. In a simple test 3. In an antibody sandwich test |
an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of a visible color change
1. Detection of antigens 2. primary antibody recognizes antigen 3. secondary antibody recognizes antigen |
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1. Indirect ELISA detect
2. Indirect ELISA test for the identification of |
1. Detect antibodies
2. HIV antibodies |
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Rxn of antigen with suspected antibodies in a test serum
1. Binding of 2. Addition of 3. The reason for the serial dilution is to determine |
1. antigen to wells
2. Antiserum- any primary antibodies will bind to antigens on surface of the well 3. Titer of antibody present |
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Visualization of Antigen-Antibody Complex
1. Addition of 2. Addition of |
1. Secondary antibody enzyme conjugate
2. Substrate chromogen |