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210 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
A commercial modification of the disk diffusion test is called the |
E Test |
|
A number of viruses often include a similar set of symptoms when they cause an infectious disease state (fever, headache, fatigue, runny nose). Why would they all cause the same symptoms if they're different viruses? |
The symptoms are associated with the immune system's response, NOT the molecules from the pathogens themselves. Our responses against viruses are fairly similar, regardless of virus type, so the symptoms are similar. |
|
Avirulent organisms are |
unable to cause disease |
|
A new serotype of Vibrio cholerae, V. cholerae 0139, has picked up the ability to produce |
capsules |
|
How is the central portion of a T-cell receptor complex functionally analogous to the center of the B-cell receptor complex? |
Both receptors bind epitopes (small amino acid sections of antigen molecules). |
|
Fluoroquinolones typically target |
DNA gyrase |
|
If a patient received a kidney transplant that was matched well across each of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, but they stopped taking their anti-rejection drugs, what would happen and why? |
The organ will be rejected, but it will be a gradual process since it was matched well. There are a number of other proteins that cannot be matched between donors, so the graft will still be viewed as 'foreign' by the recipient's immune system, and will still be attacked. The attack will just be a slower and lengthier process. |
|
Which of the following would be considered a sign of a disease? |
fever of 39°C |
|
Mycolic acids are targeted by isoniazid in the treatment of |
M. tuberculosis. |
|
The amount of infecting agent received by susceptible individuals is called the |
dose. |
|
Which of the following primary immunodeficiencies is the most common? |
selective IgA deficiency |
|
The process by which infectious agents are ingested by host cells is termed |
endocytosis. |
|
Generally antigenic molecules usually have a molecular weight greater than |
10,000 Daltons. |
|
Whole agent vaccines may contain |
viruses AND bacteria. |
|
The only class of antibody that can cross the placenta is |
IgG |
|
A physician is seeking ways to increase the fine-tuning of antibody immune responses that occurs naturally during affinity maturation. The goal is to create 'super antibodies' with intensely high affinity for antigens. She decides to use a drug that can be injected into lymph nodes that will be highly mutagenic specifically to B-cells that are undergoing activation. Is this a good idea? Why or why not? |
It won't work. Affinity maturation is a random mutation process, followed by selection of B cells with higher affinity for the antigen in question. It doesn't matter if you increase the NUMBER of mutations-they still need to be screened for affinity to the antigen, and you can only achieve a certain level of affinity. Beyond that, and any mutations in antibody genes are just 'extra' changes without any real effect. |
|
Which of the following members of the normal flora inhibit the growth of Candida albicans? |
Lactobacillus species. |
|
Transmission-Based Precautions |
are guidelines to use with patients infected with a highly transmissible or epidemiologically important pathogen. |
|
It would be useful if antigens were delivered directly to |
Peyer's patches AND M cells. |
|
The guidelines designed for prevention of nosocomial disease during care of all patients is called |
Standard Precautions. |
|
WHO has targeted for elimination of |
polio, dracunculiasis AND measles. |
|
Phagocytes were first discovered and named by |
Metchnikoff |
|
Which of the following is NOT a political/societal reason for a decrease in rates of childhood immunizations? |
A lack of a proper 'cold chain' for stable transport of vaccines into tropical areas. |
|
Which of the following is not a mechanical vector? |
fomite |
|
Pyrogens are |
fever-inducing substances. |
|
Gene rearrangement is responsible for the generation of the various antibody molecules. |
True |
|
T cells and B cells are manufactured in the |
bone marrow |
|
The natural antibodies in serum that react with A or B polysaccharide antigens are mostly of the class |
IgM |
|
Which is involved in reacting to virus-infected cells? |
cell-mediated immunity, T cytotoxic cells AND MHC I |
|
Bacteria may survive phagocytosis by |
preventing fusion of the lysosome with the phagosome AND lysing the phagosome. |
|
Bacteria that resist killing by complement proteins are termed |
serum resistant. |
|
A relationship in which one partner benefits and the other is unaffected is termed |
commensalism. |
|
Fever |
inhibits bacterial growth AND speeds up the body's reactions. |
|
Antimicrobials that kill microorganisms have the suffix |
-cidal |
|
Allergic reactions mainly involve |
mast cells |
|
Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide |
a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular antigen. |
|
Following digestion of a microorganism by phagocytes, the debris is excreted by |
