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696 Cards in this Set

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alcoholic vomits gastric contents and develops foul smelling sputum. What organisms are most likely
anaerobes
middle age male presents w/ acute onset monoarticular joint pain and bilateral bell's plalsy. What is the likely dz and how did he get it
lyme dz; bite from Ixodes tick
Pt w/ mycoplasma pneumoniae exhibits cryoagglutins during recovery phase. What types of immunoglobulins are reacting
IgM
UA of pt shows WBC casts. What is the dx?
pyelonephritis
young child presents w/ tetany and candidiasis. Hypocalcemia and immunosuppression are found. What cell is deficient?
T cell (DiGeorge)
pt presente w/ "rose gardener's" scenerio (thorn prick w/ ulcers olong lymphatic drainage. What is the infectious bug.
sporothrix schencki
25 y/o medical student has a burning feeling in his gut after meals. bx of gastric mucosa shows gram negative rods. what is the likely organism?
H pylori
32 yo male has "cauliflower" skin lesions. Tissue bx shows broad based budding yeast. What organism is most likely?
blastomyces
breast feeding woman suddenly develops redness and swelling of her right breast. On examination it is found to be afluctuant mass. What is the dx?
mastitis caused by S. aureus
Young child has recurrent lung infections and granulomatous lesions. What is the defect in neutrophils?
NADPH oxidase (chronic granulomatous dz)
20 y/o college student presents w/ lymphadenopathy, fever, and hepatosplenomegaly. His serum agglutinates sheep RBCs. What cell is infected?
B cell (EBV; infectious mononucleosis)
One hour after eating custard at a picnic, a whole family began to vomit. After 10 hours, they were better. What is the organism?
S. aureus (produces preformed enterotoxin)
infant becomes flaccid after eating honey. What organism is implicated, and what is the mechanism of action.
Clostridium botulinum; inhibited release of ACh.
Man presents with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. He has exposure to what virus?
HPV
Pt develops endocarditis three weeks after receiving a prosthetic heart valve. What organism is suspected?
S. aureus or S. epidermidis
55 y/o man who is a smoker and heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flulike symptoms. Gram stain shows no organisms; silver stain of sputum shows gram-negative rods. What is the dx?
legionella pneumonia
after taking clidamycin, pt develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of diarrhea
C. difficile overgrowth
this bacterial structure is composed of a sugar backbone with cross linked peptide side chains. It functions to give the bacterium rigid support, and to protect against osmotic pressure
peptidoglycan
This bacterial structure is composed of teichoic acid which induces TNF and IL-1. It functions as a major surface antigen.
cell wall/membrane in gram postitives
this bacterial structure is composed of lipid A which induces TNF & IL-1. Polysaccharide is the antigen. It functions as a major surface Ag and a site of endotoxin.
outer membrane of gram negative
what is the endotoxin of Gram negative bacteria
lipopolysaccaride
this bacterial structure is composed a plasma bilayer. It fxs as a site of oxidative and transport enzymes.
Plasma membrane
This bacterial structure is composed RNA and protein in 50S and 30S subunits. It functions as the site of protein synthesis.
ribosome
this bacterial structure is composed of many hydrolytic enzymes, including B-lactamases. It is the space between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in gram negative bacteria.
Periplasm
this bacterial structure is composed polysaccaride and protects against phagocytosis.
capsule.
the capsule of bacillus anthracis is unique in that it contains _________ instead of polysaccharide.
D-glutamate
This bacterial structure is composed of glycoprotein. It functions to mediate adherence of bacteria to cell surface.
pilus/fimbrae
sex pilus forms attachment between 2 bacteria during _______
conjugation
this bacterial structure is composed of protein and fxs in motility
flagellum
this bacterial structure is composed of a keratin-like coat and dipicolinic acid. It provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals.
spore
this bacterial structure is composed DNA. It contains a variety of genes for antibiotic resistance, enzymes, and toxins.
plasmid
This bacterial structure is composed of polysaccharide. It mediates adherence to surfaces, especially foreign surfaces (e.g., indwelling catheters).
Glycocalyx
cell walls p.130
--
bacterial growth phase [p.130]
--
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is metabolic activity without division
lag
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is rapid cell division
log
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where nutrient depletion slows growth
stationary
in the bacterial growth curve this is the part where there is prolonged nutrient depletion and buildup of waste products.
death
what is the source of exotoxins
some G+ & G- bacteria
what is the source of endotoxins
cell wall of most G- bacteria and listeria
are exotoxins secreted from the cell
yes
are endotoxins secreted from the cell
no
exotoxins are made of _______
polypeptides
endotoxins are made of _____
lipopolysaccharides
genes for exotoxins are located where?
plasmid or bacteriophage
genes for endootoxins are located where?
bacterial chromosomes
how toxic are exotoxins
high (fatal dose is on the order of 1 ug)
What is the toxicity of endotoxins?
low (fatal dose is on the order of hundreds of micrograms)
what are the clinical effects of endotoxins?
fever & shock
what is cytokines are involved in the mode of action of endotoxins
TNF & IL1
high-titer antibodies called antitoxins can be used against these toxins
exotoxins
this toxin poorly antigenic
endotoxins
these are used as vaccines for exotoxins
toxoids
is there a vaccine available for endotoxins
no
what is more heat stable, endotoxins or exotoxins
endotoxins
what is the only exotoxin that is heat stable
staphylococcal enterotoxin
tetanus, botulism, & diphtheria typically cause problems due to ________ (exotoxin or endotoxins)
exotoxins
meningococcemia, causes sepsis by G- rods. Toxicity is due to ________ (exotoxin or endotoxins)
endotoxins
these binds directly to MHC II and T-cell receptor, activating large numbers of T cells to stimulate release of IL-1 & IL-2
superantigens
TSST-1 from this bug causes toxic shock syndrome (fever, rash, shock).
S. Aureus
Enterotoxins from this bug cause food poisoning.
S. Aureus
Scarlet fever-strain SPE SPE toxin from this bug causes toxic shock-like syndrome.
S. pyogenes
this exotoxin interferes with host cell fx. It has a B component and an A component.
ADP ribosylating A-B toxins.
tell me about the B component of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
B (binding) component binds to receptor on surface of host cell, enaboling endocytosis)
tell me about the A component of ADP ribosylating A-B toxins
A (active) component attaches an ADP-ribosyl to a host cell protien (ADP ribosylation), altering protein fx.
What bugs have ADP ribosylating A-B toxins (4)
Corynebacteria diptheria
Vibrio cholerae
E. Coli
Bordetella Pertussis
What bugs have superantigins (2)
S. aureus
S. pyogenes
this bug has an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin that inactivatess elongation factor (EF-2) causing a pharyngitis and a "pseudomembrane" in the throat
Corynebacterium diptheriae
This bugs ADP ribosylating A-B toxin acts on the G protein to stimulate adenylyl cyclase, increasing pumping of Cl- & H2O in the gut causing voluminous rice-water diarrhea.
Vibrio cholerae
This bug has a heat-labile ADP ribosylating A-B toxin, that stimulates adenylyl cyclase (cholera-like mechanism), causing watery diarrhea. Heat stabile toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase.
E. Coli
This bug has an ADP ribosylating A-B toxin that stimulates adenylate cyclase, causes whooping cough, inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis.
Bordetella pertussis
This bug has an alpha toxin that causes gas gangrene. You will see a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar.
Clostridium perfringes.
This bug blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter glycine. Causing "lockjaw"
C. Tetani
This bug blocks the release of Ach, causing anticholinergic symptoms such as CNS paralysis. Spores can be found in canned food and honey causing floppy baby.
C. botulinum
this bug has a toxin in which 1 toxin in the toxin complex is adenylate cyclases.
B. anthracis
This bug produces the shiga toxin which cleaves host cell rRNA and also enhances cytokine release causing HUS.
Shigella
what other bug produces the Shiga toxin
E. Coli O157:H7
This bug produces streptolysin O, a hemolysin and antigen for ASO antibody in rheumatic fever
S. pyogenes
this is a lipopolysaccharide found in the cell wall of gram negative bacteria
endotoxin

mneu: N-dotoxin is an integral part of gram-Negative cell wall.
endotoxins are heat ______ (stable or labile)
stable)
endotoxin pathway [p.132]
--
these bugs do not gramstain well
Treponema (too thin)
Rickettsia (intracellular
Mycobacteria (high lipid content of cell wall)
Mycoplasma (no cell wall)
Legionella pneumophila (primarily intracellular)
Chlamydia (intracellular)

mneu:These Rascals May Microscopically Lack Color
how do you I.D. Treponema
darkfeild microscopy and fluorescent Ab staining
How do you I.D. Mycobacteria
acid fast stain
How do you I.D. Legionella
silver stain
pathogenic Neisseria species are differentiated on the basis of sugar ________
fermentation
MeninGococci ferment ________ & __________
Gonococci ferment _______
Maltose & Glucose
Glucose
S. aureus produces a ________ pigment
yellow

mneu: Aureus (latin)=gold
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa produces a ________ pigment
blue green
Serratia marcescens produces ____ pigment
red

