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433 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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________________________________ is an organism that produces very little surface colony and appears as a zone of complete hemolysis that can be enhanced by removing a plug of agar under the colony. |
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae |
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________________________________ is the only rickettsial organism that multiplies in the intestinal epithelium of mammals.
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Neorickettsia risticii |
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________________________________ is the dermatophyte that requires nicotinic acid that is found in adequate amounts on the skin of equidae. |
Trichophyton equinum |
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________________________________ is the only dermatophyte that produces a metabolic byproduct that fluoresces when exposed to UV light.
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Microsporum canis |
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________________________________ is an obligate intramammary pathogen of cattle.
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Streptococcus agalactiae |
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_____________________ is a term that denotes the ability of an organism to move through a viscous substrate such as mucus.
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Viscotaxis |
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____________________ is the basic taxonomic unit used to identify the members of the genus Leptospira.
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Serovariety |
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_________________________ is the site of primary multiplication of leptospires (first week of infection).
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liver |
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_______________________ is the major clinical manifestation of leptospirosis in cattle.
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Abortion |
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___________ is the primary cell type infected by members of the genus Rickettsia.
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Vascular endothelium |
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__________________ are produced by Fusarium roseum and F. tricinctum and primarily cause a Afeed-refusal syndrome.
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Tricothecenes |
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_____________________ is a heterotroph that can live on dead or decaying organic matter. |
Saprophyte |
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_______________________ is the Fc-receptor protein of Staphylococcus aureus.
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Protein A |
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______________________ is the name of a protein antigen that is of major importance in development of resistance to Group A streptococci. |
M-Protein |
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______________________ and _ __________________________ are the two Staphylococcus aureus enzymes that are most closely correlated with pathogenicity.
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DNAase and Coagulase |
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_________________________________ is an organism that is harbored in the intestinal tracts of animals and causes mesenteric lymphadenitis and severe enterocolitis in humans that can sometimes mimic appendicitis. |
Yersinia enterocolitica |
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______________________ is a bacterial genus that may be able to fuse with host cell membranes and thus exchange antigens with those membranes.
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Mycoplasma |
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__________ _________________________________ is the organism that commonly invades burn wounds and can ultimately cause the death of the patient. |
Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
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_______ _________________________________ is the cause of glanders in solipeds. |
Burkholderia mallei |
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_______ _________________________________ is the cause of melioidosis. |
Burkholderia pseudomallei |
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________ _________________________________ is the cause of columnaris disease of catfish.
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Flavobacterium columnare |
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____ _________________________________ is the cause of coldwater disease of adult freshwater salmon and trout and rainbow trout fry syndrome. |
Flavobacterium psychrophilum |
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_____________________ is the name of the disease in water buffalo, bison and cattle that is caused by Pasteurella multocida types B and E. |
Hemorrhagic septicemia |
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__________ _________________________________ has been associated with severe respiratory disease in adult cattle especially in the western U.S., respiratory disease in goats and septicemia in lambs. |
Bibersteinia trehalosi |
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______ _________________________________ is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like lesions in the soft tissues of the head and neck of cattle. |
Actinobacillus lignieresii |
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_____________ _________________________________ is an organism that causes fatal, acute septicemia in 1- to 8-week-old pigs and is also recognized as a cause of arthritis, pneumonia and subcutaneous abscesses.
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Actinobacillus suis |
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______________ _________________________________ is a respiratory tract pathogen of cattle that produces LOS instead of LPS, has one or more Fc-receptor proteins and releases RNA components.
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Histophilus somni
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________________ _________________________________ is the cause of rhinotracheitis or coryza in turkey poults.
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Bordetella avium |
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___________________ is a clostridial toxin that blocks the release of glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem resulting in spastic paralysis.
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Tetanospasmin |
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____________ _________________________________ is the cause of blackleg in ruminants.
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Clostridium chauvoei |
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_____________ _________________________________ is the cause of ulcerative colitis (quail disease) in birds.
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Clostridium colinum |
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________ _________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in pigs, foals, hamsters and possibly other animal species.
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Lawsonia intracellularis |
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What allows Clostridium botulinum to survive the processing of foods? |
It forms spores which are resistant to heat. |
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Why do we need to treat botulism with polyvalent antitoxin?
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Because there are a number of serologically distinct toxins and the clinical signs are roughly the same. |
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What are the four major mycotoxins?
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afalatoxin, orchratoxin, zearlenone, ergot alkaloids
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What is the mechanism of cholera toxin?
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Increases cAMP inside target cell
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What is the mechanism of Edema factor (B. anthracis)?
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Increases cAMP inside target cell
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What is the mechanism of Leukotoxin (mannheimia haemolytica)?
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forms pores in target cell membranes
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What is the mechanism of TSST1 (staphylococcus aureus)?
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acts as a superantigen
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What is the mechanism of listeriolysin O?
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Destabilizes and lyses the phagosomal membrane
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What is the mechanism of ApX1?
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Forms pores in target cell membranes
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What is the mechanism of LT toxin (E. coli)?
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increases cAMP inside target cell
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What is the mechanism of Edema disease toxin (E. coli)?
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Inhibits protein synthesis by NAD-dependent ADP ribosylation of EF2
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What is the mechanism of Streptolysin O?
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Destabilizes and lyses cell membranes by sequestering membrane cholesterol.
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What is the mechanism of Phospholipase C?
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Hydrolyzes glycerophospholipids and sphingolipids in cell membranes.
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What is the MOA of Sulfonamides?
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Compete with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis
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What is the MOA of 4-Fluoroquinolones?
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Inhibit DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase A
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What is the MOA of penicillin?
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bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan
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What is the MOA of cephalosporins?
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bind to bacterial transpeptidases and block crossbridging in peptidoglycan.
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What is the natural habitat of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?
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Intestinal tracts of swine, turkey, and many other animals
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|
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What is the natural habitat of mycobacterium avium?
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soil and intestinal tracts of birds
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What is the natural habitat of Rhodococcus equi?
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intestinal tracts of foal and soil
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What is the natural habitat of Nocardia asteroids?
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soil
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What is the natural habitat of listeria monocytogenes?