exocytosis. |
|
Large respiratory droplets typically travel no farther from point of release than |
1 meter |
|
Recombinant human monoclonal antibody (rhuMAb) |
appears promising as a treatment for asthma AND uses an engineered form of an IgG molecule. |
|
Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal, or polyclonal? |
Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens, and each antigen has multiple epitopes, the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal |
|
Factors that work generically against any foreign substance entering the host are described as |
innate immunity |
|
CD8 cells are often |
T cytotoxic cells. |
|
There are blank classes of antibody. |
5 |
|
The hypersensitivity treatment that stimulates an increase of IgG and T suppressor cells and a decrease in IgE is known as |
desensitization. |
|
Antibodies are made by |
B cells/plasma cells. |
|
Why are nucleoside analogs active only against replicating viruses? |
Nucleoside analogs work by being incorporated into growing strands of DNA/RNA. This indirectly shuts down further extension of these chains. However, new strands of viral DNA/RNA are only being created when the virus is replicating. As such, these drugs can only work when the virus is actively replicating as well. |
|
Herd immunity |
occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune. |
|
Antigens interact with antibodies at |
the outer end of each arm of the Y. |
|
Approximately what percentage of hospitalized patients may develop a nosocomial infection? |
5% |
|
Which of the following is/are secondary lymphoid organ(s)? |
spleen AND lymph nodes |
|
Trimethoprim and sulfonamides have a(n) |
synergistic effect |
|
The change from negative serum, without antibodies specific to an infecting agent, to positive serum, containing antibodies against that infecting agent, is called |
seroconversion |
|
In what clinical situation is it most appropriate to use a broad-spectrum antimicrobial? |
In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. |
|
Delayed type hypersensitivity primarily involves |
T cells |
|
Urticaria is characterized by |
wheal and flare |
|
Precipitation reactions depend on |
the antigen having two or more epitopes. |
|
Beta-lactamases |
break the beta-lactam ring. |
|
Which is true about superantigens? |
They are a type of exotoxin AND they bind simultaneously to MHC class II antigen on an antigen-presenting cell and to the T-cell receptor on a helper T cell. |
|
Skin and mucous membranes are mostly involved in |
innate immunity |
|
Sulfonamides work as |
competitive inhibitors |
|
The major class(es) of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis is/are |
aminoglycosides, tetracyclines AND macrolides. |
|
Penicillin was discovered by |
Fleming |
|
Attenuated agents |
MAY INDUCE IMMUNITY AFTER A SINGLE DOSE, MAY CAUSE DISEASE IN IMMUNOCOMPROMISED INDIVIDUALS, MULTIPLY IN THE BODY MAY REVERT OR MUTATE TO DISEASE-CAUSING STRAINS. |
|
Which of the following are referred to as mononuclear phagocytes? |
monocytes and macrophages |
|
Organisms that are found together and interact on a more or less permanent basis are in a relationship termed |
symbiosis |
|
The "voices" of a cell are |
cytokines |
|
Inhibitors of protein synthesis typically key on |
ribosomes |
|
Hemolytic disease of the newborn |
may not manifest itself fully until after birth |
|
The minimum bactericidal concentration is the lowest concentration of a specific antimicrobial drug that kills blank of a specific type of bacteria. |
99.9% |
|
The four cardinal signs of inflammation are: |
redness, heat, swelling, pain |
|
Desensitization |
stimulates an increase in IgG AND is a treatment for hypersensitivity reactions. |
|
The arsenic compound that proved highly effective in treating syphilis was called |
salvarsan |
|
Delayed hypersensitivity is also known as blank hypersensitivity. |
type IV |
|
Which of the following is not typical of an antigen? |
low molecular weight |
|
Which of the following contributes to nosocomial disease? |
susceptible population hospital environment other patients patients own normal flora |
|
The single most important measure to prevent the spread of disease is |
hand washing |
|
Interleukins are |
produced by leukocytes and are protein molecules |
|
Which of the following may be considered virulence factor(s)? |
ADHESINS, CAPSULES, ENDOTOXINS AND PROTEASES |
|
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus is an example of an autoimmune disease that involves |
cytotoxic T cells |
|
If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256, the titer is |
256 |
|
A disease-causing microorganism or virus is referred to as a(n) |
pathogen |
|
Prontosil effectively acted on streptococci when the drug was split by enzymes to produce |
sulfanilamide |
|
Which class of antibody accounts for the bulk of the circulating antibody? |
IgG |
|
Which of the following are most susceptible to complement lysis? |
gram negative bacteria |
|
Substances with a molecular weight of less than 10,000 Daltons make good antigens. |