mneu: marcescens = maraschino cherries are red
______ proteases allows these organisms to colonize mucosal surfaces: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, N. gonorrheae, H. influenzae.
IgA proteases
gram + lab algorithm [p. 134]
--
gram - lab algorithm [p. 135]
--
special media cx requirements for isolation:
H. influenzae
chocolate agar w/ factors V (NAD) & X (hematin)
special media cx requirements for isolation:
N. gonorrheaeae
Thayer-Martin (VCN) media
special media cx requirements for isolation:
B. pertussis
Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar
special media cx requirements for isolation:
C. diptheriae
Tellurite plate, Loffler's medium, blood agar
special media cx requirements for isolation:
M. Tuberculosis
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
special media cx requirements for isolation:
Lactose-fermenting enterics
pink colonies on MacConkey's agar
special media cx requirements for isolation:
Legionella
Charcoal yeast exxtract agar buffered with increased iron and cysteine
special media cx requirements for isolation:
Fungi
Sabouraud's agair
Give the appropriate stain--
Amyloid; apple-green bifringence in polarized light because of Beta pleated sheets
Congo red
Give the appropriate stain--
Borrelia, Plasmodium, trypanosomes, Chlamydia
Giemsa's
Give the appropriate stain--
stains glycogen, mucopolysaccharides, used to diagnose Whipple's dz
PAS (periodic acid-Schiff)
Give the appropriate stain--Acid-fast bacteria
Ziehll-Neelsen
Give the appropriate stain--Cryyptococcus neoformans
India ink
Give the appropriate stain--Fungi, PCP, Legionella
Silver stain
DNA transfered from 1 bacterium to another (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
conjugation
DNA transferred by a virus from 1 cell to another (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
Transduction
Purified DNA taken up by a cell. (Conjugation, transduction, or transformation)
Transformation
Conjugation, transduction, & transformation. The only transfer process done in eukaryotic (e.g., human) cells
transformation
Conjugation transfers these 2 types of DNA
chromosomal or plasmid
this classification of bacteria use an O2 dependent system to generate ATP
Obligate Aerobes.
Examples of obligate aerobes
Nocardia, Pseudomonas Aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, & Bacillus

mneu: Nagging Pests Must Breath.
This bug is an Aerobe seen in burn wounds, nosocomial pneumonia, and pneumonias in cystic fibrosis patients
P. Aeruginosa

mneu: P. AERuginosa is an AERobe
__________ HAS A PREDILECTION FOR THE APICES OF THE LUNG, WHICH HAVE THE HIGHEST PO2
M. TUBERCULOSIS
Examples of this category of bacterium include Clostridium, Bacteroides, and Actinomyces.
Obligatee anaerobes
Obligatee anaerobes lack ________ and/or ________ and thus are susceptible to oxidative damage.
catalase
superoxide dismutase
Obligatee anaerobesare generally foul smelling due to _________
short chain fatty acids
Obligatee anaerobes are difficult to culture, and produce ______ in tissue
gas (CO2 & H2)
anaerobes are normal flora in _____ but are pathogenic elsewhere.
GI tract
_________ are ineffective against anaerobes because these antibiotics require O2 to enter into bacterial cell
AminO2glycosides
These 2 bugs are obligate intracellular bugs because they can't make own ATP
Rickettsia, Clamydia

mneu: Stay inside (cells) when it is Really Cold
These 8 bugs are facultative intracellular bugs.
Salmonela, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

mneu: Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY
Give 2 examples of encapsulated bacteria
Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis, K. pneumoniae
in encapsulated bacteria the _______ capsule is an antiphagocytic virulence factor
polysaccharide
this positive test tells you if an encapsulated bug is present--the capsule swells when specific anticapsular antiserra are added
positive quellung reaction

mneu: Quellung = capsular "swellung"
in encapsulated bacteria ______ is necessary for immune response
IgG2
In pneumovax, H. influenzae, & B. meningococcii, this serves as the Ag in vaccines
capsule
these are highly resistant to destruction by heat and chemicals. They have no metabolic activity and dipicolinic acid in their core.
spores
You must do this in order kill spores (what is done to surgical equipment)
autoclave
Only this type of bug forms spores when nutrients are limited
G+ rods
gram + soil bugs (aka spore formers) are (3)
B. anthracis, C. perfringes, C. tetani
give the 2 alpha hemolytic bacteria
1) streptococcus pneumoniae
2) Viridans streptococci
this alpha hemollytic bacteria is catalase negative and optochin sensitive
streptococcus pneumonia
this alpha hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and optochin resistance
viridans streptococci
Give the 4 Beta hemolytic bacteria
1) Staphylococcus Aureus
2) Streptococcus Pyogenes
3) Streptococcus agalactiae
4) Listeria moncytogenes
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase and coagulase positive
Staphylococcus Aureus
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and bacitracian sensitive
Streptococcus Pyogenes
this beta hemolytic bacteria is catalase negative and bacitracian resistant
Streptococcus agalactiae
this beta hemolytic bacteria exists in unpasteurized milk has tumbling motility and causes meningitis in newborns
Listeria moncytogenes
This degrades H2O2, an antimicrobial prodct of PMNs. H2O2 is a substrate for myeloperoxidase
Catalase.
_____cocci make catalase, whereas streptococci do not
staphylo-

mneu: STAPH make catalase because they have more "staph".
________ makes coagulase, whereas Staph epidermidis and Staph saphrophyticus do not
Staph Aureus

mneu: Bad staph (aureus, because epidermidis is skin flora) makes coagulase and toxins)
this virulence factor of S. Aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting compliment fixation and phagocytosis
Protein A
S. Aureus causes these 2 things
1) Inflammatory dz- skin infxns, organ abscesses, pneumonia

2)Toxin-mediated dz- toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning
Give the toxin responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1
Give the toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin
Give the toxin responsible for rapid-onset food poisoning
enterotoxins
This is a superantigen that binds to MHC II and T-cell receptor, resulting in polyclonal T-cell activation
TSST
S. Aureus food poisoning is due to ingestion of a preformed ________
toxin
this causes ACUTE bacterial endocarditis
S. Aureus
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A Beta hemolytic streptococci causes three sequelae what are they?
1) Pyogenic-pharyngitis, cellulitis, impetigo
2) Toxigenic - scarlet fever, toxic shock syndrome
3) Immunologic - rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonepritis

mneu: PHaryngitis gives you rheumatic "PHever" and glomerulonepHritis"

mneu2: No "RHEUM" for SPECCulation: Subcutaneous nodules, Polyarthritis, Erythema marginatum, Chorea, Carditis.
Streptococcus pyogenes is bacitratian _______.
sensitive.
Ab to ________ enhances host defences against Streptococcus pyogenes
M protein
______ titer detects recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection
ASO
Streptococcus pnemonia is the most common cause of (4 )
MOPS
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia
Sinusitis
Streptococcus pnemonia ia optochin ______
sensitive

mneu: Streptococcus pnemonia MOPS are Most OPtochin Sensitive
Pt presents with rusty sputum, sickle cell anemia sepsis, and splenectomy. He has a bug that is encapsulated & has an IgA protease.
Streptococcus pneumonia
these bugs are bacitracin resistant & B hemolytic. They cause pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis, mainly in babies.
Group B streptococci
this virulence factor of S. Aureus binds Fc-IgG, inhibiting compliment fixation and phagocytosis
Protein A
S. Aureus causes these 2 things
1) Inflammatory dz- skin infxns, organ abscesses, pneumonia

2)Toxin-mediated dz- toxic shock syndrome, scalded skin syndrome, rapid onset food poisoning
Give the toxin responsible for toxic shock syndrome?
TSST-1
Give the toxin responsible for scalded skin syndrome
exfoliative toxin
Give the toxin responsible for rapid-onset food poisoning
enterotoxins
enterococci (2 bugs)
E. faecalis & E. faecium.
enterococci are resistant to this AB
penicillin G
enterococci cause these 2 dz
UTIs & subacute endocarditis
this lancefield group includes enterococci
D
Lancefield grouping is based on differences in the ___ carbohydrate on the bacterial cell wall.
C
enterococci grow in 6.5% ______
NaCl
entero=______
faecalis=_______
strepto=_______
coccus=_______
intestine
feces
twisted (chains)
berry
viridans streptococci are _____ hemolytic
alpha.
viridans streptococci are normal flora of the oropharynx and cause dental caries (________) and subacute bacterial endocarditis (_________)
streptococcus mutans
streptococcus sanguins

mneu: sanguis=blood. There is lots of blood in the heart.
viridans streptococci are optochin ______ which differentiates them from S. pneumoniae, which is also alpha hemolytic but is optochin _______
resistant

sensitive

mne: viridians group strep live in the mouth because they are not afraid OF-THE-CHIN (OPTOCHIN RESISTANT)
this obligate anaerobic bacilli is gram positive, spore forming
clostridia
this clostridium species produces an exotoxin
clostridium tetani
C tetani exotoxin works by blocking ________ release [inhibitory neurotransmitter] from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord
glycine
this clostridia bacilli forms a preformed, heat-labile toxin that inhibits ACh release
C. botulinum

mneu: BOTulinum is from bad BOTtles of food (causes a flacid parralysis)
this clostridia bacilli produces an alpha toxin (lethinasse) that causes myonecrosis, gas gangrene, or hemolysis.
C. Perfringes

mneu: PERFringes PERForates a gangrenous leg
this clostridia bacilli produces a cytotoxin, an exotoxin that kills enterocytes, causing psudomembranous colitis. It is often secondary to antibiotic use, especially clindamycin or ampicillin.
C. difficile

