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496 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

____ the term used to describe all of the chemical reactions inside a cell.

Metabolism.

E______ reactions require energy to proceed.

Endergonic.

E____ reactions are reactions that are spontaneous and release energy.

Exergonic.

_______ reactions are reactions that remove electrons from donor molecules. They are taker! They leave donor molecules ____.

Oxidatation: oxidized.

______ reactions are reactions that add electrons to acceptor molecules, leaving them ____. These are givers!

Reduction; reduced.

A ____ is any molecule that is a nutrient, an intermediary product, or an end product in a metabolic reaction.

Metabolite.

Enzymes are ____.

Proteins.

Where in the cell are enzymes made?

Enzymes are made in the ribosomes and are adjusted in the Golgi apparatus.

_____ _____ Are proteins that either caused a particular chemical reaction to occur or accelerate it.

Biological catalysts.

Enzymes lower _________ _____ By binding to the reactant molecules and holding them in such a way to speed up the reaction.

Activation energy.

_____ ____ is the energy needed to form or break chemical bonds and convert reactants into products.

Activation energy.

Enzymes _____ The activation energy of a chemical reaction. Otherwise known as, _______ _____ the chemical reaction.

Lowers; speeding up.

The following describes what principle? : “ Due to their SHAPE enzymes are specific, they catalyze only one particular chemical reaction. A particular enzyme can exert its affect on only one particular substance, known as a substrate for that enzyme.”

Lock & Key Principle.

The unique 3-D shape of an enzyme enables it to fit the combining side of the substrate like a _____ fits into a ____.

Key; lock.

Due to the lock and key match between enzymes and their substrates, enzymes are known for their _____.

Specificity.

_____ _____ occurs when active site modification in the presence of substrates occur.

Induced fit.

True or false: there is a specifically matched enzyme for each substrate.

True.

____ ____ refers to when a particular enzyme can exert its affect on only one particular substance, known as a substrate for that enzyme

Substrate specific.

What is the term for when an enzyme loses their 3-D structure and function? (This can occur due to increasing or decreasing temperatures and affects the chemical bonds.)

Denaturation.

A ___ ___ Is a molecule similar enough to a substrate that it can compete with the substrate for binding to an active site by simply blocking the substrate from binding.

Competitive inhibitor.

_____ are organisms that get their energy for electron transfer from light.

Phototrophs.

_____ obtain energy for electron transfer by breaking chemical bonds. (classification of organisms based on energy source and carbon source.)

Chemotrophs.

What are the two types of chemotrophs?

Chemolithotrophs & Chemoorganotrophs.

_________ are chemotrophs that get energy from in organic compounds, including hydrogen sulfate and reduced iron.

Chemolithotrophs.

_______ are chemotrophs that obtain energy from organic compounds.

Chemoorganotrophs.

_________ are organisms that convert into organic carbon dioxide (CO2) into organic carbon compounds.

Autotrophs.

________ These are organisms that rely on more complex organic carbon compounds as nutrients, these are provided to them initially by autotrophs.

Heterotrophs.

What are the two kinds of phototrophs?

Photoautotrophs & photoheterotrophs.

(Classification of organisms.) ______ use light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source.

Photoautotrophs.

(classification of organisms.) ____ Use light as an energy source and organic compounds other than CO2 as a carbon source.

Photoheterotrophs.

Define chemoautotroph.

They use chemicals as an energy source, and CO2 as a carbon source.

Define chemoheterotroph.

They use chemicals as an energy source, and organic compounds other than CO2 as a carbon source.

___ _____ is how organisms get ATP out of the food they eat.

Carbohydrate catabolism.

The catabolism of glucose by cellular respiration occurs in three phases…

1) Glycolysis 2) the Krebs cycle 3) The electron transport chain.

______Is the most common pathway for the catabolism of glucose. It results in 2 pyruvic acid, 2 NADH, & 2 ATP.

Glycolysis.

_______ is a nine step biochemical pathway, each step requires a specific enzyme. It also takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. This process itself does not use oxygen.

Glycolysis

Pyruvate is a ____ carbon sugar.

3

Explain what happens or what is the end result in glycolysis.

In glycolysis glucose is broken down into two pyruvic acid, two NADH, and two ATP.

Explain the formation of AcetylCoA.

2 pyruvic acid breaks down into 2 AcetylCoA, 2 NADH, and two CO2.

Explain the Krebs cycle.

2 AcetylCoA —> 4 CO2 +6 NADH + 2 FADH + 2 ATP.


Only 2 ATP molecules are produced.

Where does the Krebs cycle occur in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

In eukaryotic cells the cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix. In prokaryotes it occurs at the inner surface of the cell membrane.

(Carbohydrate catabolism.) this is the last process in carbohydrate catabolism. This results in H20 and 34 ATP.

Electron transport chain.

The electron transport chain occurs in the _______ in prokaryotes and the ______ in eukaryotes.

Inner cell membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane.

True or false: fermentation uses oxygen.

False. Fermentation takes place in the absence of oxygen. Anaerobic respiration.

Which is more efficient: aerobic respiration or anaerobic respiration?

Aerobic respiration is more efficient, it creates 36 ATP. Anaerobic respiration only creates 2 ATP.

Fermentation is helpful because it creates ______ when there is no oxygen around.

Energy

__________ Is the recycling of inorganic matter between living organisms and their nonliving environment.

Bio chemical cycle.