false |
|
The most effective form of penicillin is |
G |
|
Which of the following do not induce a strong immune response? |
lipids and nucleic acids |
|
The natural habitat of a pathogen is referred to as its |
reservoir |
|
Which of the following factors is not considered important for the establishment of an infection? |
toxicity |
|
The target of most antifungal drugs is |
ergosterol |
|
The diffusion bioassay |
is similar in principal to the Kirby-Bauer test AND determines the concentration of antimicrobial in a fluid. |
|
The tissue antigens most involved in graft rejection involve |
MHC |
|
The variable region of an antibody occurs |
on all 4 chains |
|
Syphilis was once treated by intentionally infecting the patient with the parasite that causes malaria, a disease characterized by repeated bouts of fever, shaking, and chills. Why might this treatment cure syphilis? |
The effect of driving up the body temperature for periods of time can shut down the temperature-sensitive replication of the bacterium that causes syphilis. This gives the immune system time to eliminate it properly. |
|
Which is not a component of innate immunity? |
antibody |
|
Explain how using a combination of two antimicrobial drugs helps prevent the development of spontaneously resistant mutants. |
It is highly unlikely that the microbe might spontaneously develop 2 specific mutations to resist the effects of a pair of drugs. As such, even if one drug is resisted by the microbe, the 2nd drug will eliminate the mutated microbe, thus preventing the development of spontaneously resistant mutants overall. |
|
Which of the following is true about the role normal flora plays in maintaining host health? |
THEY PROVIDE A SURFACE THAT IS INCOMPATIBLE FOR ATTACHMENT OF AN INVADER, THEY ESTABLISH COMPETITION FOR NUTRIENTS AND VITAMINS, THEY PRODUCE ANTIMICROBIAL SUBSTANCES, AND THEY STIMULATE THE IMMUNE SYSTEM |
|
Which of the following is called a zoonotic disease? |
plague |
|
Which of the following antibodies is a dimer? |
IgA |
|
Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called |
adjuvants |
|
Adhesins are |
involved in the first step of the infectious process AND often found at the tip of pili. |
|
Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against |
smallpox |
|
Stem cells |
have an almost unlimited capacity to divide. can differentiate into different tissues. may be used to test the effects of drugs on human cells. come from fetal material. |
|
A defect in which of the following systems leads to granulomatous disease? |
oxidase system |
|
Inanimate objects capable of transferring infectious disease agents are |
fomites |
|
The surface receptors on B and T cells both |
have variable and constant regions. |
|
Antibodies that have arisen in the blood plasma without any obvious or deliberate stimulus are called |
natural |
|
The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in |
1977 |
|
Proteins that react specifically with the chemical structures in the antigen that induced them are called |
antibodies |
|
Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of |
a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope |
|
A group of interacting serum proteins that provide a nonspecific defense mechanism is |
complement |
|
Which is the most efficient at initiating the classical pathway of the complement cascade? |
IgM |
|
Antibiotics that are most likely to disrupt the normal flora are termed |
broad spectrum |
|
Sulfonamide and trimethoprim are both |
examples of metabolic inhibitors AND folate inhibitors. |
|
A more modern equivalent to Koch's Postulates is termed |
Molecular Postulates. |
|
The interaction of all organisms within a biological community is called a(n) |
ecosystem |
|
Normal microbiota |
are the organisms that typically reside on your body AND protect against infection by pathogens. |
|
The threat of bioterrorism |
is due largely to the ease of spread and severity of diseases AND may include rarely seen infectious agents. |
|
Killing of graft cells occurs through a complex series of mechanisms including |
sensitized T cytotoxic cells AND NK cells. |
|
During a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, the mast cells |
degranulate AND immediately release histamine. |
|
When an infectious disease cannot spread in a population because it lacks a significant number of susceptible hosts, the phenomenon is referred to as |
herd immunity |
|
Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine? |
acellular subunit |
|
The "hygiene hypothesis" proposes that |
lack of exposure to microbes can promote development of allergies. |
|
One of the strongest indications of infectious disease is |
fever |
|
Why do Rh-negative but not Rh-positive mothers sometimes have babies with hemolytic disease of the newborn? |
This disease results when an Rh-negative mother's immune system is primed multiple times to produce anti-Rh IgG antibodies that can cross the placenta. If the mother is Rh-positive, she won't produce any anti-Rh antibodies at all. |
|
Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with |