mneu: DIfficile causes DIarrhea.
how do you tx C. difficile
metronidazole.
Diptheria is caused by _________ via exotoxin encoded by a Beta-prophage.
Corynebacterium diptheriaee
the potent diptheria exotoxin works by inhibiting what via ADP ribosylation of EF-2
Protein synthesis
coryne=______
club shaped
Symptoms of infection with this bug include pseudomembranous pharyngitis (grayish-white membrane) with lymphadenopathy)
C. diptheriae.
C diptheriae identified in the lab as a Gram ___, _____ with metachromatic ranules.
G+, rod
C diptheriae grows on a ______ agar
tellurite
What are the ABCDEG of diptheria and its exotoxin
ADP ribosylation
Beta-prophage
Corynebacterium
Diphtheriae
Elongation Factor 2
Granules
pt presents with painless black skin lesions (vesicular papules covered by black eschar). He developes sepsis and dies. What G+ sporeforming rod that produces a toxin do you suspect
Bacillus anthracis
Inhalation of anthrax spores from contaminated wool can lead to flulike symptoms that rapidly progress to fever, pulmonary hemorrhage, and shock. what is the name of this dz.
woolsorters dz.
these two bugs are both gram + rods forming long branching filaments resembling fungi
actinomyces v. nocardia.
this bug forms yellow "sulfur granules' in sinus tracts
A. israelii
this bug is a G+ ANAEROBE, that causes oral/facial abscesses with "sulfur granules" that may drain through sinus tracts in the skin. It is part of the normal oral flora.
Actinomyces israelii
this bug is a gram + and weakly acid fast aerobe in the soil taht causes pulmonary infection in immunocompromized pts
Nocardia asteroides
How do you tx nocardia? actinomyces?
mneu: SNAP
Sulfa for
Nocardia;
Actinomyces use
Penicillin
Gram negative outer membrane layer inhibits entry of these 2 AB. Therefore G - bugs are resistant to these 2 drugs
Penicillin G
Vancomycin
T or F. G- bugs are resistant to all derivitives of penicillin such as ampicillin
F--just resistant to PCN & Vanco.
Neisseria is a gram ___, ____
neg, cocci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
Polysaccharide capsule
Meningococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
No Polysaccharide capsule
Gonococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
No maltose fermintation
Gonococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
maltose fermintation
Meningococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
No Vaccine
Gonococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
Vaccine
Meningococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
causes gonorrhea, septic arthritis, neonatal conjunctivitis, PID
Gonococci
Neisseria Gonococci or Meningococci?
causes meningococcemia and meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
Meningococci
this bug is a small gram negative (coccobacillary) rod spread via aerosol transmission.
Haemophilus influenzae
HaEMOPhilus Influenzae causes (4)
Epiglottis, Meningitis, Otitis media & Pneumonia.
Most invasive form of H. influenzae is caused by capsular type ___
B.
H. influenzae produces ____ protease.
IgA.
how do you culture H. influenzae
chocolate agar w/ factors V (NAD) & X (hematin) for growht

mneu: when child has "flu" mom goes to five(V) & dime (X) to buy some chocolate.
H. flu vaccine contains type B capsular polysaccharide conjugated to diptheria toxoid or other protien. It is given between ____ and _____ mo of age.
2 and 18
this group is a diverse family including E. coli, salmonella, shigella, klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia, porteus
enterobacteriaceae.
all enterobacteriaceae have somatic (__) Ag (polysaccharide of endotoxin. The capsular (__)Ag related to virulence of the bug. The flagellar (__) Ag is found in motile species
O
K
H
enterobacteriaceae ferment ____ and are oxidase ____
glucose
negative
with enterobacteriaceae think COFFEe.
Capsular
O Ag
Flagellar Ag
Ferment glucose
Enterobacteriaceae
these bacteria grow pink colonies on MacConkey's agar. Examples include Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, and Citrobacter
Lactose fermenters
Lactose is KEE
These 2 organisms are similar in that both are non-lactose fermenters. Both invade intestinal mucosa and can cause bloody diarrhea
Salmonella v. Shigella
Salmonella v. Shigella:
Only _______ is motile and can invade further and disseminate hematogenously. Symptoms may be prolonged with AB treatments, and there is typically a monocyte response.
Salmonella

mneu: Salmon swim (motile and disseminate
_____ has an animal reservoir
salmonella.
Shigella is transmitted via the 4 Fs
Food, fingers, feces, & fliies
usually transmitted from pet feces (e.g., puppies), contaminated milk, or pork. Outbreaks are common in day-care centers. Can mimic Crohn's or appendicitis, can disseminate to produce lymphadenitis.
Yersinia enterocolitica.
Bugs causing food poisoning:
contaminated seafood
Vibrio parahaemolyticus & V. vulnificus
Bugs causing food poisoning:
reheated rice
Bacillus cereus
Bugs causing food poisoning:
meats, mayonaise, custard

s/s starts quickly and ends quickly
S. aureus
Bugs causing food poisoning: reheated meat dishes
clostridium perfringes
Bugs causing food poisoning: undercooked meat
E. Coli O157:H7
Bugs causing food poisoning: poultry, meat, & eggs
Salmonella
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea. culture shows comma or S- shaped, oxidase positive organisms that grow at 42*C. What is the species
Campylobacteria
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea. culture shows motile organisms What is the species
Salmonella
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea & dysentery. Culture shows nonmotile species with very low ID50. What is the species
Shigella.
What is more virulent Shigella or Salmonella
Shigella (only 100 organisms causes dz)
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea which progresses to HUS. culture shows shiga-like toxin. What is the species
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea. culture shows O157:H7 which has invaded the colonic mucosa What is the species
Enteroinvasive E. coli
child at day care center presents with bloody diarrhea and pain that mimicks appendicitis. What is the bug?
Yersinia enterocolitica
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea & pseudomembranous colitis. What is the species
C. dificile
Pt presents with bloody diarrhea. culture shows protozoa. What is the species
entamoeba histolytica
Pt presents with watery diarrhea. Hx of traveling out of the country. No preformed toxin. What is the species
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
Pt presents with rice watery diarrhea . culture shows comma shaped organisms. What is the species
V. cholerae
Pt presents with watery diarrhea and gas gangrene. What is the species
C. perfringes
Immunocompromized pt presents with watery diarrhea. what do you suspect.
protazoa (e.g., giardia, cryptosporidium)
Pt presents with watery diarrhea . What viruses could cause this
Rotavirus, adenovirus, Norwalk virus
This toxin acts via ADP ribosylation that perminantly activates adenyl cyclase (increase cAMP). It perminantly activates G(s)causing rice-water diarrhea.
Vibrio cholerae toxin

Cholera turns the "on" on
This toxin acts via ADP ribosylation that perminantly activates adenyl cyclase (increase cAMP). It perminantly disables G(i)causing whooping cough. It also promotes lymphocytosis by inhibiting chemokine receptors
Pertussis toxin

Pertussis turns the "off" off
This bug is a gram neg. rod that gram stains poorly. It is spread via aerosol transmission from enviornmental water source hapitat. It is not spread person to person.
Legionella pneumophelia
How do you cx & stain Legionella pneumophelia
grow on charcoal yeast extract culture with iron and cysteine

stain with silver stain.

mneu: Think of French legionnaire (ssoldier) with his silver hlmet, sitting around a campfire (charcoal) with is iron dagger--he is no sissy (cysteine)
How do you tx Legionnaires' dz
erythromycin
this bug is associated with wound and burn infections. It is an aerobic gram negative rod. It is non lactose fermenting, oxidase positive. it produces pyocyanin which is a blue green pigment and is usually associated with a water source.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

mneu: AERuginosa--AERobic. think water connnection & blue green pigment.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes pneumonia in these patients
CF
Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes black lesions on the skin when this happens
sepsis
When pseudomonas aeruginosa causes external otitis, it is also known as
swimmers ear
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces an endotoxin which causes (2)
fever & shock
Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces an exotoxin (A) which does this to EF-2
inactivates it
how do you tx Pseudomonas aeruginosa
aminoglycoside plus extended-spectrum penicillin (e.g., Piperacillin, ticarcillin.
this gram - rod causes gastritis and up to 90% of duodenal ulcers.
Helicobacter pylori
Is H. pylori urease + or -
+ think the urease breath test.
what other bug is urease +
Proteus