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plant material and intestinal tracts of herbivores
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What is the natural habitat of Mycoplasma bovoculi?
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ocular mucosa of cattle
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What is the natural habitat of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?
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Soil, skin of sheep and goats
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What is the natural habitat of Dermatophilus congolensis?
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Soil |
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T or F Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus are not a concern for veterinarians.
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false
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T or F PCR of the urine has become increasingly available for diagnosis of leptospirosis, especially in the canine species.
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true
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T or F Leptospirosis should be included in the list of differentials if humans develop a febrile illness within one month of being involved in a flood or flood cleanup.
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true
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T or F Recent data indicate that 1/3 of human leptospira infections come from dogs and 1/3 come from rats.
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true
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T or F We commonly vaccinate feeder pigs against Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.
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false
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T or F Intestinal spirochetes are common but very few have been associated with disease.
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true
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T or F Erythema chronicum migrans is the name of the rash that occurs in about 80% of individuals within the first month following infection with Borrelia burgdorferi.
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true
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T or F Ixodes scapularis is the only species of tick known to reliably transmit Borrelia burgdorferi.
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false
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T or F The human Lyme disease vaccine was pulled off the market and critics claimed that it caused Aodd and damaging side effects.
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true
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T or F Many human cases of rat-bite fever are characterized by a chronic relapsing illness with episodes of fever and chills that subside within 36 hours, only to recur in 3 to 9 days.
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true
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T or F Streptobacillus moniliformis and Spirillum minus are both causes of rat-bite fever.
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true
|
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T or F Haverhill fever is similar to rat-bite fever except that GI and respiratory signs are more common and transmission is through ingestion rather than a bite wound.
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true
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T or F Birds that recover from infections with Chlamydophila psittaci infection can shed the organism in their feces for a very long time and possibly for life.
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true
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T or F The primary route of transmission for Chlamydophila psittaci in birds is via the respiratory tract by breathing dust contaminated with feces.
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true
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T or F Most cases of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever are reported from the southeastern region of the U.S.
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true
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T or F Coxiella burnetii is most commonly transmitted to humans via ticks and is most commonly found in hunters, hikers and others that spend a lot of time outdoors.
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false
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T or F PCR is the currently recommend method for diagnosis of Potomac Horse Fever.
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true
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T or F Bovine anaplasmosis can only be transmitted through vectors such as ticks and biting flies.
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false
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T or F The anemia seen in bovine anaplasmosis is due to clearance of RBC=s damaged by infection with the organism and anti-erythrocyte antibody that is generated by the host.
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true
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T or F Complex polysaccharide and protein antigens are T-cell dependent and the immune response is therefore restricted to the IgM isotype of antibody.
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false
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T or F Bacterial antigens that are broken down to antigenic peptides in the phagolysosome of macrophages are said to be exogenously processed.
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true
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T or F An autogenous bacterin is an immunizing product generated from a bacterial isolate obtained from the herd to be immunized.
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true
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T or F Capsule and toxin production in Bacillus anthracis are dependent on the presence of two large plasmids.
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true
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T or F Pyelonephritis in both cattle and swine usually require some type of predisposing factor.
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true
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T or F Infection with Nocardia asteroides usually requires some type of predisposing factor such as immunosuppression or traumatic introduction of the organism into tissues.
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true
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T or F Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis can remain viable in soil and feces for up to 9 months.
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true
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T or F E. coli STb toxin is more commonly involved in post-weaning scours in pigs.
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true
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T or F F18 fimbria are essential for the production of edema disease in swine.
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true
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T or F Klebsiella pneumoniae is a good recipient for R-factors (antimicrobial resistance genes).
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true
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T or F Bibersteinia trehalosi isolates have the same leukotoxin as Mannheimia haemolytica.
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true
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T or F Respiratory disease in sheep and goats is caused by multiple serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica whereas disease in cattle is almost always serotype A1.
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true
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T or F Actinobacillus suis and Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae produce apparently identical Apx1 and Apx2 toxins.
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true
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T or F Haemophilus parasuis is commonly found in the nasopharynx of many normal swine and is transmitted to piglets at a young age.
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true
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T or F Haemophilus parasuis commonly causes disease in young piglets without requiring any predisposing factors or stresses.
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false
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T or F Contagious equine metritis has been eradicated from the U.S.
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true
|
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T or F Francisella tularensis biovar tularensis is only found in the Scandinavian countries whereas biovar palaearctica is found in most of the countries in the northern hemisphere.
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false
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T or F So-called Adecending@ tetanus is much more common than Aascending@ tetanus.
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true |
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What disease is associated with Mycoplasma pulmonis?
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chronic respiratory disease in rats
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What disease is associated with Salmonella pullorum/
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pullorum disease in chicken and turkey
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What disease is associated with Mycoplasma haemofelis?
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infectious anemia in cats
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What disease is associated with Mycoplasma capricolum subspecies capripneumoniae?
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pneumoniae in goats
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What disease is associated with Mycobacterium bovis?
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Tuberculosis in cattle, bison, deer, and elk
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What disease is associated with Moraxella bocis/bovoculi?
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pinkeye/keratoconjunctivitis in cattle
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|
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What disease is associated with Mycoplasma gallisepticum?
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chronic respiratory disease in chickens.
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What disease is associated with Edwardsiella ictaluri?
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enteric sepsis of catfish
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What disease is associated with Mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides SC?
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contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle.
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What disease is associated with Yersinia pestis?
|
bubonic plague in people
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What disease is associated with Salmonella arizonae?
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salmonellosis in turkey
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What disease is associated with Morganella morganii?
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scromboid poisoning in humans
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What disease is associated with proteus mirabilis/vulgaris?
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UTI and otitis externa in dogs
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What disease is associated with Shigella dysenteriae?
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bacillary dysentery in primates
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What disease is associated with Escherichia coli?
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UTI in all species, mastitis in cattle, pyometra in dogs. |
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What disease is associated with chlaymdophila abortus?
|
enzootic abortion in sheep
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What disease is associated with Bartonella henselae?
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cat scratch disease in humans
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What disease is associated with Treponema pallidum ssp pallidum?
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syphilis in humans
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What disease is associated with Blastomyces dermatitidis?