formalin |
|
DNA vaccines work by |
having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen. |
|
Prevention of patient-to-personnel transmission of disease keys on limiting contact with |
body fluids |
|
Which plant has been used to deliver vaccine? |
potatoes |
|
Complement |
may be activated through three pathways, disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane of invading bacteria and foreign cells AND is a group of blood proteins. |
|
Sulfonamides are similar in structure to |
PABA |
|
Which test is used to determine the susceptibility of a microorganism to an antimicrobial? |
Kirby- Bauer test |
|
What is NOT a reason that the kidneys are particularly prone to damage caused by immune complexes? |
Kidney blood vessel wall cells have receptors for antibodies on them, which makes them soak up antibodies (or in this case, immune complexes) from the bloodstream. This blocks the kidneys up and causes them to malfunction and become damaged. |
|
Which of the following is a phagocytic cell found in the human body? |
neutrophil |
|
The series of steps used to connect an organism to a disease are known as |
Koch's postulates |
|
What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism? |
Time. You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life when no is available for them to make their own active immune response. |
|
Which of the following bacteria have an innate resistance to penicillin? |
mycoplasma |
|
The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the |
fluorescent antibody test |
|
In which organism were phagocytes first reported? |
starfish larvae |
|
Growth of a parasitic organism in or on the host is referred to as |
infection |
|
Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in |
indirect fluorescent antibody tests |
|
Monoclonal antibodies may be used in the rapid diagnosis of |
CHLAMYDIA, INFLUENZA, HEPATITIS AND PREGNANCY |
|
Colonization of the body is inhibited by |
the shedding of skin cells. |
|
The first kind of leukocyte lured to the site of inflammation is the |
neutophil |
|
Giant cells are |
used to contain bacterial infections. |
|
How do cytokines function? |
They are secreted by one cell type in the vicinity of another cell. They then bind to a receptor on the 2nd cell, causing a signal within that cell that turns on (or off) certain genes to achieve a response. |
|
An immune complex is defined as |
antigen combined with antibody |
|
The resident microbial population of the human fetus is |
zero |
|
What might be an advantage to using an individual's own stem cells instead of pancreatic cell allografts to treat Type I diabetes? |
If you were able to use a person's own cells, it would be considered an autograft rather than an allograft. As such, there should be no HLA/MHC matching required, and no long-term anti-rejection drugs needed |
|
The lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a microorganism is the |
minimum inhibitory concentration. |
|
The microorganisms that are regularly found in or on the body, yet do no apparent harm are called |
normal flora |
|
Immunosuppressive drugs |
are needed indefinitely after transplantation. |
|
Explain the most likely reason why smallpox was successfully eradicated but rabies probably never will be. |
Smallpox was ONLY found in humans; rabies is found in numerous animal reservoirs. We cannot reasonably eliminate rabies in all of the animal reservoirs that exist. |
|
Memory cells may take the form of |
B CELLS, T CYTOTOXIC CELLS AND T HELPER CELLS |
|
Schistosomiasis has increased in areas where |
dams have been built |
|
Regarding a mismatch of either the Rh antigen or the AB antigen, both |
result in destruction of red blood cells. |
|
The most common adjuvant is |
alum |
|
Which of the following causes a foodborne intoxication? |
Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli O157:H7 AND Clostridium botulinum |
|
The first identified case in an outbreak is called the |
index case |
|
C3b is involved in |
opsonization |
|
The publication of the CDC that reports new cases of reportable infectious diseases is titled |
Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report (MMWR). |
|
scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was |
Jenner |
|
Specific chemical groups on an antigen molecule to which the immune response is directed are |
antigenic determinants |
|
Arthus reactions and serum sickness are examples of blank hypersensitivity. |
type III |
|
CD4 cells are often |
T helper cells |
|
The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called
|
variolation
|
|
Smoking impairs the ciliated cells of the middle portion of the respiratory tract. Many analgesic drugs (painkillers) impair peristalsis (the churning motion of the digestive tract). The result of either of these activities leads to an increased risk of infection in their respective areas. Why? |
The actions of the cells in these areas help to propel pathogens out of the area, serving as a part of the physical barrier system. When they are impaired/slowed, bacteria and other pathogens have an easier time adhering to the tissues in the area and causing an infection. |