Production, consumption, and decomposition are the three processes involved in the ______ ______.

Bio chemical cycle.

In the bio chemical cycle the process that involves converting in organic compounds into organic compounds is called…

Production.

In the bio chemical cycle the process involving organisms called consumers feeding on producers and other consumers is called…

Consumption.

In the bio chemical cycle the process involving decomposers converting organic compounds in dead organisms into inorganic compounds is called…

Decomposition.

In the _____ cycle, nitrogen fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Nitrogen.

In the _____ cycle, nitrogen fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Nitrogen.

(The nitrogen cycle.) When nitrogen fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Ammonification.

In the _____ cycle, nitrogen fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Nitrogen.

(The nitrogen cycle.) When nitrogen fixing bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia.

Ammonification.

(The nitrogen cycle.) when ammonia can then be oxidated into nitrate and nitrite.

Nitrification.

(The nitrogen cycle.) When nitrates Can then be assimilated by plants, and soil bacteria convert nitrate back to nitrogen gas.

Denitrification.

(The nitrogen cycle.) Atmospheric nitrogen —> Ammonia.

Ammonification.

(The nitrogen cycle.) Ammonia —> Nitrate & Nitrite.

Nitrification.

(The nitrogen cycle.) Nitrate —> Nitrogen gas.

Denitrification.

_____ is the use of microbial metabolism to remove or degrade environmental contaminants and pollutants.

Bio remediation.

All the reactions in a cell or organism is called…

Metabolism.

An ___ absorbs energy from the environment.

Endergonic.

Chemotrophs obtain their energy from…

Organic and inorganic chemical reactions.

Has an oxidized molecule gained an electron or had an electron removed?

Removed. Oxidation reactions are reactions that take electrons from donors making them oxidized.

______ _______ Is the molecule often called the cells energy currency.

Adenosine triphosphate. (ATP)

Which site on an enzyme is where substrates bind?

The active site.

Catabolic or anabolic?: They break down large molecules into smaller components.

Catabolic.

Glycolysis produces a net gain of what?

2 ATP, 2 NADH, & 2 pyruvates.

______ is the movement of hydrogen ions through ATP synthase.

Chemiosmosis.

_______ Are complex and dynamic ecosystems of bacteria that form on a variety of environmental services.

Bio films.

Why are biofilms different from normally growing bacteria?

Because biofilms are the accumulation of thousands of bacteria communicating and working together for the survival of their colony. Normally growing bacteria are just replications of each other that act more independently.

_______ _____ is the most common mechanism of cell replication in bacteria.

Binary fission.

What are the steps of binary fission?

DNA replication, cell elongates, formation of division septum, and cell separation.

____ _____ Is the time it takes for one cell to become to cells.

Generation/doubling time.

Nt = No * 2^n is the formula for what?

The generation/doubling time.

The ____ ____ Is a reproducible growth pattern. It is represented by the logarithm of the number of liver cells plotted as a function of time. The graph can be divided into four phases.

Growth curve.

What is the growth curve? This is in reference to how microbes grow… Just explain it.

It is the number of life cells plotted as a function of time, it usually involves four phases: lag, log, stationary, & death.

What are the 4 phases of a growth curve chart?

Lag, log, stationary, & death.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: no increase in # of living bacterial cells.

Lag phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: exponential increase in # of living bacterial cells.

Log phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: exponential increase in # of living bacterial cells.

Log phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: plateau in # of living bacterial cells; rare of cell division and death is roughly equal.

Stationary phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: exponential increase in # of living bacterial cells.

Log phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: plateau in # of living bacterial cells; rare of cell division and death is roughly equal.

Stationary phase.

(Growth curve graph/microbial growth.) ____ phase: exponential decrease in # of living bacterial cells.

Death/decline phase.

A few cells, the so-called ___, are characterized by a slow metabolic rate. They are medically important because they are associated with certain chronic infections, such as TB, that do not respond to antibiotic treatment.

Persisters.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ________ ______ ______ Is the simplest way to count bacteria, it involves transferring unknown volume of a culture to a calibrated slide and counting cells under a light microscope.

Direct cell count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ ________ Involves diluting a fixed volume of cells mixed with dilution solution using the previous dilution as an inoculum. The result is dilution of the original culture by an exponentially growing factor.

Serial dilution.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ ________ Involves diluting a fixed volume of cells mixed with dilution solution using the previous dilution as an inoculum. The result is dilution of the original culture by an exponentially growing factor.

Serial dilution.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is a modification of the plate count technique. Known volumes are vacuum filtered through a membrane with a poor size small enough to trap microorganisms. The membrane is transferred to a petri plate containing an appropriate growth medium. Colonies are counted after incubation.

Membrane filtration.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ ________ Involves diluting a fixed volume of cells mixed with dilution solution using the previous dilution as an inoculum. The result is dilution of the original culture by an exponentially growing factor.

Serial dilution.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is a modification of the plate count technique. Known volumes are vacuum filtered through a membrane with a poor size small enough to trap microorganisms. The membrane is transferred to a petri plate containing an appropriate growth medium. Colonies are counted after incubation.

Membrane filtration.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ _____ _____ Is the method of accounting cells based on an indirect detection of cell density, commonly used to estimate and compare cell densities in a culture. The foremost approach is a measure the turbidity or cloudiness of a sample of bacteria in a liquid suspension.