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North American blastomycosis in dogs, humans and cats
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What disease is associated with Neorickettsia risticii?
|
Potomac horse fever
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|
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What disease is associated with Ehrlichia canis?
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Ehrlichiosis and terminal pancytopenia in dogs
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What disease is associated with Rickettsia prowazekii?
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epidermic typhus in humans
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What disease is associated with Chlamydia trachomatis biovar II?
|
trachoma in humans
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What disease is associated with chlamydophila felis?
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conjunctivitis and rhinitis in kittens
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What disease is associated with hormodendrium, cladosporium, or curvularia?
|
chromomycosis in a wide variety of animals.
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What disease is associated with Malassezia pachydermatis?
|
otitis externa in dogs
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What disease is associated with Neorickettsia helminthoceca?
|
Salmon poisoning in digs
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What disease is associated with Sporothrix schenkii?
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sporothricosis in dogs, horses and humans
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What disease is associated with Trichophyton verrrucosum?
|
club-lamb fungus
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What disease is associated with Mucor, rhizopus or absidia?
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zygomycosis in many species
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What disease is associated with Vibrio parahemalyticus?
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gastroenteritis in humans
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What disease is associated with Pasteurella multodica?
|
cholera in chicken and turkey
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What disease is associated with vibrio cholerae?
|
cholera in humans
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What disease is associated with Candida albicans?
|
oral thrush, in humans, birds and others
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|
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What disease is associated with Rhinosporidium seeberi?
|
rhinosporidiosis in humans |
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|
__________ is the cause of epizootic lymphangitis.
|
Histoplasma farciminosum (H. capsulatum var Duboisii)
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|
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_____ is the geographic area where epizootic lymphangitis is most commonly found.
|
Countries bordering the Mediterranean primarily African countries
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_______ _______________________________ is the most common cause of club lamb fungal infections. |
Trichophyton verrucosum |
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|
___________ is the name of a group of antifungal drugs that act by interfering with the synthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane.
|
Azoles (ketoconazole, etc.) |
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List a common disease or lesion caused by Aspergillus sp. In captive penguins:
|
pneumonia
|
|
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List a common disease or lesion caused by Aspergillus sp. In dogs
|
frontal sinus infection
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|
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List a common disease or lesion caused by Aspergillus sp. In horses
|
guttural pouch infection
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|
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List a common disease or lesion caused by Candida albicans in poultry and pet birds
|
overgrowths of the digestive tract including oral cavity, esophagus, crop, proventriculus, gizzard
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List a common disease or lesion caused by Candida albicans in dogs?
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skin fold dermatitis, cutaneous infections
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Which mycotoxin has estrogenic activity?
|
zearlenone
|
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Which mycotoxin has hepatotoxicity, slow growth, poor feed conversion?
|
aflatoxin
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Which mycotoxin has constriction of blood vessels, fat necrosis and summer slump?
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ergot
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Which mycotoxin has feed refusal syndrome?
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tricothecenes
|
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Discuss the epidemiological link between Histoplasma capsulatum and bird feces?
|
Bird feces seem to provide nutrients that enrich the soil for growth of H.capsulatum. |
|
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In diagnosing dermatophyte infections why should one not take nice long hairs from the lesions for culture or examination?
|
Dermatophyte invasion weakens hair shafts so that they are likely to break. Usually only shortened hairs carry the organism.
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_ _____________ is the type of microscopy frequently usually used to visualize cultures of spirochetes and tissues infected with these organisms.
|
Darkfield or phase contrast |
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|
_______________________________ is defined as the ability to move through viscid substrates such as mucus or agar.
|
viscotaxis
|
|
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Why do pathogens in the genus Leptospira localize in the kidneys, lungs and brain?
|
They are protected in these tissues from exposure to antibody and complement. Antibody clears the organisms from the other organs.
|
|
|
______________ is generally considered to be the most pathogenic serovar of Leptospira interrogans.
|
icterohemorrhagiae |
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|
________________________ is the most common clinical condition caused by Leptospira in cattle.
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abortion
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|
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____________ is the most common clinical condition caused by Leptospira in dogs.
|
hepatitis, nephritis |
|
|
_______________________________ is the cause of rat-bite fever and Haverhill fever. |
Streptobacillus moniformis |
|
|
_________ _______________________________ is the cause of enzootic abortion in sheep. |
Chlamydophila abortus
|
|
|
_______________________________ is the cause of Q-fever.
|
Coxiella burnetii |
|
|
______________ is the name of the disease caused by Bartonella henselae.
|
cat-scratch disease
|
|
|
______________ is the name of the disease caused by Borrelia anserina.
|
Fowl spirochaetosis
|
|
|
_____ is the portion of the pig intestine infected by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.
|
large intestine (colon, caecum, rectum)
|
|
|
______________________ is the most frequent clinical condition associated with Chlamydophila felis infection in kittens. |
conjunctivitis |
|
|
_________________________ is the disease caused by Neorickettsia risticii.
|
Potomac horse fever |
|
|
_____________________________ is the disease caused by Neorickettsia helminthoeca.
|
Salmon poisoning
|
|
|
___________________ is the antibiotic of choice for treatment of infections caused by most of the spirochetes, Chlamydia sp. and Rickettsiales.
|
tetracycline
|
|
|
List the primary cell type infected with Rickettsia rickettsia
|
vascular endothelial cells
|
|
|
List the primary cell type infected with Ehrlichia canis
|
Circulating leukocytes
|
|
|
List the primary cell type infected with Anaplasma marginale
|
RBC
|
|
|
____________________ is the skin lesion associated with the site of the tick bite in Lyme disease.
|
Erythema chronicum migrans
|
|
|
______________ is the most frequent outcome following infection of non-stressed birds with Chlamydophila psittaci.
|
subclinical infection or latent disease
|
|
|
_______and _______ are two long-term or late stage complications seen in Lyme disease in humans.
|
arthritis, neuritis,_ and _ myocarditis
|
|
|
________ ___________________ is the cause of porcine intestinal spirochaetosis and human intestinal spirochaetosis.
|
Brachyspira pilosicoli
|
|
|
__________________________ are proteins in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria that form pores or diffusion channels that allow the passage of small hydrophilic molecules.