|
The zone size obtained in the Kirby-Bauer test is influenced by the drug's |
size stability concentration |
|
The antimicrobials produced by some molds and bacteria are generally called |
antibiotics |
|
T cell receptors are identical to antibodies |
false |
|
Cytotoxic T cells primarily are responsible for |
cell-mediated immunity |
|
Important sources of contamination in crowded locations are |
droplets of saliva or mucus |
|
The first host response to a nonspecific tissue injury is described as |
inflammation |
|
Serological tests are most often conducted in |
microtiter plates |
|
Home-canned foods should be boiled before consumption to prevent botulism. Considering that this treatment does NOT destroy endospores, why would it be helpful in preventing the disease? |
Because the heat would denature the botulism exotoxin and inactivate it. The exotoxin is what leads to the disease symptoms, so this would make the food safer. |
|
The number of cases of a specific disease per one hundred people exposed is called the |
attack rate |
|
Antiviral drugs may target |
uncoating, nucleic acid synthesis AND viral assembly. |
|
The low molecular weight protein produced by animal cells in response to viral infections is |
interferon |
|
Which is true about botox? |
It may cause botulism AND it is useful in treating conditions related to muscle contractions. |
|
Because of the natural evolution of microorganisms, it is necessary to use techniques that allow distinguishing them at the level of |
strain |
|
If the body recognizes parts of itself as being foreign, this is termed |
autoimmune disease |
|
One of the earliest researchers to explore the use of chemicals to kill microbial pathogens was |
Ehrlich |
|
Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for HIV by using the |
ELISA method |
|
Allografts |
are normally rejected within 10-14 days, are grafts between non-identical members of the same species AND would include the fetus |
|
Anti-A and anti-B antibodies |
are considered natural antibodies AND are typically IgM. |
|
The normal microbiota provides protection against potentially harmful organisms and stimulates the immune system. Why would the immune responses to members of the normal microbiota cross-react with pathogens? |
Because pathogens are oftentimes more virulent strains of our own normal microbial flora, so they will 'look' roughly the same to our immune system (and be acted upon by our immune responses). |
|
Which of the following is NOT a likely reason why diseases caused by opportunists are becoming more frequent in the US population? |
Travel into and out of the United States has increased significantly. This has the potential to bring in many new pathogens that can cause new infections, even in otherwise healthy and immunocompetent individuals. |
|
The first step in the establishment of infection is that the organism must |
attach to host cells |
|
The attraction of leukocytes to the area on inflammation is referred to as |
chemotaxis |
|
Diseases that primarily exist in animals, but may be transmitted to humans are called |
zoonotic |
|
The complex resulting from complement activity that leads to cell lysis is the |
membrane attack complex |
|
For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended? |
pertussis |
|
Vertical transmission involves |
pregnant woman to fetus |
|
An example of genetic variation used in pathogen survival may be |
changing the pilus type |
|
What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just an antigen from that agent for a vaccine? |
An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody) AND cell-mediated (T cell) portions of the adaptive immune response, giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available. |
|
The leukocyte that contains histamine is the |
basophil |
|
In humans, the stem cells from which all blood cells arise are found in the |
bone marrow |
|
A recombinant vaccine is used to protect against |
hepatitis B |
|
To produce an allergic reaction in Type I hypersensitivity, the antigen |
must crosslink two IgE molecules on mast cells. |
|
Drugs that are bacteriostatic |
inhibit the growth of bacteria |
|
Which of the following is associated with contact dermatitis? |
poison ivy, latex AND tuberculin skin test |
|
Class II MHC molecules are found primarily on |
macrophages AND dendritic cells. |
|
Diseases that can be transmitted from one person to another are termed |
communicable |
|
Toxoids are used in vaccines against |
diptheria |
|
The immunity of some black Africans to malaria is probably due to their |
genetic background |
|
Generalized anaphylaxis is generally characterized by |
shock |
|
If the thymus fails to develop |
functional T cells are absent AND Di George's syndrome exists. |
|
The type of epidemiological study that determines the characteristics of the persons involved and the time and place of the outbreak is called a(n) |
descriptive study |
|
An epidemic that spreads worldwide is called a(n) |
pandemic |
|
T-independent antigens |
include polysaccharides |