Indirect cell count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ ________ Involves diluting a fixed volume of cells mixed with dilution solution using the previous dilution as an inoculum. The result is dilution of the original culture by an exponentially growing factor.

Serial dilution.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is a modification of the plate count technique. Known volumes are vacuum filtered through a membrane with a poor size small enough to trap microorganisms. The membrane is transferred to a petri plate containing an appropriate growth medium. Colonies are counted after incubation.

Membrane filtration.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ _____ _____ Is the method of accounting cells based on an indirect detection of cell density, commonly used to estimate and compare cell densities in a culture. The foremost approach is a measure the turbidity or cloudiness of a sample of bacteria in a liquid suspension.

Indirect cell count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ = cloudiness.

Turbidity.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ _______ This is a specialized slide designed for counting the bacterial cells in a measured volume of sample. A grid is etched on the slide to facilitate precision and counting.

Petroff-Hausser/Counting Chamber.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is an electric cell counting device that detects and counts changes in electrical resistance in a saline solution… It does this when a cell passes through a small opening in the inside container wall a detector automatically counts the number of cells passing through the opening.

Coulter Counter.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ A count of viable or alive cells. It is based on the principle that viable cells replicate and give rise to visible colonies when incubated under suitable conditions for the specimen.

Plate count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ ________ Involves diluting a fixed volume of cells mixed with dilution solution using the previous dilution as an inoculum. The result is dilution of the original culture by an exponentially growing factor.

Serial dilution.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ ______ Is a modification of the plate count technique. Known volumes are vacuum filtered through a membrane with a poor size small enough to trap microorganisms. The membrane is transferred to a petri plate containing an appropriate growth medium. Colonies are counted after incubation.

Membrane filtration.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) _____ _____ _____ Is the method of counting cells based on an indirect detection of cell density, commonly used to estimate and compare cell densities in a culture. The foremost approach is a measure the turbidity or cloudiness of a sample of bacteria in a liquid suspension.

Indirect cell count.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) ______ = cloudiness.

Turbidity.

(Measuring bacterial growth.) A _________ Is commonly used to measure the turbidity of a bacterial cell suspension as an indirect measure of cell density. This tool uses a light to measure optical density.

Spectrophotometer.

_____ ______ in bacteria is when bacteria talk to each other, are multicellular, can distinguish self from other, and develop strategies to impede/improve...

Quorum sensing.

Where would biofilms form in the environment/What are some environmental influences?

Biofilms form on a variety of environmental surfaces such as industrial conduit’s and water treatment plants to rocks in river beds. Almost any surface in a liquid environment containing minimal nutrients will eventually develop a biofilm.

____ _____ ______ Are secreted by organisms in a biofilm. This represents a large part of the biofilm, 50 to 90% of the total dry mass of a biofilm. It also plays a key role in maintaining the integrity and function of a biofilm and shelters it from predators.

Extracellular polymeric substances (EPS)

______ _____ is the mechanism by which cells in a biofilm a coordinate their activities in response to environmental stimuli. It enables micro organisms to detect their cell density through the release and binding of small, diffusible molecules.

Quorum sensing..

A ______ _______ helps us observe different requirements for a molecular oxygen, bacteria is grown in these..

Thyoglycolate tube.

______ ______ Contains a low percentage of agar to allow motile bacteria to move throughout the medium.

Thioglycolate medium.

(Thioglycolate medium.) Obligate aerobes...

Cannot grow without an abundant supply of oxygen.

(Thioglycolate medium.) Obligate anaerobes...

Are killed by oxygen!

(Thioglycolate medium.) _____ _____ are organisms that thrive in the presence of oxygen but also grow and its absence by relying on fermentation or anaerobic respiration, if there is a super bowl electron acceptor other than oxygen and the organism is able to perform anaerobic respiration.

Facultive anaerobes.

(Thioglycolate medium.) Aerotolerant anaerobes...

Indifferent to the presence of O2.

(Thioglycolate medium.) ________ : Bacteria that require a minimum level of oxygen for growth, about 1 to 10%, well below the 21% found in the atmosphere.

Microaerophiles.

_______ is an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen.


2 H2O2 —> 2 H2O + O2

Catalase.

_________ are bacteria that grow best in a higher concentration of CO2 and a lower concentration of oxygen than present in the atmosphere.

Capnophiles.

______ are microorganisms that grow optimally at pH less than 5.55.

Acidophiles.

Most bacteria are _____ and grow optimally around the pH of 7.

Neutrophils.

Most bacteria are _____ and grow optimally around the pH of 7.

Neutrophils.

______ are micro organisms that grow best at pH between 8.0 and 10.5.

Alkaliphiles.

_______ are cold loving micro organisms that can grow at zero Celsius and below, have optimum growth temperature close to 15 Celsius, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 Celsius. They are found in permanently cold environments, as an example: deep waters of oceans.

Psychrophiles.

_______ are cold loving micro organisms that can grow at zero Celsius and below, have optimum growth temperature close to 15 Celsius, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 Celsius. They are found in permanently cold environments, as an example: deep waters of oceans.

Psychrophiles.

_______ Are known as middle loving and are adapted to moderate temperatures with optimal growth temperatures ranging from room temp, about 20 Celsius, to about 45 Celsius. As an example: normal human body pathogens.

Mesophiles.