|
Porins
|
|
|
______ is the portion missing in rough gram negative bacteria. |
Somatic (O) antigen, O-Ag side chains |
|
|
___________________________ is the toxic portion of LPS.
|
Lipid A |
|
|
_________________________ breaks down the beta 1-4 linkage in peptidoglycan.
|
Lysozyme
|
|
|
______________________________ is the isotype of antibody that is formed against simple polysaccharides.
|
IgM |
|
|
_____________ is the site where protein antigens and and organisms are broken down into antigenic peptides when these are processed endogenously.
|
cytoplasm of macrophages
|
|
|
________________________ occurs when a pathogen alters the main antigen against which the host=s immune response is directed.
|
Antigenic shift
|
|
|
_______________________ is a term that denotes coordinated multicellular behavior in bacteria that is mediated by one or more diffusable signal molecules called autoinducers or pheromones.
|
Quorum sensing
|
|
|
________________________ are small antibacterial polypeptides that are the major effector mechanisms of innate immune system responses.
|
Defensins
|
|
|
______ is a term denoting that a pathogen possesses antigens that are similar to the host tissues.
|
Antigenic similarity or mimicry
|
|
|
________________________ is the major mediator of the adverse reaction that is released from macrophages in response to endotoxin.
|
TNF alpha
|
|
|
__________ the is component of Staphylococcus aureus that is altered when this organism becomes resistant to penicillinase-resistant penicillins.
|
PBP (penicillin binding protein) or_transpeptidase
|
|
|
____________________________ are a set of known MIC values that have been determined for a given antimicrobial against a given pathogen in a given animal species.
|
Breakpoints
|
|
|
______________________________ is an Fc-receptor protein produced by Staphylococcus aureus.
|
Protein A
|
|
|
_____ and ________________________________ are two superantigens produced by Staphylococcus aureus.
|
TSST1, Exfoliative toxin, Enterotoxins A-E
|
|
|
______________ is the toxin responsible for the rash seen in scarlet fever in humans.
|
Erythrogenic toxin
|
|
|
_______________________ is the type specific antigen of group A and some group C streptococci.
|
M-Protein |
|
|
______________ is the most important antigen of Bacillus anthracis for generation of a protective immune response and for maintaining pathogenicity.
|
Protective antigen |
|
|
____________ is the material of which the capsule of Bacillus anthracis is made.
|
Poly-D-glutamic acid
|
|
|
List three methods used to prevent vertical transmission of mycoplasmas (from mother to offspring).
|
egg dipping, egg heating, pasteurization of colostrum or feeding of mycoplasma-free colostrum
|
|
|
List three bacterial pathogens for which we currently have live or modified live vaccines.
|
Brucella abortus (maybe Anaplasma marginale), Salmonella choleraesuis, Streptococcus equi
|
|
|
______ _______________________________ is an obligate intramammary pathogen of dairy cattle.
|
Streptococcus agalactiae
|
|
|
List two forms of anthrax infection in humans.
|
malignant carbuncle, woolsorter’s disease, gastroenteritis
|
|
|
___________ _______________________________ is the cause of pullorum disease.
|
Salmonella pullorum
|
|
|
___ _______________________________ is the cause of fowl cholera.
|
Pasteurella multocida type A
|
|
|
_______________ _______________________________ is the cause of human cholera.
|
Vibrio cholerae
|
|
|
____ _______________________________ is the cause of fowl coryza
|
Haemophilus paragallinarum |
|
|
_________ _______________________________ is the cause of fowl typhoid
|
Salmonella gallinarum |
|
|
________ _______________________________ is the most important bacterial cause of respiratory disease in young lambs.
|
Mannheimia haemolytica
|
|
|
_____ _______________________________ has recently been recognized as a cause of recurrent pyoderma and otitis externa in dogs.
|
Staphylococcus schleiferi
|
|
|
______________ _______________________________ is the most common organism involved in joint ill in foals and calves. |
Escherichia coli |
|
|
__________ _______________________________ is a streptococcus species that is more commonly observed when cows are kept in loose housing barns.
|
Streptococcus uberis |
|
|
________________________ is the cause of human syphilis.
|
Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
|
|
|
_____ is the cause of hemorrhagic septicemia in cattle and buffalo.
|
Pasteurella multocida subspecies septica or types B and E
|
|
|
_____ _______________________________ is the cause of kennel cough in dogs.
|
Bordetella bronchiseptica
|
|
|
_________ _______________________________ is the cause of Tyzzer=s disease.
|
Clostridium piliforme
|
|
|
______ _______________________________ is the cause of redwater disease in cattle.
|
Clostridium haemolyticum
|
|
|
___________ _______________________________ is the cause of Quail disease (ulcerative colitis) in birds.
|
Clostridium colinum
|
|
|
_______________________________ is the cause of yellow lamb disease.
|
Clostridium perfringens type A
|
|
|
______ _______________________________ is the cause of necrotic hepatitis in sheep and sometimes cattle.
|
Clostridium novyi type B
|
|
|
___ _______________________________ is the cause of forage poisoning in horses.
|
Clostridium botulinum toxin
|
|
|
___ _______________________________ is the cause of limberneck in birds.
|
Clostridium botulinum toxin
|
|
|
___________________ is the cause of exudative epidermitis in piglets.
|
Staphylococcus hyicus subspecies 1 (hyicus)
|
|
|
______ is the cause of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia.
|
Mycoplasma capricolum ssp capripneumoniae
|
|
|
List the three basic mechanisms of intracellular toxins
|
increase cAMP, NAD-Dependent ADP ribosylation of EF2, proteolytic digestion |
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with listeria monocytogenes?
|
circling disease in cattle and sheep
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Rhodococcus equi?
|
suppurative bronchopneumonia in foals
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with actinobaculum suis?
|
pyelonephritis in swine
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with E. coli in dairy cattle?
|
postpartum metritis
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with actinomyces bovis?
|
granulomatous osteomyelitis in cattle.
|
|
|
What causes severe chronic pneumonia in rats and mice?
|
mycoplasma pulmonis
|
|
|
What does Escherichia coli cause in poultry?