(cleaves urea to amonia)
H. pylori is a risk factor for (2)
peptic ulcer and gastric carcinoma
H. pylori creates this kind of envirnment (acid or alkaline)
alkaline
tx H. pylori w/ triple therapy-what is it
1) bismuth (pepto-bismol)
2)metronidazole
3)tetracycline or amoxycillin

or (more expensive)
1)metronidazole
2) omeprazole
3) clarithromycin
this zoonotic bacteria causes lyme dz and is transmitted by the bite of the Ixodes tick that live on deer and mice
Borrelia Burgdorferi
this zoonotic bacteria causes Undulant fever and is transmitted by dairy products and contact with animals
Brucella species
this zoonotic bacteria causes Tularemia and is transmitted by ticks that live on rabbits & deer
Francisella tularensis
this zoonotic bacteria causes plague and is spread via flease that live on rodents, especially prarie dogs
Yersinia pestis
this zoonotic bacteria causes cellulitis and is spread via bites from cats and dogs
pasteurella multocida
On pelvic exam you note a greenish vaginal discharge with a fishy smell. Pt reports no pain. Smear shows clue cells and cx grows out a pleomorphic, gram variable rod. What is the dx and the bug.
Bacterial Vaginosis
Gardnerella vaginalis
What anaerobe is also involved with B.V
Mobiluncus.
How do you tx B.V.
metronidazole
what are clue cells
vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, visable under microscope
primary and secondary TB [image p. 143]
--
TB granulomas with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement. Reflects primary infection or exposure
Ghon complex
pt presents with fever, night sweats, weight loss & hemoptysis. What mycobacterium do you suspect
mycobacterium tuberculosis
pt presents with TB like symptoms but it is not mycobacterium tuberculosis, what other mycobacterium could it be
M. kansasii
child presents with cervical lymphadenitis. What mycobacterium?
M. scrofullaceum
AIDS pt presents with disseminated dz. Bug is resistant to multilple drugs. What mycobacteria
M. avium-intracellulare
all mycobacteria should be stained this way
acid fast
what dz involves loss of eyebrows, nasal collapse, lumpy earlobe, and "leonine facies"
Leprosy (Hansen's dz)
This bug is an acid fast bacillus that likes cool temperatures (infects skin and superficial nerves) and cannot be grown in vitro.
Mycobacterium leprae
What is the reservoir in US for M. leprae
armadillos.
primary and secondary TB [image p. 143]
--
TB granulomas with lobar and perihilar lymph node involvement. Reflects primary infection or exposure
Ghon complex
pt presents with fever, night sweats, weight loss & hemoptysis. What mycobacterium do you suspect
mycobacterium tuberculosis
pt presents with TB like symptoms but it is not mycobacterium tuberculosis, what other mycobacterium could it be
M. kansasii
child presents with cervical lymphadenitis. What mycobacterium?
M. scrofullaceum
Hansen's dz (Leprosy) has 2 forms: lepromatous & tubberculoid. Which is worse?
Lepromatous is worse--it involves failed cell mediated immunity; tuberculoid is self limited

mneu: LEpromatous=LEthal.
these are obligate intracellular parasites that cause mmucosal infections
Clamydiae
chlamys=_______
cloak (intracellular
Chlamydiae exists in 2 forms What are they?
1)Elementary body (small, dense) Enters cell via Endocytosis
2) Reticuliate body, which Replicates in cell by fission
This chlamydia species causes reactive arthritis, conjunctivitis, and nongonococcal urethritis
Chlamydia trachomatis
These 2 chlamydia species cause atypical pneumonia, and is transmitted via aerosol droplets
C. pneumoniae & C. psittaci
C. psittaci is notable in that it has an ____ reservior
avian
The clamydial peptidoglycan wall is unusual in that it lacks ______
muramic acid
Dx of clamydia is made by cytoplasmic incusions seen on _______ or fluorescent Ab stained smear
giemsa
how do you tx clamydia
erythromycin or tetracylcine
image clamydiae life cycle [p.144]
--
Clamydia trachomatis serotypes:
A,B,C
ABC=Africa/Blindness/Chronic infection
Clamydia trachomatis serotypes:
D-K
urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy, neonatal pneumonia, or neonatal conjunctivitis

D-K=everything else
Clamydia trachomatis serotypes:
L1-L3
Lymphogranuloma venerium
Neonate develops conjunctivits via passage through infected birth canal. How do you tx his chlamydia
erythromycin eye drops
Name 3 spirochetes
Borrelia (Big-can be visualized under light microscopy using aniline dyes (Wright's or Giemsa stain))
Leptospira
Treponema

mneu: BLT
pt presents with erythema chronicum migrans, an expanding "bull's eye" red rash with central clearing. Dz may progress to affect joints CNS, & heart.
Lyme dz
Lyme dz caused by what spirochete and what vector
Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by the tick Ixodes
important reservoir for Lymme dz
mice
animal required for tick life cycle
deer.
lyme dz transmission is most common during this season
summer
3 stages of Lyme dz
1) erythema chronicum migrans, flulike symptoms
2) neurologic and cardiac manifestations
3) autoimmune migratory polyarthritis

mneu: BAKE a Key LYME pe:
Bells palsy, Arthritis, Kardiac block, Erythema chronicum migranes.
treponemes are ______
spirochetes
________ causes syphilis
Treponema pallidum
_______ causes yaws (a tropical infxn that is not an STD, although VDRL test is +.
T. pertenue
describe primary syphilis
localized dz-painless chancre
describe secondary syphilis
disseminated dz w/ constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash (palms & soles) condylomata lata

mneu: Secondary syphilis=Systemic
pt preents w/ broad-based ataxia positive Romberg, charcot joints, stroke without hypertension
tertiary syphilis
describe tertiarry syphilis
gummas, aortitis, neurosyphalis (tabes dorsalis), argyl Robertson pupil
child presents with deafness, saber shins, sadddle nose. what dx
congenital syphilis
describe primary siphilis
localized dz-painless chancre
describe secondary syphilis
disseminated dz w/ constitutional symptoms, maculopapular rash (palms & soles) condylomata lata

mneu: Secondary syphilis=Systemic
pt preents w/ broad-based ataxia positive Romberg, charcot joints, stroke without hypertension
tertiary syphilis
describe tertiarry syphilis
gummas, aortitis, neurosyphalis (tabes dorsalis), argyl Robertson pupil
child presents with deafness, saber shins, sadddle nose. what dx
congenital syphilis
constricts with accomodation but is not reactive to light. Pathognomonic for tertiary syphilis
Argyll Robertson Pupil

"prostitute's pupil" -- accommodates but does not react.
FTA-ABS is specific for these. It turns + earliest in dz & remains positive for longest
treponemes

mneu: FTA-ABS=Find The Antibody-ABSolutely:
1)Most specific
2) earliest positive
3) remains positive the longest
VDRL or FTA interpretation:
Active infection
both
VDRL or FTA interpretation:
Probably false positive
VDRL
VDRL or FTA interpretation: positive after successful treatment
FTA
this test detects a nonspecific Ab that reacts with beef cardiolipin
VDRL
VDRL false positive
VDRL
Viruses (mono, hepatitis)
Drugs
Rheumatic fever & arthritis
Lupus & leprosy
coccidiomycosis and histoplasmosis are fungus transmitted by _______
inhalation of conidia (asexual fungal spores)
this fungus can cause a systemic of superficial fungal infection. It is dimorphic forming budding yeast with psudohyphae in cx at 20*C and germ tube formation at 37*C
Candida albicans
alba=_____
white
causes thrush esophagitis with immunocompromized pts (neonates, steroides, diabetes, AIDS), endocarditis in IV drug users, vaginitis (post-antibiotic), diaper rash
Candida albicans
Tx of candida for superfical infxn
nystatin
Tx of candida for systemic infxn
amphotercin B
this dz causes San Joaquin Valley or desert "valley fever." It is known as desert bumps and on cx you may see a spherule filled with endospores
Coccidiomycosis
this dz is spread by bird or bat droppings in Mississippi and Ohio river valleys. Characterized by tiny yeast inside macrophages
Histoplasmosis
This organism endemic in rural Latin America and is characterized by a "Captain's wheel" appreance.
PARACOCCIDIOMYCOSIS
This fungis is endemic to states east of Mississippi River & Central America, it is characterized by Big, Broad-Based Budding yeasts
Blastomycosis.
histo, paracoxie, and blastomycoisis are all caused by _______ fungi, which are mold in soil (low temp) adn yeast in tissue (higher temp)
dimorphic
coxie is the exception in that it is a ______ in tissue
spherule
tx coxie, histo, paracoxie, and blastomycoisis locally with
fluconazole or ketoconazole
tx coxie, histo, paracoxie, and blastomycoisis systemically
amphotericin
systemic mycosis can form granulomas and mimick this dz
TB
this dz causes hypopigmented skin lesion and occurs in hot, humid weather.
tinea versicolor
tinea versicolor is caused by
malassezia furfur
tx tinea versicolor with topical
miconazole or selenium sulfide (Selsun)
this dz is an infxn of keratinized leyer of skin. It appears as a brownish spot.
tinea nigra
tinea nigra is caused by this fungus
Cladosporium wernecki.
tx tinea nigra with topical______
salycylic acid
pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring
Tinea (pedis, cruris, corporis, capitis)
Tinea (pedis, cruris, corporis, capitis) caused by
dermatophytes (microsporum, trichophyton, and epidermophyton)
dermatophyte has a reservoir in pets
microsporum
You can see tinea as mold hyphae with this type of prep. tineas are not dimorphic.
KOH prep
this opportunistic fungal infxn causes thrush in immunocompromized pts (neonates, taking steroids, dbts, AIDS), vulvovaginitis (pts with high pH, dbts, using AB), and chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
candida albicans
this opportunistic fungal infxn causes allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, lung gavity aspergilloma ("fungus ball"), invasive aspergillosis. It's MOLD has septate hyphae that branch at a V-shaped (45*) angle. Not dimorphic
Aspergillus fumigatus
this opportunistic fungal infxn causes meningitis and systemic dz. It is a heavily encapsulated YEAST. It is not dimorphic. It is found in soil, pigeon droppings. Culture it on Sabouraud's agar and stain with India ink. Latex agglutination test detects polysaccaride capusular Ag.
Cryptococcus neoformans
this opportunistic fungal infxn causes systemic dz. MOLD with irregular nonseptate hyphae branching at wide angles (>90*). Dz strikes mostly ketoacidotic diabetics and leukemic pts. Fungi also proliferate in the walls of blood vessels and cuases infaction of distal tissue. Can cause Rhinocerebral and frontal lobe abscesses.
Mucor & Rhizopus spp.
Oportunic Fungal Infxn:
pseudohyphae + buddign yeasts. Germ tubes at 37*C [image p. 147]
candida
Oportunic Fungal Infxn:

45* angle branching septate hyphae. Rare fruiting bodies [image p. 147]
aspergillus
Oportunic Fungal Infxn:

5-10um yeast with wide capsular halo. Narrow based unequal buddign [image p. 147]
cryptococcus
Oportunic Fungal Infxn:

Irregular broad (empty looking) nonseptate hyphae, wide-angle branchign[image p. 147]
Mucor
Yeast that is inhaled and causes diffuse interstitial pnneumonia in AIDS pts
pneumocystis carinii
Dx of P. Carinii
lung bx of lavage. I.D. w/ silver stain.
Tx of P. Carinia
TMP-SMX
(prophylaxis when CD4 drops below 200 cells/ml in HIV pts)
dimorphic fungus that lives on vegetation often traumatically introduced into the skin, typically by a thorn ("rose gardener's dz), causes local pustule or ulcer with nodules along draining lymphatics (ascending lymphangitis). Causes little systemic illness. Cigar shaped budding yeast visible in pus.
sporothrix schenkii
tx sporothrix schenkii w/
iatraconazole or potassium iodide.
key words: yeast forms, unequal budding
sporothrix schenkii
causes bloody diarrhea, dysentary, liver abscess, RUQ pain. Is transmitted via cysts in the water. dx by trophosoits or cysts in stool.
entamoeba histolytica
tx of entamoeba histolytica
metronidazole & iodoquinol
Causes bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling diarrhea. Transmitted via cysts in water. Dx by trophozoitese or cysts in stool.
Giardia lamblia
tx of Giardia lamblia
metronidazole
Causes mild watery diarrhea or severe diarrhea in AIDS. Transmitted via cysts in water. Dx by cysts on acid fast stain. No tx
cryptosporidium
causes brain abscesses in HIV and birth defects in neonates. Transmitted by cysts in meat or cat feces. Dx is by seriology or bx.
toxoplasma
Tx of toxoplama
Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine
Causes malaria: cyclic fever, headache, anemia splenomegaly. Transmitted by Mosquito. Dx is by blood smear.
Plasmodium (vivax, ovale, malariae, faciparum.
Most severe malaria (cerebral) is from infection with
P. falciparum
tx of malaria
Chloroquine
Causes vaginitis: foul-smelling greenish discharge with itching and birning. Sexual transmission. Dx via trophozoites on wet mount
Trichomonas Vaginalis
Tx of Trichomonas Vaginalis
metronidazole
Causes Chagas' dz (dialated cardiomyopathy, megacolon, megaesophagus). Transmitted via the reduviid bug. Dx by blood smear.
Trypanosoma cruzi
Tx of Trypanosoma cruzi
Nifurimox
Causes african sleeping sickness. transmitted by the tsetse fly. dx via blood smear.
trypanosoma (T. gambiense, T. rhodensiense)
Tx of trypanosoma
suramin for blood borne dx or melarsoprol for CNS penetration
causes visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar) transmitted by the sandfly. dx by macrophages containing amastigotes.
Leishmania donovani
tx of Leishmania donovani
sodium stibogluconate
causes babesiosis: fever and anemia. transmitted by Ixodes tick. Dx by blood smear, shows no RBC pigment, appears as "maltese cross"
babesia
babesia is tx with
quinine, clindamycin
cause rapidly fatall meningoencephalitis. transmitted by swimming in freshwater lakes (enters via cribiform plate) dx by amebas in spinal fluid. No tx.
Naegleria
helminths are ______
cestodes (tapeworms) & trematodes (flukes) & Nematodes (roundworms)
cestodes are _______
tapeworms
trematodes are ______
flukes
this cestodode is transmitted by eating undercooked pork, larvae can cause mass lesions in the brain or disseminated dz (cystercercosis)
taenia solium
tx for taenia solium
praziquantel/niclosamide; albendazole for cistercercosis
this cestode is transmitted by eggs in dog feces which when ingested can cause cysts in the liver and cause anaphylaxis if antigens are released form cysts
Echinococcus granulosus
tx for Echinococcus granulosus
albendazole
this trematode uses snails as a host. Cercariae penetrate the skin of humans and cause granulomas, fibrosis, and inflammation of the spleen and liver
schistosoma
tx of schistosoma
praziquantel
this trematode is transmitted via undercooked fish. It causes inflammation of the biliary tract
clonorchis sinesis
this trematode is transmitted via undercooked crab meat. It causes inflammation and secondary bacterial infectgion of the lung.
Paragoniimus westermani
tx of Paragoniimus westermani
praziquantel
tx of trematodes (flukes) and many Cestodes (tapeworms)
Praziquantel
Nematodes are ________
roundworms
this nematodes larvae penetrates the skin of the feet causing an intestinal infection that can cause anemia
ancylostoma duodenale (hookworm)
tx of ancylostoma duodenale
mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
this nematode that causes intestinal infection has eggs that are visible in the feces
Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)
Tx of Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)
mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
this nematode is transmitted by food contaminated with eggs. It causes an intestinal infection and symptoms include anal pruritis
enterobius vermicularis
tx of enterobius vermicularis
mebendazole/pyrantel pamoate
this nematode spreads when larvae in the soil penetrate the skin. It results in an intestinal infection
strongyloides stercoralis
tx of strongyloides stercoralis
Ivermectin/ thiabendazole
this nematode is transmitted in undercooked meat, usually pork and results in inflammation of the muscle and periorbital edema
trichinella spiralis
tx of trichinella spiralis
thiabendazole
this nematode is spread in drinking water. It results in skin inflammation and ulceration
dracunculus medinensis
tx of dracunculus medinensis
niridazole
this nematode is transmitted by the deer fly. It causes swelling in the skin and you can sometimes see worm crawling in the conjunctiva.
loa loa
tx of loa loa
diethylcarbamazine
this nematode is transmitted by femlae blackflies and causes river blindness
Onchocerca volvulus
tx of Onchocerca volvulus
ivermectin
this nematode is transmitted by food contaminated with eggs. It causes granulomas. If it occurs in retina it can lead to blindness. It also causes visceral larva migrans.
toxocara canis
tx of toxocara canis
diethylcarbamazine
this nematode is spread by the female mosquito. It causes blockage of the lymphatic vessels (elephantiasis)
Wuchereria bancrofti
tx of Wuchereria bancrofti
diethylcarbamazine
you find brain cysts & seizures. What is the organism?
taenia solium
you find liver cysts. What is the organism?
echinococcus granulosus
you find vit B12 deficiency. What is the organism?
diphyllobothrium latum
you find biliary tract dz. What is the organism?
clonorchis sinensis
you find hemoptysis. What is the organism?
paragonimus westermani
you find portal hypertension. What is the organism?
schistosoma mansoni
you find hematuria, bladder cancer. What is the organism?
Schistosoma haematobium
you find microcytic anemia. What is the organism?
Ancylostoma, Necator
you find perianal pritis. What is the organism?
enterobius
Tricky Ts:
What is chlamydia TRACHomatis
bacteria, STD
Tricky Ts:
What is TRICHomonas vaginalis
protozoan, STD
Tricky Ts:
What is TRICHinella spiralis
worm in undercooked meat
Tricky Ts:
What is TRYPanosoma
causes chagas dz or african sleeping sickness
Tricky Ts:
What is treponema
spirochete; causes syphilis or yaws
All DNA viruses except the parvoviridae are __DNA
ds

mneu: dsDNA like our cells except for parvovirus which is "part-of-a-virus" ->ssDNA
all DNA viral genomes are _____ except papoviruses and hepadnaviruses
linear
Naked nucleic acids of most dsDNA (except poxviruses and HBV) and (+) ssRNA (mRNA) viruses are _______
infectious
Naked nucleic acids of (-) strand ssRNA and dsRNA viruses are ________
non-infectious
Naked (nonenveloped RNA viruses include
Calcivirus, Picornavirus, & Reovirus

mneu: Naked CPR
viral nucleic acids with the same structure as the host nucleic acids ar infective alone; others require special enzymes (contained in intact viron) T or F
T
Generally, enveloped viruses aquire their envelopes from _______ when they exit from the cell.
plasma membrane
Herpesviruses aquire envelopes from _______
nuclear membrane
all viruses are _______ ( 1 copy DNA or RNA) except retroviruses, which are ________ (2 identical ssRNA molecules
haploid
diploid
all DNA viruses replicate in the ______ (except poxvirus)
nucleus
all RNA viruses replicate in the ________ (except influenza virus and retroviruses)
cytoplasm
DNA viruses are HHAPPPy viruses
hepadna, Herpes, Adeno, Pox, Parvo, Papova
most DNA viruses have these 4 things in common
1)ds (except Parvo)
2)linear (exept papova & Hepadna)
3)are icosahedral (except pox)
4)replicate in the nucleus (except Pox)
naked DNA viruses
Parvo, Adeno, Papova