_______ are cold loving micro organisms that can grow at zero Celsius and below, have optimum growth temperature close to 15 Celsius, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 Celsius. They are found in permanently cold environments, as an example: deep waters of oceans.

Psychrophiles.

_______ Are known as middle loving and are adapted to moderate temperatures with optimal growth temperatures ranging from room temp, about 20 Celsius, to about 45 Celsius. As an example: normal human body pathogens.

Mesophiles.

_________ are Micro organisms characterized by growth ranges from 80 Celsius to 110 Celsius with some extreme samples that survive temps above 121 Celsius, the average temp of an auto clave.

Hyperthermophiles.

_______ are cold loving micro organisms that can grow at zero Celsius and below, have optimum growth temperature close to 15 Celsius, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 Celsius. They are found in permanently cold environments, as an example: deep waters of oceans.

Psychrophiles.

_______ Are known as middle loving and are adapted to moderate temperatures with optimal growth temperatures ranging from room temp, about 20 Celsius, to about 45 Celsius. As an example: normal human body pathogens.

Mesophiles.

_________ are Micro organisms characterized by growth ranges from 80 Celsius to 110 Celsius with some extreme samples that survive temps above 121 Celsius, the average temp of an auto clave.

Hyperthermophiles.

_______ are organisms that grow at optimum temps of 50°C to 80°C. They are heat loving and do not multiply at room temperature.

Thermophiles.

_______ are cold loving organisms that can grow at zero Celsius and below, have optimum growth temperature close to 15 Celsius, and usually do not survive at temperatures above 20 Celsius. They are found in permanently cold environments, as an example: deep waters of oceans.

Psychrophiles.

_______ Are known as middle loving and are adapted to moderate temperatures with optimal growth temperatures ranging from room temp, about 20 Celsius, to about 45 Celsius. As an example: normal human body pathogens.

Mesophiles.

_________ are organisms characterized by growth ranges from 80 Celsius to 110 Celsius with some extreme samples that survive temps above 121 Celsius, the average temp of an auto clave.

Hyperthermophiles.

_______ are organisms that grow at optimum temps of 50°C to 80°C. They are heat loving and do not multiply at room temperature.

Thermophiles.

Organisms that prefer to live in salty environments are called _____ organisms.

Halophilic.

Organisms that prefer to live in salty environments are called _____ organisms.

Halophilic.

Organisms that do not prefer to live in salty environments but are capable of surviving there are called _________ organisms.

Haloduric.

_________ is a condition in which the cell membrane and cytoplasm of a cell shrink away from the cell wall, it occurs when bacteria with rigid cell walls are placed in a hypertonic solution.

Plasmolysis.

If a bacterial cell is placed into a hypotonic solution, it may not burst (because of the rigid cell wall). If it does burst, the cytoplasm escapes. This process is known as _______.

Plasmoptysis.

________ is When a bacterial cell burst and only the cytoplasm escapes.

Plasmoptysis.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : Contains extracts and digests of yeast, meats, or plants. The precise chemical composition of the medium is not known.

Complex media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : Contains extracts and digests of yeast, meats, or plants. The precise chemical composition of the medium is not known.

Complex media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : distinguishes between different groups of bacteria on basis of bio chemical characteristics.

Differential media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : Contains extracts and digests of yeast, meats, or plants. The precise chemical composition of the medium is not known.

Complex media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : distinguishes between different groups of bacteria on basis of bio chemical characteristics.

Differential media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) what are the two types of lab media?

Synthetic or defined media, and complex or undefined media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : Contains extracts and digests of yeast, meats, or plants. The precise chemical composition of the medium is not known.

Complex media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : distinguishes between different groups of bacteria on basis of bio chemical characteristics.

Differential media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) what are the two types of lab media?

Synthetic or defined media, and complex or undefined media.

______ or _____ media Is prepared from pure chemical substances and its exact composition is known.

Synthetic or defined media.

(Barometric pressure.) Microbes that can survive in high atmospheric pressure are known as ______ or _____.

Piezophiles; barophiles.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : supports the growth of many micro organisms. Example: TSA nutrient agar.

All purpose/general media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : used in the identification of bacteria and are supplemented with dyes, PH indicators, or antibiotics.

Specialized media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : has special nutrients like vitamins, growth factors to promote growth of fastidious organisms.

Enriched media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : Contains extracts and digests of yeast, meats, or plants. The precise chemical composition of the medium is not known.

Complex media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) ______ : distinguishes between different groups of bacteria on basis of bio chemical characteristics.

Differential media.

(Media used for bacterial growth.) what are the two types of lab media?

Synthetic or defined media, and complex or undefined media.

______ or _____ media Is prepared from pure chemical substances and its exact composition is known.

Synthetic or defined media.

______ or _____ media have added ingredients like digestive yeast, meat, plants. Which provide special nutrients. Exact chemical composition and amount of individual components is undefined.

Complex or undefined media.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

______: this is the observable traits as a result of certain genes being expressed.

Phenotype.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

______: this is the observable traits as a result of certain genes being expressed.

Phenotype.

_______ : The vast majority of an organisms genome is organized into the cells _____ , which are discrete DNA structures within cells that controls cellular activity.

Chromosome.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

______: this is the observable traits as a result of certain genes being expressed.

Phenotype.

_______ : The vast majority of an organisms genome is organized into the cells _____ , which are discrete DNA structures within cells that controls cellular activity.