|
respiratory disease and sepsis
|
|
|
What causes dermatophilosis, streptothricosis, and crusty skin lesions in lambs, horses, cattle?
|
Dermatophilus congolensis
|
|
|
What causes brucellosis in feral swine and reindeer?
|
Brucella suis
|
|
|
What causes early embryonic death and infertility in cattle?
|
Capmylobacter fetus ssp veneralis
|
|
|
What causes malta fever in humans?
|
Brucella melitensis
|
|
|
What causes tularemia in humans, rodents and rabbits? |
Francisella tularensis
|
|
|
What does Pasteurella (bibersteinia) trehalosi cause? |
sepsis in lambs
|
|
|
What causes glanders in horses?
|
burkholderia malleri |
|
|
What disease is associated with Campylobacter jejuni and C. fetus fetus?
|
abortion in sheep
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Campylobacter jejuni?
|
intestinal tract of carrier sheep
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Campylobacter fetus fetus?
|
intestinal tract of carrier sheep
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Bacillus cereus in humans?
|
food poisoning
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Bacillus cereus?
|
plant material
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Listeria monocytogenes in sheep?
|
abortion
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of listeria monocytogenes?
|
soil, plant material, intestinal tract
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Actinomyces bovis in horses?
|
fistulous withers, poll evil
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Actinomyces bovis?
|
oral cavity of cows and horses
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Actinobacillus lignieresii?
|
wooden tongue in cattle
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Actinobacillus lignieresii?
|
carried in the oral cavity and Gi of normal cattle. |
|
|
What disease is associated with Pasteurella multocodia D in swine?
|
atrophic rhinitis
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Pasteurella multocida D?
|
upper respiratory tract of swine
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Klebsiella pneumonia in cattle?
|
mastitis
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Klebsiella pneumoniae?
|
intestine of many animals
|
|
|
What disease is associated with salmonella enteritidis in chickens?
|
no lesions or disease
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Salmonella enteritidis?
|
intestine and feces of chicke
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Moraxella bovis?
|
keratoconjunctivitis in cattle
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Moraxella bovis?
|
conjunctiva of cattle
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides SC?
|
contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle
|
|
|
What Is the natural habitat of Mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides SC?
|
upper respiratory tract of cattle
|
|
|
What Is the natural habitat of Haemophilus parasuis?
|
upper respiratory tract of swine
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Haemophilus parasuis?
|
glassers disease in pig
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Mycoplasma bovis in cattle?
|
mastitis, respiratory disease, otitis media
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of mycoplasma bovis?
|
carrier cattle
|
|
|
What disease is associated with mycoplasma gallisepticum?
|
chronic respiratory dz in chiken
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Mycoplasma gallisepticum?
|
carrier chicken
|
|
|
What disease is associated with Edwardsiella ictaluri?
|
sepsis in cat fish
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Edwardsiwlla ictaluri?
|
freshwater ponds and streams. |
|
|
What disease is associated with Yersina pestis in rodents?
|
sylvatic plague in wild rodents |
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Mannheimia haemolytica in ewes?
|
mastitis
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of mannheimia haemolytica?
|
URT and oral cavity of sheep
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with strep equi ssp equi?
|
strangles in horses
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of strep equi ssp equi?
|
urt and oral tract of equids
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with E. coli in dairy cattle?
|
mastitis, postpartum metritis
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of E. coli?
|
intestine, feces, water
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Enterobacter aerogenes?
|
enteritis and sepsis
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of enterobacter aerogenes?
|
instesine, feces, water
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Aeromonas hydrophila?
|
sepsis of fish and herp
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Aeromonas hydrophila?
|
fresh water ponds and rivers
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Mycobacterium avium?
|
tuberculosis in pigs
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Corynebacterium pseudotubercuosis?
|
caseous lymphadenitis in small ruminants
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Erysipelothrix rhusiopathae in humans?
|
erysipeloid
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Streptococcus pyogenes in humans?
|
erysipelas
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Helicobacter pylori?
|
peptic ulcers in humans
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Helicobacter pylori?
|
oral cavity and stomach lining
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Lawsonia intracellularis?
|
proliferative enteropathy in swine and foals
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Lawsonia intracellularis?
|
intestinal epithelial cells
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with brachyspira hyodysenteriae?
|
bloody dysentery in swine
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of brachyspira hyodysenteriae?
|
intestinal tract of swine and others
|
|
|
What is the most common disease associated with Shigella dysenteriae?
|
bacillary dysentery of humans and primates
|
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Shigella dysenteriae?