mneu: you need to b e naked for a PAP smear
enveloped DNA viruses
Hepadna,Pox,Herpes
this virus is of the hepadnavirus family. It is enveloped and partially circular dsDNA virus. It is not a retrovirus but has a reverse transcriptase. It can cause acute or chronic hepatitis. There is a vaccine available.
HBV
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause oral (and some genital) lesions) and keratoconjunctivitis.
HSV-1
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause genital(and some oral ) lesions
HSV-2
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause chickenpox, zoster, and shingles
VZV
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause mononucleosis and Burkitt's lymphoma
EBV
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause congenital defects and infection in immunosuppressed pts (esp. transplant recipients)
CMV
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause Roseola (exanthem subitum
HHV-6
this virus of the herpesvirus family is an enveloped virus w/ linear dsDNA. It can cause Kaposi's sarcoma
HHV-8
this naked, linear, dsDNA causes febrile pharyngitis, pneumonia, and conjunctivitis.
adenovirus
This tiny naked ss linear DNA virus can cause aplatic crises in sickle cell dz, "slapped cheeks" rash, erythema infectiosum (fifth dz) & hydrops fetalis
parvovirus B19
this naked ds circular DNA virus of the papovavirus family can cause warts, CIN, and cervical cancer
HPV
this naked ds circular DNA virus of the papovavirus family can cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) in HIV
JC virus
this large enveloped dsDNA virus of the poxvirus family is a scare for germ warfare
small pox
this large enveloped dsDNA virus of the poxvirus family can cause "milkmaid's blisters"
cowpox (Vaccinia)
this large enveloped dsDNA virus of the poxvirus family can cause white pustulese with cottage cheesy like material innside
molluscum contageosum
this nonenveloped ss+ linear RNA virus of the picornavirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause paralysis
poliovirus
salk/sabin polio vaccines the one with killed virus and no risk for infection
salk
this nonenveloped ss+ linear RNA virus of the picornavirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause aseptic meningitis
echovirus
this nonenveloped ss+ linear RNA virus of the picornavirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause the "common cold"
Rhinovirus
this nonenveloped ss+ linear RNA virus of the picornavirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause aseptic meningitis, herpangia, febrile pharyngitis, hand, foot and mouth dz, myocarditis
Coxsackievirus
this nonenveloped ss+ linear RNA virus of the picornavirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause acute viral hepatitis
HAV
this nonenveloped ss+ liniar RNA virus of the calcivirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause heptatis
HEV
this nonenveloped ss+ liniar RNA virus of the calcivirus family with an icosahedral capsid can cause viral gastroenteritis
Norwalk virus
this is a nonenveloped ds liniar segmented RNA viruswith an double icosahedral capsid can cause colorado tick fever
reovirus
this nonenveloped ds liniar segmented RNA virus of the reovirus family with an double icosahedral capsid is the #1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children
rotavirus
this family of enveloped ss+ liniar RNA virus of with an icosahedral capsid contains HCV, Yellow fever, Dengue, St. Louis encephalitis, West Nile virus
Flavivirus
this family of enveloped ss+ liniar RNA virus of with an icosahedral capsid causes Rubella, eastern equine encephalitis, western equine encephalitis
Togavirus
this enveloped ss+ liniar RNA retrovirus with an icosahedral capsid uses reverese transcriptase and causes AIDS
HIV
this enveloped ss+ liniar RNA retrovirus with an icosahedral capsid uses reverese transcriptase and causes T-cell leukemia
HTLV
this member of the orthomyxoviruses is an enveloped ss- liniar segnebted RNA virus with an helical capsid and causes the "flu"
influenza virus
this member of the paramyxoviruses is an enveloped ss- linear nonsegmented RNA virus with an helical capsid causes croup in children (barking cough)
parainfluenza
this member of the paramyxoviruses is an enveloped ss- linear nonsegmented RNA virus with an helical capsid causes bronchilitis in babies
RSV
tx for RSV
ribavirin
this family contains enveloped ss- linear nonsegmented RNA virus with an helical capsid (includes parainfluenza, RSV, measels, mumps)
paramyxoviruses
this member of the rhabdoviruses is an enveloped ss- linear RNA virus with an helical capsid
rabies
this member of the filovirusesis an enveloped ss- linear RNA virus with an helical capsid causes hemorrhagic fever and is often fatal
Ebola/Marburg
this enveloped ss + linear RNA virus with an helical capsid causes the "common cold" and SARS
coronavirus
this member of the arenavirus family is an enveloped ss - circular RNA virus with an helical capsid and causes lymphocytic choriomeningitis
LCV
this member of the bunyavirus family is an enveloped ss - circular RNA virus with an helical capsid and causes hemorrhagic fever and pneumonia
hantavirus
this virus family is an enveloped ss - circular RNA virus with an helical capsid and causes california encephalitis, sandfly/rift valley fevers, crimean-congo hemorrhagic fever
bunyavirus
this member of the deltavirus family is an enveloped ss - circular RNA virus with an helical capsid and causes hepatiis
HDV
viral vaccines: _______ vaccines induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity but have reverted to virulence on rare occasions
live attenuated
______ vaccines induce only humoral immunity but are stable.
killed
it is dangerous to give _____ vaccines to immunocompromised pts or their close contacts
live
measels mumps, rubella, sabin polio, VZV, yellow fever, smallpox, adenovirus vaccine are all this type of vaccine.
live attenuated
rabies, influenza, HAV, and Salk Polio vaccines are all this type of vaccines
killed

mneu: SalK=Killed
Flu, MMR,Yellow fever are all ____ based vaccines
egg

mneu=FRY an egg
HBV is a _____ vaccine
recombinant
Viral genetics: this describes the exchange of genes between 2 chromosomes by crossing over within regions of significant base sequence homology (recombination,complimentation, reassortment, phenotypic mixing)
recombination
Viral genetics: this describes when viruses with segmented genomes (recombination,complimentation, reassortment, phenotypic mixing) exchange segments. It is a cause of high frequency recombinationa nd a cause of wordwide pandemics (recombination,complimentation, reassortment)
reassortment
Viral genetics: this describes when 1 of 2 viruses that infect the cell has a mutation that results in a non-functional protien. The nonmutated virus "complements" the mutated one by making a functional protiein that sesrves both viruses. (recombination,complimentation, reassortment, phenotypic mixing)
complimentation
viral vaccines: _______ vaccines induce humoral and cell-mediated immunity but have reverted to virulence on rare occasions
live attenuated
______ vaccines induce only humoral immunity but are stable.
killed
it is dangerous to give _____ vaccines to immunocompromised pts or their close contacts
live
measels mumps, rubella, sabin polio, VZV, yellow fever, smallpox, adenovirus vaccine are all this type of vaccine.
live attenuated
rabies, influenza, HAV, and Salk Polio vaccines are all this type of vaccines
killed

mneu: SalK=Killed
Viral genetics: this describes when genome of virus A can be coated with the surface proteins of virus B. Type B protein coat determines the infectivity of the phenotypically mixed virus. However, the progeny from this infection has a type A coat and is encoaded by its type A genetic material(recombination,complimentation, reassortment, phenotypic mixing)
phenotypic mixing
give the sx of the viral pathogens: herpesviruses (HSV types 1 & 2, VZV, CMV, EBV) HBV smallpox
DNA enveloped viruses
give the sx of the viral pathogens: adenovirus, papillomaviruses, parvovirus
DNA nucleocapsid viruses
give the sx of the viral pathogens: influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, RSV, measles virus, mumps virus, rubella virus, rabies virus, HTLV, HIV
RNA enveloped viruses
give the sx of the viral pathogens: enteroviruses (poliovirus, coxsackievirus, echovirus, HAV), rhinovirus, reovirus
RNA nucleocapsid viruses
explain the concept of slow virus infections and give 2 examples
virus existes in pt for months to years before it manifests as clinical dz. SSPE (late sequela of measles), PML (reactivation of JC virus) in immunocompromized pts, especially AIDS
segmented viruses are all ____ viruses
rna
segmented viruses include (4)
mneu: BOAR