Chromosome.

nucleic acid‘s are made up of monomer building blocks called _______, which are polymerized to form large strands.

Nucleotides.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

______: this is the observable traits as a result of certain genes being expressed.

Phenotype.

_______ : The vast majority of an organisms genome is organized into the cells _____ , which are discrete DNA structures within cells that controls cellular activity.

Chromosome.

nucleic acid‘s are made up of monomer building blocks called _______, which are polymerized to form large strands.

Nucleotides.

_____ Are segments of DNA molecules.

Genes.

_______ : The transmission of traits from one generation to the next.

Heredity.

______ : The entire genetic content of an organism, including its genes and other nucleotide sequences. It is all of an organisms genetic material, collectively.

Genome.

_____: The full collection of genes that a cell contains within its genome.

Genotype.

______: this is the observable traits as a result of certain genes being expressed.

Phenotype.

_______ : The vast majority of an organisms genome is organized into the cells _____ , which are discrete DNA structures within cells that controls cellular activity.

Chromosome.

nucleic acid‘s are made up of monomer building blocks called _______, which are polymerized to form large strands.

Nucleotides.

_____ Are segments of DNA molecules.

Genes.

_______ are small molecules of DNA that replicate independently. They are not essential for normal metabolism, growth, reproduction.

Plasmids.

The two DNA strands are _______, the three prime end of one strand faces the five prime end of the other. The two strands are oriented in opposite directions.

Antiparellel.

The two DNA strands are _______, the three prime end of one strand faces the five prime end of the other. The two strands are oriented in opposite directions.

Antiparellel.

What are the two types of nitrogenous bases in DNA?

Purines and Pyrimidines.

_______ are one of the two types of nitrogen us bases in DNA. This one is two-ringed and includes adenine and guanine.

Purine.

_______ are one of the two types of nitrogen us bases in DNA. This one is two-ringed and includes adenine and guanine.

Purine.

_______ is one of the two nitrogen us bases in DNA. It is single ringed and includes cytosine and thymine.

Pyrimidine.

_____ ______ State that the amount of purine equals the amount of pyrimidine in a given DNA molecule. Example: adenine and thymine always have equal amounts and guanine and cytosine are always of equal amounts.

Chargaff’s rules.

What are the three things that the DNA structure is made up of?

Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, and a base.

_____ & ____ Proposed the double helix.

Watson and crick.

_____ & ____ Proposed the double helix.

Watson and crick.

The _______ Back bones are on the outside of the double helix of DNA.

Sugar phosphate.

RNA is typically _____ stranded.

Single.

RNA contains the pyrimidine __________ instead of thymine.

Uracil.

Ribonucleotide’s contain the pentose sugar ________ instead of the deoxyribose found in deoxyribonucleotide.

Ribose.

What are the three types of RNA?

Messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA.

What are the three types of RNA?

Messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA.

(RNA) ______ Copy of info in DNA that is brought to the ribosome where the info is translated into a protein.

mRNA.

What are the three types of RNA?

Messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA.

(RNA) ______ Copy of info in DNA that is brought to the ribosome where the info is translated into a protein.

mRNA.

(RNA) ______ - The protein factories of the cells.

rRNA.

What are the three types of RNA?

Messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA.

(RNA) ______ Copy of info in DNA that is brought to the ribosome where the info is translated into a protein.

mRNA.

(RNA) ______ - The protein factories of the cells.

rRNA.

(RNA) ______ Brings the amino acid to the ribosome. This molecule is a single-stranded molecule that exhibits significant intracellular base pairing, giving its characteristic a 3-D shape.

tRNA.

Many eukaryotic cells contain _____ chromosomes

Diploid.

Many eukaryotic cells contain _____ chromosomes

Diploid.

Prokaryotic cells are _______, meaning they have _______ chromosome.

Haploid; single.

A DNA nucleotide contains ______, ______, & ________.

A deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base.

How many number of bonds stabilize and adenine-thymine base pair?

2 hydrogen bonds.

Transmission of genetic information from parent to offspring is called ______ gene transfer.

Vertical gene transfer

Transmission of genetic information from parent to offspring is called ______ gene transfer.

Vertical gene transfer

Which process produces an RNA copy of a DNA molecule?

Transcription.

A ________ _____ Is located on the five prime end of DNA strand.

A phosphate group.

__________ is the science of heredity.

Genetics.

The flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein is described as the ____ _____. (DNA —> RNA —> protein.)

Central dogma.

DNA — _____?____—> RNA _____?____—> Protein.

Transcription; translation.

Genetic elements called ______, or “jumping genes”, allow the entire sequence to independently excise from one location in a DNA molecule & integrate into DNA Elsewhere through a process called transposition.

Transposon.

_____: segments of DNA that have the ability to move from one location to another because they code for the enzyme transposase.

Transposon.

A ___ ___ ____ is the phenotype most commonly observed in nature.

Wild type organism.

What is meant by semi conservative replication?

The DNA includes one parental or old strand and one new strand. (It’s like having an outfit that has one thrifted item and one new item.)

DNA replication is ____ and prokaryotic cells. To replication forks are formed by the opening of the double stranded DNA at the origin, DNA replication occurs in both directions… Therefore DNA replication is ______.

Bidirectional.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the unzipping enzyme. It unzips/unwinds the two strands of DNA. It breaks the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous pairs

Helicase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the unzipping enzyme. It unzips/unwinds the two strands of DNA. It breaks the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous pairs

Helicase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the builder. It replicates DNA molecules to actually build a new strand of DNA.