|
intestinal tract of humans and primates |
|
|
t/f mycobacterium bovis has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
true. mycobacterium bovis has a hydrophobic membrane. |
|
|
T/f corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
true. corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
|
|
T/F nocardia asteroides has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
true. nocardia asteroides has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
|
|
T/F actniobacillus equuli has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
false. actinobacillus equuli has a HYDROPHILIC outer membrane |
|
|
T/F Escherichia coli has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
false. Escherichia coli has a HYDROPHILIC outer membrane |
|
|
T/F streptococcus equi has a hydrophobic outer membrane |
false. Streptococcus equi has a HYRDOPHILIC outer membrane. |
|
|
T/F mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
true. Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
|
|
T/F corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
true. corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
|
|
T/F nocadria asteroides is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
true. Nocardia asteroides is a facultative intracellular parasite |
|
|
T/F actinobacillus equuli is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
false. actinobacillus equuli is NOT a facultative intracellular parasite |
|
|
T/F streptococcus equi is a facultative intracellular parasite. |
false. Streptococcus equi is NOT a facultative intracellular parasite |
|
|
T/F strains of fescue grass are available that are infested wtih non-toxigenic endophyte fungi |
true |
|
|
t/f endophyte free fescue grass is preferred b/c it has better growth characteristics than endophyte-infested grass |
false |
|
|
t/f Trichophyton equinum is by far the most common dermatophyte of equidae |
false? T. equinum ONLY grows on horses (has a requirement for the nicotinic acid in their skin). T. mentagrophytes is the other causative organism. |
|
|
What causes epizootic lymphangitis in horses? |
Histoplasma capsulatum var farciminosum (like glanders caused by B. mallei) |
|
|
What is the natural habitat of Histoplasma capsulatum var farciminosum? |
soil saprophyte in countries near the mediterranean |
|
|
what organism found in soil/decaying wood causes _________ disease in dogs? |
Blastomyces dermatitidis (Ajellomyces dermatitidis), an organism found in soil, organic debris and decaying wood, causes a north american blastomycoses (a pulmonary infection which can hematogenously disseminate to cause skin and internal organ lesions) |
|
|
which disease does Aspergillus fumigatus cause in horses? |
Aspergillus fumigatus causes guttural pouch infections in horses. |
|
|
what is the natural habitat of Aspergillus fumigatus? |
Common in air, soil, and animal feed |
|
|
Histoplasma capsulatum var capsulatum cases which disease in which animals? |
Histoplasma capsulatum car capsulatum causes generalized disese involving reticulo-endothelial system. can see hepatosplenomegaly, anemia and emaciation. |
|
|
What is the natural habitat of histoplasma capsulatum var capsulatum? |
soil with high concentration of bird droppings
endemic in the ohio-mississippi fiver valley |
|
|
what organism found in the intestinal tract of desert rodents causes disease and in which animals? |
Coccidioides immitis causes chronic granulomatous lesions in (primarily) dogs and humans. |
|
|
which fungal organism causes pneumonia in captive penguins? |
aspergillus fumigatus |
|
|
what is the natural habitat of aspergillus fumigatus? |
aspergillus fumigatus is very common in air, soil, and animal feeds |
|
|
which organism causes oral thrush in humans and pet birds? |
candida albicans |
|
|
what is the natural habitat of candida albicans? |
mucous membranes |
|
|
Which soil fungal organism causes dermatophytosis and which species. |
microsporum gypseum causes dermatophytosis in dogs, cats, horses, and humans.
|
|
|
_____ is the cell type in which histoplasma capsulatum is normally found. |
Leukocytes are the cell types in which histoplasma capsulatum is normally found |
|
|
____ is a trichothecene toxin that is more lethal than DON. |
T-2 toxin is a trichothecene toxin which is far more lethal than DON (a vomitoxin). |
|
|
_____ is a fungus that causes a meningtis in humans characterized by severe headaches and fever. |
Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that causes a meningitis in humans characterized by severe headaches and fever. |
|
|
one of your clients has a horse that is insured for 1.6 million. the horse developed a swelling in the hock. the joint tap shows heavy Rhizopus sp growth. The owner wants to put the horse on a systemic antifungal at a cost of 12,000 for two weeks. Why might this not be a good idea (2 reasons)? |
- systemic antifungals (such as Amphotericin B) required close monitoring as they have deleterious side effects (eg nephrotoxicity)
- systemic antibiotics are not the treatment of choice for joint infections (poor circulation to the joints)
|
|
|
why is it important to do a direct examination of clinical materials when suspecting cryptococcosis rather than just relying on culture of the fungus? |
- morphology of organism in the laboratory is often different than that seen in the animal (lack of capsule) - PCR tests are available which are more reliable - treatment with amphotericin B is too risky to begin treatment without a definitive dx. |
|
|
what most practitioners know as Trichophyton mentagrophytes is actually two distinct species. explain. |
While investigating the perfect state, it was found that T. mentagrophytes was acutally made up of Arthroderma benhamiae and A. vanbreuseghemii.
Perfect state = sexual reproductive form of a fungi |
|
|
T/F trichophyton verrucosum has a relatively narrow host range |
false. Trichophyton has a wide host range (able infect dogs, cats, horses, lambs, cattle etc) |
|
|
T/F fungal sporangia do not form in infected tissues. |
false. Rhinosporidium seeberi can form sporangia in tissue. Coccidioides immitis forms sporangia in granulation tissue. Mucor, rhizopus and absidia form sporangia in tissue. |
|
|
T/F chromomycosis is a type of zygomycosis. |
false. zygomycosis is a type of fungal infection caused by zygomycetes (mucor, rhizopus, absidia) involving the lungs and lymph nodes. Chromomycosis is a subcutaneous fungal infection involving hormodendrum, cladosporium, curvularia and phialophora. |
|
|
t/f members of the genus Histoplasma form some of the largest individual yeast cells. |
false. blastomycoses dermatitidis form the largest individual yeast cells. |
|
|
t/f the vast majority of histoplasma capsulatum infections are subclinical. |
true. |
|
|
t/f untreated, blastomycosis has about a 60% survival rate. |
false. North american blastomycosis is very dangerous (biosafety level 3 pathogen) as it's hyphae are readily aerosolized, and has numerous chlamydospores. |
|
|
t/f blastomycosis and coccidiodomycosis can both be manifested as a skin infection |
true.
- Coccidioides immitis most often causes Valley fever, but on occasion presents as a skin disease. - Blastomyces causes North american blastomycosis, usually starting as a respiratory disease, then disseminating to skin and organs |
|
|
which organisms are most likely to cause eumycotic mycetoma? |
13 sp of "true fungi" cause eumycotyic mycetomas: curvularia, mucor, rhizopus, and absidia.