Bunyaviruses
Orthomyxoviruses(influenza virus)
Arenaviruses,
Reoviruses.
Influenza virus consists of 8 segments that can undergo reassortment, causing antigenic ______ that lead to worldwide epidemics of the flu.
shifts
this group includes Poliovirus, Echovirus, Rhinovirus, Coxsackie virus, & HAV.
Picornavirus

mneu: PERCH on a "peak" (pico)
describe picornaviruses
small RNA virus

mneu: (pequeno) picoRNA virus
this type of virus is a non-enveloped RNA virus and the cause of the common cold. There is 100 serologic types
Rhinovirus

mneu: Rhino has a runny nose
this segmented dsRNA reovirus is the most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis and a cause of acute diarrhea in the US during the winter
Rotavirus

mneu: ROTA=Right Out The Anus
this virus group causes dz in children. Members include parainfluenza (croup), mumps, and measles as well as RSV, which causes respiratory tract infections in infants. All members of this group have 1 serotype except parainfluenza which has 4
Paramyxoviruses
this virus is a paramyxovirus with 1 serotype. Symptoms include: Parotitis, Orchitis (inflammation of the testes) and aseptic Meningitis. It can cause sterility (esp. after puberty)
Mumps viurs

mneu: Mumps makes your parotid glands and testes as big as POM-poms.
pt presents with head cold, cough, conjunctivitis, & Koplik spots (bluish-gray spots on buccal mucosa). What virus?
Measles

mneu: 3 C's of measles
cough
coryza (head cold)
conjuntivitis
also Koplik spots
give 2 possilbe sequelae in measles
SSPE & encephalitis & giant cell pneumonia (rarely in immunosupressed)
What is Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)?
A chronic brain disease of children and adolescents that occurs months to often years after an attack of measles, causing convulsions, motor abnormalities, mental retardation and, usually, death.
this is an enveloped, single stranded RNA virus with a segmented genome, with a vaccine, that commonly causes illness every winter
influenza virus
what 2 antigens does the influenza virus contain?
hemagglutinin and neuraminidase
the influenza virus is responsible for worldwide influenza epidemics. It has rapid genetic changes and puts pts at risk for a fatal ________ superinfection.
bacterial.
this type of viral influenza vaccine is the major mode of protection. It is reformulated yearly and offered in the fall to health care workers and the elderly
killed
this type of genetic change involves teh reassortment of viral genome (such as when human flu A virus combines with the swine flu A virus)
genetic shift
this type of genetic change involves minor changes based on random mutation
genetic drift.
what is more deadly a genetic shift or drift.
mneu: Sudden Shift is more deadly than a graDual Drift
give two Rxs for tx and prophylaxis of influenza A
Amantidine & Rimantadine
Give 2 neuraminidase inhibitors that are useful to tx both influenza A & B
Zanamivir and oseltamivir
pt presents with strange behavior, seizures, and fear of water, 2 mo after being bit by racoon. He dies quickly of fatal encephalitis. What is the bullet shaped virus that travels to the CNS by migrating in a retrograde fashion up nerve axons
rabies
what are the characteristic cytoplasmic inclusions in neurons infected by the rabies virus
negri bodies
these viruses are transmitted by arthropods (mosquitoes, ticks). Classic examples are dengue fever (aka break bone fever) & yellow fever. Note: A varient of dengue fever in Southeast Asia is hemorrhagic shock syndrome
Arboviruses

mneu: ARBOvirus - ARthropod-BOrne virus.
Give 2 arboviruses
flavivirus, togavirus, and bunyavirus
pt presents with a high fever and juandice. Wife reports he has been vomiting black stuff. His dz is caused by the flavivirus, and arbovirus transmitted by the Aedes mosquito with a monkey or human resevior.
Yellow Fever
flavi=______
yellow
what charicteristic acidophilic inclusions would you expect to see in the liver of a pt with yellow fever
councilman bodies
Name the herpesviruses
CMV
HSV1,2
EBV
VZV

mneu: get herpes in a CHEVrolet
this herpes virus causes gingivostomitis, keratoconjunctivitis, temporal lobe encephalitis, herpes labiales via respiratory secretion and saliva
HSV-1
this herpes virus causes herpes genitalis and neonatal herpes via sexual contact and perinatal transmission
HSV-2
this herpes virus causes shingles, encephalitis, and pneumonia via respiratory secretions
VZV
this herpes virus causes infectious mononucleosis & Burkitt's lymphoma via respiratory secretions and saliva
EBV
this herpes virus causes congenital infection, mononucleosis (negative monospot), and pneumonia via congenital, transfusion, sexual contact, saliva, urine, or transplant transmission
CMV
this herpes virus causes Kaposi's aarcoma in HIV pts via sexual contact
HHV-8
18 y/o female presents wtih fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis, and posterior auricular lymphadenopaty. What virus and what dz?
EBV (herpes virus)
Mononucleosis
what test should you do to detect mononucleosis and what antibody does it detect
Monospot test

tests for heterophil antibodies by agglutination of sheep RBCs
what atypical lymphocytes are circulating in the blood of a pt with mononucleosis.
cytotoxic T cells
what viruses does a Tzank test detect
HSV-1,2, & VZV

mneu: Tzank heavens I do not have herpes or varicella
In a tzank test you take a smear of an opened skin vesicle to detect this
multiniucleated giant cell.
what hepatitis virus:
this RNA picornavirus is transmitted primarily by fecal-oral route. There is a short incubation period (usually 3 weeks) and No carrieres.
Hep A

mneu: Hep A-Asymptomatic (usually), Acute, Alone (no carriers; naked ssRNA)
what hepatitis virus: This DNA hepadnavirus is transmitted primarily by parenteral, sexual, and maternal-fetal routs. It has a long incubation (3 mo). There are carriers. Reverse transcription occurs; however, the virion enzyme is a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
Hep B

mneu: hep B is Blood borne
what hepatitis virus: This RNA flavivirus is transmitted primarily via blood and resembles HBV in its course and severity. Carriers. Common cause of IV drug use hepatitis in the US
Hep C

mneu: Hep C: Chronic, Cirrhosis, Carcinoma, Carieres
what hepatitis virus:
this delta agent is a defective virus that requires HBsAg as its envelope. Carriers.
Hep D

mneu: Hep D: Defective, Dependent on HBV
what hepatitis virus:
this RNA calicivirus is transmitted enterically and causes water-borne epidemics. It resembles HAV in course, severity, incubation. There is a high mortality rate in pregnant women
Hep E

mneu: Hep E: enteric, expectant mothers, epidemics
Hep ___ & ____ are spread via the fecal-oral route
A & E

mneu: the vowels hit your bowels.
Hep ___ & ____ predispose a pt to chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinomai
B & C
Hepatitis serologic markers:
best test to detect active hep A
IgM HAV Ab
Hepatitis serologic markers: continued presence indicates carrier state of hep B
HBsAg (Ag found on surface of HBV)
Hepatitis serologic markers: PROVIDES IMMUNITY to hep B
HBsAb (Ab to HBs Ag)
Hepatitis serologic markers: Ag assoc. w/ core of HBV
HBcAg
Hepatitis serologic markers: positive during WINDOW PERIOD of Hep B infection
HBcAb
Hepatitis serologic markers: A second different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. Important indicator of transmissibility
HBeAg