DNA polymerase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the unzipping enzyme. It unzips/unwinds the two strands of DNA. It breaks the hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous pairs

Helicase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the builder. It replicates DNA molecules to actually build a new strand of DNA.

DNA polymerase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the initializer. DNA polymerase cannot Figure out where to get started without a primer. ______ makes the primer so that DNA polymerase can figure out where to go to start to work.

Primase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the gluer. Helps glue DNA fragments together.

Ligase.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the gluer. Helps glue DNA fragments together.

Ligase.

______ strand: The continuously synthesize strand. The strand that is complementary to the three prime to five prime parental DNA strand.

Leading.

(DNA replication.) ________ is the gluer. Helps glue DNA fragments together.

Ligase.

______ strand: The continuously synthesize strand. The strand that is complementary to the three prime to five prime parental DNA strand.

Leading.

________ strand: The strand with the Okazaki fragments. Has discontinuous synthesis. Complementary to the five prime to three prime parental strand, grows away from the primer away from the replication fork.

Lagging.

Transcription and translation are collectively referred to as ____ _____. This is the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded in the gene.

Gene expression.

Transcription and translation are collectively referred to as ____ _____. This is the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded in the gene.

Gene expression.

DNA —> RNA. What is this process called.?

Transcription

Transcription and translation are collectively referred to as ____ _____. This is the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded in the gene.

Gene expression.

DNA —> RNA. What is this process called.?

Transcription

______ _____ : This is when the initiation of transcription begins at a promoter, a DNA sequence onto which the transcription machinery binds and initiates transcription.

Promoter sequence

Transcription and translation are collectively referred to as ____ _____. This is the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded in the gene.

Gene expression.

DNA —> RNA. What is this process called.?

Transcription

______ _____ : This is when the initiation of transcription begins at a promoter, a DNA sequence onto which the transcription machinery binds and initiates transcription.

Promoter sequence

RNA polymerase comprises of six polypeptide subunits. The sixth of the unit is known as _______ . ______ enables RNA polymerase to buy into a specific promoter, that’s allowing for the transcription of various genes.

Sigma factor.

Transcription and translation are collectively referred to as ____ _____. This is the synthesis of a specific protein with a sequence of amino acids that is encoded in the gene.

Gene expression.

DNA —> RNA. What is this process called.?

Transcription

______ _____ : This is when the initiation of transcription begins at a promoter, a DNA sequence onto which the transcription machinery binds and initiates transcription.

Promoter sequence

RNA polymerase comprises of six polypeptide subunits. The sixth of the unit is known as _______ . ______ enables RNA polymerase to buy into a specific promoter, that’s allowing for the transcription of various genes.

Sigma factor.

_____ _____: When the bacterial polymerase dissociates from the DNA template and frees the newly made RNA, after the gene is transcribed.

Terminator sequence.

What are the three steps or processes of translation?

Initiation, elongation, and termination.

What are the three EPA sites?

A site, P site, & E site.

At the ______ site TRNAs arrive.

A.

At the ______ site TRNAs arrive.

A.

At the ___ site The polypeptide chain is growing, charged tRNA molecules carrying amino acids are forming peptide bonds with the growing polypeptide chain.

P.

At the ______ site TRNAs arrive.

A.

At the ___ site The polypeptide chain is growing, charged tRNA molecules carrying amino acids are forming peptide bonds with the growing polypeptide chain.

P.

At the _____ site This is where the release of dissociated tRNAs occur, so that they can be recharged with free amino acids. This is where proteins exit.

E.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

The ____ ____ translates each nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a protein.

Genetic codes.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

The ____ ____ translates each nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a protein.

Genetic codes.

______ codons code for an amino acid. 61 of the 64 possible triplets, codons, code for amino acids.

Sense codons.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

The ____ ____ translates each nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a protein.

Genetic codes.

______ codons code for an amino acid. 61 of the 64 possible triplets, codons, code for amino acids.

Sense codons.

______/_____ Codons are the three of the 64 triplets that do not code for amino acids, they terminate protein synthesis, releasing the polypeptide from the translation machinery.

Nonsense/stop codons.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

The ____ ____ translates each nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a protein.

Genetic codes.

______ codons code for an amino acid. 61 of the 64 possible triplets, codons, code for amino acids.

Sense codons.

______/_____ Codons are the three of the 64 triplets that do not code for amino acids, they terminate protein synthesis, releasing the polypeptide from the translation machinery.

Nonsense/stop codons.

The ____ codon, AUG, specifies the amino acid methionine, which initiates translation.

Start codon.

UAA, UAG, & UGA are...?

Stop codons!

AUG is a...?

Start codon.

The ____ ____ is the relationship between an mRNA codon and its corresponding amino acid.

Genetic code

A ____ is a triplet of nucleotides whom’S mRNA defines an amino acid.

Codon.

The ____ ____ translates each nucleotide triplet in mRNA into an amino acid or a termination signal in a protein.

Genetic codes.

______ codons code for an amino acid. 61 of the 64 possible triplets, codons, code for amino acids.

Sense codons.

______/_____ Codons are the three of the 64 triplets that do not code for amino acids, they terminate protein synthesis, releasing the polypeptide from the translation machinery.

Nonsense/stop codons.