|
|
|
t/f systemic fungal pathogens are easily transmitted in the yeast phase in nature. |
false. dimorphic fungi are usually yeast in tissue and mold in the environment. |
|
|
t/f systemic fungal pathogens are usually transmitted by a respiratory route from one host to another. |
false |
|
|
t/f systemic fungal pathogens almost always require some type of vector for transmission |
false |
|
|
t/f systemic fungal pathogens are almost always transmitted in the form of arthrospores. |
false. |
|
|
what symptoms are associated with ergot alkaloid poisoning? |
fescue foot, fat necrosis, extremity gangrene, neuro signs (tremors, ataxia, tremors), summer slump, agalactiae in sows, late term abortions in horses. |
|
|
_____ is the genus of ticks that carry Ehrlichia ruminatum (heart water disease) |
Ambylomma spp |
|
|
___ is the most obvious clinical sign of anaplasmosis. |
acute anemia |
|
|
_____ is the mechanism by which most facultative intracellular bacteria gain entry to host cell |
most facultative and obligate intracellular parasites gain entry to the cell by the process of endocytosis. |
|
|
_____ is a cholesterol-binding toxin of trueperella pyogenes. |
thiol-activated cytolysin (pyolysin) |
|
|
_____ is a general name for one type of bacterial iron-chelator. |
Siderophores |
|
|
_____ is the type of tuberculin used in cattle and humans. |
PPD (purified protein derivative) |
|
|
______ is the natural habitat of Burkholderia pseudomallei |
soil and water in south east asia and other tropical and subtropical areas |
|
|
____ and ____ are the names of superantigens. |
TSST-1 and exfoliative toxin |
|
|
____ is a major cause of conjunctivitis in kittens |
chlamydophila felis |
|
|
what is the main function of the M protein for streptococci? |
M protein is a major anti-virulence factor (is antiphagocytic). It binds to serum factor H, destroying C3 convertase to prevention opsonization by C3b. |
|
|
what is the clinical significance of alpha vs beta hemolysis in streptococci? |
Alpha-hemolysis (caused by a beta-hemoLYSIN) is a partial or incomplete hemolysis, while beta-hemolysis (caused by an alpha-hemoLYSIN) is a complete hemolysis.
|
|
|
what are three components of the anthrax toxin? |
- protective antigen - edema factor - lethal factor |
|
|
unpasteurized milk ingested by humans has been in the news lately as the source as the source of three serious but common pathogenic bacteria. name two of these bacteria. |
- Escherichia coli - Brucella abortus - Brucella melitensis |
|
|
T/F Toxic shock syndrome has been reported in humans with severe streptococcus suis infection |
true. China outbreak in 2005, streptococcal toxic shock syndrome in 28% of cases. |
|
|
T/F teichoic and lipoteichoic acids on bacterial cell walls usually inhibit attachment to host tissues. |
false. |
|
|
T/f rocky mountain spotted fever is easily transmitted from dogs to humans |
False. tick vector |
|
|
T/F chlamydophila psittaci is usually transmitted among bird by droplet (respiratory to respiratory route) |
false. transmission route is respiratory, but via inhalation of dust contaminated by feces. |
|
|
T/F animals infected w/ chlamydophila species usually develop such as strong immune response that it kills off all the infecting organisms (sterilizing immune response) |
false. Chlamydiacea persist despite presence of serum antibody, secreted ab, and CMI reactivity. |
|
|
T/F terminal (fatal) pancytopenia associated with Ehrlichia canis infection seems to be more common in GSD. |
true |
|
|
T/F Serologic studies indicate Potomac Horse Fever often occurs in a mild or inapparent form. |
true. in endemic regions, very high percentage of the horses will be seropositive (mild/inapparent form) |
|
|
T/F the agent causing PHF can be transmitted to humans. |
false |
|
|
T/F hosts infected with pathogenic agents that infect RBC can become Coomb's test positive, indicating that they have developed antibody against their own RBCs. |
true |
|
|
T/F leptospirosis in dogs is most often characterized by abortions |
false. in dogs, hepatitis and nephritis are the most common signs. in cattle, abortion is the most common sign. |
|
|
T/F hemolytic patterns of Brachyspira species from pigs are correlated with pathogenicity. |
true. |
|
|
T/F hemolytic patterns are the best means to identify species of brachyspira from pigs. |
false. have a characteristic microscopic morphology and ring phenomenon which make for better identification tools. |
|
|
______ is the cause of contagious equine metritis |
Taylorella equigenitallia |
|
|
_____ is a bacterial endosymbiont of insects and many invertebrate hosts such as dirofillaria immitis in which it is essential for fertility and larval development. |
wolbachia |
|
|
briefly explain the differences in immune responses of maintenance vs incidental hosts for leptospira species. |
maintenance hosts usually have sub-clinical infections low titers, and fail to clear the infection, which allow the organism to be present in tissues. Incidental hosts experience acute disease, high titers and will likely clear the organism. |
|
|
Explain what multi/polyvalent means in terms of commercial bacterins/toxoids. |
When an organism is capable of producing multiple toxins, C. botulinum for example, a unique toxoid for each toxin (polyvalent) must be administered to make a vaccine protective. |
|
|
a killed bacterin has been on and off the market for chlamydial abortion (enzootic abortion) in sheep for the past several years. why is the efficacy of such a product likely to be marginal? |
It is questionable as to if a killed vx will stimulate an adequate CMI response. |
|
|
what is the role of passerine birds in lyme disease? |
Passerine birds were influential in the spread of Lyme disease across the country by carrying and depositing infected ixoded ticks. |
|
|
what is the function of protein A in Staphylococcus aureus? |
Protein A of S. Aureus acts as a Fc receptor. It binds host IgA and in doing so, allows the bacterium to avoid detection and opsonization by the immune system. |
|
|
T/f an infection with bartonella henselae is uncommon in humans but highly fatal when it does occur. |
false. B. henselae causes cat scratch disease in humans, 40% of the population is seropositive. Disease is usually only fatal in the immunocompromised. |
|
|
T/F all gram negative bacteria produce endotoxin. |
true |
|
|
T/F the membrane attack complex (MAC) of complement plays an important role in destabilizing the cell wall of pathogenic gram negative bacterial. |
false |
|
|
T/F TNF-alpha is the main receptor on macrophages for endotoxins. |
false |
|
|
T/F most exotoxins are readily destroyed by heating. |
true |
|
|
T/F endotoxins are readily destroyed by heating |
false |
|
|
t/f bacterial polysaccharide antigens are readily destroyed by heating. |
false |
|
|
t/f cephalosporins are beta lactam antimicrobials |
true |
|
|
t/f polyenes selectively inhibit organisms whose cell membranes contain sterols such as the fungi |
true |
|
|
/f fluoroquinolones such as Nuflor inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis |
true |
|
|
t/f macrolides such as draxxin, tilmicosin, zactran, etc, inhibit protein synthesis at the level of the ribosime |
true |
|
|
t/f organisms that produce a nuclease are more likely to survive in an abscess |
true |
|
|
T/f rhodococcus equi grows as a coccus on solid media and as a rod in liquid media |
true |
|
|
t/f BCG is a killed bacterin used to immunize humans against tuberculosis in many areas of the world |
true |
|
|
t/f in many diagnostic labs, real-time quantitative PCR has replaced fecal culture for Johne's disease diagnosis. |
true |
|
|
T/F horses infected w/ Taylorella equigenitalis must be place in QT if they are in the US |
true |