mneu: BEware
Hepatitis serologic markers: Antibody to e antigen. Indicates low transmissibility of hep B
HBeAb
image [p. 158] virus particle
--
image [p. 158] important diagnostic tests
--
HBsAg will be + if pt is either in ______ or _______ Hepatitis B
acute or chronic (carrier)
HBsAb is + only when pt has _________ from hep B
completely recovered
this test rises about 2 mo after hep B exposure and remains + after complete recovery
HBcAg
HIV has a ______ genome (2 molecules of RNA)
diploid
HIV capsid is made of ______ (a rectangular nucleocapsid protein)
p24
HIV surface has these 2 envelope proteins
gp41 & gp120
image p 159 HIV
--
1st test given for HIV is this. It is a sensitive test with a high false positive rate and a low threshold (RULE OUT TEST).
ELISA
After pt tests + with the ELISA test dx of HIV is confirmed by this test. This test is more specific, it has a high false - rate and a high threshold (RULE IN TEST)
Western blot assay
these test allows the physician to monitor the effect of drug therapy on viral load.
HIV PCR/ viral load tests
Elisa/Western blot tests look for antibodies to viral proteins. These tests are often falsy negative when?
first 1-2 mo of HIV infections
Elisa/Western blot tests look for antibodies to viral proteins. These tests are often falsy positive when?
babies born to infected mothers (anti-gp120 crosses the placenta0
when is someone considered as having AIDS (3)
1) =/< 200 CD4 count
2) HIV+ w/ indicator conditon (e.g., PCP
3) CD4/CD8 ratio <1.5
1% of caucasions are homozygous for this mutation granting them immunity from HIV virus (20% are heterozygous leading to slower course)
CCR5 mutation
this mutation is associated with a rapid progression to AIDS
CXCR1
image 160-time course of HIV infection
--
give 3 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the brain in AIDS
cryptococcal meningitis, toxoplasmosis, CMV encephalopathy, AIDS dementia, PML
PML is associated with what virus
JC virus
give 1 opportunistic infection or dz that attacks the eyes in AIDS
CMV retinitis
give 3 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the mouth and throat in AIDS
Thrush, HSV, CMV, oral hairy leukoplakia
what organism causes thrush
candida albicans
what virus causes oral hairly leukoplakia
EBV
give 3 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the lungs in AIDS
pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), TB, histoplasmosis
give 3 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the GI system in AIDS
cryptosporidosis, mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex, CMV colitis, non-hodgkins lymphoma
what virus can cause non-Hodgkin's lymphoma in AIDS
EBV
give 2 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the skin in AIDS
shingles, kaposi sarcoma
what virus causes shingles
VZV
what virus causes Kaposi's sarcoma
HHV-8
give 3 opportunistic infections or dzs that attack the genitals in AIDS
genital herpes, warts, and cervical cancer
what virus can lead to cervical cancer
HPV
these are infectious agents that do not contain RNA or DNA (consist only of proteins). They are encoded by cellular genes.
PRions
give 3 examples of diseases caused by prions
Creutzfeldt-Jakob dz (CJD)
Kuru
Scrapie
"Mad cow dz"
this dz caused by prions results in rapid progressive dementia
CJD
Prions are associated with this brain damage
spongiform encephalopathy.
normal prions have this type of conformation; pathologic prions (like CJD) are this conformation.
alpha helix
Beta pleated sheets
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: skin
staphylococcus epidermidis
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: nose
S. aureus
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: oropharynx
viridans streptococci
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: dental plaque
streptococcus mutans
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: colon
bacteroides fragilis> e. coli
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: vagina
lactobacillus, colonized by E. coli and group B strep
T or F: Neonates delivered by cesaerean section have no flora but are rapidly colonized after birth
T
Give the dominant normal fora for the body location: vagina
lactobacillus, colonized by E. coli and group B strep
T or F: Neonates delivered by cesaerean section have no flora but are rapidly colonized after birth
T
common causes of pneumonia in children 6 wks -18 yrs
viruses (RSV)
mycoplasma
Chlamydia pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae
common causes of pneumonia in adults (18-40 y/o)
mycoplasma
C. pneumoniae
S. pneumoniae
common causes of pneumonia in adults (40-65 y/o)
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Anaerobes
Viruses
Mycoplasma
common causes of pneumonia in the elderly
S. pneumoniae
Viruses
Anaerobes
H. influenzae
gram negative rods
common causes of pneumonia in the hospital
Staphylococcus, gram-negative rods
common causes of pneumonia in immunocompromized
staphylococcus, G- rods, fungi, viruses, PCP (HIV)
common causes of pneumonia after aspiration
anaerobes
common causes of pneumonia in alcoholics or IV drug users
S. pneumoniae, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus
common causes of pneumonia in alcoholics or IV drug users
S. pneumoniae, Klebsiella, Staphylococcus
common causes of pneumonia in postviral infections
staphylococcus, H. influenzae
common causes of pneumonia in the neonate
Group B streptococci, E. coli
common causes of atypical pneumonia
mycoplasma, legionella, chlamydia
Common causes of meningitis in the newborn (0-6mo)
GROUP B STREPTOCOCCI
E. COLI
Listeria
Common causes of meningitis in children (6 mo- 6yrs)
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitidis
H. influenzae type B
Enteroviruses
Common causes of meningitis in ages 6-60 y/o
N. MENINGITIDIS
Enteroviruses
S. Pneumoniae
HSV
Common causes of meningitis in 60 + y/o
S. PNEUMONIA
G - rods
Listeria
Common causes of meningitis in HIV
cryptococcus
CMV
toxoplasmosis (brain abscess)
JC virus (PML)
incidence of this type of meningitis has greatly decreased after the introduction of the vaccine within the last 10-15 years
H. influenzae
On LP pt has increased PMNs, increased, protein, and decreased sugar. CSF pressure is increased. What kind of meningitis is this?
bacterial
On LP pt has increased lymphocytes, increased, protein, and decreased sugar. CSF pressure is increased. What kind of meningitis is this?
fungal or TB
On LP pt has increased lymphocytes, normal protein, and normal sugar. CSF pressure is normal. What kind of meningitis is this?
viral
osteomylitis is usually caused by what bug
S. aureus
osteomylitis in sexually active pts is rearely caused by this organism but they may be infected with this bug and have septic arthritis.
N. gonorrheae
osteomylitis usually occurs in this age group
children
osteomylitis in diabetics and drug addics is often due to this bug
pseudomonas aeruginosa
osteomylitis in pts with sickle cell anemia is often due to this bug
salmonella
osteomyelitis in pts with sickle cell often presents with this elevated lab value
ESR
osteomylitis in pts with prosthetic replacement is often due to these bugs
S. aureus & S. epidermis
vertebral osteomylitis (Potts dz) is due to this bug
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
urinary tract infections in ambulatory pts is most often due to this bug
E-coli (50-80%)
Klebsiella (10%)
2nd most common urinary tract infection young ambulatory women after E. Coli
Staphylococcus saphrophyticus
urinary tract infections in hospitalized pts
E. coli, proteus, klebsiella, serratia, pseudomonas
ratio of UTIs: women to men
10:1 (short urethra colonized by fecal flora)
urinary tract infections are usually caused by ascending infections. T or F
T
male baby presents with UTI what do you suspect
congenital defect
elderly male presents with UTI. what do you suspect
enlarged prostate
symptoms of UTI
dysuria, frequency, urgency, suprapubic pain
pt presents with fever, chills, flank pain, and CVA tenderness. What do you suspect?
pyelonephritis
some strains of this bug that causes UTI result in a red pigment. Often these infections are nosocomial and Rx resistant.
Serratia marcescens
this is the leading cause of UTI. Colonies show a metalic sheen on EMB agar
E. coli.
This UTI bug is often nosocomial and drug resistant
Enterobacter cloacae
this bug that causes UTIs has a large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies
Klebsiella pneumoniae
this bug that causes UTIs has motility and causes "swarming" on agar. It produces urease and is associated with struvite stones
Proteus mirabilis
this bug that causes UTIs produces a blue green pigment and a fruity odor. It is usually nosocomial and drug resistant
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
If the nitrite test is postitive what kind of bacteria are you looking at
G-
if the leukocyte esterase test is + what type of bug are you looking at
bactreial
UTI bugs can be memorized by the mneumonic--SSEEK PP
Serratia marcescens
Staphylococcus
Escherichia coli
Enterobacter cloacae
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
pt presents with urethritis, cervicitis, PID, prostitis, epididymitis, arthritis, and a creamy purulent discharge. What is the dz and the organism?
Gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrheae
Pt presents with a painless chancre. What is the dz and the organism?
Treponema pallidum
primary syphilis
pt presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, skin rashes, condylomata lata. What is the dz and the organism?
treponema pallidum
secondary syphilis
pt presents with gummas, tabes dorsalis, general paresis, aortitis, and argyll robertson pupil. What is the dz and the organism?
treponema pallidum
tertiary syphilis
pt presents with painful penile, vulvar or cervical ulcer. What is the dz and the organism?
genital herpes
HSV-2
Pt presents with urethritis, cervicitis, conjunctivitis, Reiter's syndrome, PIDWhat is the dz and the organism?
Chlamydia trachomatis (D-K)
chlamydia
pt presents with ulcers, lymphadenopathy and rectal strictures What is the dz and the organism?
lymphogranuloma venerium
C. trachomatis (L1-L3)
Pt presnts with vaginitis and strawberry colored mucosa. What is the dz and the organism?
trichomoniasis
trichomonas vaginalis
pt presents with opportunistic infections, Kaposi's sarcoma, lymphoma. What is the dz and the organism?
AIDS
HIV
Pt presents with genital warts and koiocytes. What is the dz and the organism?
condylomata acuminata
HPV 6 & 11
Pt presents with juandice What could the STD be and the organism?
HBV
hepatitis B
pt presents with a painful genital ulcer and inguinal adenopathy. What is the dz and the organism?
Haemophilis ducreyi
Chancroid
Pt preents with a noninflammatory, malodorous discharge; positive whiff test, and clue cells. What is the dz and the organism?
bacterial vaginosis
gardnerella vaginalis
this organism is most likely to cause a subacute undiagnosed pelvic inflammatory dz
chlamydia trachomatis
this bug can often causes an acute high fever PID
Neisseria gonorrhea
this cause of PID is the most common STD in the US (3-4 million cases per year).
C. trachomatis
pt presents with cervical motion tenderness (chandelier sign) purulent cervical discharge. Pt may have salpingitis, endometritis, hydrosalpinx, and tubo-ovarian abscess
PID
salpingitis is a risk factor for the following (give 2)
ectopic pregnancy, infertility, chronic pelvic pain, and adhesions
see clue cells on a prep what STD do you think
Gardnerella
see motile on wet prep what STD do you think
Trichomonas
2 most common nosocomial infections are:
UTI due to ______
Wound infection due to ______
E.coli
S.aureus
most common pathogens causing nosocomial infections in the newborn nursery are (2)
CMV & RSV
most common pathogens causing nosocomial infections in urinary catheterization are
E. coli, Proteus mirabilis
most common pathogen causing nosocomial infections in respiratory therapy equiptment is?
pseudomonas aeruginosa

mneu: presume pseudomonas AIruginosa when AIR or burns are involved
most common pathogens causing nosocomial infections in renal dialysis unit
HBV
most common pathogens causing nosocomial infections in hyperalimentation
candida albicans
most common pathogens causing nosocomial infections in water aerosols
legionella

mneu: legionella when water source is involved
Infections dangerous in pregnancy--ToRCHeS
Toxoplasma
Rubella,
CMV
HSV/HIV
Syphilis
If all else fails think this if dealing with pus, empyema, or an absess
S. aureus
If all else fails think this if dealing with a pediatric infection
H. influenzae
If all else fails think this if dealing with pneumonia in CF or a burn infection
pseudomonas aeruginosa
If all else fails think this if dealing with branching rods in oral infection
actinomyces israelii
If all else fails think this if dealing with a traumatic open wound
Clostridium perfringes
If all else fails think this if dealing with a surgical wound
S. aureus
If all else fails think this if dealing with dog or cat bite
pasteurella muticocida
If all else fails think this if dealing with currant jelly sputum
klebsiella
If all else fails think this if dealing with spesis/meningitis in newborn
group B strep