The ____ codon, AUG, specifies the amino acid methionine, which initiates translation.

Start codon.

______ are a heritable change in the DNA sequence of an organism. They are errors in the sequence of DNA.

Mutations.

_____ mutations are when one base pair is affected and most commonly occurs when one base is substituted or replaced by another there are three different types of ______ mutation.

Point mutation.

_____ mutations are when one base pair is affected and most commonly occurs when one base is substituted or replaced by another there are three different types of ______ mutation.

Point mutation.

________ Mutations create new sequence of codons, nucleotide triplets are displaced after the mutation. It involves the insertion or deletion of one or more bases, which results in a shift of the reading frame.

Frameshift.

Mutation rate can be increased by exposing cells to physical or chemical agents called ______.

Mutagens.

A ________ is the organism containing the mutation.

Mutant.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

________ radiation May lead to the formation of single stranded and double stranded breaks in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA, As well as to the modification of bases.

Ionizing radiation.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

________ radiation May lead to the formation of single stranded and double stranded breaks in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA, As well as to the modification of bases.

Ionizing radiation.

________ radiation Like ultraviolet light can lead to the formation of thiamine dimmers, which can stall replication and transcription and introduce frameshift or point mutations.

Non-ionizing radiation.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

________ radiation May lead to the formation of single stranded and double stranded breaks in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA, As well as to the modification of bases.

Ionizing radiation.

________ radiation Like ultraviolet light can lead to the formation of thiamine dimmers, which can stall replication and transcription and introduce frameshift or point mutations.

Non-ionizing radiation.

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ : has no effect on the protein sequence.

Silent.

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

________ radiation May lead to the formation of single stranded and double stranded breaks in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA, As well as to the modification of bases.

Ionizing radiation.

________ radiation Like ultraviolet light can lead to the formation of thiamine dimmers, which can stall replication and transcription and introduce frameshift or point mutations.

Non-ionizing radiation.

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ : has no effect on the protein sequence.

Silent.

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ :Results in amino acid substitution.

Missense

What are three types of chemical mutagens?

Nucleotide altering, nucleotide analogs, and intercalating agents.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ look like nucleotides and disrupt DNA and RNA replication.

Nucleotide analog’s.

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ Chemicals like nitrous acid alter the structure of nuclear tides and result in base pair substitutions and missense mutation’s.

Nucleotide altering

(Chemical mutagens.) ______ ______ introduce a typical spacing between base pairs, resulting in DNA polymerase introducing either a dilation or an Insertion, leading to a potential friend shift mutation. Think: in between.

Intercalating agents.

What are two types of radiation mutagens?

Ionizing radiation and non-ionizing radiation.

________ radiation May lead to the formation of single stranded and double stranded breaks in the sugar phosphate backbone of DNA, As well as to the modification of bases.

Ionizing radiation.

________ radiation Like ultraviolet light can lead to the formation of thiamine dimmers, which can stall replication and transcription and introduce frameshift or point mutations.

Non-ionizing radiation.

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ : has no effect on the protein sequence.

Silent.

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ :Results in amino acid substitution.

Missense

(Point mutation.) 3 types... _____ : substitutes a stop codon for an amino acid.

Nonsense.

X-rays and gamma rays are in example of what type of radiation?

Ionizing radiation.

X-rays and gamma rays are in example of what type of radiation?

Ionizing radiation.

This type of radiation is dangerous and has the capacity to break bonds, what type of radiation is this?

Ionizing radiation.

X-rays and gamma rays are in example of what type of radiation?

Ionizing radiation.

This type of radiation is dangerous and has the capacity to break bonds, what type of radiation is this?

Ionizing radiation.

This type of radiation involves UV light. What type of radiation is this?

Non-ionizing radiation.

X-rays and gamma rays are in example of what type of radiation?

Ionizing radiation.

This type of radiation is dangerous and has the capacity to break bonds, what type of radiation is this?

Ionizing radiation.

This type of radiation involves UV light. What type of radiation is this?

Non-ionizing radiation.

During _____ _____ formation, the two adjacent thymines become covalently linked and, if left unrepaired, both DNA replication and transcription are stalled at this point. DNA polymerase may proceed and replicate the _____ _____ incorrectly, potentially leading to frameshift or point mutations.

Thymine dimmer.

Which type of radiation may lead to a thymine dimmer?

Non-ionizing radiation.

A _____ _____ is a covalently bonded complex of two adjacent thymines on a single strand of DNA.

Thymine dimmer

What are two ways to repair thymine dimmers?

Light repair and dark repair.

(Repair of thymine dimers.) _____ repair: occurs through photoreactivation in the presence of visible light. In photoreactivation, the enzyme photolyase binds to the thymine and, in the presence of visible light, breaks apart the dimmer, restoring the base pairing of the thymines with complementary adenines on the opposite DNA strand.

Light repair or “direct repair”

(Repair of thymine dimers.) _____ repair: enzymes remove the pyrimidine dimmer & replace it with the correct nucleotide.

Dark repair “nucleotide excision repair”

The _____ _____ is a method that uses bacteria for rapid, inexpensive screening of the carcinogenic potential of new chemical compounds. Used to identify mutagenic, potentially carcinogenic chemicals.

Ames Test.

Replica plating is a technique used to detect _______. ______ Have a mutation in a gene encoding enzyme in the biosynthesis pathway of a specific nutrient such as an amino acid. It is able to grow in a medium that has the nutrient it is supposed to utilize, but can’t make.