|
|
T/F dx of taylorella equigenitalis infections in horses relies on serologic tests |
false. very hard to dx this organism. only grows on special eugon agar and is hard to isolate from normal flora. Dx with cultures. PCR is being developed. |
|
|
T/F immunizing young adult cattle with a commercial bacterin can prevent Anaplasma marginale. |
false. vaccinating after exposure will not alter an existing carrier state. |
|
|
T/F immunizing newborn calves with a commercial bacterin can prevent Anaplasma marginale. |
false. vx calves before vectors arrive can prevent serious disease, but calves remain carriers. |
|
|
T/F injecting blood from infected animals into neonatal calves can prevent Anaplasma marginale. |
false. iatrogenic transmission is not uncommon |
|
|
T/F controlling ticks in a herd can prevent Anaplasma marginale. |
false |
|
|
T/F anaplasma phagocytophilum only infects dogs. |
false. A. phagocytophilum infects dogs, cats, humans, horses, ruminants, and wildlife. |
|
|
T/F anaplasma phagocytophilum only infects horses. |
false. A. phagocytophilum infects dogs, cats, humans, horses, ruminants, and wildlife. |
|
|
T/F anaplasma phagocytophilum only infects humans. |
false. A. phagocytophilum infects dogs, cats, humans, horses, ruminants, and wildlife. |
|
|
T/F Anaplasma phagocytophilum causes vague clinical signs such as fever, lethargy, and lameness |
true. |
|
|
T/F Anaplasma phagocytophilum is only found in the upper midwestern US. |
false. endemic to the midwest, east, northeast and west coast US, europe, asia, south america. |
|
|
what causes mesenteric lymphadenitis in humans? |
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis or enterocolitica |
|
|
what causes polyserositis, peritonitis, pleuritis and lameness in pigs? |
Haemophilus parasuis |
|
|
What does Pasteurella multocida type D cause in pigs? |
atrophic rhinitis |
|
|
What causes chronic, intermittent D+ with emaciation in cattle? |
Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis |
|
|
What causes subcutaneous abscesses, mastitis, and post partum metritis in cattle? |
Trueperella pyogenes |
|
|
What causes feline infectious anemia? |
mycoplasma haemofelis |
|
|
What does coxiella burnetii cause? what is the most common host? |
Queensland (Q) fever in humans |
|
|
What causes fowl typhoid? what is the most common host? |
salmonella gallinarum in chickens |
|
|
What causes proliferative enteritis in foals? |
Lawsonia intercellularis |
|
|
?What causes bacillary dysentery in humans? |
shigella dysenteriae |
|
|
What causes congagious agalactiae in sheep and goats? |
Mycoplasma agalactiae |
|
|
What does mycoplasma pulmonis cause? what is the most common host? |
pneumonia in rats |
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what causes contagious pleuropneumonia in cattle? |
Mycoplasma mycoides ssp mycoides small colonies |
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is motility a factor in the ability of leptospira to produce disease? |
yes |
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is motility a factor in the ability of bacillus sp to produce disease? |
no |
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is motility a factor in the ability of E. coli to produce disease? |
no |
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is motility a factor in the ability of brucella sp to produce disease? |
no |
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how to beta lactams work? |
binding to bacterial transpeptidase and interfering with their function |
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antigenic shift is most likely to be a factor in which organisms? |
mycoplasma sp neisseria gonorrhoae borrelia burgdorferi borrelia theileri |
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i sescherichia likely to produce a phospholipase? |
no |
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t/f salmonella is likely to produce a phospholipase |
false |
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t/f mycobacterium is likely to produce a phospholipase |
true |
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t/f clostridium is likely to produce a phospholipase |
false |
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t/f pasteurella is likely to produce a phospholipase |
false |
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what causes monocytic ehrlichiosis in horses? |
Neorickettsia risitcii |
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what causes salmon poisoning in dogs? |
Neorickettsia helminthoeca |
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what causes scombroid poisoning in humans? |
morganella morganii |
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what does neorickettsi elokominica cause? in what host? |
Elokomin fever in dogs |
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what does Borrelia recurrentis cause? in which host? |
recurring fever in humans |
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What does streptobacillus monilformis cause in humans? |
haverhill disease and rat bite fever |
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what causes gangrenous mastitis in dairy cows? |
staphylococcus aureus |
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what causes gangrenous mastitis in sheep? |
Mannheimia haemolytica |
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what does mannheimia haemolytica cause in neonatal lambs? |
sepsis |
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What causes pyelonephritis in pigs? |
actinobacillus suis |
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what causes glanders? in which species? |
burkholderia mallei in solipeds |
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What causes cervical lymphadenitis in pigs? |
Streptococcus porcinus EW |
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hat causes exudative epidermitis in pigs? |
Staphylococcus hyicus 1 |
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what causes hemolytic uremic syndrome in humans? |
Escherichia coli |
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what causes ulcerative lymphangitis in horses? |
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis biovar equi |
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what causes endotoxemia in dairy cattle? |
Salmonella dublin |
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what causes ulcerative enteritis in birds? |
clostridium colinum |
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what causes enterotoxemia in sheep? |
Clostridium perfringens D |
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what causes enterotoxemia in pigs? |
Clostridium perfringens C |
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What causes contagious foot rot in sheep? |
DIchelobacter nodosus |
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what does bacillus cereus in humans cause? |
Food poisoning |
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What causes tyzzer's disease in mice? |
Clostridium pilliformae |
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what does clostridium novyi B cause? in which species? |
Blacks disease in sheep and occasionally cattle |
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what causes early embryonic death and infertility in cattle? |
Campylobacter veneralis |
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what causes enteric septicemia in catfish? |
Edwardsiella ictaluri |
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what causes edema disease? in which species? |
F18 strain of Escherichia coli in pigs |
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what causes mesocolonic edema? in which species? |
Clostridium difficile in pigs. |