Auxotrophs.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what is involved in transformation.

The competent cell takes DNA directly from the environment. This foreign DNA may be dead.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what is involved in transformation.

The competent cell takes DNA directly from the environment. This foreign DNA may be dead.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in transduction.

A bacterial phage inject DNA that is a hybrid of viral DNA and DNA from a previously infected bacterial cell. The genes are transferred between cells by means of a virus. The lytic cycle leads to General transduction. The lysogenic cycle leads to specialized transaction.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what is involved in transformation.

The competent cell takes DNA directly from the environment. This foreign DNA may be dead.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in transduction.

A bacterial phage inject DNA that is a hybrid of viral DNA and DNA from a previously infected bacterial cell. The genes are transferred between cells by means of a virus. The lytic cycle leads to General transduction. The lysogenic cycle leads to specialized transaction.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) The _____ cycle leads to specialized transduction. The ______ cycle leads to general transduction.

Lysogenic; lytic.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what is involved in transformation.

The competent cell takes DNA directly from the environment. This foreign DNA may be dead.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in transduction.

A bacterial phage inject DNA that is a hybrid of viral DNA and DNA from a previously infected bacterial cell. The genes are transferred between cells by means of a virus. The lytic cycle leads to General transduction. The lysogenic cycle leads to specialized transaction.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) The _____ cycle leads to specialized transduction. The ______ cycle leads to general transduction.

Lysogenic; lytic.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in conjugation.

DNA is transferred between cells through a cytoplasmic bridge after a conjugation pilus draws into cells close enough to form the bridge. Basically it is the use of conjugation pilus to transfer genes between cells.

_____ _______ transfer Is the transmission of genetic information from generation to generation. Example: primary fission.

Vertical gene transfer.

_____ _______ transfer Is the introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation. It is always between two bacteria. It is an important way to Produce genetic diversity.

Horizontal gene transfer.

What are the three primary mechanisms of horizontal gene transfer?

Transformation, transduction, and conjugation.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what is involved in transformation.

The competent cell takes DNA directly from the environment. This foreign DNA may be dead.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in transduction.

A bacterial phage inject DNA that is a hybrid of viral DNA and DNA from a previously infected bacterial cell. The genes are transferred between cells by means of a virus. The lytic cycle leads to General transduction. The lysogenic cycle leads to specialized transaction.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) The _____ cycle leads to specialized transduction. The ______ cycle leads to general transduction.

Lysogenic; lytic.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms.) Describe what happens in conjugation.

DNA is transferred between cells through a cytoplasmic bridge after a conjugation pilus draws into cells close enough to form the bridge. Basically it is the use of conjugation pilus to transfer genes between cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) the __________ indicates that a third fertility factor is present. It is a bacterial plasmid that has the genes encoding the ability to conjugate.

F plasmid.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) __________ are the donor cells containing the F plasmid, capable of forming an F pilus.

F+ cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) __________ are the donor cells containing the F plasmid, capable of forming an F pilus.

F+ cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) _________ are the cells lacking an F plasmid, they are also called the recipient cells.

F - cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) __________ are the donor cells containing the F plasmid, capable of forming an F pilus.

F+ cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) _________ are the cells lacking an F plasmid, they are also called the recipient cells.

F - cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) ___________ cells occur when the F plasmid occasionally integrates into the bacterial chromosome through recombination between the plasmid and the chromasome, forming an ______ cell.

HFR cell.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) __________ are the donor cells containing the F plasmid, capable of forming an F pilus.

F+ cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) _________ are the cells lacking an F plasmid, they are also called the recipient cells.

F - cells.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) ___________ cells occur when the F plasmid occasionally integrates into the bacterial chromosome through recombination between the plasmid and the chromasome, forming an ______ cell.

HFR cell.

(Horizontal gene transfer mechanisms: conjugation.) ______ Cells are created when imprecise excision of the F plasmid from the chromosomes of an HFR cell occurs. The cell only has part of the genetic material, not all F plasmid. Cannot reproduce.

F’ cell. “F prime”

In bacteria and Archaea, structural proteins with related functions are usually encoded together with an a genome in a block called a(n) ________. This region includes both the promoter and the operator. It is important in gene regulation.

Operon.

What are the two types of operons?

Repressible (trp) and inducible (lac).

A ________ operon are transcribed continually until deactivated by repressor’s. No trp = RNA synthesis proceeds. Yes trp = RNA synthesis is blocked.

Repressible operon.

A ________ operon are transcribed continually until deactivated by repressor’s. No trp = RNA synthesis proceeds. Yes trp = RNA synthesis is blocked.

Repressible operon.

A ________ operon must be activated by inducers. No lac = no transcribing. Yes lac = yes transcribing.

Inducible operon.

A ________ operon are transcribed continually until deactivated by repressor’s. No trp = RNA synthesis proceeds. Yes trp = RNA synthesis is blocked.

Repressible operon.

A ________ operon must be activated by inducers. No lac = no transcribing. Yes lac = yes transcribing.

Inducible operon.

A ________ operon are transcribed continually until deactivated by repressor’s. No trp = RNA synthesis proceeds. Yes trp = RNA synthesis is blocked.

Repressible operon.

A ________ operon must be activated by inducers. No lac = no transcribing. Yes lac = yes transcribing.

Inducible operon.